Category: Objective Questions

MS Dynamics Objective Questions and Answers

MS Dynamics Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam MS Dynamics Multiple choice Questions. Quiz MS Dynamics Test Questions

 1.You review a published Knowledge Base article. | Ms Dynamics mcqs

Which two actions can you perform? (Choose TWO) 

A. Add a note 

B. Change the subject 

C. Add a keyword 

D. Add a section 

E. Add a comment 

Answer: A, E 

 

2. What role do keywords play in the Knowledge Base?  | Ms Dynamics mcqs

A. Keywords are only used to manage the Knowledge Base. 

B. Keywords relate similar cases to each other 

C. Keywords are used to search for articles. 

D. Keywords define the subject tree. 

Answer: C 

 

3. You review a Knowledge Base article. | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

On the Article tab of the ribbon, which option is NOT in the Action group? 

A. Submit 

B. Unpublished 

C. Approve 

D. Reject 

E. Publish 

Answer: E 

 

4. Which two record types require a reference to the subject tree? Each answer presents part of the solution.(Choose TWO) | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. Sales Attachments 

B. Case Resolution Activity 

C. Cases 

D. Sales Literature 

E. Knowledge Base articles 

Answer: D,E 

 

5.A company tracks competitors by using Connection records instead of using the native Competitors 

Related Opportunity and Competitor between the Opportunity and the Account, which represents the competitor. Accounts have a flag which designates the record as a competitor. Which statement is true? | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A.  The Connection record is used to populate the options in the Competitor field on the Opportunity’s resolution activity for Lost Opportunities. 

B.A Connection record is created between the Opportunity and the Account. 

C.  The Competitor/Win Loss report uses the Connection record to indicate how well the organization is doing versus a competitor 

D . The Connection record is used to populate the options in the Competitor field on the Opportunity’s resolution activity for Won Opportunities. 

Answer: B 

 

6.In which two circumstances does the auto save process save changes to Lead records?(Choose TWO) | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. When a user exits a changed record 

B. Every 30 seconds 

C. When a user creates the record 

D. Every 120 seconds 

E. Every time a user moves the focus out of an edited field 

Answer: A,B 

 

7. Which field is required to create a new Opportunity record? | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. Originating Lead 

B. Customer 

C. Topic 

D. Contact 

E. Account 

Answer: C 

 

8.When you qualify a lead, which two records will also be created?(Choose TWO) | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. Account 

B. Contract 

C. Campaign Response 

D. Opportunity 

E. Contact 

Answer: A,D 

 

9.Which type of activity can you convert to a Lead? | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. Task 

B. Appointment 

C. Email 

D. Fax 

Answer: C 

 

10. When creating a Lead, which type of information can you enter on the Main Lead form? | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. Goals 

B. Competitors 

C. Additional addresses 

D. Products 

Answer: B  

 

11. A custom entity is no longer required. What should you do before deleting the entity? | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. Remove the entity from any required security roles. 

B. Check whether the entity has any dependencies. 

C. Reassign all the records in the entity. 

D. Change the entity ownership to Organization. 

Answer: B 

 

12. You are creating a customized Solution for a conference. 

Each conference attendee can register for multiple sessions, and each session can have multiple 

registered attendees. Attendees complete surveys after each session. Surveys have custom fields. Which relationship type should you use between attendees and session registrations to track surveys? | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. One-to-many (1:N) from session registration to attendee 

B. One-to-many (1:N) from attendee to session registration 

C. Native many-to-many (N:N) between attendee and session registration 

D. Manual many-to-many (N:N) between attendee and session registration 

Answer: D 

 

13.You need to add a new custom entity to a Microsoft Dynamics CRM database. Which three actions can you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. Execute a workflow. 

B. Import a Solution. 

C. Run a dialog. 

D. Create a new entity in the default Solution. 

E. Import data. 

Answer: A, B, D 

 

14.What type of relationship exists between the Marketing List entity and the Contact entity? | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. One-to-many (1:N) 

B. Many-to-one (N:l) 

C. Native many-to-many (N:N) 

D. Manual many-to-many (N:N) 

Answer: C 

 

15. You are using Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online. 

You plan to create an entity named Project. The Project entity will have 15 custom fields. 

Which two properties can you change after you create the entity? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. Ownership 

B. Number of fields 

C. Define as activity entity 

D. Display Name 

Answer: B, D 

 

16.You are creating a custom entity. Which three communication and collaboration features can be disabled after they are enabled? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. Sending email 

B. Access Teams 

C. Document management 

D. Mail merge 

E. Notes 

Answer: B, C, D 

 

17. You customize the Lead entity by adding a country option set that is automatically populated for records created by a third-party website. 

