300+ TOP MCQs on Cloning using a Simple Plasmid and Alpha Complementation – 2 and Answers

Genetic Engineering Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “Cloning using a Simple Plasmid and Alpha Complementation – 2”.

1. Which of the following is true regarding taking up of plasmid DNA in the bacterial cells?
a) There are more chances of having two plasmids in a single cell
b) There are more chances of having a single plasmid in one cell
c) Uptake upto two plasmids is possible but not more than that
d) Both are taken up with the same efficiency
Answer: b
Explanation: There are more chances of having a single plasmid in one cell. But there are possibilities of having two plasmids in a single cell but the chances are less.

2. If genomic DNA has been inserted instead of the plasmid, what will happen?
a) It would lead to inactivation of lacZ gene
b) The X-gal substrate would be broken down
c) The colonies formed are blue in colour
d) The lacZ gene would be intact
Answer: a
Explanation: If genomic DNA is inserted instead of the plasmid the lacZ gene would be inactivated. The X-gal substrate won’t be broken down and thus the colonies formed would be white or off-white.

3. Often PCR can be performed in order to confirm whether an insert is present in the plasmid. Cells are taken directly and PCR is performed, this type of PCR is known as __________
a) direct PCR
b) colony PCR
c) quantitative PCR
d) in-situ PCR
Answer: b
Explanation: When cells from colonies are taken and directly PCR is performed, it is called as colony PCR. Primers anneal to each side of the cloning site and there is no need of purification in such cases.

4. Generation of recombinants by randomly cloning fragments of total DNA from an organism is called as __________
a) genomic library
b) screening
c) recombination
d) shotgun cloning
Answer: d
Explanation: Generation of recombinants by randomly cloning the fragments of total DNA from an organism is called as shotgun cloning. Collection of such fragments is known as a library.

5. The phenomenon of alpha complementation is __________
a) α + β = ω
b) α = β + ω
c) β = α + ω
d) It is either α + β = ω or β = α + ω
Answer: a
Explanation: Alpha complementation is the phenomenon of having the alpha and beta subunit combining to give the omega subunit. These are the different genes of the lac operon.

6. An operon is defined as __________
a) A related set of genes each having different promoters and are present differently
b) A set of genes which are present together but are controlled by different promoters
c) A set of genes which are present together and are controlled by the same promoter
d) A set of genes which are not present together but controlled by the same promoter
Answer: c
Explanation: An operon is defined as the cluster of genes which are present together and are controlled by the same promoter. An example is lac operon. It consists of three subunits, alpha, beta and omega.

7. Why the whole lacZ gene can’t be present in the plasmid at one time?
a) Because the whole lacZ gene can’t be present anywhere
b) The whole lac Z gene is very large in size and the plasmid size is small
c) The whole lacZ gene is never functional
d) Because the plasmid takes is having a restriction site only for taking up a portion of the lacZ gene
Answer: b
Explanation: The whole lacZ gene is not present in a plasmid because the plasmids are generally small in size and the lacZ gene is large in size. And if the whole gene is present, it makes the overall size very large.

8. Alpha complementation is an indicator of lacZ system. Which of the statement is incorrect for it?
a) One portion of the lacZ gene known as minigene is present in the plasmid
b) Another portion is present in the host itself
c) If they both are allowed to combine in the presence of IPTG, X-gal and ampicillin, blue colonies are observed
d) If insert is also present along with host and plasmid, it results in the formation of blue colonies
Answer: d
Explanation: Alpha complementation system is used as a lacZ indicator system. In this, one portion of the lacZ gene is present in the plasmid and is termed as minigene. The other portion is present in the host itself. The combining of two portions is very important to have an intact lacZ gene and in the case, it is intact blue colonies are observed in the presence of IPTG, ampicillin and X-gal. It is so because lacZ breaks down X-gal and it gives blue colour. If the insert is also there, the lacZ gene is interrupted and thus X-gal is not broken down and hence white colonies are obtained.

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300+ TOP MCQs on Fusion Proteins and Answers

Genetic Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Fusion Proteins”.

1. There are some advantages of expressing protein as a fusion protein. It may enhance stability, folding ______ and ______ formation.
a) solubility, phosphodiester bond formation
b) insolubility, phosphodiester bond formation
c) solubility, disulphide bond formation
d) insolubility, disulphidebond formation
Answer: c
Explanation: Expressing a protein as a fusion protein is advantageous. It may enhance stability, folding, solubility and disulphide bond formation.

