Category: NEET Physics Objective Questions

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs with Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution . NEET Physics Oscillation Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Oscillation :

1. The time period of a simple pendulum is T remaining at rest inside a lift. Find the time period of the pendulum when the lift starts to move up with an acceleration of g/3
(A) T
(B) T/2
(C) 2T/5
(D) T√3/2

Answer

Answer: (D) T√3/2

2. The length of the second’s pendulum on the surface of the earth is 1m. The length of the same pendulum on the surface of the moon, where the acceleration due to gravity is (⅙)^th of the g on the surface of the earth is
(A) 36 m
(B) 1m
(C) 1/36 m
(D) ⅙ m

Answer

Answer: (D) ⅙ m

3. The displacement of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is given by,x= 8 sin ωt + 6 cos ωt, where distance is in cm and time is in second. The amplitude of motion is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 14 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) 3.5 cm

Answer

Answer: (A) 10 cm

4. A particle executes S.H.M of amplitude A. At what distance from the mean position is its kinetic energy equal to its potential energy?
(A) 0.51 A
(B) 0.61 A
(C) 0.71 A
(D) 0.81 A

Answer

Answer: (C) 0.71 A

5. A simple pendulum on length l and mass m is suspended vertically. The string makes an angle θ with the vertical. The restoring force acting on the pendulum is
(A) mg tanθ
(B) mg sinθ
(C) – mg sinθ
(D) – mg cosθ

Answer

Answer: (C) – mg sinθ

6. The mass and diameter of a planet are twice those of earth. The period of oscillation of pendulum on this planet will be (if it is a second’s pendulum on earth)
(A) 1/√2 second
(B) 2 x √2 second
(C) 2 second
(D) ½ second

Answer

Answer: (B) 2 x √2 second

7. A particle of mass m is hanging vertically by an ideal spring of force constant k. If the mass is made to oscillate vertically, its total energy is
(A) Maximum at extreme position
(B) Maximum at mean position
(C) Minimum at mean position
(D) Same at all positions

Answer

Answer: (D) Same at all positions

8. A a place where g = 980 cm/sec² the length of seconds pendulum is about
(A) 50 cm
(B) 100 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) 2 m

Answer

Answer: (B) 100 cm

9. The maximum velocity for a particle in S.H.M is 0.16 m/s and maximum acceleration is 0.64 m/s^{2 .}The amplitude is
(A) 4 x 10^-2 m
(B) 4 x 10^-1 m
(C) 4 x 10 m
(D) 4 x 10⁰ m

Answer

Answer: (A) 4 x 10^-2 m

10. For a magnet of a time period T magnetic moment is M. If the magnetic moment becomes one-fourth of the initial value, then the time period of oscillation becomes
(A) Half of the initial value
(B) One-fourth of the initial value
(C) Double of the initial value
(D) Four times the initial value

Answer

Answer: (C) Double of the initial value

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs with Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution . NEET Physics Optical Microscope Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Optical Microscope :

1. What is the ratio of resolving power of an optical microscope for wavelengths λ₁= 4000 Å and λ₂= 6000 Å?
(A) 2:3
(B) 3:2
(C) 6:25
(D) 16:9

Answer

Answer: (B) 3:2

2. Two identical glass (μ_g=3/2) equi – convex lenses of focal length f each are kept in contact. The space between the two lenses is filled with water ((μ_w=4/3). The focal length of the combination is
(A) f/3
(B) f
(C) 4f/3
(D) 3f/4

Answer

Answer: (D) 3f/4

3. The objective and the eye-piece of the compound microscope having a focal length of 0.95 cm and 5 cm, respectively, are kept at a distance of 20 cm. At a distance of 25 cm the large image is formed. Calculate the total magnification.
(A) 84
(B) 80
(C) 94
(D) 75

Answer

Answer: (C) 94

4. A vertical microscope is focused on a point at the bottom of an empty tank. Then water (μ=4/3) is poured into the tank up to a height of 4 cm. After which a liquid that does not mix with water is poured over it up to a height of 2 cm above the water. The refractive index of the liquid is 3/2. What should be the vertical distance through which the microscope must be moved to bring the object in focus again?
(A) 2.61 cm
(B) 1.67 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 4.1 cm

Answer

Answer: (B) 1.67 cm

5. Using a microscope a glass plate of 5 mm is viewed from the above. The microscope is lowered by 3 mm to view the bottom surface of the glass. What is the refractive index of the glass?
(A) 2
(B) 1.66
(C) 2.25
(D) 1.4

Answer

Answer: (B) 1.66

6. A microscope is used to focus on an object at the bottom of a beaker. The microscope is raised by 1 cm. To what height should the water be poured to bring the object in focus again. Refractive index of water is 4/3.
(A) 1 cm
(B) 4/3 cm
(C) 4 cm
(D) 3 cm

