Category: Objective Questions

Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Post-Translational Modifications of Proteins”.

1. Which of the following is not a type of post translational modification?
A. Proteolysis
B. Protein folding
C. Glycosylation
D. Lipid addition

Answer: B
Explanation: Post translational modifications include three types of modification that is proteolysis, glycosylation and lipid addition. Protein folding is the process taking place after the translational modification and that is used to produce the cognate protein by folding the polypeptide in a proper 3-D form with the help of chaperons.

2. Proteolytic modifications of the polypeptide are an important process in the mechanism for protein sorting and transport.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: Proteolytic modifications of the amino terminus play a part in the translocation of many proteins across the membranes, including secretory proteins in both bacteria and eukaryotes as well as proteins destined for incorporation into the plasma membrane, lysozomes, mitochondria and chloroplasts of eukaryotic cells. These proteins are targeted for transport to their destinations by amino terminal sequences that are removed by proteolytic cleavage as the protein crosses the membrane.

3. The amino acid is the signal sequence in any polypeptide chain for ____________
A. Protein activity
B. Glycosylation site
C. Proteolytic site
D. Site for lipid addition

Answer: C
Explanation: The amino acid is the signal sequence that is usually about 20 amino acids long and targets many secretory proteins to the plasma membrane of bacteria or the ER of eukaryotic cells while translation is still in progress. The signal sequence, which consists predominantly of hydrophobic amino acids, is inserted into a membrane channel as it emerges from the ribosome. This signal is cleaved off to produce the mature polypeptide.

4. The first step in protein targeting is ___________
A. Synthesis of protein
B. Translocation to Golgi body
C. Translocation to nucleus
D. Translocation to ER

Answer: D
Explanation: The first step in protein targeting is its translocation to the ER after its production from the ribosome. Only after this translocation proteolytic cleavage occurs producing the mature protein which undergoes many modifications before it is targeted to its destination.

5. How many Proteolytic cleavages produce mature insulin?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B
Explanation: Insulin forms by two cleavages. The initial precursor, preproinsulin, contains an amino terminal signal sequence that targets the polypeptide chain to the ER. Removal of the signal sequence during transfer to the ER yields a second precursor, called proinsulin. This precursor is then converted to insulin by proteolytic removal of an internal peptide.

6. Glycosylation is the addition of ___________ to the protein.
A. Carbohydrate
B. Lipid
C. Fat
D. Minerals

Answer: A
Explanation: Glycosylation is the addition of carbohydrate moieties to the protein. The proteins to which the carbohydrate groups are added are called glycoproteins. They can be added in but amino and carboxy terminals of the amino acids depending on the type of amino acid.

7. In the N-linked glycoprotein, the carbohydrates are attached to which of the following bases?
A. Valine
B. Threonine
C. Asparagine
D. Serine

Answer: C
Explanation: In the N-linked glycoprotein the carbohydrates are attached to the amino terminus of the amino acid. An example of such an amino acid to which N-linked glycosylation occurs is the nitrogen atom in the side chain of Asparagine.

8. In O-linked glycoproteins, the carbohydrates may be attached to how many amino acids?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B
Explanation: In O-linked glycoproteins, the carbohydrates may be attached to two of the 20 amino acids found generally. These carbohydrate moieties are added to the oxygen atom in the side chain of serine or Threonine.

9. Initiation of glycosylation occurs in the Golgi body.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: The proteins are usually transferred to the ER as soon as they are produced by the ribosome. Thus most of the modification such as proteolysis and glycosylation occurs within the lumen of the ER.

10. How many types of modification are possible in eukaryotes by addition of lipids?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: D
Explanation: Three general types of lipid additions – N-myristoylation, prenylation and palmitoylation – are common in eukaryotic proteins associated with the cytosolic face of the plasma membrane. A fourth type of modification, the addition of glycolipids, plays an important role in anchoring some cell surface proteins to the extracellular face of the plasma membrane.