2. A short peptide region fused to a protein of interest is known as ___________
a) tag
b) oligonucleotide
c) fragment
d) dimer
Answer: a
Explanation: A short peptide region (generally, a few nucleotides long) is fused to a protein of interest and is known as tag.

3. Glutathione-S-Transferase (GST) enzyme is used for the conjunction of Glutathione molecules and is having a protective function in many organisms.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: GST enzyme is used for the conjunction of Glutathione molecules and is also having a protective function in many organisms. It is widely used as a basis for fusion proteins.

4. Maltose binding protein is the product of ______ gene in E.coli and located in ______
a) malE, nucleus
b) malD, nucleus
c) malE, periplasmic space
d) malD, periplasmic space
Answer: c
Explanation: Maltose binding protein is the product malE gene in E.coli and is located in the periplasmic space. It is responsible for uptake of maltose and other sugars.

5. Thioredexin protein contains two _______ residues.
a) cysteine
b) cystine
c) adenine
d) guanine
Answer: a
Explanation: This protein contains two cysteine residues and they are reversibly oxidized to cysteine residues.

6. Often, protein to be expressed is fused with histidine and it is called as histidine tags. For their purification, matrix containing ______ is used.
a) calcium ions
b) nickel ions
c) iron ions
d) fluorine ions
Answer: b
Explanation: Histidine tags are used in place of naturally occurring protein at times for fusion proteins. For purification, matrix containing nickel ions is used and is based on affinity purification.

7. Pel B protein is produced in plants and helps in the degradation of ______
a) vacuole
b) plasma membrane
c) cell wall
d) mitochondria
Answer: c
Explanation: Pectate lyase or pelB protein is produced in plants and helps in the degradation of plant cell wall.

8. His tagged proteins can be eluted using EDTA or a pH gradient from the matrix.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: His tagged proteins can be eluted using EDTA or a pH gradient from the matrix. They disrupt the chelation.

9. Enterokinase is an intestinal enzyme that converts _______ to ________
a) pepsinogen, pepsin
b) pepsin, pepsinogen
c) trypsinogen, trypsin
d) trypsin, trypsinogen
Answer: c
Explanation: Enterokinase is an intestinal enzyme which is used to convert inactive trypsinogen to trypsin. It forms the basis for the extraction of fusion proteins from the matrix.

10. Cyanogen bromide is used for cleavage of junctions. It cleaves after ________ residues.
a) methionine
b) tryptophan
c) cysteine
d) phenolic acid
Answer: a
Explanation: Cyanogen bromide is used for cleavage of junctions and it cleaves after methionine residues. But this method is not widely used.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Iterative Methods of Multiple Sequence Alignment and Answers

Bioinformatics MCQs focuses on “Iterative Methods of Multiple Sequence Alignment”.

1. Iterative methods include repeatedly realigning subgroups of the sequences and then by aligning these subgroups into a local alignment of all of the sequences.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: Subgroups are aligned into a global alignment of all of the sequences. The objective is to improve the overall alignment score, such as a sum of pairs score. Selection of these groups may be based on the ordering of the sequences on a phylogenetic tree predicted in a manner similar to that of progressive alignment, separation of one or two of the sequences from the rest, or a random selection of the groups.

2. Which of the following is incorrect regarding PRRP?
A. The program PRRP uses iterative methods to produce an alignment
B. An initial pair-wise alignment is made to predict a tree
C. Only one cycle is performed
D. The whole process is repeated until there is no further increase in the alignment score

Answer: c
Explanation: As mentioned, an initial pair-wise alignment is made to predict a tree, the tree is used to produce weights for making alignments in the same manner as MSA except that the sequences are analyzed for the presence of aligned regions that include gaps rather than being globally aligned, and these regions are iteratively recalculated to improve the alignment score. The best scoring alignment is then used in a new cycle of calculations to predict a new tree, new weights, and new alignments.

3. In the program DIALIGN, pairs of sequences are aligned to locate aligned regions that do not include gaps, much like continuous diagonals in a dot matrix plot.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: The program DIALIGN finds an alignment by a different iterative method. Pairs of sequences are aligned to locate aligned regions that do not include gaps, much like continuous diagonals in a dot matrix plot. Diagonals of various lengths are identified. A consistent collection of weighted diagonals that provides an alignment which is a maximum sum of weights is then found.

