Category: NEET Physics Objective Questions

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs with Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Electromagnetic Waves Multiple Choice Questions exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQs on Electromagnetic Waves :

1. Electromagnetic waves are produced by
(A) A static charge
(B) An accelerated charge
(C) A moving charge
(D) Charged particles

Answer

Answer: (B) An accelerated charge

2. The direction in which electromagnetic waves propagate is the same as that of
(A) (overrightarrow { E } times overrightarrow { B } )
(B) (overrightarrow { B } times overrightarrow { E } )
(C) (overrightarrow { E } )
(D) (overrightarrow { B } )

Answer

Answer: (A) (overrightarrow { E } times overrightarrow { B } )

3. In electromagnetic waves the phase difference between electric field vector and magnetic field vector is
(A) zero
(B) π/2
(C) π
(D) π/3

Answer

Answer: (A) zero

4. In an electromagnetic wave in free space, the root mean square value of the electric field is 6 V/m. The peak value of the magnetic field is
(A) 2.83 x 10^-8 T
(B) 1.51 x 10^-8 T
(C) 0.80 x 10^-8 T
(D) 4 x 10^-8 T

Answer

Answer: (A) 2.83 x 10^-8 T

5. Which of the following can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?
(A) Charge moving at a constant speed
(B) Chargeless particle
(C) Stationary charge
(D) An accelerating charge

Answer

Answer: (D) An accelerating charge

6. To which part of the spectrum does EM waves belong if the energy of the wave is of the order of 15 KeV.
(A) X rays
(B) Infrared rays
(C) Ultraviolet rays
(D) Gamma rays

Answer

Answer: (A) X rays

7. The ratio of the amplitude of the magnetic field to the amplitude of the electric field for electromagnetic wave propagation in a vacuum is equal to
(A) Unity
(B) Speed of light in vacuum
(C) Reciprocal of the speed of light in vacuum
(D) The ratio of magnetic permeability to electrical susceptibility in a vacuum.

Answer

Answer: (C) Reciprocal of the speed of light in vacuum

8. Which properties amount the following is false about electromagnetic waves?
(A) The energy in an electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors.
(B) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
(C) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation
(D) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and the same time

Answer

Answer: (B) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.

9. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity ε₀ and permeability μ₀ is given by
(A) (sqrt { { E }_{ 0 }/{ mu }_{ 0 } } )
(B) (sqrt { { E }_{ 0 }{ mu }_{ 0 } } )
(C) 1/(sqrt { { E }_{ 0 }{ mu }_{ 0 } } )
(D) (sqrt { { mu }_{ 0 }{ /E }_{ 0 } } )

Answer

Answer: (C) 1/(sqrt { { E }_{ 0 }{ mu }_{ 0 } } )

10. Which of the following rays are not electromagnetic waves?
(A) Gamma rays
(B) Beta rays
(C) Heat rays
(D) X rays

Answer

Answer: (B) Beta rays

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQs and Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution . NEET Physics Equilibrium of Forces Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the

MCQs on Equilibrium of Forces :

1. How is the weight of the aeroplane flying in the air balanced?
(A) The weight is balanced because of the force due to the pressure difference between the upper and lower surfaces of the wings created by different airspeeds on the surfaces.
(B) The weight is balanced due to the vertical component of the thrust created by air currents striking the lower surface of the wings
(C) The weight is balanced due to the force produced when the reactions of gases are ejected by the revolving propellor.
(D) Upthrust of the air which will be equal to the weight of the air having the same volume as the plane

Answer

Answer: (A) The weight is balanced because of the force due to the pressure difference between the upper and lower surfaces of the wings created by different airspeeds on the surfaces.

2. Which of the following is true when a body is stationary?
(A) The force acting on it is not in contact with it
(B) The body is in vacuum
(C) There is no force acting on it
(D) The combination of forces acting on it balance each other

Answer

Answer: (D) The combination of forces acting on it balance each other

3. Two forces with magnitude F have the resultant of same magnitude F. What is the angle between the forces?
(A) 45⁰
(B) 60⁰
(C) 120⁰
(D) 150⁰

Answer

Answer: (C) 120⁰

4. What is the angle between the forces if two forces with equal magnitudes F act on a body and the magnitude of the resultant force is F/3?

