Category: MICROBIOLOGY Objective Questions

Microbiology Multiple Choice Questions on “Morphology and Fine Bacteria – Structures Internal to the Cell Wall”.

1. Polyisoprenoid branched-chain lipids, are present in which of the following?
A. Archaebacteria
B. Eubacteria
C. Archaebacteria and Eubacteria
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: A
Clarification: In Archaebacteria, the lipids are polyisoprenoid branched-chain lipids, in which long-chain branched alcohols(phytanols) are ether linked to glycerol. In Eubacteria, the phospholipids are phosphoglycerides, in which straight-chain fatty acids are ester-linked to glycerol.

2. Cytoplasmic membrane and the cell material bounded by it plus the outer membrane of cell is known as _________
A. Protoplast
B. Cytoplast
C. Spheroplast
D. Cell membrane
Answer: C
Clarification: A protoplast is that portion of a bacterial cell consisting of the cytoplasmic membrane and the cell material bounded by it. When the cell has two membranes, the cytoplasmic membrane of the protoplast plus the outer membrane of the cell wall, the cell is called a spheroplast rather than protoplast.

3. Which among the following is associated with the export of exocellular enzymes?
A. central mesosomes
B. peripheral mesosomes
C. thylakoids
D. nucleus
Answer: B
Clarification: Peripheral mesosomes show only a shallow penetration into the cytoplasm, are not restricted to a central location, and are not associated with nuclear material and they are involved in the export of exocellular enzymes such as penicillinase.

4. Ribosomes of prokaryotes have a sedimentation coefficient of?
A. 90S
B. 80S
C. 50S
D. 70S
Answer: D
Clarification: Ribosomes of prokaryotes have a sedimentation coefficient of 70S and are composed of two subunits, a 50S and a 30S subunit. But the ribosomes of eukaryotes have a sedimentation coefficient of 80S and are composed of a 60S and a 40S subunit.

5. Poly-beta-hydroxybutyrate(PHB. present in aerobic bacteria can serve as?
A. a reserve carbon and energy source
B. a reserve source of phosphate
C. acceptor of oxygen
D. provides buoyancy
Answer: A
Clarification: A polymer found in aerobic bacteria, especially under high-carbon,low-nitrogen culture conditions, is a chlorofoam-soluble, lipid like material, poly-beta-hydroxybutyrate(PHB), which can serve as a reserve carbon and energy source.

6. Which among the following compound when added to cytoplasmic membrane helps in maintaining the rigidity of cell?
A. lipopolysaccharide
B. hopanoid
C. phosphoglycerides
D. amino acids
Answer: B
Clarification: Hopanoids are hydrophobic chemical compounds which when added to the cytoplasmic membrane forms a stable and hard compound that helps in maintaining the rigidity of cell.

7. The nucleoid can be made visible under the light microscope by _________
A. Methylene blue
B. Iodine
C. Nile blue
D. Feulgen staining
Answer: D
Clarification: Bacteria consist of nucleotide, consisting of a single, circular DNA molecule in which all the genes are linked and it is not a discrete nucleus. The nucleoid can be made visible under the light microscope by Feulgen staining,which is specific for DNA.

8. What helps in the heat resistance of the endospore?
A. calcium-DPA complex
B. water
C. methylene
D. calcium
Answer: A
Clarification: All endospores contain large amounts of dipicolinic acid (DPA). It occurs in combination with large amounts of calcium and is probably located in the central part of the spore. The calcium-DPA complex plays a role in the heat resistance of endospores.

9. Cysts also have high heat resistance like endospores.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Clarification: Cysts are dormant, thick-walled, desiccation-resistant forms that develop by differentiation of a vegetative cell and which can later germinate under suitable conditions. In some ways cysts resemble endospores but they do not have the high heat resistance of endospores.

10. Which of the following methods can be utilized for removing peripheral proteins of the cytoplasmic membrane?
A. treatment by detergents
B. osmotic shock
C. heat application
D. destruction of the membrane
Answer: B
Clarification: Peripheral proteins are loosely attached to cytoplasmic membrane and can be removed by mild treatments such as osmotic shock. On the other hand, integral proteins can be removed only by the destruction of the membrane, as with treatment by detergents.

