Category: IOT Objective Questions

IOT Multiple Choice Questions on “Cloud – Powerful Smart Mobile Devices”.

1. IaaS stands for __________
a) Infrastructure as a Service
b) Infrastructure as a Software
c) Internet as a Service
d) Internet as a Software

Answer: a
Clarification: Cloud Computing delivers infrastructure, platform, and software that are provided as services on the usage based payment to end users. These services are Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS).

2. Mobile cloud computing at its simplest refers to an __________
a) Intervention
b) Internet
c) Infrastructure
d) Intervention & Internet

Answer: c
Clarification: Mobile cloud computing at its simplest refers to an infrastructure where both data storage and the data processing happen outside of the mobile devices.

3. Mobile Cloud applications move the __________ Power and __________ away from mobile phone and into cloud.
a) Computing and internet
b) Data storage and computing
c) Computing and data storage
d) Internet and computing

Answer: c
Clarification: Mobile cloud applications move the computing power and data storage away from mobile phones and into the cloud, bringing applications and mobile computing to not just smart phone users but a much broader range of mobile subscribers.

4. SaaS stands for __________
a) Service as a Smartphone
b) Service as a software
c) Smartphone as a service
d) Software as a Service

Answer: d
Clarification: Cloud computing delivers infrastructure, platform, and software that are provided as services on the usage based payment to end users. These services are Software as a Service (SaaS).

5. __________ reduces the development and running cost of mobile applications on smartphone devices.
a) Infrastructure
b) Productive business
c) Software
d) Services

Answer: b
Clarification: It is a productive business choice that transfers data from smartphone devices to powerful and centralized computer platform located in the cloud. Thus reducing the development and running cost of mobile applications on smartphone devices.

6. PaaS stands as __________
a) Platform as a Software
b) Photo as a service
c) Platform as a Service
d) Photo as a Software

Answer: c
Clarification: Cloud Computing delivers infrastructure, platform, and software that are provided as services on the usage based payment to end users. These services are Platform as a Service (PaaS).

7. The architecture of MCC is such that various mobile devices are connected to their respective mobile networks via __________
a) Software
b) Satellite
c) Access point
d) Base Station

Answer: d
Clarification: The architecture of MCC is such that various mobile devices are connected to their respective mobile networks via base station.

8. MCC stands for Mobile Cloud Computation.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: The advancement in cloud computing is leading to an excessive growth of mobile devices that can become powerful means for information access and mobile applications. Introducing a latent technology called Mobile Cloud Computing.

9. __________ is the minimum value which an application shall exceed to be offloaded.
a) Static value
b) Critical value
c) Threshold value
d) Dynamic value

Answer: c
Clarification: Threshold value is the minimum value which an application shall exceed to be offloaded. The threshold value can be measured in terms of processing time, energy consumption and memory usage.

10. Offloading decision depends upon __________ to be offloaded.
a) Size of application
b) Threshold value
c) Critical value
d) Dynamic value

Answer: a
Clarification: Offloading decision depends upon the size of application to be offloaded. It saves energy for a code compilation, if size of the code is large.

11. The part of the code which involves complex computations and requires more time to execute is referred to as __________
a) Static session
b) Threshold session
c) Dynamic session
d) Critical session

Answer: d
Clarification: The part of the code which involves complex computations and requires more time to execute is referred to as critical session. The module of the application if falls under the critical section then it is offloaded.

12. In __________ offloading application is partitioned during development.
a) Static offloading
b) Dynamic offloading
c) Threshold offloading
d) Critical offloading

Answer: a
Clarification: In static offloading application is partitioned during development. In static environment, parameters such as data size and execution time which acts as a deciding factor for offloading are known beforehand.

13. __________ network environment means changing connection status.
a) Static offloading
b) Dynamic offloading
c) Threshold offloading
d) Critical offloading

Answer: b
Clarification: Dynamic network environment means changing connection status and bandwidth that affect the process of offloading.

14. __________ is defined as delay between the offloading and final result.
a) Latency rate
b) Network Bandwidth
c) Heterogeneity
d) Migration Cost

Answer: a
Clarification: Latency rate is defined as delay between the offloading of an application on the cloud and final results to be retracted back to the smartphone.