Answer

Answer: (C) 4 cm

7. Resolving power of a microscope depends upon
(A) The focal length and aperture of the eye lens
(B) The focal length and objective of the eye lens
(C) The apertures of the objective and the eye lens
(D) The wavelength of light illuminating the object

Answer

Answer: (D) The wavelength of light illuminating the object

8. The magnification power of a compound microscope does not depend upon
(A) The focal length and aperture of the eye lens
(B) The apertures of the objective lens
(C) Tube length of the microscope
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (B) The apertures of the objective lens

9. Differentiation capacity of a compound microscope is
(A) 27.5 μm
(B) 2.75 μm
(C) 0.275 μm
(D) None

Answer

Answer: (C) 0.275 μm

10. Resolving power of light microscope is
(A) 2 mm
(B) 0.2 mm
(C) 0.1 mm
(D) 1 mm

Answer

Answer: (B) 0.2 mm

(A) 263.566 N and 215.2 N
(B) 463.566 N and 415.2 N
(C) 663.566 N and 615.2 N
(D) 863.566 N and 815.2 N

Answer

Answer: (A) 263.566 N and 215.2 N

10. In the figure given below, the advertisement board having a mass of 6 kg is suspended by two strings which makes an angle of 45⁰ with the signboard. How much is the tension in both the strings?
(A) 21.6 N
(B) 41.6 N
(C) 61.6 N
(D) 81.6 N

Answer

Answer: (B) 41.6 N

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs with Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution . NEET Physics Second Law of Motion Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Second Law of Motion :

1. A bullet of 5 gms travels with a velocity of 100 m/sec. It penetrates a wooden block up to 6 cm. What is the average force imposed on the block by the bullet?
(A) 0
(B) 417 N
(C) 830 N
(D) 830 N

Answer

Answer: (B) 417 N

2. The second law of motion gives the measure of which of the following?
(A) Force
(B) Acceleration
(C) Momentum
(D) Angular Momentum

Answer

Answer: (A) Force

3. What is the velocity of a body of mass 5 gm if a force of 100 dynes acts on the body for 10 seconds?
(A) 2000 cm/sec
(B) 200 cm/sec
(C) 20 cm/sec
(D) 2 cm/sec

Answer

Answer: (B) 200 cm/sec

4. An object will possess uniform motion as long as the
(A) resultant force acting on it begins to decrease
(B) resultant force on acting on it increases continuously
(C) resultant force is right angles to its rotation
(D) resultant force acting on it is zero

Answer

Answer: (D) resultant force acting on it is zero

5. What is the accelerating force on the Diwali rocket if it ejects 0.05 kg of gases per second at a velocity fo 400 m/s?
(A) 20 N
(B) 20 dynes
(C) 1000 N
(D) 22 dynes

Answer

Answer: (A) 20 N

6. A coin dropped in the lift takes time t1 to reach the floor when the lift is stationary and time t2 when the lift moves with a constant acceleration. Which of the following relation is true?
(A) t₁>t₂
(B) t₂>t₁
(C) t₁=t₂
(D) t₁>>t₂

Answer

Answer: (A) t₁>t₂

7. A person standing in the elevator finds his weight to be lesser than his actual weight in which of the following cases?
(A) When the elevator moves upward with constant acceleration
(B) When the elevator moves downward with constant acceleration
(C) When the elevator moves upward with constant velocity
(D) When the elevator moves downward with constant velocity

Answer

Answer: (B) When the elevator moves downward with constant acceleration

8. A parachutist weighing w strikes the ground with his legs fixed and comes to rest with an upward acceleration of 3 g. What is the force exerted by him during landing?
(A) w
(B) 2w
(C) 3w
(D) 4w

Answer

Answer: (D) 4w

9. A man stands on a weighing machine in the lift. When the lift is stationary his weight is recorded as 40 kg. If the lift accelerates upwards with an acceleration of 2 m/s² what weight will the machine show?
(A) 40 kg
(B) 48 kg
(C) 42 kg
(D) 32 kg

Answer

Answer: (B) 48 kg

10. Two trolleys of mass m and 3m are connected by a string. When they are compressed and released, they move off in opposite directions and come to rest after covering a distance of S1 and S2 respectively. Assuming the coefficient of friction to be constant, the ratio of S1: S2 is
(A) 1:9
(B) 1:3
(C) 3:1
(D) 9:1

Answer

Answer: (D) 9:1

11. What will happen if the body at rest is made to move in a straight line and obstructed by an opposite force?
(A) The body slows down
(B) The body changes direction
(C) The body will continue to move in the same direction with the same speed
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (A) The body slows down

12. What is the apparent weight of the body travelling upwards with an acceleration of 2 m/s² and has a mass of 10 kg?
(A) 198 N
(B) 140 N
(C) 118 N
(D) 164 N

Answer

Answer: (C) 118 N

13. On a body of 20 kg, a force of 10 N acts for 10 seconds. What is the change in its momentum?
(A) 1000 kg.m/s
(B) 200 kg.m/s
(C) 100 kg.m/s
(D) 5 kg.m/s

