Category: Objective Questions

250+ TOP MCQs on Local Sequence Alignment and Answers

Bioinformatics Multiple Choice Questions on “Local Sequence Alignment”.

1. When did Smith–Waterman first describe the algorithm for local alignment?
A. 1950
B. 1970
C. 1981
D. 1925

Answer: c
Explanation: The algorithm was first proposed by Temple F. Smith and Michael S. Waterman in 1981. The Smith–Waterman algorithm performs local sequence alignment; that is, for determining similar regions between two strings of nucleic acid sequences or protein sequences.

2. Which of the following does not describe local alignment?
A. A local alignment aligns a substring of the query sequence to a substring of the target sequence
B. A local alignment is defined by maximizing the alignment score, so that deleting a column from either end would reduce the score, and adding further columns at either end would also reduce the score
C. Local alignments have terminal gaps
D. The substrings to be examined may be all of one or both sequences; if all of both are included then the local alignment is also global

Answer: c
Explanation: Local alignments never have terminal gaps, because a higher score could be obtained by deleting the gaps (which always have negative scores, i.e. penalties). In case of global alignment there are terminal gaps while analyzing.

3. Which of the following does not describe local alignment algorithm?
A. Score can be negative
B. Negative score is set to 0
C. First row and first column are set to 0 in initialization step
D. In traceback step, beginning is with the highest score, it ends when 0 is encountered

Answer: A
Explanation: Score can be negative. When any element has a score lower than zero, it means that the sequences up to this position have no similarities; this element will then be set to zero to eliminate influence from previous alignment. In this way, calculation can continue to find alignment in any position afterward.

4. Local alignments are more used when _____________
A. There are totally similar and equal length sequences
B. Dissimilar sequences are suspected to contain regions of similarity
C. Similar sequence motif with larger sequence context
D. Partially similar, different length and conserved region containing sequences

Answer: A
Explanation: The given description is suitable for global alignment. It attempts to align maximum of the entire sequence unlike local alignment where the partially similar sequences are analyzed.

5. Which of the following does not describe BLOSUM matrices?
A. It stands for BLOcks SUbstitution Matrix
B. It was developed by Henikoff and Henikoff
C. The year it was developed was 1992
D. These matrices are logarithmic identity values

Answer: D
Explanation: These matrices are actual percentage identity values. Or simply, they depend on similarity. Blosum 62 means there is 62 % similarity.

6. Which of the following is untrue regarding the gap penalty used in dynamic programming?
A. Gap penalty is subtracted for each gap that has been introduced
B. Gap penalty is added for each gap that has been introduced
C. The gap score defines a penalty given to alignment when we have insertion or deletion
D. Gap open and gap extension has been introduced when there are continuous gaps (five or more)

Answer: B
Explanation: Dynamic programming algorithms use gap penalties to maximize the biological meaning. The open penalty is always applied at the start of the gap, and then the other gaps following it is given with a gap extension penalty which will be less compared to the open penalty. Typical values are –12 for gap opening, and –4 for gap extension.

7. Among the following which one is not the approach to the local alignment?
A. Smith-Waterman algorithm
B. K-tuple method
C. Words method
D. Needleman-Wunsch algorithm

Answer: D
Explanation: Local alignment can be distinguished on two broad approaches, Smith-Waterman algorithm and word methods, also known as k-tuple methods and they are implemented in the well-known families of programs FASTA and BLAST.

8. Which of the following does not describe k-tuple methods?
A. k-tuple methods are best known for their implementation in the database search tools FASTA and the BLAST family
B. They are also known as words methods
C. They are basically heuristic methods to find local alignment
D. They are useful in small scale databases

Answer: D
Explanation: k-tuple or word methods are especially useful in large-scale database searches where a large proportion of stored sequences will have essentially no significant match with the query sequence. They are heuristic methods that are not guaranteed to find an optimal alignment solution but are significantly more efficient than Smith-Waterman algorithm.

9. Which of the following does not describe BLAST?
A. It stands for Basic Local Alignment Search Tool
B. It uses word matching like FASTA
C. It is one of the tools of the NCBI
D. Even if no words are similar, there is an alignment to be considered

Answer: D
Explanation: If no words are similar, there is no alignment i. e. it will not find matches for very short sequences. But it is considerably accurate as compared to other tools and hence is quite popular.

