NVS Staff Nurse Exam Model Multiple Choice Questions
1.Active phase of labor means
A. Show
B. Beginning of uterine contraction
C. Cervical dilation of 3.4 cm
D. Rupture of membrane
2. HDL level are increased by
A. Colestipol
B. Cremfibrozil
C. Nicotinic acid
D. Probucol
3. Type-I lepra reaction is a type of
A. Antibody dependent cytotoxicity
B. Immune complex disease
C. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
D. Type-I hypersensitivity
4. One occipital cortex lesion with hemonymous hemianopia with ranular spairing is due to involvement of
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Anterior choroidal artery
C. Contralateral posterior cerebral artery
D. Middle cerebral artery
5. Peripheral smear shows microspherocytes in
A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Chronic liver disorder
D. Thalassemia
6. Glucagonoma is characterized by
A. Acrodermatitis entero pathica
B. Erythema gyratum ripens
C. Necrotizing migratory erythema
D. Erythema chronicum migrans
7. Pseudofracture are characteristically seen in
A. Osteomalacia
B. Hyper parathyroidism
C. Osteoporosis
D. Hyperthyroidism
8. Benzoic acid derivative which stimulatesinsulin secretion during meals used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus is
A. Glimepiride
B. Repaglinide
C. Acarbose
D. Rosiglitazone
9. All are the treatment modalities used in dapsone poisoning except
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Exchange transfusion
C. Methylene blue
D. Hemodialysis
10. Flea bite transmitted diseases include all except
A. Marine typhus
B. Lyme disease
C. Plague
D. Bacillary angiomatosis
11. The most cost effective management in triple vessel coronary disease is
A. Cardiac transplant
B. Gp IIb-IIa inhibitor
C. CABG
D. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty
12. One of the following is malignant
A. Fibroma
B. Brenner tumor
C. Teratoma
D. Dysgirminoma
13. Type of renal tubular acidosis associated with hyperkalemia is?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
14. The most specific investigation among the following in disseminated intravascular coagulation is
A. APT
B. Bleeding time
C. Fibrinogen assays
D. d-Dimer assays
15. All of the following statements are true regarding von willebrand’s disease, except
A. Platelet count is abnormal
B. Platelet count is normal
C. Decreased coagulation with ADP
D. Decreased time on ristocetin test
16. In a patient with anemia the MCV-115, MCH-30, MCHC-43
A. Pelger Heart Anomaly
B. Hypersegmented neutrophils
C. Malignant cells
D. Dohle bodies
17. Fanconi’s anaemia is
A. Allergic anemia
B. Autoimmune anemia
C. Immunologic anemia
D. Constitutional anemia
18. Lower uterine segment during pregnancy is
A. Cornua
B. External OS
C. Fundus
D. Isthmus
19. The drug used in the treatment of hepatitis
together with interferons is
A. Amantadine
B. Flucytosine
C. Ribavirin
D. Lamivudine
20. All of the following are causes of diarrhea, in a seropositive case of HIV infection, except
A. Aeanthamoeba
B. Cryptosporidia
C. Isospora
D. None
21. Scleromalacia perforans is seen in which of the following
A. Vitamin A deficiency
B. Herpetic keratitis
C. Sicca syndrome
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
22. All of the following intervention may decrease the rate of progression of microalbuminuria to overt nephropathy, except.
A. Strict BP control
B. Use ACE inhibitor
C. Treatment of dyslipidemia
D. Excessive fluid in take
23. All of the following cause fascial nerve palsy except
A. Herpetic otalgia
B. Otomycosis
C. Malignant otitis externa
D. Tuberculosis otitis media
24. One of the following is the defect in myasthenia gravis
A. Antibodies against Ach containing synaptic vessicles
B. Increased Ach accumulation at synapse
C. Increased antibodies against Ach receptors
D. Decreased Ach production
25. The edge of a septic ulcer is?
A. Everted
B. Sloping
C. Undermined
D. Pearly
Navodaya Staff Nurse Previous Questions
26. The commonest cause of bile duct strictures
A. Sclerosing cholangitis
B. Post cholecystectomy
C. Malignancy
D. Ascending cholangitis
27. Commonest indication of surgery in chronic pancreatitis?
A. Pain
B. Infection
C. Malignant transformation
D. Duodenal obstruction
28. Congenital atresia is commonest in?
A. Distal colon
B. Duodenum
C. Proximal colon
D. Ileum
29. Visceral aneurysm is most common in
A. Renal artery
B. Hepatic artery
C. Splenic artery
D. Left gastric artery
30. The following drugs used in treatment of cyclical mastalgia except
A. Estrogen
B. Danazol
C. Tamoxifen
D. Evening primrose oil
31. What is the earliest indication of volkmann’s ischemia?
A. Pain
B. Pallor & Poor Capillary filling
C. Paraesthesia in median nerve area
D. Contracture of finger
32. In osteomalacia
A. Osteoid formation is defective
B. Mineralisation of bone is defect
C. Both
D. None
33. Rickets is characterized by
A. Decrease calcium content of bone
B. Widening of growth cartilage
C. Beading ribs
D. All of above
34. The most radiosensitive tumor is
A. Ewing’s Sarcoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Fibrosarcoma
D. Liposarcoma
35. Meniscal injury occurs during
A. Rotation
B. Extention
C. Rotation & Flexion
D. Flexion
36. Fracture of first metacarpal bone
A. Barton’s fracture
B. Bennett’s fracture
C. Chauffer’s fracture
D. Boxer’s fracture
37. Functions of ovary include all of the following except
A. Autocrine
B. Paracrine
C. Exocrine
D. Endocrine
38. Home essential for the maintenance of pregnancy
A. LH
B. Progestrone
C. HCG
D. Estrogen
39. Major function of von willebrand factor is
A. Platelet adhesion
B. Binding factor VIII
C. Activation of factor XII
D. Stimulation of platelet release
40. Blue neavi and multiple lentigines are associated with the following type of cardiac disorder
A. Cardiomyopathy
B. Atrial myxoma
C. Constrictive pericardity
D. Cardiac arrhythmias
41. The prognosis of the newborn of a lady with accidental hemorrhage depends on
A. Admission delivery interval
B. Weight of the body
C. Abruption delivery interval
D. Volume of retroplacental clots
42. The treatment of choice for hydatidiform mole
A. Hysterotomy
B. Medical treatment
C. Hysterectomy
D. Suction evaluation
43. Which scar is least prone for rupture
A. Classic scare
B. I shaped scar
C. LSCS
D. Inverted T-shaped scar
44. Subnuclear vacuolation of endometrium is seen in
A. Menstrual phase
B. Ovalatory phase
C. Proliferatory phase
D. Secretory phase
45. Ergometrine is contra indicated in all except
A. Eclampsia
B. Rheumatic heart disease
C. Moderate anemia
D. Rh incompatibility
46. All of the following are true regarding asymmetric IUGR except
A. Brain in spared
B. PIH is a cause
C. Occur in later part of pregnancy
D. Chromosomal anomalies occur
47. Monochorionic monoamniotic twins occur due to division during
A. Within 24 hours
B. 24-72 hours
C. 72 hours to 8 days
D. After 8 days
48. Most common site of puerperal infection
A. Placental site
B. Cervical laceration
C. Episiotomy wound
D. Vaginal laceration
49. Acute cryptomenorrhea can occur due to all of the following except
A. Conization
B. Trachelorrhaphy
C. Cryosurgery
D. Amputation of cervix
50. An example of type-I respiratory failure
A. ARDS
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Narcotic overdose
D. Primary alveolar hypoventilation