4. The Genetic Algorithm method has been recently adapted for MSA(Multiple Sequence Alignment) by Corpet (1998).
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: The genetic algorithm is a general type of machine-learning algorithm that has no direct relationship to biology and that was invented by computer scientists. The method has been recently adapted for MSA (Multiple Sequence Alignment) by Notredame and Higgins (1996) in a computer program package called SAGA (Sequence Alignment by Genetic Algorithm).

5. An approach for obtaining a higher-scoring MSA (Multiple Sequence Alignment) by rearranging an existing alignment uses a probability approach called simulated annealing.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: The program MSASA (Multiple Sequence Alignment by Simulated Annealing) starts with a heuristic MSA (Multiple Sequence Alignment). Further, it changes the alignment by following an algorithm designed to identify changes that increase the alignment score.

6. The first step in Genetic Algorithm is arranging the sequences to be aligned in rows.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: The sequences to be aligned are written in rows, as on a page, except that they are made to overlap by a random amount of sequence, up to 50 residues long for sequences about 200 in length. The ends are then padded with gaps. A typical population of 100 of these MSAs is made, although other numbers may be set.

7. The second step in the Genetic Algorithm comprises of scoring of the 100 initial MSAs by the sum of pairs method.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: The 100 initial MSAs are scored by the sum of pairs method, except that both natural and quasi-natural gap-scoring schemes are used. Recall that the best SSP score for a MSA is the minimum one and the one that is closest to the sum of the pair-wise sequence alignment. Standard amino acid scoring matrices and gap opening and extension penalties are used.

8. In Genetic Algorithm, in the mutation process _______
A. sequence is changed
B. gaps are not inserted
C. sequence is not changed
D. gaps are not rearranged

Answer: c
Explanation: In the mutation process, the sequence is not changed (else it would no longer be an alignment), but gaps are inserted and rearranged in an attempt to create a better-scoring MSA. In the gap insertion process, the sequences in a given MSA are divided into two groups based on an estimated phylogenetic tree, and gaps of random length are inserted into random positions in the alignment.

9. The HMM is a statistical model that considers few combinations of matches and gaps to generate an alignment of a set of sequences.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: The HMM is a statistical model that considers all possible combinations of matches, mismatches, and gaps to generate an alignment of a set of sequences. A localized region of similarity, including insertions and deletions, may also be modeled by an HMM. Analysis of sequences by an HMM is discussed on page 185 along with other statistical methods.

10. Which of the following is not true about iterative methods?
A. Genetic Algorithm is method used for under this
B. Hidden Markov Models are used for Multiple Sequence Alignment
C. The objective is to improve the overall alignment score
D. MultAlin recalculates global scores

Answer: D
Explanation: MultAlin (Corpet 1988) recalculates pair-wise scores during the production of a progressive Alignment. In addition, it uses these scores to recalculate the tree, which is then used to refine the alignment in an effort to improve the score.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Protein Structure Comparison and Answers

Bioinformatics Multiple Choice Questions on “Protein Structure Comparison”.

1. Which of the following is incorrect about protein structure comparison?
A. The comparative approach is important in finding remote protein homologs
B. Protein structures have a much higher degree of conservation than the sequences
C. Protein structures have a much lesser degree of conservation than the sequences
D. Proteins can share common structures even without sequence similarity

Answer: c
Explanation: Structure comparison is one of the fundamental techniques in protein structure analysis. Structure comparison can often reveal distant evolutionary relationships between proteins, which is not feasible using the sequence-based alignment approach alone. In addition, protein structure comparison is a prerequisite for protein structural classification into different fold classes.

2. The intermolecular approach is normally applied to relatively _____ structures.
A. distinctive
B. dissimilar
C. similar
D. different

Answer: c
Explanation: The algorithmic approaches to comparing protein geometric properties can be divided into three categories: the first superposes protein structures by minimizing intermolecular distances; the second relies on measuring intramolecular distances of a structure; and the third includes algorithms that combine both intermolecular and intramolecular approaches.

3. Which of the following is incorrect about intermolecular approach?
A. This procedure starts with identifying equivalent residues or atoms
B. After residue–residue correspondence is established, one of the structures is moved laterally and vertically toward the other structure to allow the two structures to be in the same location
C. The structures are rotated relative to each other around the three-dimensional axes
D. The rotation doesn’t depend on the intermolecular distance

Answer: D
Explanation: The rotation continues until the shortest intermolecular distance is reached. At this point, an optimal superimposition of the two structures is reached. After superimposition, equivalent residue pairs can be identified, which helps to quantitate the fitting between the two structures.