11. Prenylation adds prenyl groups to the ___________ amino acid residues.
A. Methionine
B. Cystine
C. Threonine
D. Arginine

Answer: B
Explanation: Prenylation adds prenyl groups to the Cystine residue. The prenyl group is added to the sulphur atom in the side chains of cystine residues located near the C-terminus of the polypeptide chain.

12. Frame shift mutation can increase or decrease the length of a polypeptide.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: Frame shift mutation is a type of point mutation that introduces alterations in the genetic code. Thus frame shift mutation introduces insertion or deletions of one or a small number of base pairs that alter the reading frame.

13. Consider a tandem repeat of the sequence GCU. Now if insertion of an A residue occurs in the message as follows

What type of mutation has taken place in this case?
A. Missense mutation
B. Stop mutation
C. Frame shift mutation
D. Reverse mutation

Answer: C
Explanation: GCU generally codes for alanine but the insertion of A in the genetic message changes the reading frame thus generates a serine codon (AGC. at the site of insertion. This results in the frame shift in the open reading frame from alanine to cystine in the downstream of the insertion. Thus the insertion of a single base alters the coding capacity of the message.

14. If the insertions of three nucleotides occur in a consecutive manner it causes which of the following type of mutation?
A. Missense mutation
B. Stop mutation
C. Frame shift mutation
D. Reverse mutation

Answer: C

Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Plasmid DNA Replicates by Two Alternative Methods – 2”.

1. In which phase bacteria develop competence?
A. Late phase
B. Log phase
C. Metaphase
D. Lag phase

Answer: A
Explanation: Bacteria develop competence during the late phase of their growth cycle. In this cycle the density of bacteria is high but the cell division stops.

2. In which bacteria competence pheromones was first identified?
A. S. pneumoniae
B. B. subtilis
C. H. influenzae
D. N. gonorrbacae

Answer: B
Explanation: Bacillus subtilis contain small peptides called competence pheromones that are secreted by cells and accumulate at high cell density. High concentration of these pheromones induces the expression of genes encoding proteins required for facilitating the process of transformation.

3. What is the percentage of DNA molecules taken up by competent cells during the transformation?
A. 0.1-0.5
B. 0.3-0.4
C. 0.5-0.6
D. 0.2-0.5

Answer: D
Explanation: The DNA molecules taken up by competent cells during transformation are usually only about 0.2 – 0.5% of the complete genetic material. Thus plasmids for recombination are thus prepared to maintain the size of the adequate molecule to be taken up by the bacterium.

4. Transformation of E. coli does not occur.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: E. coli is the most intensely studied bacterial species under natural conditions. In 1946, Joshua Lederberg and Edward Tatum discovered that E. coli cells transfer genes by conjugation thus exhibiting transformation.

5. During conjugation the Donor cell have cell surface appendages known as ____________
A. F pili
B. B pili
C. A pili
D. D pili

Answer: A
Explanation: During conjugation Donor cells have cell surface appendages known as F pili. The synthesis of these F pili is controlled by gene present on a plasmid called the F factor or the fertility factor.

6. What is the size of the F factor that is involved in conjugation?
A. 106 base pairs
B. 105 base pairs
C. 10-12 base pairs
D. 109 base pairs

Answer: B
Explanation: Most F factors are approximately 105 base pairs in size. This contains the gene that facilitates the growth if the F pili through which the bacteria is able to transfer the F factor to another bacteria.

7. In how many states the F plasmid can occur within bacteria?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B
Explanation: The F plasmid can occur within bacteria in two states. They are the autonomous or plasmid state or the integrated state within the bacterial genome.

8. By which of the following methods does the F plasmid integrates into the bacterial genome?
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Recombination
D. Mutation

Answer: C
Explanation: The F-factor can integrate into the bacterial chromosome by site specific recombination. This recombination is mediated by short stretches of homologous sequence in the genome and plasmid of the bacteria.