Answer

Answer: (A) (cos ^{-1}left(frac{17}{18}right))

5. In which direction should the force be applied to balance a force in the direction of North-East direction?
(A) South
(B) West
(C) South-West
(D) North-East

Answer

Answer: (C) South-West

6. Among the following which cannot be a resultant force of 5 N and 10 N?
(A) 4 N
(B) 5 N
(C) 8 N
(D) 12 N

Answer

Answer: (A) 4 N

7. The resultant of the two forces are perpendicular to the smaller of the two forces. The magnitude of one of the forces is double the magnitude of the other force. What is the angle between the forces?
(A) 60⁰
(B) 90⁰
(C) 120⁰
(D) 150⁰

Answer

Answer: (C) 120⁰

8. Which of the following depictions correctly shows the vector addition of forces (overrightarrow{F_{1}}) and (overrightarrow{F_{2}}) to yield a third force (overrightarrow{F_{3}})?

9. Which of the following sets of concurrent forces are in equilibrium?
(A) F₁=3N,F₂=5N,F₃=1N
(B) F₁=3N,F₂=5N,F₃=6N
(C) F₁=3N,F₂=5N,F₃=9N
(D) F₁=3N,F₂=5N,F₃=15N

Answer

Answer: (B) F₁=3N,F₂=5N,F₃=6N

10. Two blocks connected to each other by a string is hung to the ceiling by connecting another string to the upper block. When a force F is applied on the string, it produces an acceleration of 2 m/s². If T and T’ are the tensions in two parts of the string, then which of the following is true?
(A) T = 70.8 N and T’= 47.2 N
(B) T = 70.8 N and T’= 0
(C) T = 70.8 N and T’= 58.8 N
(D) T = 58.8 N and T’= 47.2 N

Answer

Answer: (A) T = 70.8 N and T’= 47.2 N

11. Consider the blocks shown in the diagram to be pushed against a frictionless table by a constant force. Following statements are said about the blocks:

• All blocks move with the same acceleration
• The net force on all the blocks is the same

Which of these statements is true?
(A) Both A and B
(B) Neither A and B
(C) Only A
(D) Only B

Answer

Answer: (C) Only A

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs with Answers for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Work, Energy and Power Multiple Choice Questions exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQs on Work, Energy and Power :

1. By how much does kinetic energy increase if the momentum is increased by 20%
(A) 55%
(B) 66%
(C) 44%
(D) 77%

Answer

Answer: (C) 44%

2. Calculate the energy loss in a perfectly inelastic collision if the mass of the object is 40kg with velocity 4m/s hits the object of mass 60kg with velocity 2m/s.
(A) 440J
(B) 110J
(C) 392J
(D) 48J

Answer

Answer: (D) 48J

3. Calculate the final kinetic energy of a block of mass if the mass of the block is 10kg and has a constant velocity of 10m/s. The block of mass is subjected to a retarding force of F=0.1J/m
(A) 275J
(B) 250J
(C) 475J
(D) 450J

Answer

Answer: (C) 475J

4. What is the average power required to lift a mass of 100kg to a height of 50m in 50 seconds?
(A) 980
(B) 100
(C) 50
(D) 5000

Answer

Answer: (A) 980

5. What is the power of the engine when the velocity of the car is v, mass m, acceleration a, and external resistance R
(A) (R-ma)v
(B) (R+ma)v
(C) mav
(D) Rv

Answer

Answer: (B) (R+ma)v

6. Consider an object with m as its mass such that it is accelerated uniformly from rest and the speed attained by the object is v in T time.  Calculate the instantaneous power that is delivered to the body in terms of function of time

Answer

Answer: (B) (frac{1}{2} frac{m v^{2}}{T^{2}} t^{2})

7. A ball is thrown from a height of 20 m vertically downward and has an initial velocity of (v_{0}^{2}). As the stone collides with the ground 50% of its energy is lost and bounce back to the same height. What is the initial velocity?
(A) 28m/s
(B) 20m/s
(C) 10m/s
(D) 14m/s

Answer

Answer: (B) 20m/s

8. Consider a particle of mass m which is driven by a machine that has a constant power k Watts. What is the force on the particle at time t if the particle starts from the rest?