You map the country option set in the Lead entity to a country option set in the Contact entity. 

When you create a Contact record, what happens if the option set value specified in the Lead does not exist in the Contact country option set? | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. The text label and integer value for the country are copied from the Lead country option set to the Contact country option set. 

B. The text label for the country is copied from the Lead country option set to the Contact country option set and a new integer value is assigned. 

C. The country is copied to the Contact record but not added to the Contact country option set. 

D. The country field in the Contact record is left blank. 

Answer: B 

 

18. When auditing is enabled, which statement about field auditing is true? | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. Field auditing properties can be set for only one field at a time. 

B. Auditing can be turned on or off for a field at any time. 

C. Auditing can be turned on for a custom field only while creating the field. 

D. Field-level audit properties can be used to create exceptions for an entity that is not enabled for auditing. 

Answer: B 

 

19.An organization plans to install Microsoft Dynamics NAV on multiple computers by using a client.xml file with predefined options. You need to perform the installation without user intervention. Which command you should run? | Ms Dynamics mcqs

A. Setup.exe /load client.xml /quiet 

B. Setup.exe /load client.xml /silent 

C. Setup.exe /config client.xml /quiet 

D. Setup.exe /config client.xml /silent 

Answer: C 

 

20. Which three values are valid Field Requirement property values in Microsoft Dynamics CRM? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. | Ms Dynamics mcqs 

A. System Recommended 

B. Business Recommended 

C. Business Required 

D. System Required 

E. No Constraint 

F. Optional 

Answer: B, C, F  

 

21. Which element belongs to the core architecture of an installation of Microsoft Dynamics NAV?

 A. Microsoft Dynamics NAV Server Administration tool 

B. Microsoft Office Outlook Add-In 

C. Microsoft Dynamics NAV Development Environment 

D. Microsoft Dynamics NAV Service tier 

Answer: D 

 

22.  An organization has an on-premise deployment of Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 that includes three organizations. Users have accounts in all three organizations. Some users have Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 email accounts and other users have Exchange Online email accounts. You need to configure the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 E-mail Router. How many incoming profiles should you create.?

A. 2 

B. 3

C. 6 

D. 1

Answer: A

 

23. A company has a server named EX1 that runs Microsoft Exchange Server 2003. You need to configure an incoming profile in the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 E-mail Router Configuration Manager for the Exchange server. What should you enter as the incoming server name?

A. http://ex1

B. http://ex1/EWS/Exchange.asmx 

C. http://ex1/owa 

D. ex1 

Answer: A

 

24. Which prepackaged installation option does Microsoft Dynamics NAV support? 

A. Web Server 

B. SharePoint Server 

C. SQL Server 

D. Server 

Answer: D 

 

25. A company has POP3 email accounts and sends mail by using the SMTP protocol. You configure two queues in an on-premise deployment of Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 to use a forward mailbox for incoming email and the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 E-mail Router for outgoing email. All employees use Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 for Microsoft Office Outlook for incoming email and the E-mail Router for outgoing email. How many profiles should you create in the E-mail Router Configuration Manager?

A. one incoming profile and one outgoing profile

B. two incoming profiles and one outgoing profile

C. one incoming profile and two outgoing profiles 

D. two incoming profiles and two outgoing profiles 

Answer: A

 

26. You need to install the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 E-mail Router for use with only a POP3 email system. What should you do?

A. Before installing the E-mail Router, install Microsoft Office Outlook on all client computers. 

B. Before installing the E-mail Router, install the Microsoft Exchange Server MAPI Client and 

Collaboration Data Objects. 

C. Before installing the E-mail Router, install and start Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server 2011. 

D. While installing the E-mail Router, do not select the Rule Deployment Wizard component. Answer: D 

 

27. When using smart matching, which components of an email message are inspected by the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 E-mail Router?

A. subject, senders address, and recipients addresses

B. body, senders address, and recipients addresses 

C. header, body, and subject 

D. subject, body, and senders address 

Answer: A

 

28. Which of the following 32-bit operating systems is supported by the 32-bit edition of the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 E-mail Router?

A. Windows Server 2003 

B. Windows Server 2008 

C. Windows Vista 

D. Windows 7 

Answer: D 

 

29. A company uses Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 on-premises. You need to create an incoming Microsoft Exchange Online profile for the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 E-mail Router. Which authentication type should you use for the incoming profile?

