300+ [UPDATED] WebLogic MCQs and Answers [PDF]

WebLogic Objective Questions and Answers

WebLogic Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam WebLogic Multiple choice Questions. Quiz WebLogic Test Questions

1. What is the WebLogic workshop used for? | Weblogic Mcqs

A. Design web services

B. Create and edit deployment descriptors

C. Deployment of applications

D. Both 2 and 3

Ans: A

Mcqs on WebLogic

2. WebLogic provides various options for deploying applications. | Weblogic Mcqs

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

 

3. It is not necessary to have access to a WebLogic Server distribution to compile your programs. | Weblogic Mcqs

A. True

B. False

Ans: B

 

4. Which web application modules can run on a weblogic server? | Weblogic Mcqs

A. HTML Pages

B. Servlets

C. JSP’s

D. All of the above

Ans: D

 

5. Which of the following tools can be used for developing WebLogic Server applications? | Weblogic Mcqs

A. IDE

B. Third party software

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 or 2

Ans: C

 

6. Which file contains the configuration information about the entire WebLogic Server domain? | Weblogic Mcqs

A. Config.html

B. Config.JAR

C. Config.xml

D. Config.txt

Ans: C

 

7. Does WebLogi c support multithreading applications? | Weblogic Mcqs

A. yes

B. No

Ans: A

 

8. Which of the following are WebLogic Server deployment tools ? | Weblogic Mcqs

A. weblogic.Deployer

B. wldeploy

C. Administration Console

D. All of the above

Ans: D

 

9. Which EJB modules can run on a weblogic server? | Weblogic Mcqs

A. entity beans

B. Resource beans

C. Adapter beans

D. All of the above

Ans: A

 

10. How does weblogic provide performance and scalability of applications in production? | Weblogic Mcqs

A. Caching

B. Control data flow

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Security for data

Ans: C

 

11. How many types of containers does the weblogic server have? | Weblogic Mcqs

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Ans: B

 

12. WebLogic is ___________ application server. | Weblogic Mcqs

A. Oracle

B. IBM

C. Intel

D. Microsoft

Ans: A

 

13. Can the WebLogic builder be used to deploy WebLogic Server applications to single servers? | Weblogic Mcqs

A. Yes

B. No

Ans: A

 

14. What platform is weblogic based on? | Weblogic Mcqs

A. J2ME

B. J2EE

C. J2SE

D. None of the above

Ans: B

 

15. How many types of containers does the weblogic server have? | Weblogic Mcqs

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Ans: B

300+ [UPDATED] Physiotheraphy MCQs and Answers [PDF]

Physiotheraphy Objective Questions and Answers

Physiotheraphy Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam Physiotheraphy Multiple choice Questions. Quiz Physiotheraphy Test Questions

1. What is the name of the group of muscles at the FRONT of your thigh? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Quadriceps

B. Hamstrings

C. Calves

D. Pectorals

Ans: A

 

2. What is the name of the group of muscles at the BACK of your thigh? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Quadriceps

B. Hamstrings

C. Calves

D. Pectorals

Ans: B

3. What are the name of the muscles located at the front of your chest? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Biceps

B. Deltoids

C. Gluteals

D. Pectorals

Ans: D

4. Which group of muscles are found on your back? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Biceps

B. Rectus abdominis

C. Latissimus dorsi

D. Pectorals

Ans: C

5. If a physio says you have injured your gluteal muscles, where are these? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Neck

B. Stomach

C. Arm

D. Leg

Ans: D

 6. What piece of equipment is a physio likely to use to strengthen your core muscles? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Gym/swiss ball

B. Foam roller

C. Punchbag

D. Resistance tube

Ans: A

7. What piece of equipment may be used to strengthen the ankle and knee following injury? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Dumbbells

B. Barbell

C. Stability disc

D. Punchbag

Ans: C

8. Which of these is NOT a piece of physio equipment? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Gym/swiss ball

B. Medicine ball

C. Stability disc

D. Kettle

Ans: D

9. To help with injuries, which of the following supports can you buy? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Shoulder

B. Knee

C. Ankle

D. All of the above

Ans: D

10. To support joints after injury, what may a physio use? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Tape and strapping

B. Superglue

C. Sellotape

D. All of the above

Ans: A

11. What is a physio likely to give you during a session? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Your money back

B. Exercise and advice sheets

C. D–gs

D. Food and drink

Ans: B

12. Which of these is an exercise for the knee? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Bicep curl

B. Crunch

C. Straight leg raise

D. Pelvic tilt

Ans: C

13. Which of these is NOT an exercise of the knee? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Prone knee bend

B. Calf raises

C. Quadriceps tensing

D. Crunch

Ans: D

14. Which of the following is an exercise for the back? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Arching

B. Bicep curl

C. Straight leg raise

D. Calf raise

Ans: A

15. Which of the following is NOT an exercise for the back? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. One leg to chest

B. Two legs to chest

C. Side bend

D. Chin tucks

Ans: D

16. Which of these is a shoulder exercise? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Calf raise

B. Arm raise to side

C. Heel slide

D. None of the above

Ans: B

17. Which of these can be done to exercise the hip? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Hip flexor stretch

B. Quadriceps stretch

C. Hip flexion

D. All of the above

Ans: D

18. Which of the following is NOt an exercise for the neck? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Neck rotation