15. _____________ Depends upon the amount of the code being offloaded.
a) Latency rate
b) Network Bandwidth
c) Heterogeneity
d) Migration Cost

Answer: b
Clarification: Bandwidth Utilization depends on the amount of the code being offloaded. If large amount of data is to be offloaded to the cloud then it ultimately increases the latency rate which in turn affects the efficiency.

IOT Multiple Choice Questions on “Toy Designs”.

1. ________ device, perhaps in the form of doll or toy.
a) Anthropomorphic
b) Devil toy
c) Chunky
d) Teddy

Answer: a
Clarification: Anthropomorphic device, perhaps in the form of doll or toy, may be configured to control one or more media devices.

2. The anthropomorphic device may aim its gaze at the source of ________
a) Interpreter
b) Media device
c) Social cue
d) Transmitter

Answer: c
Clarification: Upon reception or a detection of a social cue, such as movement or spoken word or phase, the anthropomorphic device may aim its gaze at the source of the social cue.

3. The anthropomorphic device may transmit the media device command to ________
a) Social cue
b) Media device
c) Interpreter
d) Transmitter

Answer: b
Clarification: In response to receiving a voice command, the anthropomorphic device may interpret the voice command and map it to a media device command. Then, the device may transmit the media command to a media device.

4. The toy includes ________
a) Microphone
b) Camera
c) Speaker
d) Microphone, camera, and speaker

Answer: d
Clarification: The toys, which include microphones, cameras, speakers and motors, have some people pointing at teddy, the super computer toy.

5. The privacy concerns are ________ when devices have the capacity to record conversations and log activity.
a) Clear
b) Not clear
c) Fluctuating
d) Constant

Answer: a
Clarification: The privacy concerns are clear when devices have the capacity to record conversations and log activity.

6. When we hear about IoT, we think of our ________
a) Microphone
b) Speaker
c) Thermostat
d) Transmitter

Answer: c
Clarification: Usually when you hear about the Internet of Things, you think about it in terms of your thermostat.

7. Sensible objects first game is called Fabulous Beast.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Sensible objects first game is called Fabulous Beast. A multi-player balancing game that fleetwood describes as a cross between Jenga and collectible card pokemon.

8. Hello Barbie does what?
a) Moves its hands
b) Raises its Eyebrow
c) Moves its legs
d) Moves its head

Answer: b
Clarification: Barbie went through hard times as Mattel released Hello Barbie, a cloud connected doll that raised eyebrows amongst parents who were uncomfortable with Barbie listening to children.

9. Does the HelloBarbie connected to cloud?
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Barbie went through hard times as Mattel released Hello Barbie, a cloud connected doll that raised eyebrows amongst parents who were uncomfortable with Barbie listening to children.

10. Using ________ toy will keep interaction between toy and child.
a) Device
b) Motor
c) Driver
d) Engine

Answer: d
Clarification: Using a dialogue engine to utilize some of the most advanced language processing algorithms available driving the personalization of our platform, and keeping the interaction going between toy and child.

11. With set of sensors and app children can do ________
a) Feed
b) Bathe
c) Hatch
d) Feed, bathe and hatch

Answer: d
Clarification: Peppered with his own set of sensors and app children can virtual feed, bathe, and hatch the toy, providing yet another variant of how physical toys and connectivity can merge.

12. ________ introduces children to the concept of computer programming.
a) Lightbot
b) Brain Development
c) Healthy and activity
d) Privacy

Answer: a
Clarification: Lightbot introduces children to the concept of computer programming through fun interactive puzzles.

13. Using what the time can and should be used for encouraging education and imagination.
a) Lightbot
b) Brain Development
c) Healthy and activity
d) Privacy

Answer: b
Clarification: The connected toy should not abuse this already concerning trend, but capitalize on the value it produces. With this children’s should improve education and imagination.

14. By using which of the following the floor of the child plays area turn into an interactive game?
a) Lightbot
b) Brain Development
c) Healthy and activity
d) Privacy

Answer: c
Clarification: Lumo’s Interactive Projector turns the floor of your child play area into an interactive game that encourages running, jumping and all sorts of physical activities, which makes the child healthy and active.

15. ________ the connected toy will warrant significant effort from manufactures.
a) Lightbot
b) Brain Development
c) Healthy and activity
d) Privacy and safety

Answer: d
Clarification: Safety and privacy surrounding the connected toy will warrant significant effort from manufacturers and parents alike.