4. The root mean square deviation (RMSD), without the size dependency correction is?
A. (sum_{i=1}^N frac{D_i^2}{N})
B. (sum_{i=1}^N frac{D_i^2}{N + 1})
C. (sum_{i=1}^N frac{D_i^2}{N x N})
D. (sum_{i=1}^N frac{D_i^2}{N – 1})

Answer: A
Explanation: An important measurement of the structure fit during superposition is the distance between equivalent positions on the protein structures. This requires using a least square-fitting function called root mean square deviation (RMSD), which is the square root of the averaged sum of the squared differences of the atomic distances. Here D is the distance between coordinate data points and N is the total number of corresponding residue pairs.

5. The root mean square deviation (RMSD), with the size dependency correction is?
A. (frac{RMSD}{-1.3 + 0.5 ln⁡(N+1)})
B. (frac{RMSD}{-1.3 + 0.5 ln⁡(N x N)})
C. (frac{RMSD}{-1.3 + 0.5 ln⁡(N-1)})
D. (frac{RMSD}{-1.3 + 0.5 ln⁡(N)})

Answer: D
Explanation: In practice, only the distances between Cα carbons of corresponding residues are measured. The goal of structural comparison is to achieve a minimum RMSD. However, the problem with RMSD is that it depends on the size of the proteins being compared. For the same degree of sequence identity, large proteins tend to have higher RMSD values than small proteins when an optimal alignment is reached. Recently, a logarithmic factor has been proposed to correct this size-dependency problem. This new measure is called RMSD100.

6. The intramolecular approach does not depend on sequence similarity between the proteins to be compared.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: The intramolecular approach relies on structural internal statistics and therefore does not depend on sequence similarity between the proteins to be compared. In addition, this method does not generate a physical superposition of structures but instead provides a quantitative evaluation of the structural similarity between corresponding residue pairs.

7. Which of the following is incorrect about the intramolecular approach?
A. The method works by generating a distance matrix between residues of the same protein
B. It generates a string between residues of the same protein
C. In comparing two protein structures, the distance matrices from the two structures are moved relative to each other to achieve maximum overlaps
D. By overlaying two distance matrices, similar intramolecular distance patterns representing similar structure folding regions can be identified

Answer: B
Explanation: For the ease of comparison, each matrix is decomposed into smaller submatrices consisting of hexapeptide fragments. To maximize the similarity regions between two structures, a Monte Carlo procedure is used. By reducing three-dimensional information into two-dimensional information, this strategy identifies overall structural resemblances and common structure cores.

8. Which of the following is incorrect about Multiple Structure Alignment?
A. The alignment strategy is different than the Clustal sequence alignment using a progressive approach
B. All structures are first compared in a pairwise fashion
C. A distance matrix is developed based on structure similarity scores such as RMSD
D. The aligned structures create a median structure that allows other structures to be progressively added for comparison based on the hierarchy described in the guide tree

Answer: A
Explanation: In addition to pairwise alignment, a number of algorithms can also perform multiple structure alignment. The alignment strategy is similar to the Clustal sequence alignment using a progressive approach. When all the structures in the set are added, this eventually creates a multiple structure alignment.

9. Which of the following is incorrect about SSAP?
A. It is a web server that uses an intramolecular distance–based method
B. Matrices are built based on the Cβ distances of all residue pairs
C. Dynamic programming approach is not used here
D. Dynamic programming approach is used

Answer: c
Explanation: When comparing two different matrices, a dynamic programming approach is used to find the path of residue positions with optimal scores. The dynamic programming is applied at two levels, one at a lower level in which all residue pairs between the proteins are compared and another at an upper level in which subsequently identified equivalent residue pairs are processed to refine the matching positions. An SSAP score is reported for structural similarity. A score above 70 indicates a good structural similarity.

10. VAST is a web server that performs alignment using intramolecular approaches only.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: VAST (Vector Alignment Search Tool) is a web server that performs alignment using both the inter- and intramolecular approaches. The superposition is based on information of directionality of secondary structural elements (represented as vectors). Optimal alignment between two structures is defined by the highest degree of vector matches.

300+ TOP MCQs on Reporter Genes and Answers

Genetic Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Reporter Genes”.

1. Promoter-probe vectors are used often. Choose the correct statement for these vectors.
a) They are used for identifying sequences that can function as promoter in vivo
b) It contains a reporter gene which contains its promoter along
c) The reporter gene is having a cloning site
d) After insertion of DNA into the cloning site, selection of plasmids is carried out by blue white screening
Answer: a
Explanation: Promoter- probe vectors are used for identification of sequences that can function as a promoter in vivo. It consists of a reporter gene which is not having its promoter along but other genes such as those for chloramphenicol resistance are present. The reporter gene is preceded by the cloning site and after the insertion of DNA has been done, selection of plasmids is carried out by using chloramphenicol resistance.

