300+ TOP MCQs on Bond Energy and Answers

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MCQs on Bond Energy :

1. Which bond is most polar?
(A) N-F
(B) C-O
(C) O-F
(D) C-F

Answer

Answer: (d)

2. On the basis of octet rule, which bond is not present in gaseous nitrogen pentoxide molecule?
(A) covalent bonds
(B) coordinate bond
(C) electrovalent bond
(D) both electrovalent and coordinate bonds

Answer

Answer: (c)

3. Back pi donation exist in
(A) NF3
(B) NH3
(C) BF3
(D) BF4

Answer

Answer: (c)

4. What is correct about bond order?
(A) it always has an integral value
(B) it can have any value positive, integral or fraction including zero
(C) it can have any value greater than zero
(D) all the above statements are correct

Answer

Answer: (b)

5. In which of the following molecules, the bond lengths around the central atom are not equal?
(A) SF6
(B) PF5
(C) PCl3
(D) BF3

Answer

Answer: (b)

6. Which one among the following has the highest bond order according to MO theory?
(A) BN
(B) CO
(C) F2
(D) Ne2

Answer

Answer: (b)

7. The weak forces between molecules are called
(A) molecular forces
(B) intermolecular forces
(C) intramolecular forces
(D) extramolecular forces

Answer

Answer: (b)

8. Bond energy refers to the
(A) energy required to make a mole of a compound
(B) energy required to break a mole of a compound
(C) energy required to carry out sublimation
(D) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b)

9. In O-C-O the bond angle is
(A) 180o
(B) 87.5o
(C) 120o
(D) 109.5o

Answer

Answer: (a)

10. The energy which is required to break 1 mole of a given bond is called
(A) bond energy
(B) molar energy
(C) molar bond energy
(D) bond breaking energy

Answer

Answer: (a)

300+ TOP MCQs on Chemical Kinetics and Answers Quiz Exam

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MCQs on Chemical Kinetics :

1. The rate of a chemical reaction tells us about
(A) the reactants taking part in the reaction
(B) the products formed in the reaction
(C) how slow or fast the reaction is taking place
(D) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c)

2. In the rate equation, when the concentration of reactants is unity then the rate is equal to
(A) specific rate constant
(B) average rate constant
(C) instantaneous rate constant
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a)

3. The average rate and instantaneous rate of a reaction are equal
(A) at the start
(B) at the end
(C) in the middle
(D) when two rates have a time interval equal to zero

Answer

Answer: (d)

4. Which of the following observations is incorrect about the order of a reaction?
(A) Order of a reaction is always a whole number
(B) The stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants doesn’t affect the order
(C) Order of reaction is the sum of power to express the rate of reaction to the concentration terms of the reactants.
(D) Order can only be assessed experimentally

Answer

Answer: (a)

5. The rate constant of  zero order reactions has the unit
(A) s-1
(B) mol L-1 s-1
(C) L2 mol-2 s-1
(D) L mol-1 s-1

Answer

Answer: (a)

6. In the reaction 2A + B → A2B, if the concentration of A is doubled and that of B is halved, then the rate of the reaction will
(A) increase 2 times
(B) increase 4 times
(C) decrease 2 times
(D) remain the same

Answer

Answer: (a)

7. The reactant Vs time concentration diagram for a reaction is a straight line with a negative pendulum. The reaction follows an equation for the intensity.
(A) zero order
(B) first order
(C) second order
(D) third order

Answer

Answer: (a)

8. A substance ‘A’ decomposes by a first order reaction starting initially with [A] = 2.00M and after 200min, [A] becomes 0.15M. For this reaction t1/2 is
(A) 53.72 min
(B) 50.49 min
(C) 48.45 min
(D) 46.45 min

Answer

Answer: (a)

9. In the Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia the following catalyst is used
(A) Platinized asbestos
(B) Iron with molybdenum as a promoter
(C) Copper oxide
(D) Alumina

Answer

Answer: (b)

10. In a reversible reaction, the energy of activation of the forward reaction is 50 kcal. The energy of activation for the reverse reaction will be
(A) < 50 kcal
(B) either greater than or less than 50 kcal
(C) = 50 kcal
(D) > 50 kcal

Answer

Answer: (b)

300+ TOP MCQs on 2nd and 3rd Law of Thermodynamics and Entropy and Answers

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MCQs on 2nd and 3rd Law of Thermodynamics and Entropy :