Answer

Answer: (D) (sqrt{frac{m k}{2}} t^{frac{-1}{2}})

9. When can one say that work is done on the body
(A) When the body experiences force
(B) When there is an increase in energy because of mechanical influence
(C) When the body moves a certain distance
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (B) When there is an increase in energy because of mechanical influence

10. Select the incorrect statement for the given situation: Two bodies with mass m₁ and m₂ undergo elastic collision
(A) When m₁ and m₂ is at rest, the kinetic energy transferred will be maximum
(B) The bodies will move in the same direction if m₁ = m₂ and when the collision is in oblique
(C) When m₁ > m₂, m₂ will move with four times increase in its velocity than m₁
(D) When m₁ < m₂, the transfer of momentum will be maximum

Answer

Answer: (C) When m₁ > m₂, m₂ will move with four times increase in its velocity than m₁

11. What is the ratio of velocities of a nucleus that splits into two parts with radii 1:2
(A) 6:1
(B) 2:1
(C) 8:1
(D) 4:1

Answer

Answer: (C) 8:1

12. What is the relation between E, P, and E if E is kinetic energy, P is momentum, and V is the velocity of the particle

Answer

Answer: (D) (P=frac{d E}{d V})

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs and Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution . NEET Physics Nuclear fission and Nuclear fusion Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Nuclear fission and Nuclear fusion :

1. The splitting of a nucleus into smaller nuclei is
(A) Fusion
(B) Fission
(C) Half-life
(D) gamma -radiation

Answer

Answer: (B) Fission

2. Name the moderator used in the nuclear reactor?
(A) Plutonium
(B) Thorium
(C) Graphite
(D) Berilium

Answer

Answer: (C) Graphite

3. Which isotope of Uranium has the capacity to sustain the chain reaction?
(A) U-230
(B) U-235
(C) U-245
(D) U-225

Answer

Answer: (B) U-235

4. Which of the following atomic particles have the least mass?
(A) Proton
(B) Electron
(C) Deuteron
(D) Neutron

Answer

Answer: (B) Electron

5. During an atomic explosion, the energy released is due to
(A) Conversion of protons to neutrons
(B) Conversion of chemical energy into heat energy
(C) Conversion of mechanical energy into nuclear energy
(D) Conversion of mass into energy

Answer

Answer: (D) Conversion of mass into energy

6. What is the beneficial aspect of nuclear fission?
(A) The ability to absorb energy
(B) The ability to produce more energy than nuclear fusion
(C) The ability to release tremendous amounts of energy
(D) There are no beneficial aspects of nuclear fission

Answer

Answer: (C) The ability to release tremendous amounts of energy

7. When a neutron leaves the nucleus, it’s mass
(A) Triples
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) Stays the same

Answer

Answer: (B) Decreases

8. The element with the least mass per nucleon is
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Iron
(C) Helium
(D) Uranium

Answer

Answer: (B) Iron

9. The release in energy in nuclear fission is consistent with the fact that uranium has
(A) More mass per nucleon than either of the two fragments
(B) Has more mass per nucleon as the two fragment
(C) Has exactly the same mass per nucleon as the two fragments
(D) Less mass per nucleon than either of the two fragments

Answer

Answer: (A) More mass per nucleon than either of the two fragments

10. The energy we get in nuclear reaction comes from
(A) Energy we put into the reactor
(B) The mass of the fuel
(C) Water
(D) The sun

Answer

Answer: (B) The mass of the fuel

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs with Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Digital Electronics Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Digital Electronics :

1. The following truth table corresponds to the logic gate

Input		Output
A	B	X
0	0	0
0	1	1
1	1	1
1	0	1

(A) NAND
(B) OR
(C) AND
(D) XOR

Answer

Answer: (B) OR

2. Boolean Algebra is essentially based on
(A) Truth
(B) Logic
(C) Symbol
(D) Numbers

Answer

Answer: (B) Logic

3. The logic behind NOR gate is that it gives
(A) HIgh output when both the inputs are low
(B) Low output when both the inputs are low
(C) HIgh output when both the inputs are high
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (A) HIgh output when both the inputs are low

4. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which
(A) Makes logic decisions
(B) Allows electrons flow only in one direction
(C) Woks binary algebra
(D) Alternates between 0 and 1 values