Answer

Answer: (C) 100 kg.m/s

14. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity of 1200 ms^-1. The man holding it cam exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

Answer

Answer: (C) Three

15. The figure shows a horizontal stretched net with a force of 10 N. The tension in sections BC and BF are

(A) 10 N, 10 N
(B) 10 N, 11 N
(C) 10 N, 6 N
(D) Can’t calculate due to insufficient data

Answer

Answer: (A) 10 N, 10 N

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs and Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution . NEET Physics AC generator Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on AC generator :

1. An alternator is an electromechanical ac generator.
(A) True
(B) False

Answer

Answer: (B) False

2. In A.C generator increasing the no. of turns in the coil
(A) Decreases the Electromotive force (EMF)
(B) Electromotive force (EMF) remains the same
(C) Increases the Electromotive force (EMF)
(D) Electromotive force (EMF) becomes zero

Answer

Answer: (C) Increases the Electromotive force (EMF)

3. The Electromotive force (EMF) developed by the generator depends upon
(A) Area of rotating wire
(B) length of rotating wire
(C) Radius of wire
(D) size of magnet

Answer

Answer: (B) length of rotating wire

4. The metal detectors installed at airports and other places for security purpose are based on the principle of
(A) potential difference
(B) electromagnetic difference
(C) electromagnetic induction
(D) potential energy

Answer

Answer: (C) electromagnetic induction

5. If the coil is placed perpendicular to field lines then the number of lines passing through the coil is
(A) Minimum
(B) maximum
(C) zero
(D) maybe maximum or minimum

Answer

Answer: (B) maximum

6. In alternative current generator, AC current reverses its direction
(A) 10 times per second
(B) 20 times per second
(C) 60 times per second
(D) 50 times per second

Answer

Answer: (D) 50 times per second

7. Name two main parts of an AC generator
(A) Stator
(B) Rotor
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

8. AC generator converts
(A) Mechanical energy to electrical energy
(B) Electrical energy to mechanical energy
(C) Heat energy to mechanical energy

Answer

Answer: (A) Mechanical energy to electrical energy

9. What replacement is required to convert an AC generator to DC generator?
(A) Concave magnets with horseshoe magnets
(B) Armature with coil
(C) Slip rings with split rings
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (C) Slip rings with split rings

10. The direction of induced emf or current is indicated by
(A) Fleming’s left-hand rule
(B) Fleming’s right-hand rule
(C) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (B) Fleming’s right-hand rule

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs with Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution . NEET Physics Logic Gates Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Logic Gates :

1. An inverter gates can be developed using
(A) Two diodes
(B) Resistance and capacitance
(C) Transistor
(D) Inductance and capacitance

Answer

Answer: (C) Transistor

2. The output of the two-input OR gate is high
(A) Only if both inputs are high
(B) Only if both inputs are low
(C) Only if one input is high and the other is low
(D) If at least one of the inputs is low

Answer

Answer: (D) If at least one of the inputs is low

3. The output of a two-input AND gate is high
(A) Only if both the inputs are high
(B) Only if both the inputs are low
(C) Only if one input is high and the other is low
(D) If at least one input is low

Answer

Answer: (A) Only if both the inputs are high

4. NAND gate means
(A) Inversion followed by AND gates
(B) AND gates followed by an inverter
(C) AND gate followed by OR gate
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (B) AND gates followed by an inverter

5. The output of the two-input NAND gate is high
(A) Only if both the inputs are high
(B) Only if both the inputs are low
(C) Only if one input is high and the other is low
(D) If at least one input is low

Answer

Answer: (D) If at least one input is low

6. A NOT gate means
(A) Inversion followed by an OR gate
(B) OR gate followed by an inverter
(C) NOT gate followed by an OR gate
(D) NAND gate followed by an OR gate

Answer

Answer: (B) OR gate followed by an inverter

7. The output of two-input NOR gate is high
(A) Only if both the inputs are high
(B) Only if both the inputs are low
(C) Only if one input is high and the other is low
(D) If at least one input is high

Answer

Answer: (B) Only if both the inputs are low

8. An exclusive NOR gate is logically equal to
(A) Inverter followed by an XOR gate
(B) NOT gate followed by an exclusive XOR gate
(C) Exclusive OR gate followed by an inverter
(D) The complement of a NOR gate

Answer

Answer: (C) Exclusive OR gate followed by an inverter

9. The gate ideally suited for bit comparison is a
(A) Two input exclusive NOR gate
(B) Two input exclusive OR gate
(C) Two input NAND gate
(D) Two input NOR gate

Answer

Answer: (A) Two input exclusive NOR gate

10. Two input exclusive NOR gate gives high output
(A) When one input is high and the other is low
(B) Only when both the inputs are low
(C) When both the inputs are the same
(D) Only when both the inputs are high

Answer

Answer: (C) When both the inputs are the same