2. GFP is one of a marker which is used for screening libraries in hosts other than E. coli. Choose the incorrect statement for GFP.
a) It stands for Green Fluorescent Protein
b) It is obtained from a bio-luminescent jellyfish and produces protein aequorin which emits blue light
c) The blue light is produced because of binding of sodium ions
d) The absorbed blue light produces green light which can be detected further
Answer: c
Explanation: It stands for green fluorescent protein and is obtained from a bio-luminescent jellyfish. The jellyfish produces protein aequorin which produces blue light. This blue light is produced because of binding Calcium ions. The absorbed blue light emits green light which is detected further.

3. Luciferase genes are also used at times for detection. Choose the correct statement for them.
a) They are obtained from fire flies only
b) The detection requires provision of substrate which produces light
c) Enzymes such as beta-galactosidase requires substrate X-gluc to produce light
d) Lucifearse genes are preferred over fluorescent proteins
Answer: b
Explanation: Luciferase genes are not obtained only from fire flies but also from bio-luminescent bacteria and a sea pansy. The section requires a substrate which produces light. Enzymes such as beta-galactosidase requires X-gal for the production of blue light. Fluorescent proteins are more preferable over these because they don’t require substrates like luciferase genes.

4. In case of promoter-probe vectors, the same or related species should be as a vector whose DNA is to be screened.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: For promoter-probe vectors, the same species should be used as a host for the vector whose DNA is to be screened. It is so because a gene which is a promoter in one species may not be a promoter in other gene and thus it becomes difficult to detect.

5. Sequences that can function as origins of replication are called as ___________
a) partial replicating sequences
b) self replicating sequences
c) autonomously replicating sequences
d) modified replicating sequences
Answer: c
Explanation: There are some sequences which can function as origins of replication and they are known as autonomously replicating sequences (ARS). At times, the selection is carried out for these sequences.

6. Screening is often carried out for a sequence that interacts with a protein for which already a clone is present. It is carried out in which host?
a) Bacterial host
b) Fungal host
c) Parasitic host
d) Yeast host
Answer: d
Explanation: Screening is often carried out for a sequence that interacts with a protein for which already a clone is present. This type of screening is often carried out in a yeast host.

7. In two hybrid screening system, the activator binds through _______ domain to a sequence upstream of the gene under its control, and ________ domain stimulates transcription.
a) DNA binding, activation
b) Activation, DNA binding
c) Activation, transcription
d) DNA binding, transcription
Answer: a
Explanation: The two hybrid-screening system is based on the fact that many transcriptional activators consist of two domains, the DNA binding domain and activation domain. The activator binds through the DNA binding domain to a sequence upstream of the gene under its control. The activation domain stimulates transcription.

8. For two hybrid systems, activation domains can be present in different proteins also rather than being on a single protein. A sequence encodes _______ protein for which we want to find an interacting protein.
a) prey
b) bait
c) binding
d) activation
Answer: b
Explanation: Bait protein is the name given to the protein for whom we are looking for an interacting protein. Bait protein is cloned adjacent to the DNA binding protein. The protein interacting with bait protein is called as prey protein and leading to activation of domains.

9. The transcription domain is ________ if some of the bait and prey proteins are non-specific in nature?
a) deactivated
b) activated
c) destroyed
d) may be activated or not
Answer: d
Explanation: If the bait and prey proteins are non-specific in nature, some of them might lead to activation of the transcription domain without the presence of another domain.

10. _____ should enter the cell in the case of activation of the reporter gene for two hybrid system.
a) Bait protein
b) Prey protein
c) Both bait and prey protein
d) Either one of them
Answer: c
Explanation: Both prey and bait proteins should enter inside the cell for activation of the reporter gene for two hybrid system. It is so because activation is based on the interaction of these two proteins.

11. Protein-protein interactions such as in electron transport lead to activation of the reporter gene.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Protein-protein interactions are weak interactions and thus they are not sufficient for the activation of the reporter gene.

300+ TOP MCQs on Database Screening and Screening by Nucleic Acid Hybridisation – 2 and Answers

Genetic Engineering online quiz focuses on “Database Screening and Screening by Nucleic Acid Hybridisation – 2”.