A. Clear Text 

B. Windows Authentication 

C. NTLM 

D. Anonymous 

Answer: A 

 

30. Which of the following e-mail systems are natively supported by the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 E-mail Router? (Choose all that apply.)

A. POP3-compliant servers (for incoming e-mail only)

B. SMTP-compliant servers (for outgoing e-mail only) 

C. IMAP-compliant servers (for incoming e-mail only) 

D. Microsoft Exchange Online 

Answer: A,B,D 

 

 

31. Which of the following 64-bit operating systems is supported by the 64-bit edition of the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 E-mail Router?

A. Windows Server 2008 

B. Windows XP 

C. Windows Vista 

D. Windows Server 2003 

Answer: A 

 

32. You plan to install Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011. You need to use specific security group names that do not currently exist in Active Directory. What should you do?

A. Create the security groups in Active Directory, and then install Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server 2011 by using an XML configuration file that references the existing security groups.

B. Log on to the server as a Domain Administrator. Install Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server 2011 by using an XML configuration file that includes the names of the security groups you want to create.

C. Log on to the server as a Domain Administrator, and start the Microsoft Dynamics CRM setup program. In the setup interface, enter the names of the security groups you want to create.

D. Create the security groups in Active Directory, and then select them in the Microsoft Dynamics CRM setup interface.

Answer: A 

 

33. You plan to install Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server 2011. Which versions of Microsoft SQL Server will support the installation? (Choose all that apply.)

A. SQL Server 2008 Enterprise Edition, (x86) SP1 

B. SQL Server 2008 Standard Edition (x64) SP1 

C. SQL Server 2008 R2 Enterprise Edition (x86) 

D. SQL Server 2008 R2 Enterprise Edition (x64)

Answer: BD 

 

34. You are planning to deploy Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 on-premises to a single server. The current server configuration includes the following components: Windows Small Business Server 2008 SP2 Microsoft SQL Server 2008 Workgroup Edition Internet Information Services (IIS) 7 Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007. Which component do you need to upgrade before you can install Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011?  

A. Windows Small Business Server 2008 SP2 

B. Internet Information Services (IIS) 7 

C. SQL Server 2008 Workgroup Edition 

D. SharePoint Server 2007 

Answer: C 

 

35. You plan to install Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 and the Microsoft Dynamics CRM E-mail Router on a server named SERVER1. The Microsoft Dynamics CRM databases will be stored on a server named SERVER2, which runs Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Enterprise Edition (x64). The E-mail Router will be configured to connect to Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 Enterprise Edition. The company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. What are the minimum privileges necessary to install Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 in this situation? 

A. Local Administrator rights on SERVER1 and SERVER2; Exchange Server Administrator rights; Organization and security group creation permission in AD DS

B. Local Administrator rights on SERVER1 and SERVER2; sys admin role permissions on SERVER2; Rights to create and add members to security groups in AD DS 

C. Write privileges on SERVER1 and SERVER2; organization and security group creation permission in AD DS 

D. Domain Administrator; Local Administrator rights on SERVER1 

Answer: B

CDMA Objective Questions and Answers

CDMA Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam CDMA Multiple choice Questions. Quiz CDMA Test Questions

 

1. In CDMA, the system uses ______for the Forward and Reverse links

A. FDD

B. TDD

C. Both 1 & 2

D. None of the above

Ans: C

2. Which of this is not a call set up channel?

A. Short Pilot 

B. Long Pilot 

C. Global Pilot 

D. Access Channel 

Ans: C

 

3. Channels used for the call is called

A. The Broadcast Channel group

B. Call Setup Channel group

C. Assigned Channel group

D. None of the above

Ans:  C

 

4. Which of these signaling is used for the PSTN network interface

A. R2

B. V5.2

C. CCS No. 7

D. Any of the above

Ans: D

 

5. Which of this Controls FSU power during call?

A. APC Channel

B. Traffic Channels 

C. Order wire 

D. Access Channel 

Ans: A

 

6. Which of this is a Assigned Channel ?

A. Long Pilot 

B. Order wire 

C. Access Channel 

D. Fast Broadcast Channel 

Ans: B

 

7. Which of these channel is unidirectional?

A. Broadcast 

B. Call Setup 

C. Assigned 

D. None of the above

Ans: A

 

8. Which of these channel is unidirectional?

A. Broadcast 

B. Call Setup 

C. Assigned

D. None of the above

Ans: A

 

9. How many traffic channels are there in each FSU?

A. Up to 1 per FSU 

B. Up to 2 per FSU

C. Up to 3 per FSU 

D. Up to 4 per FSU 

Ans: C

 

