Category: Objective Questions

SAP PLM Objective Questions and Answers

SAP PLM Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam SAP PLM Multiple choice Questions. Quiz SAP PLM Test Questions

1. What is short form of Finish Start? | SAP PLM Questions

a. AS

b. LS

c. FF

d. FS

Ans: d

2.What is short form of Earliest Finis ? | SAP PLM Questions

a. AF

b. EF

c. ES

d. TF

Ans: b

3.Which one is involved in Overall Network Scheduling Transaction with selection options? | SAP PLM Questions

a. REL

b. CN24N

c. TF

d. PDC

Ans: b

4.Object representing events that are particularly important for the progress of the project or are of special interest. You can assign milestones to individual activities or WBS elements by using ________. | SAP PLM Questions

a. Milestones

b. SS

c. Reduction

d. LS

Ans:a

5. Controls how actual dates from partial confirmations affect further scheduling runs in PLM ? | SAP PLM Questions

a. Project Definition

b. Shift Order Indicator

c. Sales Order

d. What is an activity?

Ans: b

 

6.A model of the project that shows the project activities to be fulfilled in the hierarchical form. It divides the project into clearly-structured sections means?

a. Forward Scheduling | SAP PLM Questions

b. What is an activity?

c. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

d. Backward Scheduling

Ans: c

7.Production Order means? | SAP PLM Questions

a. Comparison or evaluation of data?

b. What period will be evaluated?

c. A production order used in discrete manufacturing.

d. CJ29 – Project Scheduling Transaction

Ans: c

8. Which one is entered in networks using confirmations.? | SAP PLM Questions

a. Internal Order

b. Actual Dates

c. Claim

d. Cost Center

Ans: b

9.What is mean by Purchase Order in PLM ? | SAP PLM Questions

a. A request or instruction from a purchasing organization to a vendor (external supplier) or a plant to deliver a quantity of material or render a service at a certain point in time.

b. Overall Network Scheduling Transaction with selection options

c. The smallest organization unit within a company, used to represent a closed system for cost accounting purposes. A controlling area may include single or multiple company codes that may use different currencies.

d. A request or instruction to Purchasing to procure a quantity of a material or service so what it is available at a certain point in time.

Ans: a

10.Which one is called “An organizational unit within a controlling area that represents a defined location of cost incurrence. The definition can be based on functional requirements, allocation criteria, physical locations or responsibility for costs”.? | SAP PLM Questions

a. Company Code”

b. Profit Center

c. Actual Dates

d. Cost Center

Ans: d

11.What is mean by “The network structures that are not directly associated with a project and can be used as templates for creating other standard networks or operative networks”.? | SAP PLM Questions

a. Standard Network

b. Network

c. Customer Inquiry

d. Budget

Ans:a

12.What is mean by “a customer request to a company for a quotation or sales information that is not binding. The request is received by a sales area that is then responsible for processing it further”.? | SAP PLM Questions

a. Goods Issue

b. Customer Inquiry

c. Cost Center

d. Control profile

Ans: b

13.which one is Used to set control keys.? | SAP PLM Questions

a. SS

b. AF

c. OSPU

d. SF

Ans:c

14.which one isDetermines the latest dates. | SAP PLM Questions

a. Forward Scheduling

b. Purchasing

c. Backward Scheduling

d. Work Center

Ans: c

15.What is Determines the earliest dates means? | SAP PLM Questions

a. Company Code

b. Forward Scheduling

c. Work Center

d. Scheduling type

Ans: b

16.What is mean by a request or instruction to Purchasing to procure a quantity of a material or service so what it is available at a certain point in time.? | SAP PLM Questions

a. Purchase Order

b. Project Definition

c. Purchase Requisition

d. Cost Center

Ans: c

17.An organizationl unit that defines where and by whom an activity is to be carried otu. The data in the work center can be used for scheduling, costing, and capacity planning means? | SAP PLM Questions

a. Profit Center

b. Work Center

c. Cost Center

d. WBS Element

Ans: b

18.Which requirements do you want to display? | SAP PLM Questions

a. Period profile

b. Evaluation profile

c. Selection profile

d. Production Order

Ans: b

 

19. A neutral work breakdown structure that can be used several times over and only serves as a template for creating operative work breakdown structures means? | SAP PLM Questions

a. Standard Network

b. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

c. Standard Work Breakdown Structure

d. Work Center

Ans: c

20. Order for detailed planning and associated documetnation of measures during maintenance means? | SAP PLM Questions

a. Purchase Order

b. Sales Order

c. Maintenance Order

d. Internal Order

Ans: c

21.What is mean by Purchasing in PLM ?

a. A term from Inventory Management denoting a physical inward movement of goods or material from a company, usally with reference to a purchase order or production order.

b. A component of Materials Management with the following tasks; procuring materials and services externally, determining possible sources of supply for a requirement, monitoring goods deliveries and payment.

c. A request or instruction to Purchasing to procure a quantity of a material or service so what it is available at a certain point in time.