1. The process of baking or cross-linking of the membrane is carried out by ___________
a) By heating at 80 degrees
b) By irradiating with UV
c) Both irradiation and heating method are used
d) By addition of agarose
Answer: c
Explanation: The cross-linking or baking of membrane is carried out by either heating it at 80 degrees or irradiating with UV. It is important to carry out this step because it binds the DNA irreversibly to the membrane.

2. Choose the incorrect statement for prehybridization mixture.
a) The function of it is to carry out specific binding
b) It constitutes of non-labelled DNA of non-specific sequence which is obtained from salmon or herring testes or sperm
c) It is added in a small amount
d) It is carried out before the hybridization is carried out
Answer: a
Explanation: Prehybridization mixture is meant for blocking sites which are meant for non-specific binding. It constitutes of non-labelled DNA of non-specific sequence which is obtained from salmon or herring testes or sperm. They are added in a small amount and it is added before the hybridization is carried out. So that when hybridization is carried out, only specific binding takes place.

3. After hybridization how the position of the labelled DNA probe is determined?
a) By staining
b) By UV irradiation
c) By using chemiluminescence
d) By electronic microscope
Answer: c
Explanation: After the hybridization has been carried out and the membrane has been washed, the position of the labelled DNA probe is determined by using chemiluminescence. Commonly the probe is labelled by incorporation of fluoroscein conjugated molecules.

4. The important parameters for precise annealing of the probe and the subsequent washing don’t include ___________
a) Size of the probe
b) Proportion of only A
c) Ionic concentration of hybridization buffer
d) Other agents which alter the base pairing
Answer: b
Explanation: The probe should anneal precisely and the parameters which decide these are size of the probe, proportion of all A, G, T and C. Ionic concentration of hybridization buffer and other agents such as formamide which alter base pairing. These parameters define the maximum temperature at which probe and target DNA bind fully.

5. If hybridization is carried out with a clone having a sequence similar to that of the vector from which library has been constructed, then it is of no use. Choose the correct statement in respect to it.
a) PCR amplification of the probe can be carried out
b) Excision of the probe should be carried out which should be followed polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
c) If the vector sequence and the DNA probe are having similarities, some of the vector would be hybridized
d) Probe should be in a vector that is having some sequence similarity with the library to be screened
Answer: a
Explanation: If hybridization is carried out with a clone having a sequence similar to that of the vector from which the library has been constructed then all the vector would hybridize. To make the sequence different, PCR amplification of the probe can be carried out. Also, excision of the probe can be carried out by using suitable restriction enzymes and it is followed by agarose gel electrophoresis. Or probe in a vector should not have any sequence similarity with the library to be screened.

6. At what temperatures the hybridization and washing of the DNA probes should be carried out?
a) At melting temperature
b) At a temperature lower than the melting temperature
c) At a temperature higher than the melting temperature
d) At 100 degrees
Answer: b
Explanation: The hybridization and washing of the DNA probes should be carried out at a temperature below than the melting temperature. It is so because if it is carried out a temperature lower than the melting temperature, some amount of mismatch is allowed. Melting temperature depends on the composition of the probes.

7. Which library should be used, genomic or cDNA when the screening is carried out by oligonucleotide probes?
a) Genomic
b) cDNA
c) Both genomic and cDNA library can be used equivalently
d) None of the libraries are preferred if oligonucleotide probes are used
Answer: b
Explanation: If oligonucleotide probes are used, then cDNA libraries should be used. It is so because cDNA libraries are enriched for coding sequences and thus fewer sequences have to be screened.

8. Sometimes successive rounds of screening of a genomic library are carried out and an ordered collection of clones is done in a linear fashion, then the process is called as ___________
a) chromosome jumping
b) chromosome sorting
c) chromosome walking
d) transposon tagging
Answer: c
Explanation: Chromosome walking is the process of successive rounds of screening of a genomic library and it leads to the collection of clones in a linear order.

9. If the clone for a gene is obtained on the basis of its position in the gene map, then it is called as ___________
a) locational cloning
b) positional cloning
c) chromosome walking
d) transposon tagging
Answer: b
Explanation: If the clone for a gene is obtained on the basis of its position in the gene map then it is called positional cloning.

10. Mobile portions of a chromosome which can be transferred from one portion to another are termed as ___________
a) mobile part
b) transposons
c) walking elements
d) transferrable genetic element
Answer: b
Explanation: Transposons are the mobile portions of the chromosomes which can be transferred from one portion of the chromosome to another either on the same chromosome or different chromosome.

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