9. High frequency recombination cell contains an integrated F factor. What is the name of such a cell?
A. Har cell
B. Hra cell
C. Hfr cell
D. Hrf cell

Answer: C
Explanation: High frequency recombination cell contain an integrated F factor. These cells are known as Hfr cell. F factor mediates the transfer of chromosome from the Hfr⁺ cell to an Hfr- cell transforming it into an Hfr⁺ cell.

10. What is the strain of the Hfr⁺ cell where the F factor is integrated near the tbr and leu loci?
A. Hfr H
B. Hfr A
C. Hfr B
D. Hfr K

Answer: A
Explanation: The particular strain of the Hfr⁺ cell where the F factor is integrated near the tbr and leu loci is the Hfr H cell. In this strain, the transfer of F factor induces the transfer of the other two genes with it.

11. Transformation, transduction and conjugation occur in every bacterial cell.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B

Energy Engineering Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Coal and Ash Handling System – 2”.

1. _________ is used in high pressure hydraulic ash handling system, to quench the ash.
A. Turbines
B. Lubricants
C. Water troughs
D. Nozzle sprays
View Answer

Answer: D
clarification: As we know Nozzles are used to increase pressure. Also, they are also used to quench the ash. The ash falling from the conveyor belt is quenched to make it flow down through the sump. Water trough is used in order to avoid dust creating from falling ash from the furnace.

2. Which of the following ash handling system is more suitable for large thermal plants?
A. Steam jet ash handling system
B. Mechanical ash handling system
C. Pneumatic ash handling system
D. Hydraulic ash handling system
View Answer

Answer: D
clarification: Hydraulic ash handling system is more suitable large thermal plants since its ash carrying capacity is considerably large. And also it has ability to dissolve the ash in the water which makes its capacity large. It also has lots of advantages it is clean, dust free and no noise is produced. The water used can be recycled only for limited amount of times.

3. What is the important feature of hydraulic ash handling system?
A. It is clean and dustless
B. It can discharge ash for long distances
C. The unhealthy aspect of ordinary ash basement work is eliminated
D. Absence of working parts in contact with ash

Answer: D
clarification: Particularly in hydraulic system the ash is actually quenched in water. So, there is less chance that ash has any possibility of getting in contact with the machineries. There is less chances of machine falling into a repair and maintenance is less as compared to any other type of ash handling system.

4. In hydraulic ash handling system, large quantities of leachate under a positive pressure head in pond pose a constant threat to ________
A. cause pungent smell
B. the livelihood
C. ground water quality
D. the nearby flora
View Answer

Answer: B
clarification: Since there is constant gravity pressure that is exerting on the surface of the ponds or other water bodies where hydraulic ash is dumped. When the same water is absorbed into the ground, it affects the quality of ground water. This effect indirectly affects growth of plants and degrades the land around water body making it unusable.

5. Which of the following ash handling system is not flexible to re-locate/re-place its discharging site?
A. Steam jet ash handling system
B. Mechanical ash handling system
C. Hydraulic ash handling system
D. Pneumatic ash handling system

Answer: C
clarification: Since the hydraulic ash handling system involves the usage of liquids, the discharging sites cannot be re-located/re-placed. Else constructing/developing a new discharging site is possible but the old one cannot be replaced since it is a wet system. In case of all other forms of ash handling system it is easy since they are dry system and they won’t have much of an impact on the following discharging site/land.

6. ___________ and __________ are the common problems on pipeline inner walls when the slurry contains calcium, magnesium and sulphate ashes.
A. Clogs and Corrosion
B. Scaling and Cracks
C. Pores and Contamination
D. Scaling and Cementation

Answer: D
clarification: Scaling and Cementation are the two main problems caused on the inner walls of pipeline, when there is contamination of calcium, magnesium and sulphate in the discharge. Calcium or magnesium contained mixtures have limited solubility. So, they intend get deposited on the materials.

7. Which of the following ash is suitable for selling?
A. Bed ash
B. Synthetic gypsum
C. Fly ash
D. Clinkers

Answer: C
clarification: Fly ash is sold in the market, which is used in concrete bricks, cement clinkers, road subbase and as mineral filler in asphaltic concrete. Fly ash is very fine in its structure, composed mostly of silica made from burning of coal in the furnace or boiler. And ‘Bed ash’ refers to the ash that’s struck on the walls of boiler which is very coarse in nature.