10. The system is equipped with _________________ for data service.

A. IWF

B. BSM

C. FSU

D. None of the above

Ans: A

 

11. In general, Spread Spectrum communications is distinguished by which of these elements?

A. The signal occupies a bandwidth much greater than that which is necessary to send the information 

B. The bandwidth is spread by means of a code which is independent of the data 

C. The receiver synchronizes to the code to recover the data 

D. All of the above

Ans: D

 

12. Which of this is the way to spread the bandwidth of the signal

A. Frequency hopping

B. Time hopping

C. Direct sequence

D. All of the above

Ans: D

 

13. The digital data is directly coded at a much higher frequency. The code is generated pseudo-randomly, the receiver knows how to generate the same code, and correlates the received signal with that code to extract the data. Which type of spread spectrum is this?

A. Frequency hopping

B. Time hopping

C. Direct sequence

D. None of the above

Ans: C

 

14. The signal is transmitted in short bursts pseudo-randomly, and the receiver knows before hand when to expect the burst.Which type of spread spectrum is this?

A. Frequency hopping

B. Time hopping

C. Direct Sequence

D. None of the above

Ans: B

 

15. What is the data rate for Adaptive Differential Pulse Code Modulation (ADPCM)

A. 8 kBits/sec 

B. 16 kBits/sec 

C. 32 kBits/sec 

D. 64 kBits/sec 

Ans: C

 

16. What is the data rate for Low Delay Code Excited Linear Prediction (LD-CELP)?

A. 8 kBits/sec 

B. 16 kBits/sec

C. 32 kBits/sec

D. 64 kBits/sec

Ans: B

 

17. The subscriber unit correctly generates its own matching code and uses it to extract the appropriate signals. Each subscriber uses

A. singal independant channels. 

B. several independant channels. 

C. singal dependant channels. 

D. several dependant channels. 

Ans: B

 

18. In CDMA, the pseudo-random code must have the following property

A. It must be deterministic

B. It must appear random to a listener without prior knowledge of the code 

C. The code must have a long period 

D. All of the above

Ans: D

 

19. What will be the correlation of two codes ,if the two codes are identical ?

A. 0

B. 0.5

C. 1

D. infinite

Ans: C

 

20. The bit rate of the PN code is called

A. Chipping Frequency (fc)

B. Information rate (fi)

C. Chip

D. Epoch

Ans: A

 

21. In CDMA, the bit rate of the digital data is called

A. chipping frequency

B. information rate

C. chip

D. Epoch

Ans: B

 

22. One bit of the PN code is called

A. chipping frequency

B. information rate

C. chip

D. Epoch

Ans: C

 

23. The length of time before the code starts repeating itself (the period of the code) is called

A. chipping frequency

B. information rate

C. chip

D. Epoch

Ans: D

 

24. The epoch must be _________ the round trip propagation delay

A. shorter than

B. longer than

C. equal to

D. None of the above

Ans: B

 

25. CDMA technology is inherently resistant to

A. interference

B. jamming

C. Both 1 & 2

D. None of the above

Ans: C

 

26. Spatial filtering, such as sectorization, ______________system capacity.

A. increases 

B. decreases 

C. does not depend 

D. None of the above

Ans: A

 

27. A 6-sector cell would have a ___________capacity than a 3-sector cell.

A. same

B. lower

C. higher

D. None of the above

Ans: C

 

28. When a cell becomes heavily loaded, it __________.

A. shrinks

B. expands

C. remain same

D. none of the above

Ans: A

 

29. _______________ is the constant change of the range of the geographical area covered by a cellular telephone transmitter based on the amount of traffic currently using that transmitter.

A. FER

B. Cell loading factor

C. Cell breathing

D. Sectorization

Ans: C

 

30. _______________ is the constant change of the range of the geographical area covered by a cellular telephone transmitter based on the amount of traffic currently using that transmitter.

A. FER

B. Cell loading factor

C. Cell breathing

D. Sectorization

Ans: C

 

31. Capacity is_____________proportional to the required Eb/Noof the system.

A. inversely 

B. directly

C. square

D. none of the above

Ans: A

 

32. If a system requires 4 kHz of bandwidth to continuously send 8000 binary digits/sec, the bandwidth efficiency will be _______

A. 0.5 bits/s/Hz

B. 1 bits/s/Hz

C. 2 bits/s/Hz

D. 32 bits/s/Hz

Ans: C

 

33. The capacity of CDMA cell depends on

A. power control accuracy

B. interference power

C. Both 1 & 2 

D. None of the above

Ans: C

 

34. ___________is considered when two cells (or sectors) of the same site are involved

A. Harder Handover 

B. Softer Handover 

C. No Handover

D. None of the above

Ans: B

 

35. The spreading bandwidth for the CDMA environment is 1.23 MHz. The voice activity factor is assumed to be _____________.