10. Which of the following is untrue regarding BLAST and FASTA?
A. FASTA is faster than BLAST
B. FASTA is the most accurate
C. BLAST has limited choices of databases
D. FASTA is more sensitive for DNA-DNA comparisons

Answer: A
Explanation: BLAST is faster than FASTA and most other tools. The speed and relatively good accuracy of BLAST is the key why the tool is the most popular bioinformatics search tool.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Data Analysis and Answers

Bioprocess Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Data Analysis”.

1. Which type of graph plot is used to analyze the effect of temperature on the rates of chemical reactions?
A. Dot plot
B. Normal probability plot
C. Arrhenius plot
D. Line weaver-Burk plot

Answer: C
Explanation: An Arrhenius plot displays the logarithm of kinetic constants (ln (k), ordinate axis) plotted against inverse temperature (1/T, abscissa). The Arrhenius equation can be written as:
ln (k) = ln (A. – (Ea/R) (1/T)
Where :
k = Rate constant
A = Pre-exponential factor
Ea = Activation energy
R = Gas constant
T = Absolute temperature, K
In the right, which represents the y-coordinate axis.

2. From the below representation of growth phase, which is the missing growth phase?

A. Exponential Growth Phase
B. Final Lag Phase
C. Initial Log Phase
D. Final Log phase

Answer: A
Explanation: The Log/ Exponential Growth phase is a period characterized by cell doubling. If growth is not limited, doubling will continue at a constant rate so both the number of cells and the rate of population increase doubles with each consecutive time period. For this type of exponential growth, plotting the natural logarithm of cell number against time produces a straight line.

3. If the substrate is given in molar concentration how would you define it’s Molarity and Molality based on the temperature condition?
A. Molarity and Molality both will change on effect of temperature
B. Molarity will change but not Molality
C. Molality will change but not Molarity
D. Normality of the reaction will change

Answer: B
Explanation: Molarity is the number of moles of solute per kilogram of the Solvent. That is because molarity does not depend on temperature, (neither on number of moles of solute nor mass of solvent will be affected by changes of temperature). While molarity changes as temperature changes because molarity is affected by temperature. This is because it is based on the volume of the solution, and the volume of a substance will be affected by changes in temperature.

4. What is the generation time of a bacterial population that increases from 10,000 cells to 10,000,000 cells in four hours of growth?

A. 24 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 34 minutes
D. 60 minutes

Answer: A

5. On which type of plot the best fit line is represented?
A. Dot plot
B. Line weaver- Burk plot
C. Scatter plot
D. Bland- Altman plot

Answer: C
Explanation: A line of best fit is a straight line drawn through the center of a group of data points plotted on a scatter plot. Scatter plots depict the results of gathering data on two variables. The line of best fit shows whether these two variables appear to be correlated and can be used to help identify trends occurring within the dataset. Analysts may use the line of best fit when determining a relationship between two variables where one variable is independent and one variable is being examined for dependency.

6. In the case of Rota meter, which is used for measuring the water flow rate?
A. Only one variable is involved, i.e. independent variable (the Rota meter reading)
B. Only two variables are involved: one independent variable(the Rota meter reading) and one dependent variable (the water flow rate)
C. Only two variables are involved: one independent variable(the water flow rate) and one dependent variable (the Rota meter reading)
D. Only one variable is involved, i.e. independent variable (the water flow rate)

Answer: B
Explanation: Rota meter is a device which measures flow rate. This is done by allowing the cross-sectional area the fluid travels through to vary, causing a measurable effect, i.e. water flow rate is dependent on Rota meter.

7. The diauxic growth curve mainly found in E.coli in the case of two types of nutrients is found in Batch culture is based on which equation?
A. Monod equation
B. Michaelis – Menten equation
C. Schrodinger equation
D. Lyapunov equation

Answer: A
Explanation: Jacques Monod discovered diauxic growth in 1941 during his experiments with Escherichia coli and Bacillus subtilis. While growing these bacteria on various combinations of sugars during his doctoral thesis research, Monod observed that often two distinct growth phases are clearly visible in batch culture.

8. Essentially in an experiment involving bacteria, we measure Optical density of the media where the bacteria grow at different time point from the same flask. If we have 2 or more types of bacteria and want to investigate whether the growth curve of those bacteria are significantly different, what do you think the best analysis can be applied for this purpose?
A. Linear regression analysis or general regression analysis
B. Non- linear regression analysis or general regression analysis
C. Logistic regression analysis
D. Stepwise regression analysis

Answer: B
Explanation: If the growth rates fit a polynomial curve, you can use General Regression and enter the bacteria type as categorical variable. Otherwise, you may need to use nonlinear regression separately for each type.