IOT Multiple Choice Questions on “Microcontroller (8051)”.

1. What do you mean by micro in microcontroller?
a) Distance between 2 IC’s
b) Distance between 2 transistors
c) Size of a controller
d) Distance between 2 pins

Answer: b
Clarification: Micro means 10-6 which gives the distance between 2 element transistors which is called as Micron Technology.

2. What is the bit size of the 8051 microcontroller?
a) 8-bit
b) 4-bit
c) 16-bit
d) 32-bit

Answer: a
Clarification: It is an 8-bit microcontroller which means most of the operations are limited to 8 bit only.

3. Name the architecture and the instruction set for microcontroller?
a) Van- Neumann Architecture with CISC Instruction Set
b) Harvard Architecture with CISC Instruction Set
c) Van- Neumann Architecture with RISC Instruction Set
d) Harvard Architecture with RISC Instruction Set

Answer: b
Clarification: Harvard architecture has different memory spaces for both program memory and data memory with Complex Instruction Set Computer(CISC). The difference between CISC and RISC is RISC has few instructions than CISC. Where as in Van- Neumann, program and data memory are same. Van- Neumann is also called as Princeton architecture.

4. Number of I/O ports in the 8051 microcontroller?
a) 3 ports
b) 4 ports
c) 5 ports
d) 4 ports with last port having 5 pins

Answer: b
Clarification: It has 4 ports with port0 act as I/O port and also multiplexing of address and data bus. Port1act as I/O port. Port 2 act as I/O and also like address lines. Port 3 act as I/O and also for external peripherals.

5. Is ROM is used for storing data storage?
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: RAM is used for storing data storage and ROM is used for storing program memory.

6. SCON in serial port is used for which operation?
a) Transferring data
b) Receiving data
c) Controlling
d) Controlling and transferring

Answer: c
Clarification: There are 2 pins available in serial port. One is used for transmission and other is used for receiving data. SCON is the bit in the serial port which is used for controlling the operation.

7. Program counter stores what?
a) Address of before instruction
b) Address of the next instruction
c) Data of the before execution to be executed
d) Data of the execution instruction

Answer: b
Clarification: Points to the address of the next instruction to be executed from ROM. It is 16 bit register means the 8051 can access program address from 0000H to FFFFH. Total 64KB of code.

8. Auxiliary carry is set during which condition?
a) When carry is generated from D3 to D4
b) When carry is generated from D7
c) When carry is generated from both D3 to D4 and D7
d) When carry is generated at either D3 to D4 or D7

Answer: a
Clarification: When carry is generated from D3 to D4, it is set to 1, it is used in BCD arithmetic.

9. What is order of the assembly and running 8051 program?
i) Myfile.asm
ii) Myfile.lst
iii) Myfile.obj
iv) Myfile.hex
a) i,ii,iii,iv
b) ii,iii,I,iv
c) iv,ii,I,iii
d) iii,ii,I,iv

Answer: a
Clarification: After writing the program in editor and compilation first .asm, .lst, .obj, .hex are created.

10. The use of Address Latch Enable is to multiplex address and data memory.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: That is used for multiplexting address and data ie., the same line carries address and data. To indicate when it carries address, ALE is emitted by 8051.

11. Which pin provides a reset option in 8051?
a) Pin 1
b) Pin 8
c) Pin 11
d) Pin 9

Answer: d
Clarification: Reset pin is utilized to set the micro controller 8051 to its primary values, whereas the micro controller is functioning or at the early beginning of application. The reset pin has to be set elevated for two machine rotations.

12. External Access is used to permit ____________
a) Peripherals
b) Power supply
c) ALE
d) Memory interfacing

Answer: d
Clarification: External Access input is employed to permit or prohibit outer memory interfacing. If there is no outer memory needed, this pin is dragged by linking it to Vcc.

13. What is the address range of SFRs?
a) 80h to feh
b) 00h to ffh
c) 80h to ffh
d) 70h to 80h

Answer: c
Clarification: In 8051 there certain registers which uses the RAM addresses from80h to ffh. These are called as Special Function Registers. Some of the SRFrs are I/o ports and control operations as TCON, SCON, PCON.