1. Which of the following processes is used to do maximum work done on the ideal gas that is compressed to half of its initial volume?
(A) isothermal
(B) isochoric
(C) isobaric
(D) adiabatic

Answer

Answer: (d)

2. What is the ratio of Cp/Cv for gas if the pressure of the gas is proportional to the cube of its temperature and the process is an adiabatic process?
(A) 2
(B) 3/2
(C) 4/3
(D) 5/3

Answer

Answer: (b)

3. The coefficient performance of a refrigerator is 5. Calculate the heat rejected to the surrounding if the temperature inside the freezer is -20oC
(A) 11oC
(B) 41oC
(C) 21oC
(D) 31oC

Answer

Answer: (d)

4. What is a necessary condition for a reaction to be spontaneous at all temperatures?
(A) 𐤃H < 𐤃G
(B) 𐤃G and H should be positive
(C) 𐤃H = 𐤃G = 0
(D) 𐤃G and 𐤃H should be negative

Answer

Answer: (d)

5. Which of the following factor affects the heat of reaction based on Kirchhoff equation?
(A) molecularity
(B) temperature
(C) pressure
(D) volume

Answer

Answer: (b)

6. Chemical dissociation is
(A) exothermic
(B) reversible
(C) endothermic
(D) reversible and endothermic

Answer

Answer: (d)

7. Which of the following is the largest unit of energy?
(A) electron volt
(B) joule
(C) calorie
(D) erg

Answer

Answer: (c)

8. A perfect black body has a unique characteristic feature as
(A) a good absorber only
(B) a good radiator
(C) a good absorber and a good radiator
(D) neither a radiator nor an absorber

Answer

Answer: (c)

9. A thermodynamic process where no heat is exchanged with the surroundings is
(A) isothermal
(B) adiabatic
(C) isobaric
(D) isotropic

Answer

Answer: (b)

10. Which of the following laws was formulated by Nernst?
(A) First law of thermodynamics
(B) Second law of thermodynamics
(C) Third law of thermodynamics
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c)

300+ TOP MCQs on Cell Constant and Electrochemical Cells and Answers

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MCQs on Cell Constant and Electrochemical Cells :

1. Oxygen has a +2 oxidation state in
(A) H2O
(B) H2O2
(C) F2O
(D) SO2

Answer

Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent?
(A) Li
(B) Na
(C) Mg
(D) Ca

Answer

Answer: (a)

3. When the salt bridge is removed from a cell, its voltage
(A) will increase
(B) will decrease to half
(C) will decrease to zero
(D) will not change

Answer

Answer: (c)

4. When a dilute solution of H2SO4 is electrolysed using a platinum electrode, at anode the gas evolved is
(A) SO3
(B) SO2
(C) H2
(D) O2

Answer

Answer: (d)

5. The oxidation number of sulphur in Caro’s acid is
(A) +4
(B) +5
(C) +6
(D) +8

Answer

Answer: (c)

6. Which of the following is the most powerful reducing agent?
(A) H2S
(B) H2SO3
(C) SnCl2
(D) HNO2

Answer

Answer: (a)

7. Which of the following substances can act as both oxidising and reducing agent?
(A) KMnO4
(B) K2Cr2O7
(C) HNO3
(D) H2O2

Answer

Answer: (d)

8. Electrolytes conduct electric current
(A) by the movement of ions
(B) by the movement of atoms
(C) by the movement of molecules
(D) by the movement of electrons from the cathode to anode

Answer

Answer: (d)

9. The reductant may be defined as a substance, whose oxidation no of the atom
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains constant
(D) may increases or decreases

Answer

Answer: (a)

10. Which of the following is not an example of an oxidizing agent?
(A) hydrogen peroxide
(B) potassium dichromate
(C) nitric acid
(D) hydrogen sulphide

Answer

Answer: (d)

11. The conductance in electrolyte conductors is due to
(A) Either movement of electrons or ions
(B) The flow of free mobile electrons
(C) Movement of ions
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c)

12. The cell constant of a conductivity cell
(A) Changes with a change of concentration of electrolyte
(B) Remains constant for a cell
(C) changes with a change of electrolyte
(D) changes with change in temperature

Answer

Answer: (b)

300+ TOP MCQs on Organic compounds containing Nitrogen and Answers

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MCQs on Organic compounds containing Nitrogen :