9. What is the basic Optical Density (O.D. of the bacterial cells?
A. 680nm
B. 600nm
C. 200nm
D. 280nm

Answer: B
Explanation: 600nm is a wavelength of light that is minimally absorbed by material within cells. Therefore, they can be more reliably used than other wavelengths (in most common situations). To simply, measure the scattering of light due to turbidity (just general presence of particles in a solution).

10. For what MANOVA is used for?
A. Detection of biological samples
B. Detection of the best fit curve
C. Comparison between monovariate samples
D. Comparison between multivariate samples

Answer: D

250+ TOP MCQs on Solving Unsteady – State Mass Balances and Answers

Bioprocess Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Solving Unsteady – State Mass Balances”.

1. A compound dissolves in water at a rate proportional to the product of the amount of undissolved solid and the difference between the concentration in a saturated solution and the actual solution; i.e., Csat – C(t). A saturated solution of this compound contains 40 g per 100 g of water. In a test run starting with 20 kg of undissolved compound in 100 kg of water, it was found that 5 kg dissolved in 3 hr. if the test continues, how many kg of compound will remain undissolved after 7 hr? Assume that the system is isothermal.
A. 11.56 kg
B. 10.72 kg
C. 11.76 kg
D. 10.52 kg

Answer: B

2. What is the first – order decay?
A. The rate of loss of the pollutant is constant
B. The rate of loss of the reactant is constant
C. The rate of loss of the pollutant is directly proportional to its concentration
D. The rate of loss of the reactant is directly proportional to its concentration

Answer: C
Explanation: First – order decay is the rate of loss of the pollutant is directly proportional to its concentration:
|dc/dt|reaction = -kC
For such a pollutant, mreaction = – V kC.

3. The water level in a municipal reservoir has been decreasing steadily during a dry spell, and there is a concern that the drought could continue for another 60 days. The local water company estimates that the consumption rate in the city is approximately 107 L/day. The state conservation service estimates that rainfall and stream drainage into the reservoir coupled with evaporation from the reservoir should yield a net water input rate of 106 exp (-t/100) L/day, where t is the time in days from the beginning of the drought, at which time the reservoir contained an estimated 109 liters of water.
Integrate the balance to calculate the reservoir volume at the end of the 60 days of continued drought.
A. 4.50 × 109 L
B. 4.50 × 108 L
C. 4.45 × 108 L
D. 4.45 × 109 L

Answer: C

4. Which one process is not a transient process?
A. Fed- batch
B. Batch
C. Continuous
D. Semi- batch

Answer: A
Explanation: Batch, semi-batch and continuous are transient as when they are start up, shut down or become transient at other times due to planned or unexpected changes in operating conditions.

5. Which of the following is the steady state condition based on the water tank concept?
A. Qin ≠ Qout
B. Qin = Qout
C. Qin > Qout
D. Qin < Qout

Answer: B
Explanation: Water flows in = Water flows out;
If Qin = Qout: Steady state (No accumulation)
No increase in level, mass, volume etc.
In time, there is no change in the system.

6. Determine the volume required for a PFR to obtain the degree of pollutant reduction, Assume that the flow rate and first-order decay rate constant are unchanged (Q = 50 m3/day, k = 0.216 day-1), Cout / Cin = 32/100 = 0.32.
A. 204 m3
B. 234 m3
C. 254 m3
D. 264 m3

Answer: D

7. In a batch process, the reaction takes place in the presence of an acid medium. The acid is drained from the reaction vessel at the rate of 15ml/s as a result of the density difference of the acid from the reacting component. To avoid wastage of acid, it is recycled to an acid tank which has 1000 L capacity. The acid drained from the reaction vessel, picks up 50 g/L solids from the reactor. Acid is fed once again to the process from acid tank. When the process is started, the acid is almost pure in the tank as a result of filtration. As the reaction proceeds, acid in the tank gets more and more contaminated with the solids. The concentration of the solids should not exceed 100 g/L from the process point of view. The batch time is 16h. Estimate whether the concentration of the solids will exceed 100g/L during the batch reaction.
A. 37.04 h
B. 30.05 h
C. 36.04 h
D. 32.05 h

Answer: A
Explanation: Input of the solids to the tank = 15 (c+50) t∆g/1000

Output of solids from tank = 15 Δt c / 1000g

Accumulation in the tank = 1000 (c+ΔC. – 1000c

= 1000Δc g
Input – output = Accumulation

1/1000 [15 (c+50) Δt – 15cΔt] = 1000Δt

750 Δt = 1000000 Δc

Converting into differential form ,

dt = 1333.33dc, when t=0 and c=0.