14. How many interrupts are there in micro controller?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 4
d) 5

Answer: d
Clarification: An interrupt is an external or internal event that disturbs the microcontroller to inform if that needs its services. There are 5 interrupts :
Timer 0 overflow interrupt
Timer 1 overflow interrupt
External Interrupt 0
External Interrupt 1
Serial port events.

15. Timer 0 is a ________ bit register.
a) 32-bit
b) 8-bit
c) 16-bit
d) 10-bit

Answer: c
Clarification: The Timer 0 is a 16-bit register and can be treated as two 8-bit registers and these can be accessed similarly to any other registers.

IOT Assessment Questions on “Analog to Digital Converter”.

1. Quantization is the method used for conversion?
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: The conversion involves quantization of the input, is it necessarily introduces a small amount of error. Furthermore, instead of continuously performing the conversion, an ADC does the conversion periodically, sampling the input.

2. ENOB stands for_________
a) Effective no of bits
b) Effective no of bytes
c) Efficient no of bits
d) Efficient no of bytes

Answer: a
Clarification: The dynamic range of an ADC is often summarized in terms ofits effective no of bits(ENOB), the number of bits of each measure it returns that are on average not noise. An ideal ADC has an ENOB equal to its resolution.

3. Perfect resolution is possible when?
a) sampling rate greater than thrice the bandwidth of the signal
b) sampling rate greater than twice the bandwidth of the signal
c) sampling rate less than twice the bandwidth of the signal
d) sampling rate less than thrice the bandwidth of the signal

Answer: b
Clarification: If an ADC operates at the sampling rate greater than twice the bandwidth of the signal, then perfect reconstruction is possible given an ideal ADC and neglecting quantization error.

4. Resolution is expressed in __________
a) Bytes
b) Bits
c) Word
d) Nibble

Answer: b
Clarification: The values are usually stored electronically in binary form, so the resolution is usually expressed in bits.

5. The discrete levels available are_________
a) Sides
b) Edges
c) Levels
d) Bytes

Answer: c
Clarification: The number of discrete values available, or levels, is assumed to be power of two.

6. Resolution is expressed in terms of_________
a) Milli volts
b) Ampere
c) Milli ampere
d) Volts

Answer: d
Clarification: Resolution can also be defined electrically, and expressed in volts. The minimum change in voltage required to guarantee a change in the output code level is called least significant bit.

7. The rate of new values is called the sampling rate or sampling frequency.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: The analog signal is continuous I time and it is necessary to convert this to a flow of digital values. It is therefore required to define the rate at which new digital values are sampled from the analog signal. The rate of new values is called the sampling rate or sampling frequency of the converter.

8. How many common ways are there for implementing an ADC?
a) 2 ways
b) 5 ways
c) 8 ways
d) 10 ways

Answer: d
Clarification: The most common ways for implementing ADC are direct conversion, successive approximation, ramp compare, Wilkinson, integrating, delta encoded, pipelined, sigma delta, time interleaved, intermediate FM stage, other types.

9. Other name for data conversion is ________
a) Flash ADC
b) Wilkinson
c) Sigma delta
d) Ramp compare

Answer: a
Clarification: A direct conversion ADC or flash ADC has a bank of comparators sampling the input signal in parallel, each firing for their decoded voltage range.

10. Which ADC narrows the range?
a) Flash ADC
b) Wilkinson
c) Sigma delta
d) Successive approximation

Answer: d
Clarification: A successive approximation ADC uses a comparator to successively narrow a range that contains the input voltage.

11. Clock jitters is caused by __________
a) Sampling rate
b) Spectrum
c) Phase noise
d) Sampling frequency

Answer: c
Clarification: Clock jitter is caused by phase noise. Phase noise is the frequency domain representation of rapid, short term, random fluctuations in the phase of a waveform, caused by time domain instabilities.

12. The analog signal is __________ in __________
a) Continuous, frequency
b) Continuous, time
c) Discrete, frequency
d) Discrete, time

Answer: b
Clarification: The analog signal is continuous in time and it is necessary to convert this to a flow of digital values.

13. Sample and hold circuit is a _______ circuit.
a) Analog device
b) Digital device
c) Both analog and digital
d) Neither analog nor digital

Answer: a
Clarification: An input circuit called a sample and hold performs task, most cases by using a capacitor to store the analog voltage at the input, and using an electronic switch or gate to disconnect the capacitor from the input.