A. 1.375

B. 0.375(0.3 to 0.4)

C. 0.125

D. None of the above

Ans: B

 

36. Eb/No is the measure of __________________ for a digital communication system

A. signal to noise ratio

B. bit error ratio 

C. spectral power

D. None of the above

Ans: A

 

37. Eb/No is measured at the _______________and is used as the basic measure of how strong the signal is.

A. output of the receiver 

B. input to the receiver 

C. input to the transmitter

D. output of the transmitter

Ans: B

 

38. What will be the path loss in dB for an open air site?

A. -8.27 dB

B. -80.27 dB

C. 80.27 dB

D. 8.27 dB

Ans: C

 

39. What will be the required transmitter power, in above example?(fade margin=30dB)

A. 25 mW

B. 55 mW

C. 110 mW

D. None of the above

Ans: B

 

40. What will be the required transmitter power, in above example?(fade margin=30dB)

a. 25 mW

b. 55 mW

c. 110 mW

d. None of the above

Ans: B

 

41. Maximum capacity is achieved when Eb/No of every user is at the ____________ level needed for the acceptable channel performance.

A. minimum

B. maximum

C. moderate

D. None of the above

Ans: A

 

42. The ratio of the number of erroneous frames received to the total number of frame received for a defined period of time is called the _____________.

A. Bit Error Rate (BER)

B. Frame Ratio(FR)

C. Frame Error Rate (FER)

D. None of the above

Ans: C

 

43. Which of this is a parameter which is used by CDMA networks to implement power allocation techniques for controlling the amount of power used by a base station and a mobile in transmitting and/or receiving communication signals?

A. BER

B. FER

C. frequency reuse factor

D. Eb/No

Ans: B

 

44. What is the frequency reuse factor in CDMA?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 10

D. infinity

Ans: B

 

45. In CDMA, Reduction of co channel interference due to processing gain allows frequency reuse factor of ________.

A. zero 

B. one 

C. ten

D. infinity

Ans: B

 

46. Sectorization Reduces Interference and adds a Gain to the system which is called _______________

A. Sectorization removal

B. Sectorization Gain

C. FER

D. Cell breathing

Ans: B

 

47. Total Interfering Power from all Directions/ Perceived Interference Power by the sector antenna is called ____________.

A. BER

B. sectorization gain

C. FER

D. Cell breathing

Ans: B

Adobe Illustrator Objective type Questions & Answers

Dear readers, these Adobe Illustrator Multiple choice Questions Pdf Download for Exam Adobe Illustrator. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview, normally questions start with some basic concept of the subject and later they continue based on further discussion and what you answer:

 

1. The Illustrator tool which is shown as a completely black arrow is called the…

A. Paint Tool

B. Direct Selection Tool

C. Selection Tool 

D. Anchor Tool

Ans: c 

2. The Illustrator tool which is shown as a white arrow is known as the..

A. Selection Tool

B. Paint Tool

C. Direct Selection Tool 

D. Anchor Adjustment Tool

Ans: c

 

3. If you wish to edit a shape, you must click an anchor point with the…

A. Anchor Adjustment Tool

B. Selection Tool

C. Direct Selection Tool 

D. Paint Tool

Ans: c

 

 

4. Which of the following is NOT a basic tool shape provided in Adobe Illustrator?

a. Triangle 

b. Ellipse

c. Star

d. Polygon

Ans: a

 

5. How do you select a shape that has no fill?

a. Click the interior center spot

b. Double click the interior center spot

c. Click the stroke 

d. Double click the anchor point

Ans: c

 

6. Which of the following correctly defines the method by which Adobe Illustrator creates images.

a. Raster

b. Encryption

c. Extrapolation

d. Vector 

Ans: d

 

7. Pick the correct procedure to draw a perfect square in Adobe Illustrator.

a. choose the rectangle tool, hold shift, and drag the cursor diagonally. 

b. input the square’s side dimensions.

c. double click the polygon tool

d. select the square polygon tool and click any open area

Ans: a

 

8. Which of the following is used to convert a raster image to a vector image?

a. Live Trace 

b. Live Pixels

c. Live Convert

d. Live Paint

Ans:  a

 

9. Selected tools from the toolbox will remain selected…

a. For approximately 15 seconds.

b. Until the computer is off line.

c. Until the software is shut down.

d. Until another tool is selected. 