B. Neck side bend

C. Neck press

D. Chin tuck

Ans: C

19. Which of these exercises may be used for the ankle? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Dorsiflexion

B. Plantarflexion

C. Calf raise

D. All of the above

Ans: D

20. Which of these would NOT be used to exercise the ankle? | Physiotherapy Questions

A. Dumbbell

B. Resistance band

C. Wobble board

D. Stability disc

Ans: A

21. You are likely to see a physio to recover from?

A. Depression

B. Illness

C. Injury

D. D–g abuse

Ans: C

22. What is the abbreviation used to describe treatment of an exercise injury?

A. RICP

B. RICE

C. RICH

D. RICK

Ans: B

23. What treatment should you NOT use immediately after an injury, such as an ankle sprain?

A. Rest

B. Ice

C. Compression

D. Heat

Ans: D

24. Which of these is a common injury of the back?

A. Slipped disc

B. Dislocation

C. Tennis elbow

D. Cruciate ligament

Ans: A

25. Which of these is NOT a common injury of the shoulder?

A. Frozen shoulder

B. Dislocation

C. Rotator cuff injury

D. Runners knee

Ans: D

26. Which of the following is a common injury of the hand and wrist?

A. Osgood schlatters

B. Sprained thumb

C. Slipped disc

D. Hernia

Ans: B

27. Which of these is NOT a common knee injury?

A. Cruciate ligament

B. Runners knee

C. Hernia

D. Torn cartilage

Ans: C

28. Injuries to the lower leg can include?

A. Shin splints

B. Calf strain

C. Broken leg

D. All of the above

Ans: D

29. If you wake up in the morning and your neck hurts, what are you likely to have?

A. Stiff neck

B. Dislocated neck

C. Broken neck

D. None of the above

Ans: A

30. Injuries to muscles are known as tears or ______?

A. Sprains

B. Strains

C. Breaks

D. Cracks

Ans: B

31. Which of the following may help prevent injuries?

A. Warm-up

B. Supports

C. Stretches

D. All of the above

Ans: D

32. What should you do after exercise to prevent injury and soreness?

A. Go to the pub

B. Take a protein shake

C. Do a cool-down

D. All of the above

Ans: C

33. Which of the following is a lower body stretch?

A. Calf

B. Abdominal

C. Tricep

D. Trapezius

Ans: A

34. Which of the following is NOT an upper body stretch?

A. Shoulder

B. Gluteal

C. Tricep

D. Back

Ans: B

35. Which of these is a common football injury?

A. Hamstring strain

B. Dislocated shoulder

C. Slipped disc

D. Rotator cuff injury

Ans: A

36. Which of these is NOT a common rugby injury?

A. Hamstring strain

B. Ankle sprain

C. Tennis elbow

D. Head injury

Ans: C

37. Which of these is a common running injury?

A. Runners knee

B. Shin splints

C. Blisters

D. All of the above

Ans: D

38. What injury is common in racket sports?

A. Hernia

B. Tennis elbow

C. Head injury

D. Broken toe

Ans: B

39. in golf, which of the following injuries is NOT common?

A. Back pain

B. Golfers elbow

C. Shoulder pain

D. Shin splints

Ans: D

40. What is a common skiing/snowboarding injury?

A. Knee ligament injuries

B. Tennis elbow

C. Frozen shoulder

D. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Ans: A

41. Patients with which type of condition may be treated by physiotherapists?

A. Sports injuries

B. Back pain

C. Arthritis

D. All of the above

Ans: D

42. Which of these conditions would not be treated by a physiotherapist?

A. Depression

B. Torn ligaments

C. Muscle strains

D. All of the above

Ans: A

43. Which of these people can be treated by a physiotherapist?

A. Children

B. Adults

C. Elderly

D. All of the above

Ans: D

44. What should you look for when choosing a physiotherapist?

A. Someone you can trust

B. Someone who will listen to you and understand your problems

C. Someone who offers value for money

D. All of these

Ans: D

45. How long is the course to become a physiotherapist?

A. 1 year

B. 3 years

C. 7 years

D. 10 years

Ans: B

46. How do you know if a physio is what they claim?

A. If they tell you they are qualified

B. If they have done a course on sports therapy

C. If they are registered with the Health Professions Council (HPC)

D. If they have a professional business card

Ans: C

47. If you are pregnant, what type of physio should you look for?

A. A normal one

B. One who specialises in women’s health

C. One who has just completed their training

D. One who has been working for many years

Ans: B

48. If you are a high level athlete suffering from injury, what physio clinic should you look for?

A. A specialist elderly clinic

B. A women’s health clinic

C. A paediatric clinic

D. A sports injury clinic

Ans: D

49. To become a physio you must?

A. Complete the relevant courses and qualifications

B. Get yourself a first aid kit

C. Have experience of treating people before you qualify

D. None of the above

Ans: A

50. What is the representative body that most physiotherapists are registered to?

A. Physiotherapy UK

B. Chartered Society of Physiotherapy

C. Physiotherapy USA

D. Physiotherapy World

Ans: B

300+ [UPDATED] Front Office Assistant MCQs and Answers [PDF]

Front Office Assistant Objective Questions and Answers

Front Office Assistant Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam Front Office Assistant Multiple choice Questions. Quiz Front Office Assistant Test Questions

1) The resource scheduling screen is where | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.you would go to order a lab

B.appointments can be viewed/scheduled for providers and resources

C. you would go to see your faxes

Ans: B

2) Having the “Details” box unchecked on the resource scheduling screen enables the user to | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.add any relevant details to the schedule

B. see patient details in depth

C.hide the calender and provider list panes thus expanding the resource scheduling screen

Ans: C

3) When searching for a patient that cannot be found through the initial search attempt what must be done before creating a new patient? | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.check eHx to see if they may have previously been seen in the hospital

B. add demographic information

C. search in patient recall for previous appointments

Ans: A

4) The “drop-down” carrot next to the patient lookup button will populate how many patients whose Hub screen has been viewed? | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.10

B.5

C. 15

Ans:  B

5) While in the patient lookup screen a “W” next to the patients name indicates | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.that there is a billing alert for this patient