14. Nyquist rate is defined as ___________
a) twice the lowest frequency
b) trice the highest frequency
c) twice the highest frequency
d) trice the lowest frequency

Answer: c
Clarification: Nyqist rate, defined as twice the highest frequency of interest, then all frequencies in the signal can be reconstructed.

15. To avoid aliasing we use a __________ filter.
a) Digital filter
b) Aliasing filter
c) Analog filter
d) Anti-aliasing filter

Answer: d
Clarification: To avoid aliasing, the input to an ADC must be low pass filtered to remove frequencies above half the sampling rate. This filter is called an anti-aliasing filter.

IOT Questions on “IOT Gateway( Wind Intelligent Device)”.

1. Wind River Intelligent Device offers what?
a) Gateway security
b) Application enablement
c) Device Connectivity
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Clarification: Wind River Intelligent Device Platform XT offers:
Gateway security: Secures communication channel, the data and the end device
Application Enablement: Provides JAVA OSGi application environment is provided
Device connectivity: Connection between devices using MQTT protocol
Remote device management: Supports well established management protocol such as TR-069.

2. Pre integrated and smart connectivity enables what?
a) Long term security
b) Products life span increases
c) Saves time and cost
d) Secure remote management

Answer: c
Clarification: Connectivity, manageability, and security are core IoT building blocks, essential for reducing device manufactures, time-to-market, complexity, and risk. Wind River Intelligent Devices has Connectivity benefit which enables rich network option s to save development time and costs.

3. Does manageability provide what?
a) Saves time and cost
b) Product life span increases
c) Long term security
d) Secure remote management

Answer: a
Clarification: Connectivity, manageability, and security are core IoT building blocks, essential for reducing device manufactures, time-to-market, complexity, and risk. Wind River Intelligent Devices has manageability benefit which reduces development time while increases the product‘s life span and uptime.

4. What will Security provide?
a) Saves time and cost
b) Product life span increases
c) Long term security
d) Secure remote management

Answer: c
Clarification: Connectivity, manageability, and security are core IoT building blocks, essential for reducing device manufactures, time-to-market, complexity, and risk. Wind River Intelligent Devices has security benefit which are designed for IoT software development to protect critical data throughout the device lifecycle.

5. Wind River software.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Wind River, a wholly owned subsidiary of Intel corporation, is a world leader in delivering software for intelligent connected systems.

6. Wind River is introduced by ____________
a) IBM
b) Intel
c) Tech Mahindra
d) Syntel

Answer: b
Clarification: Wind River is introduced by Intel.

7. Wind River provides what?
a) Safe and Secure
b) Secure remote management
c) Save time and cost
d) Product life time increases

Answer: a
Clarification: Wind River the technology and expertise that enables the innovation and deployment of safe, secure, and reliable intelligent systems.

8. Which transportation brings new control?
a) Route Navigation
b) Industrial automation
c) Smart Energy
d) Building Automation

Answer: d
Clarification: Building Automation bring new control, visibility, and efficiencies for reducing power consumption, ensuring safety, and providing services to new and existing buildings.

9. Which transportation brings intelligence to their operations?
a) Building Automation
b) Industrial Automation
c) Smart Energy
d) Route Navigation

Answer: b
Clarification: Wind River helps industrial manufactures bring intelligence to their operations. Gain insights from your machine data with smart devices management.

10. Which transportation build more intelligent energy infracture?
a) Building Automation
b) Industrial Automation
c) Smart Energy
d) Route Navigation

Answer: c
Clarification: Smart energy builds more intelligent energy infrastructure by combining traditional and emerging power sources for the delivering of cleaner, safer, and more economical energy. Perform power management tasks with finer precision and faster response time.

IOT Multiple Choice Questions on “Cloud – Runtime Adaption Engine”.

1. QoE stands for _________
a) Quality of Energy
b) Quality of Experience
c) Quality of Envelop
d) Quality of Encryption

Answer: b
Clarification: If the light weight query engine returns a poor result, then the user may have to issue my query redundantly to the cloud based query processing engine with the hope of getting a better result. This may hurt the overall Quality of Experience.

2. The RAE learns the _________ algorithm to learn the most cost effective policy.
a) Logistic Regression
b) Device/cloud algorithm
c) QoE algorithm
d) Anatomous algorithm

Answer: a
Clarification: The RAE learns the logistic regression algorithm to learn the most cost effective policy for distributing the task among devices and cloud, given the resource state.