11. Which of the following are true for cytoplasmic membrane?
A. hydrophilic barrier
B. hydrophobic barrier
C. site of generation of protonmotive force
D. hydrophobic barrier and site of generation of protonmotive force
Answer: D
Clarification: The cytoplasmic membrane is a hydrophobic barrier to penetration by most water-soluble molecules. Because of its impermeability to protons, the cytoplasmic membrane is the site of the generation of the proton motive force.

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Microbiology Multiple Choice Questions on “Microbial Metabolism – Biosynthesis of Deoxyribonucleic Acid”.

1. In DNA molecule, the amount of purines is equal to the amount of pyrimidines.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Clarification: In DNA the nitrogenous bases like adenine binds with thymine, and guanine binds with cytosine. As a consequence, the ratio of adenine to thymine or of guanine to cytosine in double stranded DNA is always 1:1. So the amount of purines is equal to the amount of pyrimidines.

2. RNA consists of which combination of bases?
A. Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine
B. Guanine, Cytosine, Uracil
C. Thymine, Adenine, Guanine
D. Adenine, Cytosine, Thymine
Answer: B
Clarification: RNA is composed of nitrogenous bases adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil. They do not contain thymine as present in DNA.

3. Which of the following are features of semiconservative replication?
A. RNA replicates DNA molecule
B. The DNA molecule produced contains two old templates
C. One new DNA helix is formed
D. DNA duplicates itself and the new chain contains old template strand and new complementary strand
Answer: D
Clarification: In semiconservative replication DNA duplication occurs in which one polynucleotide chain acts as a template to direct the synthesis of a new chain complementary to itself. It results in two daughter helices, each containing one old template strand and one new complementary strand.

4. The chromosome of a typical bacterium is ________________
A. circular double-stranded DNA
B. circular single-stranded DNA
C. double-helix DNA
D. single stranded DNA
Answer: A
Clarification: The chromosome of a typical bacterium is a circular double-stranded DNA molecule; that is, the double helix for a complete genome has no free ends.

5. If the chromosome were extended linearly then it would approximately measure?
A. 13500 micrometre
B. 1000 micrometre
C. 1250 micrometre
D. 500 micrometre
Answer: C
Clarification: If the chromosome were extended linearly then it would measure approximately 1250 micrometers or 1.25 mm which is several hundred times longer than the bacterial cell that contains it.

6. The Lambda Bacteriophage carries out which of the following replication methods?
A. Theta mode
B. Sigma mode
C. Linear mode
D. Does not carry out replication
Answer: B
Clarification: The Lambda Bacteriophage follows sigma mode of replication in which the intermediate structures of DNA have sigma conformation. In this replication begins with the cleavage of a phosphodiester bond in one strand of the circular DNA molecule to produce a nick with 3’-OH and 5’-PO4 ends on that strand.

7. Which of the following replication methods leads to the production of two circular daughter chromosomes?
A. Theta mode
B. Sigma mode
C. Linear mode
D. Rolling circle method
Answer: A
Clarification: In Theta mode of replication a circular parental chromosome is replicated to two circular daughter chromosomes, in each of which one strand of the parental DNA molecule is conserved and a complementary strand is newly synthesized.

8. Eukaryotes replicate their DNA from one origin or growing point per molecule.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Clarification: Procaryotes replicate their DNA from one origin or growing point per molecule while eukaryotes replicate from many origins per molecule. Replication may occur in either a unidirectional or bidirectional manner from each origin.

9. DNA gyrase is a ______________ protein.
A. helix-unwinding
B. helix-destabilizing
C. helix-relaxing
D. helix-winding
Answer: C
Clarification: DNA gyrase is a helix-relaxing protein which works along with other enzymes and participates in opening the parental DNA helix ahead of the replication fork.

10. Which of the following enzyme removes the RNA primer with its 5’-nuclease activity?
A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase II
C. DNA polymerase III
D. RNA polymerase
Answer: A
Clarification: DNA polymerase I remove the RNA primer with its 5”-nuclease activity; simultaneously it fills in the gap with DNA via its 3’-polymerase activity.

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Microbiology Multiple Choice Questions on “Some Fungi of Special Interest”.