Integration therefore yields,

t = 1333.33c
C = 100g/L is the limit

t = 100 × 1333.33
= 133.33 s
= 37.04 h.

8. Which of the following is not an example of batch process?
A. Cooking
B. Specialty chemicals
C. Refining
D. Brewing

Answer: C
Explanation: Refining is a continuous process as feed and products flow continuously through process. System is open, and usually modeled as steady flow. Examples: Petroleum refining (except coking, blending).

9. Due to algal growth in a water supply reservoir in a neighborhood, the water has acquired an unpleasant taste. The compound is non-degradable, and the water utility has decided that the best way to deal with the situation is simply to flush the contaminant out of the system. The reservoir contains 11,000 m3 of water, and the proposal is to pump 300 m3/h of clean water through the system and discharge the effluent to the sewer system until 95% of the offending compound has been removed. If the reservoir is intensely mixed, how much flushing water will be required?
A. 30, 000 m3
B. 33, 000 m3
C. 35, 000 m3
D. 39, 000 m3

Answer: B

10.” A balloon is filled with air at a steady rate.” Which process can be correct for this condition?
A. Semi – batch
B. Batch
C. Fed – batch
D. Continuous

Answer: A

250+ TOP MCQs on Measurement of KLa and Answers

Bioprocess Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Measurement of KLa”.

1. What do you mean by “kLa”?
A. Volumetric mass transfer coefficient
B. Henry’s law coefficient
C. Volumetric oxygen transfer coefficient
D. Volumetric Solute transfer coefficient

Answer: C
Explanation: The value of the specific exchange surface (A. is difficult to determine for small bubbles found in a bioreactor. So, the entire term “kLa” is often called the volumetric oxygen transfer coefficient.

2. For which type of mass transfer does Oxygen-Balance method is used?
A. Gas- Gas
B. Gas-Solid
C. Gas-liquid
D. Liquid-Liquid

Answer: C
Explanation: This technique is based on the equation for gas-liquid mass transfer. The oxygen content of gas streams flowing to and from the fermenter is measured.

3. What is the proper concentration unit of kLa?
A. h-1
B. ml/h
C. mmol/h
D. ml/sec

Answer: A
Explanation: In this relation, the volumetric oxygen transfer coefficient, kLa, has the units of mmol, of O2/ml. h. unit concentration gradient. Using the proper concentration units, kLa has the unit of reciprocal of time (i.e., time-1).

4. Which of the following is the efficient value for oxygen concentration?
A. Equal to Ccrit
B. Below Ccrit
C. Above Ccrit
D. Ccrit

Answer: C
Explanation: It is important that the oxygen concentration remains above Ccrit so that the rate of oxygen uptake by the cells is independent of oxygen level.

5. A 20-1 stirred fermenter containing a Bacillus thuringiensis culture at 30°C is used for production of microbial insecticide, kLa is determined using the dynamic method. Air flow is shut off for a few minutes and the dissolved-oxygen level drops; the air supply is then re-connected. When steady state is established, the dissolved-oxygen tension is 78% air saturation. The following results are obtained. Estimate kLa.

Time(s) 5 15
Oxygen tension (% air saturation) 50 66

A. 0.080 s-1
B. 0.083 s-1
C. 0.085 s-1
D. 0.081 s-1

Answer: C

6. Refer to Q5 and, calculate: An error is made determining the steady-state oxygen level which, instead of 78%, is taken as 70%. What is the percentage error in kLa resulting from this 10% error in (bar{C_{AL}})?
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 75%
D. 100%

Answer: D

7. “The kLa value will depend upon the design and operating conditions of the fermenter”, is this statement true or false?
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: The value of kLa is unique to both the size and configuration of a reactor vessel. Although some empirically derived expressions have been published for predicting kLa values in non-Newtonian fluids, there is no agreed upon set of equations that account for all of the variables that can affect the results. Accordingly, predicting kLa is not possible, and kLa studies need to be performed for bioreactors individually. The kLa value will depend upon the design and operating conditions of the fermenter and will be affected by the variables such as
– aeration rate,
– agitation rate and
– impeller design.