Ans:  d

 

10. Which solution listed below will fill an object.

a. select the color tool and hit return on the keyboard

b. select the object and then a color from the color palette 

c. select a brush and paint the color inside the object

d. simply use the paint bucket

Ans: b

 

11. Holding the “shift key” while drawing with the pen tool will cause which of the following to happen?

a. the selected pen will change to the next one up

b. A vertical, horizontal, and 45 degree line can be drawn 

c. A zig-zag line can be drawn.

d. The pen will draw an empty line.

Ans: b

 

12. Adobe Illustrator terminology for a drawn line is…

a. Line

b. Gamma Line

c. Path 

d. Point Successor

Ans: c

 

13. At the end of drawing a line with the pen, holding down the end point and dragging wil cause which of following to occur

a. The line will stretch

b. The line will change to 45 degrees

c. The line will curve 

d. The line will smooth

Ans: c 

 

14. Which of the following tools would be used to edit a line?

a. the pen

b. selection tool

c. the eraser

d. direct selection tool 

Ans: d 

 

15. How can you select and manipulate individual objects in a group?

a. Use the “group transform” tool

b. Use the “group division” tool

c. Use the “group selection” tool

d. Can’t be done. The group needs to be ungrouped first. 

Ans: d

 

16. Which of the following will reduce an object PROPORTIONALLY?

a. Drag the handles of the bounding box while depressing “option”

b. Drag the handles on the bounding box.

c. Drag the handles on the bounding box while depressing “Shift”. 

d. Drag the handles and hold F4 while dragging

Ans: c

 

17. Which of the following does the “Paragraph” menu NOT operate?

a. Indentation

b. Leading 

c. Hyphenation

d. Format

Ans: b

 

18. Select from the following choices, an operation controlled by the “Character” menu.

a. format

b. type color

c. leading 

d. hyphenation

Ans: c

 

19. How do you create type that follows the shape of a path or an object?

a. It can’t be done.

b. Use the Pathfinder tool

c. Use the Path Type Tool 

d. Deselect the Path

Ans: c 

 

20. A line that is drawn in Adobe Illustrator that finishes where it began is called a…

a. Open Path

b. Symbol

c. Closed Path 

d. Closed Vector

Ans: c

 

21. You are creating a page that will become a web page. Which units should you set in your preferences.

a. picas

b. points

c. inches

d. pixels 

Ans: d

 

22. You wish to change the color of the stroke on an object. You should…

a. Click the color in the swatch, then select the stroke tool

b. Stroke color must be selected before creating the object.

c. Click the stroke tool at the bottom of tool box and select a color 

d. Click the bounding box and then select a color

Ans: c

 

23. Which of the following operations must be accomplished in order to add a new color to your color swatches?

a. Command+click the new swatch on the swatches panel 

b. Click the new swatch button on the swatches panel

c. Option+click the new swatch on the swatches panel

d. Drag the new swatch to the swatch menu

Ans: a

 

24. Which of the following tools will cut a path into two different paths.

a. scissors tool 

b. knife tool

c. bisect tool

d. transform tool

Ans: a 

 

25. You have expanded your image in order to work on some detail. Which of the following is the quickest way to return the display to the original size?

a. double-click the scaling tool

b. double click off the artboard

c. double-click the hand tool. 

d. double-click the magnifying glass tool

Ans: c

 

26. The Pathfinder Tool will…

a. Combine grouped objects 

b. Find a path for type

c. Find a path for stroke size

d. Find a path for rasterization

Ans: a

 

27. Which of the following is NOT a color mode of Illustrator

a. CMYK

b. RGB

c. Spot Color 

d. Grayscale

Ans: c 

 

28. To fill type with a gradient or interested effect which of the following operations must be accomplished first?

a. Show type as having an empty fill

b. Convert type to Outline 

c. Click the gradient and select the type while holding shift

d. Convert type using Pathfinder

Ans: b

 

29. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using layers.

a. Artwork printing is controlled

b. Artwork outlines are easily seen 

c. Artwork sections can be hidden

d. Artwork is protected from change

Ans: b

 

30. How do you change the leading between lines in a paragraph?

a. Use the leading pull down menu under “Font”

b. Place the cursor in front of the first line and click the option key

c. Press the up or down arrow key for each point of leading needed

d. Select the paragraph and enter the leading value in the “Character” palette 

Ans: d

 