8. Which ash handling system can be built up in limited space?
A. Mechanical ash handling system
B. Pneumatic ash handling system
C. Hydraulic ash handling system
D. Steam jet ash handling system

Answer: D
clarification: Steam jet ash handling system can be constructed particularly when there is a limited amount of space is available because not much amount of space is required for its setup and operation. Pneumatic and hydraulic ash handling system require huge amount of space for their construction and operation. Steam jet ash handling system is used in small capacity plants.

9. In what form does the total ash produced in the furnace escapes through the chimney?
A. Fines
B. Aerosols
C. Gas
D. Cinder

Answer: A
clarification: Fines are the particles which vary in the size of 1 to 80 microns. These could easily get escaped into air via chimneys. About 80% of ash produce is in this range of microns and everything gets easily escaped into air and the rest is made use for other possible purposes.

10. What is the capacity of the steam jet ash handling system?
A. 45tonnes/hour
B. 15tonnes/hour
C. 30tonnes/hour
D. 150tonnes/hour

Answer: B
clarification: The capacity of the steam jet ash handling system is limited 15tonnes/hour since the plant built up is in less space. And it has ability to remove ash through a horizontal distance of 200m. the operation of this system is noisy since steam jet of high velocity is produced in such a limited place.

11. What material is used in pipe linings for linking of steam jet system?
A. Nickel alloy
B. Graphite
C. Titanium
D. Copper alloy

Answer: A
clarification: The abrasive particles present in ash cause wear and tear in pipes due to high speed movement in pipes of steam jet system. Even chilled iron also can be used to line the pipes to overcome the following problem. And also avoiding bends and turns in pipes would reduce the damage of pipes.

12. What is the distance up to which steam jet ash handling system is capable of removing ashes?
A. 200m
B. 50m
C. 75m
D. 350m
View Answer

Answer: A
clarification: Even though the size of the steam jet ash handling capacity is compact, the high velocity steam jet can easily remove the ashes up to 200m. Since it is small sized plant its capability to remove ashes is limited. The moisture of steam also makes the ash wet and it would gain a light amount of weight which becomes a bit difficult to move ash at a longer distances.

13. What measure to be taken to avoid the noise produced in the pneumatic ash handling system?
A. Passing ash at slower pace
B. Reducing swift turns and sharp bends
C. Broadening of pipe width
D. Reducing and crushing the size of the ash

Answer: B
clarification: The air and ash mixture moving through the pipe at high pressure tends to hit the walls at inner side of pipe when there are number of swift turns and sharp bends made. Avoiding them can reduce the noise up to 50%.

14. Is there any requirement of auxiliary steam producer in the steam jet ash handling system.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
clarification: There is no requirement for any auxiliary steam producing unit since the steam required is drawn from the boiler present in the system. The steam drawn from the boiler is pressurized and then utilized. Non-requirement of auxiliary unit is advantageous as it would cut slack in the expenses of setting up the plant.

15. How much amount of steam is required to remove 1 ton of ash from the steam jet ash handling system?
A. 100kg
B. 450kg
C. 65kg
D. 200kg

Answer: A
clarification: 100 kg of steam is required to remove 1 ton of ash. Since the steam let out is at very high velocity, 1 ton of ash can be easily moved to compare and balancing to its weight ratio. And this wholesome amount of steam is generated by the boiler present in the plant.

 

Energy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Pulverised Fuel Handling”.

1. Why do large power plants use pulverized fuel firing system?
A. Higher thermal efficiency
B. Uses high grade coal
C. Less smoke formation
D. Troubles created in this system are less

Answer: A
clarification: Most of the large power plants use pulverized fuel firing system since it is higher in its thermal efficiency. And selection of it mainly depends upon the size of boiler unit, type of the coal available, nature of load on the plant, load factor, cost of the fuel and availability of skilled labors.

