Category: NEET Physics Objective Questions

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs with Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution . NEET Physics Electromotive Force (EMF) Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Electromotive Force :

<1. The flux used in the equation for the calculation of induced emf in a transformer is in its
(A) RMS value
(B) Average value
(C) Maximum value
(D) Twice that of the maximum value

Answer

Answer: (C) Maximum value

2. What should be the value of primary to the secondary ratio for  a transformer to be an isolation transformer?
(A) Equal to one
(B) Less than one
(C) More than one
(D) Equal to 0.5

Answer

Answer: (A) Equal to one

3. The average emf induced per turn in a transformer is given by
(A) 1.11f Φ_m
(B) 0.5f Φ_m
(C) 4f Φ_m
(D) 8f Φ_m

Answer

Answer: (C) 4f Φ_m

4. Who introduced the right-hand rule for determining the direction of the induced EMF?
(A) Fleming
(B) Lenz
(C) Maxwell
(D) Faraday

Answer

Answer: (A) Fleming

5. Whenever there is a change in magnetic flux with respect to an electric conductor or a coil, an EMF is induced in the conductor is Faraday’s
(A) first law
(B) third law
(C) second law
(D) fourth law

Answer

Answer: (A) first law

6. Power of battery having emf E₁=20V is
(A) 44.2 Watt
(B) 30.8 Watt
(C) 13.4 Watt
(D) 20 Watt

Answer

Answer: (A) 44.2 Watt

7. In which device is the principle of statically induced emf used?
(A) Transformer
(B) Motor
(C) Generator
(D) Battery

Answer

Answer: (A) Transformer

8. Statically induced emf’s magnitude depends on the
(A) Rate of change of flux
(B) Coil resistance
(C) Flux magnitude
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (A) Rate of change of flux

9. Which is the property of a coil by which a counter emf is induced when the current through the coil changes?
(A) Self-inductance
(B) Mutual inductance
(C) Capacitance
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (A) Self-inductance

10. Principle of dynamically induced emf is used in a
(A) Choke
(B) Transformer
(C) Generator
(D) Thermo-couple

Answer

Answer: (C) Generator

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQs and Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution . NEET Physics Radioactivity Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the

MCQs on Radioactivity :

1. The neutral atoms of all isotopes of the same element contain the same number of __________.
(A) neutrons only.
(B) Electrons
(C) Mass numbers
(D) Masses

Answer

Answer: (B) Electrons

2. The atomic number is not changed by which type of radioactive decay?
(A) Beta
(B) Gamma
(C) Alpha
(D) The atomic number is affected by all forms of radioactive decay

Answer

Answer: (B) Gamma

3. Isotopes of an element have a different number of
(A) Proton
(B) Neutron
(C) Electron
(D) atom

Answer

Answer: (B) Neutron

4. Three types of radioactive elements are emitted when unstable nuclei undergo radioactive decay. Which of the following is not one of them
(A) Beta
(B) Gamma
(C) Alpha
(D) delta

Answer

Answer: (D) delta

5. A nuclear fission reaction becoming self-sustaining depends on
(A) electrons
(B) Neutrons
(C) Energy
(D) Protons

Answer

Answer: (B) Neutrons

6. Helium nuclei particles are called
(A) Gamma particles
(B) Beta particles
(C) Alpha particles
(D) No particles that are helium nuclei

Answer

Answer: (C) alpha particles

7. When two atomic nuclei combine it is called as
(A) Chain reaction
(B) Nuclear fusion
(C) Nuclear decay
(D) Nuclear fission

Answer

Answer: (B) Nuclear fusion

8. The number of protons or atomic number is reduced to 2 by which form of radioactive decay?
(A) Beta-decay
(B) Gamma decay
(C) Alpha decay
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (C) Alpha decay

9. Which statement is true for all three types of radioactive emission?
(A) They are deflected by electric fields
(B) They ionise gases
(C) They are completely absorbed by a thin aluminium sheet
(D) They emit light