31. What is a “gradient fill”?

a. 50% of one color, plus 50% of another color

b. A tint of a PMS Swatch

c. 75% of one color, plus 25% of another color

d. A graduated blend of two or more colors within a closed path 

Ans: d

 

32. How do you change the color in a “Mesh”?

a. Delete the color and then reset it with the swatch selection tool

b. Fill the mesh with the paint bucket tool after selecting a mesh point

c. Fill the mesh with the brush tool after grouping the objects

d. Use the direct selection tool, select a mesh point, then select the color 

Ans: d

 

33. How do you hide an Adobe Illustrator layer?

a. name the layer “Invisible Layer”

b. click on the pencil at the left of the layer name

c. adjust the gamma layer for “Invisible”

d. click off the eye on the left of the layer name 

Ans: d

 

34. A curve created in Adobe Illustrator is commonly referred to as a…

a. Bezier Curve 

b. Venus Curve

c. curved vector solution

d. Razerian Curve

Ans: a 

 

35. The two overlapping boxes at the bottom of the Adobe Illustrator toolbox control…

a. stroke and shadow

b. fill and stroke 

c. history and undo

d. texture and gamma

Ans: b

 

36. A simple straight line drawn with the pen tool is also known as a…

a. pathway

b. frame

c. path 

d. frameset

Ans: c

Best WPF Objective Questions and Answers

WPF Objective Questions Pdf Download for Exam WPF MCQs. Quiz WPF questions are very important for campus placement test and job interviews. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many IT companies.

1) The TextBox control shows a default context menu with options to Cut, Copy and Paste. Can we override this context menu by defining our own in the TextBox control?

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

2) Can we store the ContextMenu in Resource so that we can reuse it for various control on a form?

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

 

3) In WPF Padding controls how much extra space gets placed around the inside edges of the element.

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

 

4) Visibility (defined on UIElement) might sound like a strange property to talk about in the context of layout, but it is indeed relevant. An element’s Visibility property actually isn’t Boolean, but rather a three-state System.Windows.Visibility enumeration. One of Its value is “Collapsed” What is the meaning of this value

A. The element is invisible yet still participates in layout.

B. The element is invisible and does not participate in layout

C. The element gets rendered and participates in layout.

D. None of the above

Ans: B

 

5) BAML can’t be decompiled back into XAML

A. True

B. False

Ans: B

 

6) the .NET Framework 4.0 introduces a handful of new features for the XAML language. This second generation of the XAML language is referred to as

A. XAML2006

B. XAML2008

C. XAML2009

D. None of these

Ans: C

 

7) FrameworkElement is derived from

A. UIElement

B. ContentControl

C. Application

D. Control

Ans: A

 

8.WPF separates the appearance of an user interface from its behavior. The appearance is generally specified in the_______.

A. HTML

B. XAML

C. XML

D. XSLT

Ans: B

 

9. Which of the following layout is not available in WPF?

A. StackPanel

B. Canvas

C. Grid

D. Table

Ans: D

 

10.x:Static and data binding markup extensions are same.True or false?

A. True

B. False

Ans: B

 

11.WPF is a replacement to DirectX.True or False?

A. True

B. False

Ans: B

 

12.which is dependency property in this code:

A. Width

B. Canvas.Left

C. Canvas

D. None of above

Ans: B

 

13. Transformations are available in which namespace?

A. System.Windows.UIElement

B. System.Windows.FrameworkElement

C. System.Windows.Media

D. None of above

Ans: C

 

14.Which tool(s)is/are used to develop WPF applications?

A. Visual Studio

B. Expression Blend

C. Both a & b

D. Only a

Ans: C

 

15.WrapPanel Class comes under___________ assembly.

A. PresentationCore

B. PresentationFramework

C. milcore

D. None of above

Ans: B

 

16. Development is more efficient because designers can implement an application’s appearance simultaneously with developers who are implementing the application’s behavior.True or false?

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

 

17.A key element of the Trustworthy Computing initiative in WPF is_______.

A. XAML

B. SDL

C. XAP

D. None of above

Ans: B

 

18.Which of the following is routing strategy of Routed events?

A. Bubbling

B. Direct

C. Tunneling

D. All of above

Ans: D

 

19. Child controls are virtualized and arranged on a single line that is either horizontally or vertically oriented. Is true about?

A. DockPanel

B. VirtualizingStackPanel

C. WrapPanel

D. StackPanel

Ans: B

 

20. Child controls are positioned in left-to-right order and wrapped to the next line when there are more controls on the current line than space allows.Is true about?