1. Which fungi causes black wart disease of potato?
A. Saprolegnia parasitica
B. Synchytrium endobioticum
C. Rhizopus stolonifer
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Answer: B
Clarification: Synchytrium endobioticum is the most serious parasite of the class Chytridiomycetes that causes black wart disease of potato. The dark warts on the potatoes are galls in which the host cells have been stimulated to divide by the fungus.

2. Zygomycetes have which type of mycelia?
A. nonseptate
B. septate with uninucleate
C. septate with multi muclei
D. white,nonseptate
Answer: D
Clarification: Morphologically, the mycelia of Zygomycetes are usually white or gray and are nonseptate.

3. In the life cycle of Rhizopus stolonifer,when the protoplasts and nuclei of both gametangia coalesce, the structure is known as ________________
A. progametangia
B. coenozygote
C. zygospore
D. zygote
Answer: B
Clarification: The walls between two gametangia dissolve and their protoplasts coalesce. Nuclei of both mating types fuse in pairs, producing many zygote nuclei. The structure that contains them is then called a coenozygote.

4. Schizosaccharomyces versatilis is isolated from ________________
A. grape juice
B. cheese
C. honey
D. beer
Answer: A
Clarification: Schizosaccharomyces versatilis is isolated from grape juice. It grows like yeast but it can also form a true mycelium.

5. Legitimate copulation refers to ___________________
A. fusion between cells of same mating type
B. fusion between cells of different mating type
C. no fusion
D. different sex cells are present within the same body
Answer: B
Clarification: Fusion normally occurs only between cells of difffering mating types, a process termed as legitimate copulation. Such fusions result in diploid cells which form asci containing viable ascospores.

6. Neurospora sp. is important for the study of _____________________
A. human diseases
B. antibiotics
C. genetics and metabolic pathway
D. plant diseases
Answer: C
Clarification: Neurospora sp. which belongs to the class Ascomycetes is of particular interest to biologists because of its wide use in the study of genetics and metabolic pathways. Some species are also responsible for food spoilage and some are used in industrial fermentation.

7. Cryptococcosis is a disease of ________________
A. bacterial infection
B. parasitic infection
C. viral infection
D. mycotic infection
Answer: D
Clarification: Cryptococcus neoformans is an important basidiomycetous pathogen of humans, causing cryptococcosis, a generalized mycotic infection involving the bloodstream as well as lungs, central nervous system and other organs.

8. Aspergillus niger is used in the production of _______________
A. cheese
B. citric acid
C. gluconic acid
D. citric acid and gluconic acid
Answer: D
Clarification: It is an economically important fungi because they are used in a number of industrial fermentations, including the production of citric acid and gluconic acid in abundance.

9. Endocarditis is caused by which of the following fungi?
A. Candida albicans
B. Penicillium notatum
C. Penicillium chrysogenum
D. Agaricus campestris
Answer: A
Clarification: Candida albicans is often isolated from warm-blooded animals, including humans and becomes pathogenic and causes many serious infections. Endocarditis is caused by this organism and it is an infection of the heart.

10. What do you mean by hypertrophy?
A. repeated cell division
B. infection by zoospore
C. increase in cell volume
D. decrease in cell volume
Answer: C
Clarification: In the wart disease of potato, when the host cell is infected by a zoospore, it reacts by undergoing hypertrophy,i.e., an increase in cell volume, and adjacent cells also enlarge to form the characteristic rosette.

11. Which of the following fungi causes severe epidemic of disease among fish in the natural environment?
A. Saprolegnia ferax
B. Saprolegnia parasitica
C. Neurospora crassa
D. Neurospora sitophila
Answer: B
Clarification: Species of Saprolegnia are common in soil and fresh water; hence they are commonly called water molds. S.parasitica causes severe epidemics of disease among fish in the natural environment.

12. Reproductive organs are formed on the rhizoidal hyphae.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Clarification: The rhizoidal hyphae enter the substratum and serve to anchor the organism and to absorb nutrients, and the branched hyphae is the one on which reproductive organs are formed.

13. Rhizopus produces clusters of rootlike holdfasts called _____________
A. stolons
B. hyphae
C. runners
D. rhizoids
Answer: D
Clarification: The molds produce clusters of rootlike holdfasts called rhizoids. They also produce stolons or runners capable of taking root where that may give rise to new organisms.