B. indicates that there is a global alert for this patient

C.indicates that the patient is web-enabled through the patient portal

Ans: C

6) While in the patient lookup screen a red “!” (exclamation point) next to the patients name indicates | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.that the patient is web-enable through the patient portal

B. that the patient is enabled for eClinical Messenger (voice/digital recorded messenging)

C.that there is a billing alert for this patient

Ans: C

7) While in the patient lookup screen a green square next to the patients name indicates | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.that the patient is web-enabled (patient portal)

B.that there is a global alert for the patient

C. that the patient is enabled for eClinical Messenger

Ans: B

8) While in the patient lookup screen a circled “V” next to the patients name indicates | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.that the patient is enabled for eClinical Messenger

B. that there is a billing alert for this patient

C. that there is a global alert for this patient

Ans: A

9) If the new patient being registered is a family member of a patient who already exists in your patient lookup database, this button will create a new patient by copying the demographics from an existing patient into the new patient’s account | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.New

B. Patient Info

C.New (Copy)

Ans: C

10) While in the patient lookup screen checking the “RTS” box will allow you to do what? | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.search using a Reformed Theological Search (imports analytical processes)

B.search using a Real Time Search (modify the list of patients as the characters are being typed)

C. search using a Regional Transit System (provides subsidized patient mobility)

Ans: B

11) While in the patient demographics screen the box titled “PCP” stands for | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)piperidine

B. preferred care provider

C.primary care provider

Ans: C

12) In the patient information screen, you will find the patients pharmacy information by clicking on what button? | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.Alert

B. Misc Info

C.Additional Info

Ans:  C

13) A “Guarantor” is someone who | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.is financially responsible for a patient but is not a current patient

B. is always a biological relative of the patient

C. is currently with the patient

Ans: A

14) Date of birth, gender race ethnicity, language, and insurance type are required as a part of | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.HIPPA regulations

B.meaningful use of EMR

C. health care reform act

Ans: A

15) Certain details regarding the patient must be captured using the structured data fields, which are important for generating the required reports can be found where? | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.patient information->options->structured tab

B. patient information->alert->structured tab

C.patient information->additional info->structured tab

Ans:  C

16) Provides quick, single point access to all information (clinical and account) related to the patient | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.patient Hub

B. patient Info

C. patient Lookup

Ans: A

17) Displays a quick reference of the patients Progress Notes window, giving the provider easy access to the patients history and other information, such as current medications, allergies, alerts and immunizations | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.Chart Panel

B. Hub Buttons

C. Toolbar

Ans: A

18) Provides access to the patient’s past and present test results, immunizations, referrals, allergies, alerts, and notes | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.Patient Information

B. Patient Lookup

C.Chart Panel

Ans: C

19) Messages in eClinicalWorks can be accessed two ways | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.from the toolbar under ‘Notes’ or from the right chart panel under ‘CDSS’

B. any of the green ‘olives’

C.on the ‘Navigation’ panel under the ‘Messages’ band on the left column or by clicking on the ‘M’ jellybean

Ans:  C

20) A patient wants to know what available appointment times Dr. Suess has for next Wednesday, what would be the best way to view these time slots while maintaining the ability to schedule multiple appointments at once?  | Front Office Assistant Mcqs

 

A.from the resource scheduling screen, click on the ‘calender with a magnifying glass’ icon to schedule multiple appointments

B. from the resource scheduling screen, click on the ‘plain calender’ icon to schedule multiple appointments

C. from the resource scheduling screen, click on ‘calender with the number 7’ on it to schedule multiple appointments

Ans: A

21) Scheduling a group visit (where the same patient has to be scheduled for multiple visits under different providers/resources at same/different intervals of time) can be found and scheduled by

 

A.clicking on the ‘two people’ icon, filling in relevant fields then selecting ‘Schedule Multiple’

B. clicking on the ‘plain calender’ icon, filling in all relevant fields then selecting ‘Schedule Multiple’

C.clicking on the ‘calender with a magnifying glass’ icon, filling in all relevant fields then selecting ‘Schedule Multiple’

Ans: C

22) Appointments can be easily scheduled for multiple patients connected through the same “Responsible Party” (or Guarantor) using the ‘Create copy for family’ option found

 

A.by right-clicking on the patients scheduled appointment in the Resource Scheduling’ screen

B. by double-clicking on the patients scheduled appointment and selecting ‘responsible party’

C. by double-clicking on the patients scheduled appointment and selecting ‘Additional Info’

Ans: A

23) One way to reschedule an appointment would be to 

 

A.right-click on the appointment from the resource scheduling screen, select delete, then create a new appointment by clicking the appointment slot where the appointment needs to be rescheduled to

B. right click on the appointment from the resource scheduling screen, select cut, click on the appointment slot where the appointment needs to be rescheduled to and ‘paste’ the appointment by clicking the respective ‘paste’ button

C. right-click on the appointment from the resource scheduling screen, select copy, click on the appointment slot where the appointment needs to be rescheduled to then ‘paste’ the appointment by clicking the respective

Ans:  C

24) When rescheduling/cancelling/no-show appointments it is important to remember to always

 

A. go back to the actual appointment and change the ‘visit status’

B. go back to the actual appointment and change the ‘visit type’

C. write hostile notes in the patients ‘Additional Info’ section

Ans: A

25) To block hours on the schedule there is an icon on the resource scheduling screen that depicts a calender with a hand on it

 

A.True

B. False

Ans: A

26) Multiple appointments can be rescheduled using the ‘Bump List’ by creating an ‘Appointment Block’  and checking the “Move overlapping appointments to the bump list” or individual appointments by right-clicking on the appointment and choosing the ‘Bump Appointment’ option