Answer

Answer: (B) They ionise gases

10. A nuclide of the element plutonium ₉₄ Pu ²⁴². What is the number of neutrons in its nucleus?
(A) 242
(B) 336
(C) 148
(D) 94

Answer

Answer: (C) 148

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs with Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution . NEET Physics Mirror Formula Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Mirror Formula :

1. A convex mirror of focal length f forms an image which is 1/n times the object. The distance of the object from the mirror is
(A) (n-1)f
(B) (n-1/n) f
(C) (n+1/n) f
(D) (n+1) f

Answer

Answer: (A) (n-1)f

2. Consider a concave mirror of focal length 50 cm. Where should the object be placed so that its image is twice the size of the object and inverted
(A) 60 cm
(B) 70 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 55 cm

Answer

Answer: (C) 75 cm

3. An object 2 cm high is placed at a distance of 16 cm from a concave mirror, which produces 3 cm high inverted image. What is the focal length of the mirror?
(A) -10 cm
(B) -9.6 cm
(C) 9.6 cm
(D) 8 cm

Answer

Answer: (B) -9.6 cm

4. An erect image 3 times the size of the object is obtained with a concave mirror of radius of curvature 36 cm. What is the position of the object?
(A) -12 cm
(B) 5 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) -21 cm

Answer

Answer: (A) -12 cm

5. An object is placed at infinity in front of the convex mirror of radius of curvature 40 cm. How far is the image behind the mirror?
(A) 20 cm
(B) 25 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 35 cm

Answer

Answer: (A) 20 cm

6. The image formed by a convex mirror of focal length 30cm is a quarter of the object. What is the distance of the object from the mirror?
(A) -90 cm
(B) 60 cm
(C) -75 cm
(D) -60 cm

Answer

Answer: (A) -90 cm

7. Convex mirror is used to form an image of the object. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(A) The image is erect
(B) The image is diminished in size
(C) The image is real
(D) The image lies between the pole and the focus

Answer

Answer: (C) The image is real

8. A lens having a focal distance of 30 cm is placed in front of an object, which is located at 1m from it. Where is an image of the object located?
(A) 40 cm
(B) 42.85 cm
(C) 52 cm
(D) 60 cm

Answer

Answer: (B) 42.85 cm

9. The focal length of a concave mirror is f and the distance from the object to the principle focus is x. The ratio of the size of the image to the size of the object is
(A) (f + x)/f
(B) f/x
(C) f²/x²

Answer

Answer: (B) f/x

10. In a concave mirror experiment, an object is placed at a distance x₁ from the focus and the image is formed at a distance x₂ from the focus. The focal length of the mirror would be
(A) x₁x₂
(B) (x₁+x₂)/2
(C) √x₁x₂
(D) √x_1/x₂

Answer

Answer: (C) √x₁x₂

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs with Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Motion in a Straight Line Multiple Choice Questions exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQs on Motion in a Straight Line :

1. What is the acceleration if the body starts from rest and travels a distance of ‘s’ m in 2 seconds?

Answer

Answer: (D) (left( frac { s }{ 2 } right) m/{ s }^{ 2 })

2. What is the ratio of the average acceleration during the intervals OA and AB in the velocity-time graph as shown below?

(A) ½
(B) ⅓
(C) 1
(D) 3

Answer

Answer: (B) ⅓

3. A body covers 16, 18, 20, 22 meters in 5th, 6th, 7th and 8th seconds respectively. Which of the following statements is true about the body?
(A) The body moves with a uniform velocity from rest
(B) The body from rest moves with uniform acceleration
(C) The body moves with an initial velocity and moves with uniform acceleration
(D) The body moves with an initial velocity and then moves with uniform velocity

Answer

Answer: (C) The body moves with an initial velocity and moves with uniform acceleration

4. What can be said about the displacement of the body if it covers a distance of zero?
(A) It is zero
(B) It cannot be zero
(C) It may or may not be zero
(D) It is negative

Answer

Answer: (A) It is zero

5. An athlete finishes a round of circular track of radius R in 40 sec. What is his displacement at the end of 2 min 20 sec?
(A) 2R
(B) 2πR
(C) 7πR
(D) Zero