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Microbiology Multiple Choice Questions on “Physical Agents”.

1. Among the following which one is the most effective method of killing microorganisms?
A. High temperature
B. Low temperature
C. High temperature, high moisture
D. Low temperature, high moisture
Answer: C
Clarification: High temperatures combined with high moisture are one of the most effective methods of killing microorganisms. It is important to distinguish between dry heat and moist heat in any procedure for microbial control.

2. How much time is required by spores of Clostridium botulinum to be killed by moist heat at 1200C?
A. 2 hours
B. 4 to 20 minutes
C. 24 hours
D. 6-7 hours
Answer: B
Clarification: Spores of Clostridium botulinum are killed in 4 to 20 minutes by moist heat at 1200C, whereas a 2 hours exposure to dry heat at the same temperature is required.

3. Vegetative cells are much more sensitive to heat than are spores.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Clarification: Vegetative cells are much more sensitive to heat than the spores because of the higher level of water activity in the vegetative cells.

4. Which of the following conditions are required for the determination of thermal death time?
A. temperature is varied
B. time is fixed
C. temperature is fixed and time is varied
D. temperature is fixed and time is not selected
Answer: C
Clarification: In thermal death time, the temperature is selected as the fixed point and the time is varied. It refers to the shortest period of time to kill a suspension of bacteria or spores at a prescribed temperature and under specific conditions.

5. Which of the following apparatus is used to provide steam under regulated pressure?
A. autoclave
B. laminar air flow
C. incubator
D. hot oven
Answer: A
Clarification: The laboratory apparatus designed to use steam under regulated pressure is called an autoclave. It is essentially a double-jacketed steam chamber that can maintain steam under pressure and temperature.

6. The general pressure at which the autoclave is operated is ___________
A. 5 Psi
B. 20 Psi
C. 15 Psi
D. 40 Psi
Answer: C
Clarification: Generally the autoclave is operated at a pressure of approximately 15 Psi at 121.50C. It is not the pressure that kills the organisms but the temperature of the steam.

7. Some amount of air is also essential inside the chamber of the autoclave.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Clarification: In the operation of an autoclave it is absolutely essential that the air in the chamber be completely replaced by saturated steam. If air is present, it will reduce the temperature obtained within the chamber substantially below.

8. Which of the following methods is used for killing microorganisms of only certain types and not all microorganisms?
A. Pasteurization
B. Incineration
C. Boiling water
D. Fractional Sterilization
Answer: A
Clarification: In pasteurization, milk, cream, and certain alcoholic beverages are subjected to a controlled heat treatment that kills microorganisms of certain types but does not destroy all organisms.

9. Which of the following instruments is used to perform tyndallization?
A. Autoclave
B. Steam Arnold
C. Gas oven
D. Incubator
Answer: B
Clarification: For tyndallization or fractional sterilization the apparatus used is the Steam Arnold however an autoclave can also be used if a free-flowing steam is used.

10. Which of the following actions occur due to low temperature?
A. coagulation of proteins
B. death of microorganisms
C. rate of metabolism is reduced
D. denatures proteins
Answer: C
Clarification: Temperatures below the optimum for growth depresses the rate of metabolism and if the temperature is sufficiently low, growth and metabolism ceases. Low temperature are also useful for the preservation of cultures.

11. Which of the following are resistant to desiccation?
A. gonococci
B. streptococci
C. meningococci
D. bacillus
Answer: B
Clarification: Streptococci are much more resistant to dessication, some survive weeks after being dried but species of Gram-negative cocci are very sensitive to dessication.

12. Passage of water from a low solute concentration into the cell is referred to as ______________
A. plasmoptysis
B. plasmolysis
C. isotonic
D. hypertonic
Answer: A
Clarification: The passage of water from a low solute concentration into the cell is termed plasmoptysis. The pressure built up within the cell as a result of this water intake is termed osmotic pressure.

13. Which of the following radiations have the energy to knock electrons away from molecules and ionize them?
A. Non-ionizing radiations
B. Acoustic radiations
C. Subatomic particles
D. Ionizing radiations
Answer: D
Clarification: Gamma rays and x-rays are called ionizing radiations because they have enough energy to knock electrons away from molecules and ionize them. When such radiations pass through cells, they create free hydrogen radicals, hydroxyl radicals and some peroxides which causes intracellular damage.