 

A.True

B. False

Ans: A

27) The ‘Bump List’ can be seen by clicking on the Bump Appointments icon on the Resource Scheduling screen

 

A.True

B. False

Ans:  A

28) Although the ‘Bump List’ is populated by any St. Luke’s user who uses the feature, it is still possible to reschedule the appointments from the ‘Bump List’ as required

 

A.True

B. False

Ans:  A

29) When a patient arrives at the check-in desk the first step is to locate the patients appointment. The two ways to do that are by 1) accessing the resource scheduling screen, selecting the appropriate provider and visually looking for the scheduled appointment or 2) by looking up the patient, going to the Hub then selecting encounters

 

A.True

B. False

Ans: A

30) Allows you to verify/update the latest copies of the patients scanned documents

 

A.patient docs

B. encounters

C. letters

Ans: A

31) The patients co-pay/previous balance information can be found

 

A.by going into patient information and selecting ‘Additional Info’

B. by going into patient information and selecting ‘Update’ in the Insurance section

C. by double-clicking on the patients appointment, then select ‘Charge Details’

Ans: C

32) The “Visit Status” should not be changed to “ARR” (arrived) until the patient has been roomed

 

A.True

B.False

Ans:  B

33) During the check-out procedure the lab/DI/procedure can be found and faxed/printed in the ‘Orders’ icon at the top of a patients selected appointment screen

 

A.True

B. False

Ans: A

34) The patient account balance cannot be seen from the patient Hub

 

A.True

B.False

Ans:  B

35) An outgoing referral for a patient can be created by the provider on the progress note and assigned to the respective staff member for follow-up

 

A.True

B. False

Ans: A

36) Outgoing referrals can be viewed by

 

A.by clicking on the ‘E’ jelly bean

B. by clicking on the ‘M’ jelly bean

C.clicking on the ‘R’ next to the jelly bean and selecting Outgoing

Ans:  C

37) When a referral requires a pre-authorization, leave the status ‘Closed’ and select your name in the “Assigned To” section resulting in a referral showing up in your ‘R’ jelly bean

 

A.True

B.False

Ans:  B

38) Outgoing referrals can be sent with multiple attachments 

 

A.True

B. False

Ans: A

39) Referrals can be done by the physician while with the patient from the Progress Note by clicking on 

 

A.Assessment

B.Treatment

C. HPI

Ans: B

40) All scanned documents in eClinicalWorks must be put in a corresponding folder or sub-folder for each patient. These folders are common to all patients and can be created/deleted/modified by the practice administrator only.

 

A.True

B. False

Ans: A

300+ [UPDATED] Company Secretery MCQs and Answers [PDF]

Company Secretery Objective Questions and Answers

Company Secretery Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam Company Secretery Multiple choice Questions. Quiz Company Secretery Test Questions

 

1) On incorporation of a company, the Registrar of Companies in addition to the Certificate of Incorporation, issues a unique identification number called –

(a) Unique corporate number

(b) Corporate identification number

(c) Company identification number

(d)Unique identification number

Ans: b

Mcqs on Company Secretery

2) An Indian public company holds 80% of the paid-up share capital of a company incorporated at a place outside India. Is the annual statement of the latter company required to be attached to the annual statement of the former company pursuant to Section 212 –

(a) No, as it is foreign company.

(b) No. as the format of the annual accounting statement is not as per Schedule VI of the Companies Act, 1956.

(c) Yes

Ans: (c)

 

3) A company in which 50.25% of shares are held by one State Government while the rest of the shares are held by private sector companies and by retail shareholders i.e., members of public, is a –

(a) Government company

(b) Public company

(c) Corporation

(d) Private sector company

Ans: (b) 

 

4) The Central Government may exempt any class of companies from complying with the provisions of Schedule VI of the Companies Act, 1956, if it is necessary to grant such exemption in the –

(a) National interest

(b) Public interest

(c) Social interest

(d) Company’ interest

Ans: (b)

 

5) Global Ltd. has the paid-up equity capital structure – Central Government:

38%; State Government: 10%; Subsidiary of a Government Company:

17.50%; and retail shareholders remaining shares. Which of the following classes of companies would it belong to –

(a) Government company

(b) Non-government company

(c) Deemed public company

(d) Deemed private company

Ans: (a) 

 

6) Contracts made after incorporation of a public company, but before issue of the certificate of commencement of business are –

(a) Provisional contracts

(b) Post-incorporation contracts

(c) Preliminary contracts

(d) Contracts in the normal course of business.

Ans: (a)

 

7) The applicant for the availability of name of the proposed company can have option to give maximum –

(a) 3 Alternative names

(b) 4 Alternative names

(c) 5 Alternative names

(d) 6 Alternative names

Ans: (d) 

 

8) Which one of the following sections of the Act specifies that the provision of the Companies Act, 1956 override the provisions in the memorandum of association –

(a) Section 2

(b) Section 4

(c) Section 9

(d) Section 13

Ans: (c) 

 

9) The rights attached to the shares of any class may be varied with the consent in writing of the holders of the issued shares of that class having not less than –

(a) 1/3 of the shareholding

(b) ½ of the shareholding

(c) ¾ of the shareholding

(d) 2/3 of the shareholding

Ans: (c) 

 

10) Where title in shares of a company is in dispute, the matter has to be resolved by –

(a) Court

(b) Arbitrator

(c) Company Law Board

(d) Central Government

Ans: (a) 

 

11)In case of buyback of shares by a listed company, the letter of offer to the shareholders shall be dispatched not earlier than –