A. WrapPanel

B. StackPanel

C. VirtualizingStackPanel

D. DockPanel

Ans: A

 

21.In DockPanel Child controls are aligned to the edges of the panel.True or False?>

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

 

22.Which of the following is not WPF model(used to create a new control/custom control)?

A. User Control Model

B. Control Model

C. Framework Element Model

D. Element Model

Ans: D

 

23.One of the primary architectural philosophies used in building WPF was a preference for properties over methods or events.

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

 

24.Which of the following class is used to implement Trees in WPF?

A. LogicalTreeHelper

B. VisualTreeHelper

C. AbstractTreeHelper

D. a & b

Ans: D

 

25._______class provides the GetChildren, GetParent, and FindLogicalNode methods for logical tree traversal.

A. LogicalTreeHelper

B. VisualTreeHelper

C. AbstractTreeHelper

D. a & b

Ans:A

 

26. ________ is a DependencyProperty instance, which is obtained as a return value when registering a dependency property, and then stored as a static member of a class.

A. Dependency property

B. Dependency property identifier

C. CLR “wrapper”

D. None of above

Ans: B

 

27. Windows Presentation Foundation (WPF) introduces _______ events that can invoke handlers that exist on various listeners in the element tree of an application.

A. routed

B. bubbled

C. child

D. None of above

Ans: A

 

31.The________attribute works for FrameworkElement and FrameworkContentElement used for consistency.

A. Class

B. Name

C. Key

D. Value

Ans: B

 

32.All XAML resources should have an________attribute in WPF.

A. x:Name

B. x:Class

C. x:Value

D. x:Key

Ans: D

 

33. x:Null specifies null as a value for a property and can be used either for attributes or property element values.True or False?

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

 

34.__________provides a value for a property by deferring that value to be a run-time reference to a resource.

A. StaticResource

B. DynamicResource

C. RelativeSource

D. Binding

Ans: B

 

35.___________provides a value for a property by substituting the value of an already defined resource.

A. StaticResource

B. DynamicResource

C. RelativeSource

D. Binding

Ans: A

 

36.____________provides source information for a Binding that can navigate several possible relationships in the run-time object tree.

A. StaticResource

B. DynamicResource

C. RelativeSource

D. Binding

Ans: C

 

37._________provides a data bound value for a property, using the data context that applies to the parent object at run time.

A. StaticResource

B. DynamicResource

C. RelativeSource

D. Binding

Ans: D

 

38. What is full form of WPF?

a)Windows Presentation FoundationClass

b)Windows Precomputed FoundationClass

c)Windows Presentation Functions

d)None of These

Ans: A

 

39. What is XAML?

a)Extensible and Markup Language

b)Extensible Application Markup Language

c)Xtra Application Markup Language

d)None of These

Ans: B

 

40. Does that mean WPF has replaced DirectX?

a)Yes

b)No

Ans: B

 

41. Is XAML meant only for WPF ?

a)Yes

b)No

Ans: B

 

42. What is the stand for is XBAP?

A. extensible based application

B. XAML Browser Application

C. XAML Based Application

D. none

Ans: B

 

43. Which of the following have two states of Freezable object?

A. Fix and Unfix

B. Frozen and unfrozen.

C. Static and Dynamic

D. None

Ans: B

 

44. Which layout control would be the best choice for a user interface that requires evenly spaced controls laid out?

A. Grid

B. Canvas

C. UniformGrid

D. EvenlyGrid

Ans: C

 

45. Events Supported by WPF is are?

A. Direct Event

B. Bubbling Event

C. Tunneling Event

D. All of the above

Ans: D

 

46. WPF transformations can be used for

A. Only rotaion

B. Only scaling

C. Only skewing

D. rotation, scaling, and skewing

Ans: D

 

47. Which object can be used share the variable across pages in WPF?

A. Application

B. Session

C. Cookies

D. Viewstate

Ans: A

 

48. Which of the following is true regarding XAML?

A. Separation of designer code and logic

B. Tools like Expression Blend do not support XAML.

C. XAML is platform independent.

D. All of the above

Ans: A

 

49. How you can set a working mnemonic key for a label?

A. Set the Target property to the target control. Precede the letter for the mnemonic key with an underscore symbol in the Content property of the Label control.

B. You must place both the Label control and the Target property in the same container.

C. Set the Mnemonic Key property on the Label control.

D. None

Ans: A

 

50. In WPF which language is used to express user interface?

A. XML

B. XAML

C. WSDL

D. C#

Ans: B