14. Wavelengths around ___________ have the highest bactericidal efficiency.
A. 150 Å
B. 3900 Å
C. 2650 Å
d)1500 Å
Answer: C
Clarification: The ultraviolet portion of the spectrum includes all radiations from 150 to 3900 Å. Wavelengths around 2650 Å have the highest bactericidal efficiency.

15. Which of the following inhibits DNA replication?
A. cathode rays
B. UV light
C. x-rays
D. gamma rays
Answer: B
Clarification: Ultraviolet light is absorbed by many cellular materials but most significantly by the nucleic acids where it does the most damage. Pyrimidine dimers are formed due to which DNA replication is inhibited and mutations can result.

16. Which material is used for the Berkefeld filter?
A. diatomaceous earth
B. asbestos pad
C. porcelain
D. sintered glass disks
Answer: A
Clarification: Filters can remove microorganisms from liquids or gases. The Berkefeld filter is made up of diatomaceous earth.

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Microbiology Multiple Choice Questions on “Microbial Flora of Fresh Foods”.

1. Which of the following organism occurs on the skin of fresh poultry?
A. pseudomonads
B. staphylococci
C. micrococci
D. enterococci
Answer: A
Clarification: Pseudomonads constitute the major contaminants on the skin of freshly dressed poultry.

2. What is the pH of the bananas?
A. 2.3
B. 5.0
C. 7.0
D. 12.0
Answer: B
Clarification: The pH of fruits is relatively acid ranging from 2.3 for lemons to 5.0 for bananas. This restricts bacterial growth but does not retard fungal growth.

3. Raw milk of good sanitary quality will develop sweet flavour.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Clarification: Raw milk of good sanitary quality will develop a clean, sour flavour. This change is brought about mainly by Streptococcus lactis and S.cremoris.

4. At what temperature pasteurization of milk takes place?
A. 650 C
B. 370 C
C. 62.80 C
D. 450 C
Answer: C
Clarification: The holding method of pasteurization exposes milk to a temperature of 62.80 C for 30 mins.

5. Which among the following is a gas producer organism?
A. Streptococcus lactis
B. Lactobacillus fermentum
C. Micrococcus luteus
D. Clostridium butyricum
Answer: D
Clarification: Clostridium butyricum causes fermentation of lactose with accumulation of gas. The gas may be a mixture of carbon dioxide and hydrogen or only carbon dioxide in case of yeast fermentation.

6. Which among the following group of microorganisms are found in the ducts of cow’s mammary glands?
A. Coliforms
B. Lactobacilli
C. Micrococci
D. Microbacteria
Answer: C
Clarification: Micrococci such as Micrococcus luteus, Micrococcus varians are found in the ducts of cow’s mammary glands and dairy utensils. They are acid producers and are weakly proteolytic.

7. The coloration of the milk is caused by which of the following organism?
A. Pseudomonas sp.
B. Bacillus sp.
C. Penicillium sp.
D. Streptococcus sp.
Answer: A
Clarification: Pseudomonas sp. may produce coloration of milk. End products of proteolysis may impart abnormal flavor or odor to the milk.

8. In which of the following biochemical types of microorganisms a slime layer or capsule is formed on the cells?
A. Acid producers
B. Gas producers
C. Ropy or stringy fermentation
D. Proteolytic
Answer: C
Clarification: In Ropy or stringy fermentation, organisms synthesize a viscous polysaccharide material that forms a slime layer or capsule on the cells. They include Alcaligenes viscolactis, Enterobacter aerogenes, etc.

9. Tuberculosis brucellosis is caused by the pathogen from an infected cow.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Clarification: Pathogen from infected cow are transmitted through milk to humans or cow and causes tuberculosis brucellosis, mastitis.

10. Which of the following type of spoilage occurs in fresh meat?
A. Souring
B. Greening
C. Putrefaction
D. Moldy
Answer: C
Clarification: Fresh meat is spoiled by putrefaction and is caused by Alcaligenes, Clostridium, Proteus vulgaris etc. In putrefaction, the protein foods are degraded by proteolytic microorganisms to give amino acids, amines, ammonia and hydrogen sulphide.