(a) 10 days from its submission to the SEBI in draft form

(b) 15 days from its submission to the SEBI in draft form

(c) 21 days from its submission to the SEBI in draft form

(d) 30 days from its submission to the SEBI in draft form

Ans: (c) 

 

12) The majority required in a shareholders’ meeting to approve a scheme of arrangement is simple majority of shareholders holding at least 

(a) 3/4th in value of the shares

(b) 2/3rd in value of the shares

(c) 9/10th in value of the shares

Ans: (a) 

 

13) The audit committee of a listed company shall meet at least –

(a) 3 times in a year

(b) 4 times in a year

(c) 5 times in a year

(d) 6 times in a year

Ans: (b)

 

14) Non-executive directors of a public company may get remuneration on quarterly basis if such basis of payment is approved by/under –

(a) Articles of association of the company

(b) General meeting of the company

(c) Central Government

(d) Schedule XIII of the Companies Act, 1956

Ans: (c) 

 

15) As per Companies Act, 1956, the maximum number of directors a private limited company which is subsidiary of a public company, can have without approval of the Central Government is –

(a) 10

(b) 11

(c) 12

(d) 13

Ans: (c) 

 

16) A director appointed by the Board to hold the office until the conclusion of next annual general meeting is known as –

(a) Additional director

(b) Alternate director

(c) Nominee director

(d) Director retiring by rotation

Ans: (a) 

 

17)The minimum number of directors of the audit committee in the case of a listed company with 12 directors shall be –

(a) 2 Directors

(b) 3 Directors

(c) 4 Directors

(d) 5 Directors

Ans: (b)

 

18) The maximum age limit for directors in case of private companies is

(a) 65 years

(b) 20 years

(c) 75 years

(d) None of the above

Ans: (d) 

 

19) A member of the ICSI in practice shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct if he issues compliance certificates/ signs annual return in aggregate in a calendar year for more than 

(a) 20 Companies

(b) 50 Companies

(c) 80 Companies

(d) 100 Companies

Ans: (c) 

 

20) A person who is Company Secretary and director of a company is –

(a) Employee director

(b) Non-executive director

(c) Executive director

(d) Independent director

Ans: (c) 

 

21) Statutory auditor of a company in which the Central Government holds 49% and a government company holds 19% of the paid-up share capital of the company, shall be appointed by the 

(a) Central Government

(b)Members of the company in the AGM by passing ordinary resolution

(c) Members of the company in the AGM by passing a special resolution

(d) By the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Ans: (d) 

 

22) The appointment of a statutory auditor under section 224A is with reference to 25% of

(a) Paid-up capital

(b) Issued capital

(c) Subscribed capital

(d)Only equity capital

Ans: (c) 

 

23) A casual vacancy arising out of resignation of company’s auditor can be filled by

(a) Company in general meeting by ordinary resolution

(b) Company in general meeting by special resolution

(c) Board of Directors

(d) Audit committee

Ans: (a) 

 

24) A High Court has exclusive jurisdiction in respect of the matters covered by 

(a) Section 211

(b) Section 232

(c) Section 292A

(d) Section 391

Ans: (d)

 

25) The number of scrutineers to be appointed by the Chairman of a general meeting is 

(a) 3

(b) 2

(c) 1

(d) 4

Ans: (b)

 

26) A special notice is required for

(a) Removal of a member

(b) Removal of the Company Secretary

(c) Removal of a nominee director

(d) None of the above

Ans: (d) 

 

27) A notice of disclosure of interest at the Board meeting is the requirement of section 

(a) 295

(b) 269

(c) 297

(d) 299

Ans: (d) 

 

28) As per the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956, the form of proxy must be deposited with the company at least 

(a) 24 Hours before the time of AGM

(b) 36 Hours before the time of AGM

(c) 48 Hours before the time of AGM

(d) 72 Hours before the time of AGM

Ans: (c) 

 

29) In a listed company with 11 directors, what is the quorum for the Board meeting 

(a) 2 Directors

(b) 3 Directors

(c) 4 Directors

(d) 5 Directors

Ans: (c) 

 

30) As per the rules framed under section 205A(3) relating to use of past reserves for payment of dividend should retain in the reserves an amount not less than–

(a) 25% of the paid-up share capital of the company

(b) 20% of the paid-up share capital of the company

(c) 15% of the paid-up share capital of the company

(d) 10% of the paid-up share capital of the company

Ans: (c)

 

31) The aggregate of the contributions to any political party or for any political purpose to any person by a company in any financial year shall not exceed

(a) 2% of its average net profits determined in accordance with the provisions of Section 349 and 350 during the five immediately preceding financial years.

(b) 5% of its average net profits determined in accordance with the provisions of Section 349 and 350 during the five immediately preceding financial years.

(c) 7.4% of its average net profits determined in accordance with the provisions of Section 349 during the five immediately preceding financial years.

(d) 10% of its average net profits determined in accordance with the provisions of Section 349 read with Section 350. The average profit is to be calculated by reference to preceding three financial years.