Answer

Answer: (A) 2R

6. Which of the following is not possible for a body in uniform motion?

(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (C) Both (A) & (B)

7. If a car travels ⅖ th of the total distance with a speed v₁ and ⅗ th of the distance with a speed v₂. The average speed is given by

Answer

Answer: (C) (frac { 5{ v }_{ 1 }{ v }_{ 2 } }{ 3{ v }_{ 1 }+2{ v }_{ 2 } } )

8. A man leaves home for a cycle ride and comes back home after an half-an-hour ride covering a distance of one km. What is the average velocity of the ride?
(A) 10 kms^-1
(B) ½ kms^-1
(C) 2 kms^-1
(D) Zero

Answer

Answer: (D) Zero

9. A bird flies with a speed of 10 km/hr and a car moves with uniform speed 8 km/hr. Both start from B to A at the same instant (BA = 40 km). The bird after reaching A flies back immediately to meet the approaching car. Once it reaches the car, it flies back to A. The bird repeats this until both the car and the bird reach A simultaneously. What is the total distance flown by the bird?
(A) 80 km
(B) 50 km
(C) 40 km
(D) 30 km

Answer

Answer: (B) 50 km

10. Elephants A, B and C move with a constant speed in the same direction along a straight line as shown in the figure. The speed of the elephant A is 5 m/s and the speed of the elephant C is 10 m/s. Initially, the separation between A and B is d and between B and C is also d. When B catches C, the separation between A and C becomes 3d. What will the speed of B be?
(A) 5 m/s
(B) 7.5 m/s
(C) 15 m/s
(D) 20 m/s

Answer

Answer: (C) 15 m/s

11. Which of the following remains constant if a body travels with constant acceleration?
(A) Time
(B) Velocity
(C) Displacement
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (D) None of the above

12. Given here is a velocity-time graph of the motion of a body. What is the distance travelled by the body during the motion?

Answer

Answer: (C) (frac { 1 }{ 2 } )(OC+AB) × AD

13. Which of the following graphs gives the equation x = v₀t + (frac { 1 }{ 2 } )at²

Answer

Answer: (B)

14. What does the displacement of the particle shown in the graph indicate?

(A) It indicates a constant velocity
(B) It indicates a constant acceleration
(C) It indicates that the particle starts with a constant velocity and is accelerated
(D) It indicates that the motion is retarded and the particle stops

Answer

Answer: (D) It indicates that the motion is retarded and the particle stops

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQs with Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution . NEET Physics Current Electricity Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Current Electricity :

1. What does the internal resistance of a cell mean?
(A) The resistance of the material used in the cell
(B) The vessel of the cell
(C) The electrodes of the cell
(D) The electrolyte used in the cell

Answer

Answer: (D) The electrolyte used in the cell

2. A potentiometer is considered a versatile and accurate device to make an electrical measurement of EMF. Why?
(A) Because the method involves a combination
(B) There are cells involved
(C) Because of potential gradients
(D) As there is no flow of current through the galvanometer

Answer

Answer: (D) As there is no flow of current through the galvanometer

3. Consider copper and aluminium wire whose length and resistance are the same. Also, the specific resistance of aluminium is more than copper. Select the correct statement
(A) Copper and aluminium mass are the same
(B) Copper wire has more mass than the aluminium wire
(C) Copper wire has less mass than the aluminium wire
(D) The information given is incomplete

Answer

Answer: (D) The information given is incomplete

4. Following is the graph which represents the thermo EMF of two different metals which are joined end to end. One end of the metal is kept at a constant temperature while the other end is heated at very high temperature.

Answer

Answer: (D)

5. Select the graph which depicts the variation in thermoelectric power and the temperature difference between the hot and cold junction in the thermocouples

Answer

Answer: (A)

6. Which of the following represents the relationship between the current flowing, i through the electric heater and the time taken, t.