1. Acetamide can be converted to methenamine by which of the following reactions?
(A) Stephen’s reaction
(B) Hoffmann bromamide reaction
(C) Carbylamine reaction
(D) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis

Answer

Answer: (b)

2. An aldehyde on reaction with primary amine forms
(A) ketone
(B) Schiff’s base
(C) aromatic acid
(D) carboxylic acid

Answer

Answer: (b)

3. Benzene-diazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly basic medium gives
(A) Diphenyl ether
(B) p-hydroxyazobenzene
(C) Chlorobenzene
(D) Benzene

Answer

Answer: (b)

4. Which one of the following does not contain the -COOH group?
(A) Picric acid
(B) Aspirin
(C) Benzoic acid
(D) Ethanoic acid

Answer

Answer: (a)

5. C3H9N  can have how many structural isomers?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Answer

Answer: (c)

6. Products formed when Nitrobenzene reacts with HNO3/H2SO4 at 80-100°C
(A) 1, 4-Dinitrobenzene
(B) 1, 2, 4-Trinitrobenzene
(C) 1, 2-Dinitrobenzene
(D) 1, 3-Dinitrobenzene

Answer

Answer: (d)

7. Benzene forms Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO3/H2SO4, in the reaction HNOacts as a 
(A) catalyst
(B) reducing agent
(C) base
(D) acid

Answer

Answer: (c)

8. The bad-smelling substance formed by the action of alcoholic caustic potash on chloroform and aniline is
(A) Phenyl Isocyanide
(B) Nitrobenzene
(C) Chloropicrin
(D) Acetylene

Answer

Answer: (a)

9. Which of the following compound will form secondary amine on reaction with LiAlH4?
(A) Methyl cyanide
(B) Methyl isocyanide
(C) Acetamide
(D) Nitroethane

Answer

Answer: (b)

10. Find the compound which is more basic than aniline
(A) Diphenylamine
(B) Triphenylamine
(C) Benzylamine
(D) p-Nitroaniline

Answer

Answer: (c)

300+ TOP MCQs on Organic Chemistry and Answers

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MCQs on Organic Chemistry :

1. Which is the best-suited method for the separation of para and ortho-nitrophenols from 1:1 mixture?
(A) crystallisation
(B) chromatography
(C) sublimation
(D) steam distillation

Answer

Answer: (d)

2. Find the incorrect statement for a nucleophile
(A) A nucleophile is a Lewis acid
(B) Nucleophiles do not seek electron
(C) Ammonia is a nucleophile
(D) Nucleophiles attack low electron density sites

Answer

Answer: (a)

3. Which among the following is the most deactivating meta-directing group in aromatic substitution reaction?
(A) -COOH
(B) -SO3H
(C) -NO2
(D) -CN

Answer

Answer: (c)

4. Ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of the soil sample in the Kjeldahl’s method for nitrogen estimation, neutralises 10 ml of 1M H2SO4. Find the percentage of nitrogen present in the soil
(A) 35.33
(B) 37.33
(C) 43.33
(D) 45.33

Answer

Answer: (b)

5. The correct order of increasing nucleophilicity is
(A) Cl < Br < I
(B) Br < Cl < I
(C) I < Br < Cl
(D) I < Cl < Br

Answer

Answer: (a)

6. Homologous series of alkanols have a general formula
(A) CnH2nO2
(B) CnH2nO
(C) CnH2n+1O
(D) CnH2n+2O

Answer

Answer: (d)

7. Find the compound which undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction exclusively by an SN1 mechanism
(A) Benzyl chloride
(B) Chlorobenzene
(C) Ethyl chloride
(D) Isopropyl chloride

Answer

Answer: (a)

8. Which of the following methods is best suited for the separation of a mixture containing naphthalene and benzoic acid
(A) Crystallisation
(B) Chromatography
(C) Sublimation
(D) Distillation

Answer

Answer: (c)

9. How many structural isomers are possible if one hydrogen in diphenylmethane is replaced by chlorine?
(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 6

Answer

Answer: (b)

10. Why do we boil the extract with conc. HNO3 in Lassaigne’s test for halogens?
(A) to increase the concentration of NO3 ions
(B) to increase the solubility product of AgCl
(C) it increases the precipitation of AgCl
(D) for the decomposition of Na2S and NaCN formed

Answer

Answer: (d)