Ans: (b) 

 

32) Annual return of a company having share capital is to be filed with the Registrar of Companies in e-form

(a) 20A

(b) 20B

(c) 25A

(d) 25B

Ans: (b) 

 

33) In winding-up by the court, the statement of affairs has to be submitted within 

(a) 15 days from the date of winding-up order

(b) 21 days from the date of winding-up order

(c) 30 days from the date of winding-up order

(d) 90 days from the date of winding-up order

Ans: (b)

 

34) When a default occur under Section 421 and/or 422 in respect of receiver regarding filing of periodic accounts and/or making of reference of statements about the appointment of receiver, he company and every officer in default shall be punishable with

(a) A monetary fine which may extend to Rs. 5,000

(b) A monetary fine which may extend to Rs. 2,000

(c) A monetary fine which may extend to Rs. 5,000 and imprisonment upto 6 months

Ans: (b) 

 

35) On liquidation of company, the preferential payment in respect of salary or wages is restricted to

(a) Rs. 10,000

(b) Rs. 20,000

(c) Rs. 50,000

(d) Rs. 75,000

Ans: (b)

 

36) On striking off the name of a company considered defunct, the Registrar of Companies is required to 

(a) Publish notice thereof in official gazette

(b) Inform the State Government

(c) Inform the Central Government

(d) Inform the Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Ans: (a) 

 

37) While issuance of notice of inspection of books of account of a company by the inspector is not mandatory it is issued at least 

(a) 7 days before the intended date of inspection

(b) 14 days before the intended date of inspection

(c) 21 days before the intended date of inspection

(d) 28 days before the intended date of inspection

Ans: (b)

 

38) The initial disclosure by a director or officer of a listed company under the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulation, 1992 has to be made within

(a) 4 days of the concerned person’s joining the company

(b) 7 days of the concerned person’s joining the company

(c) 15 days of the concerned person’s joining the company

(d) 21 days of the concerned person’s joining the company

Ans: (a)

 

39) The New York Stock Exchange requires that in case of companies listed with it, the required minimum number of independent directors on the Board shall be –

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

Ans: (b)

 

40) Under the UK Companies Act, to qualify as a small company, the concerned company shall have in a financial year

(a) A turnover of less than £ 2.5 million with less than 25 employees

(b) A turnover of not more than £ 2.8 million with not more than 50 employees

(c) A turnover of £ 3 million with less than 100 employees

(d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

300+ [UPDATED] Assistent Architecture MCQs and Answers [PDF]

Assistent Architecture Objective type Questions & Answers

Dear readers, these Assistent Architecture Multiple choice Questions Pdf Download for Exam Assistent Architecture. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview, normally questions start with some basic concept of the subject and later they continue based on further discussion and what you answer:

1. perpendicular offset form the junction of transition curve and curricular curve to the tangent is equal to 

A. shift

B. two times the shift

C. three times the shift

D. four times the shift

Ans: D

Mcqs on Assistent Architecture

2. If the radius of circular curve is five times the length of the transition curve, then the spiral angle is given by 

A. 1/5 radian 

B. 1/10 radian

C. 1/20 radian 

D. 1/40 radian

Ans: D

 

4. If an upgrade of 1-5% is followed by a downgrade of 0.5% and rate of change of grade is 0.2% per 20m chain, then the length of vertical is 

A. 100m

B. 200m

C. 300m 

D. 400m

Ans: B

 

5. By plane table surveying 

A. field work alone is possible

B. plotting alone is possible

C. both field work and plotting has are possible simultaneously

D. both field work in the field and plotting on office are possible 

Ans: C

 

6. The plots intended for residential purposes in a municipal area should not be less than 

A. 80 m2

B. 120m2 

C. 160m2

D. 200m2

Ans: D

 

7. The plot size in residential layouts in corporation limits for row housing in m2 is 

A. 50-100 

B. 100-150

C. 150-200

D. 200 

Ans: A

 

8. In the double application of principle of reversion, the apparent error is 

A. equal to true error

B. half the true error

C. two times the true error

D. four times the true error

Ans: D

 

9. The maximum value of centrifugal ratio on roads and railways respectively are taken as 

A. 1/4 and 1/6 

B.1/6 and 1/8

C. 1/4 and 1/8

D.1/8 and ¼

Ans: C

 

10. Agonic line is the line joining points having 

A. Zero declination 

B. minimum declination

C. maximum declination

D. declination

Ans: A

 

11. The difference in elevation of points between a vertical and a tangent is 

A. directly proportional to its horizontal distance from the point of tangency

B. inversely proportional to its horizontal distance from the point of tangency

C. directly proportional to the square of its horizontal distance from the point of tangency

D. inversely proportional to the square of its horizontal distance from the point of tangency

Ans: C

 

12. The type of pointing in which the mortar is first pressed into the raked joints and then finished off flush with the edges of the bricks or stones, is called 

A. flust pointing 

B. struck pointing

C. V-grooved pointing

D. tuck pointing

Ans: A

 

13. A block of stone or concrete provided under the end of tie beam to spread the load from the roof over a large area of bearing, is called 

A. gable 

B. hip

C. verge 

D. template

Ans: D

 

14. The horizontal members of wood or steel used to support the common rafter of a sloping roof, are called 

A. purlins

B. cleats

C. hip rafters

D. valley rafters

Ans: A

 

15. The type of pointing in which the mortar is first pressed into the raked joint and then finished off flush with the face of the bricks or stones is called 

A. flush pointing 

B. struck pointing

C. V-grooved pointing 

D. tuck pointing

Ans: D

 

16. The efficiency of a riveted joint is : 

A. Tearing efficiency 

B. Shearing efficiency

C. Crushing efficiency 

D. Least of the above

Ans: B

 

17. The efficiency of pile group is 

A. always less than one

B. always more than one

C. always equal to one

D. less than, equal to or more than one

Ans: A

 

18. Read the following two statements and select the correct answer 

i) Shift bisects the transition curve

ii) Transition curve bisects the shift

A. only (i) is correct 

B. only (ii) correct

C. both (i) and (ii) are correct

D. neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

Ans: C

 

19. A curve tangential to four straight lines and consisting of arcs of different radii is known as 

A. one centered compound curve

B. two centered compound curve

C. three centered compound curve

D. four centered compound curve

Ans: C

 

20. If the degree of a curve is 10, then radius of the curve is equal to 

A. 5400 m

B. 1720m

C. 123m 

D. m

Ans: B

 

22. for the computation of areas, which rule is most accurate? 