8. Which of the following technique does not require the measurement of dissolved oxygen concentrations?
A. Dynamic gassing out method
B. Static gassing out method
C. Oxygen-Balance method
D. Sulphite oxidation method

Answer: D
Explanation: The oxygen-transfer rate is determined by the oxidation of sodium sulphite solution. This technique does not require the measurement of dissolved oxygen concentrations.
As oxygen enters solution it is immediately consumed in the oxidation of sulphite, so that the sulphite oxidation rate is equivalent to the oxygen-transfer rate. Since the dissolved oxygen concentration, is zero then the kLa may then be calculated from the equation:
kLa = OTR / C*
where OTR is the oxygen transfer rate.

9. Speed is the factor affecting the value of kLa.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: Because kLa measurements involve monitoring levels of DO following a system perturbation, the results can be influenced by the response time (or “speed”) of a sensor making those determinations. Sensors with response times (τr) on the order of the first-order time constant of the mass transfer (1 / kLA. require special treatment of their data to correct for the time lag in readings introduced by the oxygen sensor.

10. Which of the following is not a chemical method to measure kLa?
A. Dynamic gassing out method
B. Sodium sulfite oxidation method
C. Carbon dioxide absorption method
D. Glucose oxidase method

Answer: A
Explanation: This method hinges on the measurement of the dissolved oxygen concentration that is altered by absorption or desorption, facilitated by flushing with inert gases like nitrogen. The instantaneous dissolved oxygen concentration can be measured by using electrodes and kLa is hence estimated from the slope of the resulting plot.

11. Which of the following does not affect KLa value?
A. Air flow rate
B. Presence of enzymes
C. Presence of antifoam agents
D. Degree of agitation

Answer: B
Explanation: The mass transfer coefficient is strongly affected by agitation speed and air flow rate. The mass transfer coefficient increases with agitation speed and air flow rate. Since fermentation is usually conducted at constant temperature and pressure so thermodynamically antifoam agents make the foam unstable causing ΔG < va ΔA (where ΔG is the free energy change, va is the surface tension and ΔA is the change in area).

12. A 10,000 liter (of liquiD. bioreactor contains 5 g / L of growing cells qO2 = 20 mmoles O2 / (g cells hr) DT = 2 m, DI = 1 m, (6 – blade turbine agitator) x 3 blades and CL = 1 mg O2/L. Calculate OUR.
A. 200 mmoles O2 / (g cells hr)
B. 250 mmoles O2 / (g cells hr)
C. 100 mmoles O2 / (g cells hr)
D. 150 mmoles O2 / (g cells hr)

Answer: C
Explanation: OUR = X qO2 = (5 g / L) (20 mmoles O2 / (g cells hr)) = 100 moles O2 / (g cells hr).

13. Refer to Q12 and, calculate OTR. (Given: kLa = 169 mmol O2/ 1 hr atm, P* = 0.0263 atm and PO2 = 0.21 atm).
A. 30.05 mmoles O2 / liter hr
B. 31.05 mmoles O2 / liter hr
C. 20.05 mmoles O2 / liter hr
D. 21.05 mmoles O2 / liter hr

Answer: B
Explanation: OTR = kLa(PO2 – P*)
= 169 mmol O2 / 1 hr atm(0.21- 0.0263) atm
= 31.05 mmoles O2 / liter hr.

14. From Q12 and Q13, which of the following condition is relevant?
A. OTR>OUR
B. OTR<OUR
C. OTR=OUR
D. OTR≠OUR

Answer: B
Explanation: Since OUR > OTR, we must modify the bioreactor operation in order to bring them into balance:
• increase N
• use pure O2 rather than air.

15. KLa is measured in the absence of microorganisms?
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: The methods to measuring the kLa in a microbial bioprocess can be classified into the absence of microorganisms or with dead cells and in the presence of biomass that consumes oxygen at the time of measurement.

250+ TOP MCQs on Minimising Mass Transfer Effects and Answers

Bioprocess Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Minimising Mass Transfer Effects”.

1. Thiele modulus is used for the solid catalyst.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: The Thiele Modulus was developed to describe the relationship between diffusion and reaction rate in porous catalyst pellets with no mass transfer limitations. This value is generally used in determining the effectiveness factor for catalyst pellets.