Answer

Answer: (B)

7. Consider three voltmeters A, B, and C with resistance R, 1.5R, and 3R respectively. Potential difference is applied across the points X and Y, the voltmeter readings are V_A, V_B, and V_C.

(A) V_A = V_B ≠ V_C
(B) V_A ≠ V_B ≠ V_C
(C) V_A = V_B = V_C
(D) V_A ≠ V_B = V_C

Answer

Answer: (C) V_A = V_B = V_C

8. What is the ratio of power dissipated if two electric bulbs are connected in series and the ratio of their resistance is 1:2?
(A) 1:4
(B) 1:2
(C) 2:1
(D) 1: 1

Answer

Answer: (B) 1:2

9. Following is the Wheatstone bridge in which (frac{P}{Q}=frac{R}{S}). Let K be the key which is closed, so what will be the deflection shown by galvanometer?

(A) The deflection happens in either side
(B) There is no deflection
(C) Deflection happens on the right side
(D) Deflection happens on the left side

Answer

Answer: (A) The deflection happens in either side

10. What is the principle behind thermocouple
(A) Joule effect
(B) Thomson effect
(C) Seebeck effect
(D) Peltier effect

Answer

Answer: (C) Seebeck effect

11. According to Faraday’s laws of electrolysis, to which of the following is the amount of decomposition proportional to?

Answer

Answer: (A) The electrochemical equivalent of the substance

NEET  Physics is the very imporatant paper in the Medical Entrance EXAM. So these NEET Physics MCQs with Answers for all Concepts as per the new syllabus. Practice daily with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution . NEET Physics Junction Transistor Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Junction Transistor :

1. The emitter-base junction of a transistor is ………. Biased while the collector-base junction is ………….
(A) Reverse, Forward
(B) Reverse, Reverse
(C) Forward, forward
(D) Forward, reverse

Answer

Answer: (D) Forward, reverse

2. A NPN transistor conducts when
(A) Both collector and emitter are positive with respect to the base
(B) Collector is positive and the emitter is negative with respect to the base
(C) Collector is positive and the emitter is at the same potential as the base
(D) Both collector and emitter are negative with respect to the base

Answer

Answer: (B) Collector is positive and the emitter is negative with respect to the base

3. Which of the following is true
(A) Common base transistor is commonly used because the current gain is maximum
(B) Common emitter is commonly used because the current gain is maximum
(C) Common collector is commonly used because the current gain is maximum
(D) Common emitter is the least used transistor

Answer

Answer: (B) Common emitter is commonly used because the current gain is maximum

4. For a common base configuration of PNP transistor Ic/IE = 0.98 then the maximum current gain in common emitter configuration will be
(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 6
(D) 5

Answer

Answer: (B) 24

5. In a PNP transistor working as a common-base amplifier, the current gain is 0.96 and emitter current is 7.2 mA. The base current is
(A) 0.4 mA
(B) 0.2 mA
(C) 0.29 mA
(D) 0.35 mA

Answer

Answer: (C) 0.29 mA

6. Which is the least doped region in a transistor?
(A) Either emitter or collector
(B) Base
(C) Emitter
(D) Collector

Answer

Answer: (B) Base

7. The transistors provide good power amplification when they are used in
(A) Common collector configuration
(B) Common emitter configuration
(C) Common base configuration
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (B) Common emitter configuration

8. For a transistor the parameter b= 99. The value of the parameter is a is
(A) 0.9
(B) 0.99
(C) 1
(D) 9

Answer

Answer: (B) 0.99

9. A transistor is used in common emitter mode as an amplifier. Then
(A) The base-emitter junction will be forward biased
(B) The input signal is connected in series with the voltage applied to the base-emitter junction
(C) The base-emitter junction will be reversed biased
(D) The voltage applied to bias the base-collector junction and the input signal is connected in series

Answer

Answer: (B) The input signal is connected in series with the voltage applied to the base-emitter junction

10. In a PNP transistor the base is the N-region. Its width relative to the P-region is
(A) Smaller
(B) Larger
(C) Same
(D) Not related

Answer

Answer: (A) Smaller