A. Mid-ordinate rule 

B. Average Ordinate rule

C. Trapezoidal rule

D. Simpson’s rule

Ans: D

 

23. A pantograph is used for 

A. Measuring 

B. measuring distances on maps

C. reproducing, enlarging or reducing the maps

D. Measuring vertical angles

Ans: C

 

24. The apparent movement of the image of the staff relative to the cross hairs is known as

A. shift 

B. slint

C. parallax error 

D. sight error

Ans: C

 

25. A working profile gives 

A. ground levels only

B. formation levels only

C. difference in ground levels & formation levels

D. all of the above

Ans: D

 

26. The error in the staff readings due to curvature of the earth when the length of sight is 1 Km is 

A. -0.0785 m 

B. +0.0785 m 

C. -0.0667 m 

D. +0.0667 m

Ans: A

 

27. The vertical distance between the upper surface of the successive treads is known as ‘going of step’ 

A. true

B. false

Ans: B

 

28. The brick flooring is used in 

A. workshops

B. godowns

C. verandahs 

D. none of these

Ans: B

 

29. The flooring made with small pieces of broken tiles of china glazed or of marble arranged in different pattern, is known as 

A. asphalt flooring

B. mosaic flooring

C. terrazo flooring

D. granolithic flooring

Ans: B

 

30. In stairs, the flier is 

A. a vertical portion of a step providing a support to the tread

B. a straight step having a parallel width of tread

C. the under surface of a stair

D. the angle which the line of nosing of the stair makes with the horizontal

Ans: B

 

31. The maximum velocity of flow is limited to about 3 m/sec, though in practice it should preferably not exceed 

A. 2 m/sec

B. 2.25 m/sec

C. 2.5m/sec

D. 3 m/sec

Ans: B

 

32. The circular section of a sewer is very common but it is best suitable when diamter is up to 

A. 0.75 m 

B. 1.25m

C. 1.5m 

D. 3m

Ans: D

 

33. While designing a sewerage system, the span of design period is generally taken as 

A. one year 

B. 5 years

C. 10 years

D. 20 years

Ans: D

 

35. The longest time without unreasonable delay, the would be required for a drop of water to flow from the upper limit of the drainage area to the point where concentration or the maximum effect of flood considered, is known as 

A. inlet time 

B. time of flow 

C. time of concentration

D. time-intensity

Ans: C

 

36. The time required for first drops of rain water to flow from the distant points of water shed to the head of the sewer or drain is known as 

A. inlet time 

B. time of flow 

C. time of concentration

D. time intensity

Ans: A

 

37. In question no.89 the R.L of last point 

A. is greater than R.L of first point

B. is same As R.L of first point

C. is smaller than R.L of first point

D. cannot be determined from the given data

Ans: C

 

40. The distance between centre to centre of two adjacent rivet holes should not be less than 

A. 1.5 times the diameter of rivet hole 

B. 1.5 times the diameter of rivet

C. 1.5 times the diameter of rivet head

D. 2.5 times the diameter of rivet

Ans: D

 

41. If an up grade of +1% on first class railway is followed by a down grade of -2%, then the length of vertical curve will be 

A. 20 chains 

B. 40 chains

C. 50 chains 

D. 80 chains

Ans: C

 

42. An outline or ——– should never by used as a dimension line 

A. inner line

B. centre line

C. outer line 

D. Perpendicular

Ans: B

 

43. Mutual crossing of dimension lines and dimensioning between ———- should be avoided 

A. dotted line 

B. straight line

C. curved line

D. dashed line

Ans: D

 

44. The recommended rate of change of grade for second class railways per 20-m distance at sages is 

A. 0.12% 

B. 0.1%

C. 0.8% 

D. 0.06%

Ans: D

 

45. The distance between centre to centre of any two adjacent rivets shall not exceed by ____ when the rivets do not lie in the direction of stresses 

A. 12xthickness of the thinnest plate

B. 16x thickness of the thinnest plate

C. 32xthickness of the thinnest plate

D. 32xdiameter of the rivet used

Ans: C

 

46. A surveyor’s chain is made of 

A. cast iron 

B. stainless steel

C. aluminium 

D. galvanized mild steel

Ans: B

 

47. If a chain is found to be short, it can be adjusted by 

A. straightening the bent links

B. removing one or more circular rings

C. closing the joints that have opened out

D. any of the above

Ans: A

 

48. A telescope is said to be inverted if its 

A. vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is down

B. vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is up

C. vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of the telescope is down

D. vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of the telescope is up

Ans: A

 

49. The cross hairs in the surveying telescope are placed 

A. midway between eye piece and objective lens

B. much closer to the eye piece than to the ob jective lens

C. much closer to the objective lens than to the eye piece

D. anywhere between eye piece and objective lens

Ans: B

 

50. The foundation in a building is provided to

A. distribute the load over a large area

B. increase overall stability of the structure

C. transmit load to the bearing surface (sub soil) at a uniform rate 

D. all of the above

Ans: D

 

300+ [UPDATED] SQL Server Multiple Choice Questions Quiz

Best SQL Server Multiple choice Questions and Answers

SQL Server Objective Questions Pdf Download for Exam SQL Server MCQs. These objective type SQL Server questions are very important for campus placement test and job interviews. during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many IT companies.