2. How is the fuel selected in the pulverized fuel system?
A. Depending on its size
B. Depending on its grade
C. Depending on volatile matter content
D. Depending the chemical composition

Answer: C
clarification: In pulverized fuel firing system, coal with 20% volatile matter is considered as the best fuel for the plant, as high volatile coals are harder to grind when compared to low volatile coals. In stoker firing, the characteristics of the coal plays very important role in selection of coal.

3. What is the advantage of using pulverized fuel firing system?
A. Decreases maintenance of plant
B. Less wastage of the products
C. Less ash formation
D. No formation of clinkers

Answer: A
clarification: The use of pulverized system increases the capital of and operating costs, but decreases maintenance of the plant and increases thermal efficiency. The pulverizer used to grind the coal should consume less power and should deliver the rated tonnage of coal.

4. What is unit pulverizer system also called?
A. Burner and pulverizer firing system
B. Central system firing system
C. Bin system firing system
D. Direct firing system
View Answer

Answer: D
clarification: The unit system is also called as the direct firing system. Most of the power plants with pulverized coal as the fuel are being installed with unit pulverizer. In this system each burner or a group of burner and pulverizer constitute a unit. The over head bunker supplies raw coal by gravity into a feeder where it is dried with the help of hot air.

5. On which factor is the coal fed to the pulverizing mill in pulverized fuel firing system?
A. Steam generating rate
B. Capacity of intake of coal
C. On the rate of speed of the feeder
D. Depending on the temperature that is governed inside the combustion chamber

Answer: A
clarification: The feeder supplies coal too the pulverizing mill after drying coal in hot air. It is supplied at a variable rate governed by the combustion requirements of furnace and steam generating rate. In the pulverizing mill the coal is crushed to the required size (fine powder).

6. Which type of draught system is used in the pulverized fuel firing system?
A. Forced draught
B. Balanced draught
C. Induced draught
D. Natural draught

Answer: C
clarification: Induced draught system is used in pulverized fuel firing system. The primary air from the Induced draught fan carries pulverized coal from the mill to the burner through short delivery pipe. In the separator, the big coal particles are separated from the fine dust these again fall down into the mill.

7. Which system was used before direct firing system in pulverized fuel firing?
A. Unit system
B. Burner and pulverizer system
C. Bin system
D. Pulverizer

Answer: C
clarification: Bin system was widely used before pulverizing equipment became reliable enough for continuous steady operation. This system employs a limited number of large capacity pulverizes at a central point to prepare coal for all the burners.

8. Why is direct firing system considered better than bin system in pulverizer fuel firing?
A. It has long operating procedure
B. The auxiliaries used in system consume large amount of power
C. The initial cost of system is very high
D. The transportation of coal is much more complex

Answer: A
clarification: The bin system involves many stages of drying, storing and transportation and hence the process takes extra amount of time & chances of fire hazards are more. Never the less, it is still in use at many older plants.

9. Which separator is used to separate the pulverized coal in pulverized fuel firing?
A. Central inlet separator
B. Magnetic separator
C. Cyclone separator
D. Inertial separator

Answer: C
clarification: Cyclones are mostly used for removing industrial dust from air or process gases. They are the principal type of gas-solid separator. The particulate is made to spin rapidly, heavier particle settle down and all the dust is removed out from the ducts. To also remove dust from the pulverized coal cyclone separator are used.

10. What is used to remove moisture air after cyclone separation in the pulverized fuel system?
A. Sponge pad
B. Dry filters
C. Fabric bag
D. Hot air

Answer: C
clarification: A fabric bag filter is used to separate and exhaust the moisture air to the atmosphere and discharge the pulverized coal to storage bins, through the conveyor. This system uses all the equipment as used in unit system with higher capacity of each part. In addition to that the system also uses storage bins.