2. Reducing the reaction rate rA,obs improves the effectiveness of mass transfer aimed at increasing the reaction rate.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: When the catalyst is very active with a high demand for substrate, mass transfer is likely to be slow relative to reaction so that steep concentration gradients are produced. However, limiting the reaction rate by operating at sub-optimum conditions or using an organism or enzyme with low intrinsic activity does not achieve the overall goal of higher conversion rates. Because rA,obs is the reaction rate per volume of catalyst, another way of reducing rA,obs is to reduce the cell or enzyme loading in the solid. This reduces the demand for substrate per particle so that mass transfer has a better chance of supplying it at a sufficient rate. Therefore, if the same mass of cells or enzyme is distributed between more particles, the rate of conversion will increase.

3. Thiele modulus will increase with the decrease of the size of the catalyst.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: Thiele modulus (Φ) is proportional to the square of catalyst size (R2 for spheres or b2 for flat plates), reducing the catalyst size has a more dramatic effect on Φ than changes in any other variable. It is therefore a good way to improve the reaction rate. In principle, mass-transfer limitations can be completely overcome if the particle size is decreased sufficiently.

4. “Increasing the bulk concentration of substrate CAb”, is included in which parameter?
A. Internal mass-transfer
B. External mass-transfer
C. Internal-External mass- transfer
D. Heat transfer

Answer: B
Explanation: External mass transfer is more rapid at high bulk substrate concentrations; the higher the concentration, the greater is the driving force for mass transfer across the boundary layer.

5. The boundary layer is necessary for the analysis of data.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: In large-scale reactors, external mass-transfer problems may be unavoidable if sufficiently high liquid velocities cannot be achieved. However, when evaluating biocatalyst kinetics in the laboratory, it is advisable to eliminate fluid boundary layers to simplify analysis of the data. Several laboratory reactor configurations allow almost complete elimination of interparticle and interphase concentration gradients. Operation with high liquid velocity through the bed reduces boundary-layer effects.

6. Increase in pump speed does not change the overall reaction rate.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: Increase in pump speed do not change the overall reaction rate. Therefore, if we can identify a liquid velocity u*L at which reaction rate becomes independent of liquid velocity, operation at uL > u*L will ensure that ηC = 1.

7. Accessibility of the surface area of the catalyst is typically non-limiting.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: Rate of catalytic surface reactions is proportional to the catalyst surface area. However, accessibility of that surface area is typically limiting, as most of it is inner surface area inside the porous catalyst structure. Essentially all the surface area of most typical technical catalysts is internal surface area. Hence, a catalyst can only be used at its maximum potential, if diffusion inside the pore structure is not limiting.

8. Rate of reaction over a finely crushed catalyst of radius of 0.5 mm was measured as 10.0 mole/sm3 catalyst. Temperature is 400 K and pressure is 105 Pa and mole fraction of reactant in the gas is 0.1. Find the rate for a catalyst of pellet radius of 3mm. (Assume ηC = 1 for small catalyst).
A. 7.01 mole / m3s
B. 7.03 mole / m3s
C. 7.05 mole / m3s
D. 7.07 mole / m3s

Answer: C

9. The internal effectiveness factor is symbolized by ________
A. μ
B. Φ
C. η
D. Ω

Answer: C

 

10. The overall effectiveness factor is symbolized by __________
A. μ
B. Φ
C. η
D. Ω

Answer: D

250+ TOP MCQs on Products of Animal Cell Cultures and Answers

Bioprocess Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Products of Animal Cell Cultures”.

1. Prophylactic is also an antibiotic.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation: A preventive measure. The word comes from the Greek for “an advance guard”, an apt term for a measure taken to fend off a disease or another unwanted consequence. A prophylactic is a medication or a treatment designed and used to prevent a disease from occurring. For example, prophylactic antibiotics may be used after a bout of rheumatic fever to prevent the subsequent development of Sydenham’s chorea. A prophylactic is also a drug or device, particularly a condom, for preventing pregnancy.

2. Hybridoma cells have an application to produce:
A. Antigens
B. Antibodies
C. Cancer cells
D. Cell lines
Answer: B
Explanation: Hybridoma cells are obtained by fusing lymphocytes (normal blood cells that make antibodies) with myeloma (cancer) cells. Lymphocytes producing antibodies grow slowly and are mortal. After fusion with myeloma cells, hybridomas become immortal, can reproduce indefinitely, and produce antibodies. Using hybridoma cells, highly specific, monoclonal (originating from one cell) antibodies can be produced against specific antigens.

3. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for chromatographic separations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation: MAb’s are also used for chromatographic separations to purify protein molecules. Purification of interferon by affinity chromatography is an example of the use of MAb’s for protein purification purposes.

4. Monoclonal antibodies are referred as ___________
A. Magic bullets
B. Magic gun
C. Magic shots
D. Magic bomb
Answer: A
Explanation: In the early 1900s, German Nobel Laureate Paul Ehrlich imagined an ideal therapy for disease, a drug precisely targeted to an invader, which if linked to a toxic chemical would act like a missile, carrying a destructive payload directly to the disease. Ehrlich said the drug would be a ‘Magische Kugel’, which in English means ‘Magic Bullet’. Such a therapy, he theorized, would be ideal for countless diseases, including cancer.

5. Antibody fragments lack fc domain.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation: There are a range of applications in which Fc mediated effects are not required and are even undesirable. A common solution for applications where the antibody is only being used to block a signalling molecule or receptor is the use of antibody fragments that lack the Fc domain. This also helps to reduce the other main failure of therapeutic antibodies, namely the lack of delivery, which is especially true for anti-cancer antibodies.

6. Antibody fragments are advantageous than Monoclonal antibodies.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation: The large size of MAb’s has limited their ability to penetrate some tumors. Antibody fragments can be used instead; these products can be made in nonmammalian cells. The use of smaller fragments enables deeper penetration with the affinity of the antibody also being critical and if it is too high this will restrict its ability to penetrate a tumour.

7. Interferon is a virus.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation: Interferon (an anticancer glycoprotein secreted by animal cells upon exposure to cancer causing agents) is an example of an immunoregulator produced by mammalian cells. Interferon can be produced by either animal cells or recombinant (genetically engineereD. bacteria.

8. Lymphokines are produced both by T-cell and B-cell.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation: Lymphokines are a subset of cytokines that are produced by a type of immune cell known as a lymphocyte. They are protein mediators typically produced by T cells to direct the immune system response by signaling between its cells. Lymphokines aid B cells to produce antibodies.

9. Thymosins are:
A. Small proteins
B. Medium proteins
C. Large proteins
D. Globular proteins
Answer: A
Explanation: Thymosins are small proteins present in many animal tissues. They are named thymosins because they were originally isolated from the thymus, but most are now known to be present in many other tissues. Thymosins have diverse biological activities, and two in particular, thymosins α1 and β4, have potentially important uses in medicine, some of which have already progressed from the laboratory to the clinic. In relation to diseases, thymosins have been categorized as biological response modifiers.

10. Subunit vaccines from Virus contain viral DNA.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation: A vaccine which, through chemical extraction, is free from viral nucleic acid and contains only specific protein subunits of a given virus; such vaccines are relatively free of the adverse reactions (for example, influenza virus) associated with vaccines containing the whole virion.

11. The poor antigen in a conjugate vaccine is:
A. Strong protein
B. Weak protein
C. A Polysaccharide
D. Non-polysaccharide
Answer: C
Explanation: A conjugate vaccine is created by covalently attaching a poor antigen to a strong antigen thereby eliciting a stronger immunological response to the poor antigen. Most commonly, the poor antigen is a polysaccharide that is attached to strong protein antigen.

12. Eicosanoids is a type of ________________
A. Hormone
B. Antibiotic
C. Vaccine
D. Antigen
Answer: A
Explanation: Eicosanoids are lipid hormones – hormones made from lipids, kinds of fats.

13. Amines is a type of hormone.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation: There are two major chemical classes of hormones, peptides (proteins) and steroid hormones. Protein based hormones can be divided into three categories: proteins, peptides and amines.

14. Baculovirus infects insect cell lines and are also pathogenic to humans.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation: The baculovirus that infects insect cells is an ideal vector for genetic engineering, because it is nonpathogenic to humans and has a very strong promoter that encodes for a protein that is not essential for virus production in cell culture. The insertion of a gene under the control of this promoter can lead to high expression levels (40% of the total protein as the target protein).

15. What do you mean by glycosylation?
A. Addition of sugar
B. Non-addition of sugar
C. Lysis of sugar moieties
D. Blockage of sugar molecules
Answer: A
Explanation: Glycosylation is a critical function of the biosynthetic-secretory pathway in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and Golgi apparatus. Approximately half of all proteins typically expressed in a cell undergo this modification, which entails the covalent addition of sugar moieties to specific amino acids.

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