Answer

Answer: (A) Makes logic decisions

5. How many NAND gates are used to form an AND gate?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Answer

Answer: (B) 2

6. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

(A) OR
(B) NAND
(C) AND
(D) NOR

Answer

Answer: (C) AND

7. The output of OR gate is 1
(A) If both inputs are zero
(B) If either or both inputs are 1
(C) Only if both inputs are 1
(D) If either input is zero

Answer

Answer: (B) If either or both inputs are 1

8. Which of the following logic gate is a universal gate?
(A) OR
(B) NOT
(C) AND
(D) NOR

Answer

Answer: (D) NOR

9. A gate in which all the inputs must be low to get a high output is
(A) NAND gate
(B) Inverter
(C) NOR gate
(D) AND gate

Answer

Answer: (B) and (C) Inverter and NOR gate

10. The outputs of a NAND gate is 0
(A) If both inputs are 0
(B) If one input is 0 and the other input is 1
(C) If both inputs are 1
(D) If both inputs are 1 or one of the inputs is 1 and the other one is 0

Answer

Answer: (C) If both inputs are 1

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs with Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution . NEET Physics Fibre Optics Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Fibre Optics :

1. Data signal with minimum error is generated by which among the following
(A) Signal processing circuits
(B) Photodiode
(C) Linear circuitry
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (C) Linear circuitry

2. Which among the following is described by the concept of numerical aperture in an optical fibre?
(A) Light collection
(B) Light scattering
(C) Light dispersion
(D) Light polarisation

Answer

Answer: (A) Light collection

3. An optical fibre consists of a core μ1 surrounded by a cladding of μ＜ μ1. A beam of light enters from the air at an angle of α with the axis of the fibre. The highest α for which ray can be travelled through fibre is
(A) (cos ^{ -1 }{ sqrt { { mu }_{ 2 }^{ 2 }-{ mu }_{ 1 }^{ 2 } } } )
(B) (sin ^{ -1 }{ sqrt { { mu }_{ 1 }^{ 2 }-{ mu }_{ 2 }^{ 2 } } } )
(C) (tan ^{ -1 }{ sqrt { { mu }_{ 1 }^{ 2 }{ -mu }_{ 2 }^{ 2 } } } )
(D) (sec ^{ -1 }{ sqrt { { mu }_{ 1 }^{ 2 }-{ mu }_{ 2 }^{ 2 } } } )

Answer

Answer: (B) (sin ^{ -1 }{ sqrt { { mu }_{ 1 }^{ 2 }-{ mu }_{ 2 }^{ 2 } } } )

4. In an optical fibre communication system, which among the following is not a typical transmitter function?
(A) Coding for error protection
(B) Decoding of input data
(C) Electrical to optical conversion
(D) Recoding to match output standard

Answer

Answer: (D) Recoding to match output standard

5. In a single-mode fibre, how does the fraction of energy travelling through bound mode appear in the cladding?
(A) As a crescent wave
(B) As a gibbous wave
(C) As an evanescent wave
(D) All the above

Answer

Answer: (C) As an evanescent wave

6. Which among the following fibre optic cables have a core of size 480 μm to 980 μm and made up of polymethylmethacrylate?
(A) Glass fibre optic cable
(B) Plastic fibre optic cable
(C) Plastic clad silica fibre optic cable
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (B) Plastic fibre optic cable

7. A ray of light will undergo total internal reflection if it
(A) Goes from rarer medium to denser medium
(B) Incident at an angle less than the critical angle
(C) Strikes the interface normally
(D) Incident at an angle greater than the critical angle

Answer

Answer: (D) Incident at an angle greater than the critical angle

8. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection of light?
(A) Brilliance of diamond
(B) Mirage formation
(C) Optical fibre working
(D) Rainbow formation

Answer

Answer: (D) Rainbow formation

9. The fibres not used nowadays for optical fibre communication system are
(A) Single-mode fibre
(B) Multimode fibre
(C) Coaxial cable
(D) Multimode graded-index fibres

Answer

Answer: (A) Single-mode fibre

10. In single-mode fibres, the cladding diameter must be at least
(A) Five times the core diameter
(B) Thrice the core diameter
(C) Ten times the core diameter
(D) Twice the core diameter

Answer

Answer: (C) Ten times the core diameter