11. In what manner is the coal is fed to all the burners in pulverized fuel system?
A. Through a common feeder
B. Parallel feeding
C. From separate feeder
D. Series mesh feeding

Answer: C
clarification: The pulverized coal is fed to the various burners through separate feeders. The bin may contain coal required for 12 to 24 hours of supply. The quantities of fuel and air can be regulated accurately and separately. This leads greater degree of flexibility.

Energy Engineering MCQs focuses on “Ash and its Effects on Boiler Operation and Performance”.

1. Ash is widely used in the production of _______
A. Plastics
B. Thermal wear
C. Food oxidants
D. Cement
View Answer

Answer: D
clarification: Ash is widely used in the production of cement. Fly ash is pozzolanic and develops self hardening characteristics. Concrete made of ash can yield improved workability and strength greater than all cement based concrete. The pozzolanic quality of ash lime mixture creates a healing of cracks in the pavement themselves.

2. Why is used for treating acidic soils?
A. To improve fertility of soil
B. For their better alkali values
C. To keep away insects
D. To loosen up the soil
View Answer

Answer: B
clarification: Due to their better alkali values, they are used for treating acidic soils. Its use for agricultural purposes is recently experimented in Japan and it is found that it supplies essential nutrients as sulfur, boron, calcium and zinc. It also adjusts pH to optimum levels for plant growth.

3. What is the India’s current total capacity of power plants installed?
A. 84000MW
B. 92000MW
C. 28000MW
D. 150000MW

Answer: A
clarification: India’s current total installed capacity of power plants is 84000MW, out of which coal-fired thermal plants contribute 54000MW (65% of total). The World Bank estimated coal based power generation to increase by another 81000MW by 2010 which would have further increased fly ash load of 56 million tons per year.

4. How much percent of fly ash is, mixed with Portland cement?
A. 10 to 25%
B. 5 to 10%
C. 30 to 50%
D. 50%
View Answer

Answer: A
clarification: 10 to 25% dry fly ash can be used as during manufacture of cement or blended with finished Portland cement to produce Portland pozzolana cement whose strength is higher. The major drawback of this cement is its high cost and it requires more setting time.

5. Sintered light weight aggregates are produced by which method?
A. Nodulisation
B. Autolysation
C. Decondensation
D. Patronisation

Answer: A
clarification: Sintered light weight aggregates are produced by nodulisation of fly ash and sintering them at 1000^oc to 1300^oC. Unburnt fuel in the fly ash modules supports ignition. Sintered weight aggregate substitute’s chips in concrete reducing dead weight.

6. How much time period is fly ash stone powder cement bricks water cured?
A. A week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 1 month

Answer: D
clarification: Fly ash stone powder cement bricks are manufactured by mixing weighted fly ash, cement and stone powder in a mixture and molded and pressed in brick making machine. The compacted bricks are water cure for a month. The compressive strength of these bricks varies from 70 to 110 bar depending upon cement content.

7. How much amount of fly ash is made utilized by India?
A. 3 – 4%
B. 10 – 20%
C. 50 – 60%
D. 35 – 55%

Answer: A
clarification: About 20% of coal ash in the coal is converted into bottom ash and 80% fly ash. India utilizes only 3 – 4% of fly ash generated as compared to 40% utilization in France and U.K. The government 5t of India is imposing to achieve about 50% of fly ash in the upcoming years.

8. Which among the following when utilized gives good finishing on the both sides of the walls?
A. Cast-in-situ fly ash walls
B. Cellular light weight concrete
C. Sintered light weight aggregates
D. Fly ash cement putty

Answer: A
clarification: Using high fly ash comprising of cement, lime fly ash and sand in appropriate proportions depending upon the quality of fly ash with pre-measured water cement ratio, cast-in-situ can be built. These can be cast to any thickness using steel shuttering. By using this system we can achieve 20% of economy, quicker construction, good finish on both sides of wall and more carpet area.