1. What does the abbreviation DBMS stand for?

A. Digital Base Mapping System.

B. Data Borrowing and Movement Software.

C. Database Management System.

D. Database Manipulation Software.

Answer: C

2. The advantages of Standard Query Language (SQL) include which of the following in relation to GIS databases?

A. It is good at handling geographical concepts.

B. It is widely used.

C. It is simple and easy to understand.

D. It uses a pseudo-English style of questioning.

Answer: A

3. Which of the following are characteristics of an RDBMS?

A. Keys may be unique or have multiple occurrences in the database.

B. It cannot use SQL.

C. Queries are possible on individual or groups of tables.

D. Tables are linked by common data known as keys.

E. Data are organized in a series of two-dimensional tables each of which contains records for one entity.

Answer: D

4. What is a ‘tuple’?

A. A row or record in a database table.

B. Another name for the key linking different tables in a database.

C. An attribute attached to a record.

D. Another name for a table in an RDBMS.

Answer: A

5. Which of the following are issues to be considered by users of large corporate GIS databases?

A. The need for multiple copies of the same data and subsequent merging after separate updates.

B. The need to manage long transactions.

C. The need for manual transfer of records to paper.

D. The need for multiple views or different windows into the same databases.

E. The need for concurrent access and multi-user update.

Answer: D

6. Which of the following are features of the object-oriented approach to databases?

A. The need to split objects into their component parts.

B. The ability to represent the world in a non-geometric way.

C. The ability to develop more realistic models of the real world.

D. The ability to develop databases using natural language approaches.

E. The ability to develop database models based on location rather than state and behaviour.

Answer: C

7. Redundancy is minimised with a computer based database approach.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

8. The relational database model is based on concepts proposed in the 1960s and 1970s.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

9. A row in a database can also be called a domain.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

10. A first step in database creation should be needs analysis.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

11. In entity attribute modelling a many to many relationship is represented by M:M.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

12.In a networked web based GIS all communications must go through an internet map server.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

13.In an OO database approach ‘object = attributes + behaviour’.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

14. In an OO database objects may inherit some or all of the characteristics of other objects.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

15. You can add a row using SQL in a database with which of the following?

A.ADD

B. CREATE

C.INSERT

D. MAKE

Answer: c

16. The command to remove rows from a table ‘CUSTOMER’ is:

A. REMOVE FROM CUSTOMER …

B. DROP FROM CUSTOMER …

C. DELETE FROM CUSTOMER WHERE …

D.UPDATE FROM CUSTOMER …

Answer: c

17. The SQL WHERE clause:

A. limits the column data that are returned.

B. limits the row data are returned.

C. Both A and B are correct.

D. Neither A nor B are correct.

Answer: B

18. Which of the following is the original purpose of SQL?

A. To specify the syntax and semantics of SQL data definition language

B. To specify the syntax and semantics of SQL manipulation language

C. To define the data structures

D. All of the above.

Answer: D

19. The wildcard in a WHERE clause is useful when?

A. An exact match is necessary in a SELECT statement.

B. An exact match is not possible in a SELECT statement.

C. An exact match is necessary in a CREATE statement.

D. An exact match is not possible in a CREATE statement.

Answer: B

20. A view is which of the following?

A. A virtual table that can be accessed via SQL commands

B. A virtual table that cannot be accessed via SQL commands

C. A base table that can be accessed via SQL commands

D. A base table that cannot be accessed via SQL commands

Answer: A

21. The command to eliminate a table from a database is:

A. REMOVE TABLE CUSTOMER;

B. DROP TABLE CUSTOMER;

C. DELETE TABLE CUSTOMER;

D. UPDATE TABLE CUSTOMER;

Answer: B

22. SQL data definition commands make up a(n) ________ .

A.DDL

B. DML

C.HTML

D. XML

Answer: A

23. Which of the following is valid SQL for an Index?

A. CREATE INDEX ID;

B. CHANGE INDEX ID;

C. ADD INDEX ID;

D. REMOVE INDEX ID;

Answer: A

24. The SQL keyword(s) ________ is used with wildcards.

A. LIKE only

B. IN only

C. NOT IN only

D. IN and NOT IN

Answer: A

25. Which of the following is the correct order of keywords for SQL SELECT statements?

A. SELECT, FROM, WHERE

B. FROM, WHERE, SELECT

C. WHERE, FROM,SELECT

D. SELECT,WHERE,FROM

Answer: A

26. The result of a SQL SELECT statement is a(n) ________ .

A.report

B. form

C.file

D. table

Answer: D

27. The HAVING clause does which of the following?

A. Acts like a WHERE clause but is used for groups rather than rows.

B. Acts like a WHERE clause but is used for rows rather than columns.

C. Acts like a WHERE clause but is used for columns rather than groups.

D. Acts EXACTLY like a WHERE clause.

Answer: A

28. To remove duplicate rows from the results of an SQL SELECT statement, the ________ qualifier specified must be included.

A.ONLY

B. UNIQUE

C.DISTINCT

D. SINGLE

Answer: c

29. The benefits of a standard relational language include which of the following?

A. Reduced training costs

B. Increased dependence on a single vendor

C. Applications are not needed.

D. All of the above.

Answer: A

30. Which of the following do you need to consider when you make a table in SQL?

A. Data types

B. Primary keys

C. Default values

D. All of the above.

Answer: D

31. SQL query and modification commands make up a(n) ________ .

A.DDL

B. DML

C.HTML

D. XML

Answer: B

32. Which one of the following sorts rows in SQL?

A. SORT BY

B. ALIGN BY

C. ORDER BY

D. GROUP BY

Answer: c

33. To sort the results of a query use:

A. SORT BY.

B. GROUP BY.

C. ORDER BY.

D. None of the above is correct.

Answer: c

34. SQL can be used to:

A. create database structures only.

B. query database data only.

C. modify database data only.

D. All of the above can be done by SQL.

Answer: D

35. The SQL statement that queries or reads data from a table is ________ .

A. SELECT

B. READ

C. QUERY

D. None of the above is correct.

Answer: A