3. _________ is the weighted sum of resource state, network, and cpu.
a) Logistic Regression
b) Cloud
c) Device
d) Cost function

Answer: d
Clarification: The cost function is the weighted sum of resource state, network, and CPU usage.

4. The policy obtained by running logistic regression is enforced by _________ module.
a) Device/cloud section
b) Only device
c) Only Cloud
d) Cost function

Answer: a
Clarification: The policy obtained by running logistic regression is enforced by Device/cloud section module, based on the expected cost value for a given task.

5. The mechanism of the RAE is _________ which can be deployed on each device and cloud.
a) QoE
b) Logistic regression
c) Anatomous agent
d) Device/cloud

Answer: c
Clarification: The mechanism of the RAE is anatomous agent, which can be deployed on each device and cloud.

6. OAD stands for ___________
a) Optimal Application Distribution
b) Orientational Application Distribution
c) Orientation Application Development
d) Optimal Application Development

Answer: a
Clarification: The exponential growth of cloud service offering in the last year has increased the number of alternative for engineering and re-engineering applications to be partially or completely run in a cloud environment.

7. _________ enables the application developer to enhance the application design.
a) Cloud Blueprint
b) TOSCA standard
c) Both Cloud blueprint and TOSCA standard
d) Utility function

Answer: c
Clarification: TOSCA standard and Cloud Blueprint enable the application developer to enhance the application design by providing the means to model which cloud offering is used to host which parts of the application stack.

8. _________ process must support the analysis and evaluation of the application topology.
a) Support of different Migration types
b) Enrichment of Topology specification
c) Management and Configuration
d) Top-down and bottom-up

Answer: d
Clarification: Top-down and bottom-up application evaluation process must support the analysis and evaluation of the application topology alternatives both based on previous knowledge and empirical analysis, and during the application productive phase.

9. _________ process has to support the definition of application topologies in various formats.
a) Top-down and bottom-up
b) Enrichment of Topology specification
c) Management and Configuration
d) Support of different Migration types

Answer: b
Clarification: Enrichment of Topology specification process has to support the definition of application topologies in various formats such as TOSCA or Blueprints and must consider non-functional aspects specified as extension of the previous formats.

10. Any tool providing _________ process must provide management and configuration for cloud services.
a) Top-down and bottom-up
b) Enrichment of Topology specification
c) Management and Configuration
d) Support of different Migration types

Answer: c
Clarification: Any tool providing Management and Configuration process must provide management and configuration for cloud services from different providers covering all cloud service and delivery models.

11. In order to re- distribute an application _________ process has to support all cloud native and non cloud native applications.
a) Top-down and bottom-up
b) Enrichment of Topology specification
c) Management and Configuration
d) Support of different Migration types

Answer: d
Clarification: In order to re- distribute an application support of different migration types process has to support all cloud native and non cloud native application types identified.

12. _________ process must support the characterization of different adaptation actions.
a) Characterization of adaptation strategies
b) Independence of Architectural Paradigm
c) Support and reaction to application resources
d) Support of hardware

Answer: a
Clarification: Characterization of adaptation strategies process must support the characterization of different adaptation actions that can be used during run time for a given application.

13. In _________ the application to be re directional is based on 3-layered architecture.
a) Characterization of adaptation strategies
b) Independence of Architectural Paradigm
c) Support and reaction to application resources
d) Support of hardware

Answer: b
Clarification: In Independence of Architectural Paradigm the application to be re directional is based on 3-layered architecture, must be supported.

14. As the workload of an application is subjected to fluctuation over time _________ process must support the identification.
a) Characterization of adaptation strategies
b) Independence of Architectural Paradigm
c) Support and reaction to application resources
d) Support of hardware

Answer: c
Clarification: s the workload of an application is subjected to fluctuation over time support and reaction to application resources demand evolution process must support the identification.

15. _________ process must consider such characteristics for optimizing the overall application performance.
a) Characterization of adaptation strategies
b) Independence of Architectural Paradigm
c) Support and reaction to application resources
d) Support of hardware

Answer: d
Clarification: Support of hardware, software, application characteristics process must consider such characteristics for optimizing the overall application performance.