9. Which type of concrete is useful in high rise construction?
A. Cellular light weight concrete
B. Cast-in-situ fly ash
C. Fly ash stone powder bricks
D. Sintered light weight aggregates

Answer: A
clarification: Cellular light weight cement can be manufactured by a process involving the mixing of fly ash, cement, coarse sand fine and a foaming agent. The slurry formed is poured in moulds and allowed to set. The blocks are then removed and cured by spraying water on the stack. The blocks are especially useful in high rise construction reducing the dead weight of the structure.

Energy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Classification of Hydro-Plant”.

1. What type of Hydro plant is it if the Plant head is above 100m?
A. High head hydro-plant
B. Medium head hydro-plant
C. Low head hydro-plant
D. Base load hydro-plant
View Answer

Answer: A
clarification: If the head of water available is above 100m, the plant is known as a high head plant. IN this head, water available for producing electricity is very high and it can extend to 1000 meters. These are most commonly constructed hydro plants.

2. Which type of hydro plant is it if the head of a hydro plant is 30 – 100m?
A. High head hydro-plant
B. Medium head hydro-plant
C. Low head hydro-plant
D. Base load hydro-plant

Answer: B
clarification: If the water available is more than 30m but less than 100m, than this type of plant is known as medium head plant. Water stored in fore bay is conveyed to the turbine through penstocks. In these plants the river water is tapped off to a fore bay on one bank of rive.

3. Low head hydro plant is also known as ____________
A. Canal power plant
B. Medium head hydro-plant
C. Run-off river hydro-plant
D. Base load hydro plant

Answer: A
clarification: Low head hydro electric power plant is also known as canal power plant. The dam in this type of power plant is of very small head may be even few meters only. The low head type of power plants cannot store water.

4. Which plants supply the peak load for the base power plants?
A. Mini hydel plants
B. Pump storage power plants
C. Low head plants
D. Run-off river power plants

Answer: B
clarification: Pumped storage plants supply the peak load for the base power plants and pump all or a portion of their own water supply. The plant contains a tail water pond and a head water pond connected by a penstock.

5. Which plants are used with steam and IC engines?
A. Pumped storage plants
B. Mini hydel plants
C. Low head Hydel plant
D. Run-off river plants

Answer: A
clarification: Pumped storage plants can be used with hydro, steam and IC engines. The generating pumping unit is at the lower end. During off peak hours some of the surplus electric energy generated by the base plant is utilized to pump water from tail water pond into the head water pond.

6. Which type of turbines does modern hydro power plant use?
A. Kaplan turbine
B. Francis turbine
C. Pelton wheel
D. Cross flow turbine

Answer: B
clarification: Modern power plants use Francis turbine. Francis turbine is a water turbine developed by James Francis. It is an inward flow reaction turbine that combines radial and axial flow concepts. These are primarily used for electric production.

7. Which type of hydro power plant can be with or without pondage?
A. Mini hydel plants
B. Pump storage power plants
C. Low head plants
D. Run-off river power plants

Answer: D
clarification: Run-off river power plants can be with or without pondage. A runoff river plant without pondage has no control over river flow and uses water as it comes. The runoff river plant with pondage may supply base load power.

8. The surge tank controls the water when the load on the turbine is ________
A. Equal
B. Decreased
C. Increased
D. Not present
View Answer

Answer: B
clarification: The surge tank controls the water when the load on the turbine decreases. The excess water is stored in the surge tank and hence the pressure variations in the penstock are taken care of preventing water hammer.

9. Which type of valves is preferred for moderate heads?
A. Butterfly valve
B. Tube valve
C. Needle vale
D. Globe valve
View Answer

Answer: A
clarification: For moderate heads butterfly valves are preferred. Gate valves are used to regulate the flow. This valve is used both as intake gate and as turbine valve. It helps inspection without dewatering the penstock line.

10. Which type of gate valves are used in high head installations?
A. Needle valves
B. Butterfly valves
C. Globe valve
D. Pinch valve

Answer: A
clarification: Needle valves are used in high head installations. The needle valve consists of three water filled chambers A, B and C in which hydraulic pressures can be varied. The valves are opened and closed by varying the pressures in these chambers.