11. Spoilage of bread is caused by which of the following microorganism(s)?
A. Saccharomyces
B. Rhizopus
C. Leuconostoc
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: B
Clarification: Moldy and ropy type of spoilage occurs in bread which are caused by Rhizopus nigricans, Penicillium, Aspergillus niger and Bacillus subtilis.

12. The thermophilic anaerobe spoilage of low and medium acid canned products are caused by _____________
A. Bacilllus stearothemophilus
B. Clostridium thermosaccharolyticum
C. Bacillus thermoacidurans
D. Clostridium sporogenes
Answer: B
Clarification: Thermophilic anaerobe spoilage of low and medium acid canned products such as corn, peas, spinach are caused by Clostridium thermosaccharolyticum. It can swells and may burst.

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Microbiology Question Bank focuses on “Infection Process – Events in Infection Following Penetration”.

1. Gas gangrene is caused by which of the following microorganisms?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. E.coli
Answer: B
Clarification: Anaerobic bacteria, Clostridium perfringens, causes wound infection gas gangrene.

2. The characteristic lesion, abscess caused by Staphylococcus aureus is a type of non-localized infection.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Clarification: The characteristic lesion, abscess caused by Staphylococcus aureus, is a walled-off cavity in the tissues containing the staphylococci, numerous white blood cells, etc. This is a type of localized infection.

3. Which of the following condition is false for tissue invasion by C.perfringens?
A. anaerobic condition of the wound
B. production of large amounts of hydrogen gas
C. production of small amounts of hydrogen gas
D. release of toxins
Answer: C
Clarification: Production of large amounts of hydrogen gas by the bacteria contributes to the rapidity of tissue invasion.

4. Amputation is the only way to stop the spread of C.perfringens to the rest of the body.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Clarification: Amputation of an affected limb is often the only way to stop the spread of C.perfringens to the rest of the body.

5. What is the shape of the lymph nodes?
A. tubular
B. circular
C. cuboidal
D. ovoid
Answer: D
Clarification: Lymph nodes are ovoid structures ranging in size from one to several millimeters and are widely distributed throughout the body.

6. Lymph enters a lymph node by several _________________
A. lymphatic trunks
B. lymphatic vessels
C. lymphatic ducts
D. arteries
Answer: B
Clarification: Lymph enters a lymph node by any of several lymphatic vessels, passes through the lymph node along tortuous, winding channels, and emerges via a single efferent lymph vessel.

7. Which microbe causes the disease erysipelas?
A. S. pyogenes
B. C. perfringens
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. E.coli
Answer: A
Clarification: Erysipelas, an inflammatory disease of the skin is caused by S. pyogenes. The painful lesions are spread by invasion of the lymphatic system of the subepidermal tissue.

8. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a bubo?
A. inflamed
B. sore when infected
C. small
D. free from bacteria
Answer: C
Clarification: The lymph node removes nearly all of the bacteria that enters it, and it may become inflamed, enlarged, and sore when infected and in this condition it is sometimes called a bubo.

9. Where does Neisseria meningitidis reach after entering the body?
A. kidney
B. intestine
C. nasopharynx
D. meninges
Answer: D
Clarification: Neisseria meningitidis present in the nasopharynx can reach the meninges (membranes that cover the brain and spinal corD. by means of transient bacteremia.

10. Which of the following microorganism can cause acute renal failure?
A. Leptospira
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Bacillus anthracis
Answer: A
Clarification: By means of bacteremia, spirochetes of the genus Leptospira can reach the kidneys, where they may eventually cause acute renal failure.

11. Which of the following disease is caused by the pathogen directly infecting the lymphatic system?
A. meningitis
B. typhoid fever
C. renal failure
D. anemia
Answer: B
Clarification: In typhoid fever, Salmonella typhi after penetrating through the epithelial cells, enter the lymphatic system, and reach the mesenteric lymph nodes.

12. Which of the following disease is an example of septicemic infection?
A. typhoid fever
B. meningitis
C. anthrax
D. renal failure
Answer: C
Clarification: Anthrax is an example of septicemic infection in which the number of Bacillus anthracis organisms may often exceed the number of erythrocytes in the blood.

To practice Microbiology Question Bank, .