d. Overall Network Scheduling Transaction with selection options

Ans: b

22. CNF means?

a. Finish Start

b. Finish Finish

c. Finally Confirmed

d. Earliest Finish

Ans: c

23. PDC means?

a. Plant Data Collection

b. Total Float

c. Start Start

d. Actual Start Date

24. What is Factors influencing Scheduling?

a. CJ29 – Project Scheduling Transaction

b. Are entered in networks using confirmations.

c. Internal Processing External Processing General Costs Activity

Relationships

d. Internal processing External processing costs service

Ans: c

25.A request or instruction to Purchasing to procure a quantity of a material or service so what it is available at a certain point in time.?

a. Project Definition

b. Purchase Order

c. Purchase Requistion

d. Purchasing

Ans: c

26. An organizational unit in Accounting that reflects a management-oriented structure fo the organization for the purpose of internal control.?

a. WBS Element

b. Profit Center

c. Work Center

d. Project Definition

Ans: b

27. The smallest organization unit within a company, used to represent a closed system for cost accounting purposes. A controlling area may include single or multiple company codes that may use different currencies.?

a. Control profile

b. Company Code

c. CNF

d. BOM

Ans: b

 

 

28. A production order used in discrete manufacturing.?

a. Production Order

b. Profit Center

c. Sales Order

d. Purchase Order

Ans: a

29. Comparison or evaluation of data?

a. Selection profile

b. Control profile

c. List Profile

d. Time profile

Ans: b

30. Object representing events that are particularly important for the progress of the project or are of special interest. You can assign milestones to individual acitvities or WBS elements.?

a. ES

b. Network

c. Reduction

d. Milestones

Ans: d

Database Administration Objective Questions and Answers

Database Administration Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam Database Administration Multiple choice Questions. Quiz Database Administration Test Questions

 

1. Poor data administration can lead to which of the following? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. A single definition of the same data entity

B. Familiarity with existing data

C. Missing data elements

D. All of the above.

Answer: C

2. A traditional data administrator performs which of the following roles? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. Tune database performance

B. Establish backup and recovery procedures

C. Resolve data ownership issues

D. Protect the security of the database.

Answer: C

 

3. If both data and database administration exist in an organization, the database administrator is responsible for which of the following? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. Data modeling

B. Database design

C. Metadata

D. All of the above.

Answer: B

 

4. Which of the following is part of an administrative policy to secure a database? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. Authentication policies

B. Limiting particular areas within a building to only authorized people

C. Ensure appropriate responses rates are in external maintenance agreements

D. All of the above.

Answer: D

 

5. Backward recovery is which of the following? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. Where the before-images are applied to the database

B. Where the after-images are applied to the database

C. Where the after-images and before-images are applied to the database

D. Switching to an existing copy of the database

Answer: A

 

6. The transaction log includes which of the following? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. The before-image of a record

B. The after-image of a record

C. The before and after-image of a record

D. The essential data of the record

Answer: D

 

7. Which of the following could cause data to be unavailable? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. Data becoming lost or inaccurate

B. The database server

C. Planned database maintenance activities

D. All of the above.

Answer: D

 

8. A shared lock allows which of the following types of transactions to occur? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. Delete B. Insert

C. Read D. Update

Answer: C

 

9. Locking may cause which of the following problems? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. Erroneous updates

B. Deadlock

C. Versioning

D. All of the above.

Answer: B

 

10. Performance analysis and tuning is which of the following? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. Undertaken one time at the time of a DBMS installation

B. Undertaken one time at the time of the implementation of a new application

C. Undertaken as an ongoing part of the backup of a database

D. Undertaken as an ongoing part of managing a database

Answer: D

 

11. Which of the following is the preferred way to recover a database after a transaction in progress terminates abnormally? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. Rollback

B. Rollforward

C. Switch to duplicate database

D. Reprocess transactions

Answer: A

 

12. Which of the following is true concerning open-source DBMS? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. Is free or nearly free database software whose source code is publicly available

B. Is free or nearly free database software whose source code is not publicly available

C. Is not competitive against PC-oriented packages and is fully SQL compliant

D. Is competitive against PC-oriented packages and is not fully SQL compliant

Answer: A

 

13. Concurrency control is important for which of the following reasons? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. To ensure data integrity when updates occur to the database in a multiuser environment

B. To ensure data integrity when updates occur to the database in a single-user environment

C. To ensure data integrity while reading data occurs to the database in a multiuser environment

D. To ensure data integrity while reading data occurs to the database in a single-user environment

Answer: A

 

14. Which of the following is the preferred way to recover a database after a system failure? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. Rollback

B. Rollforward

C. Switch to duplicate database

D. Reprocess transactions

Answer: C

 

15. A data warehouse administrator is concerned with which of the following? | Database Administration Mcqs

A. The time to make a decision but not the typical roles of a database administrator

B. The time to make a decision and the typical roles of a database administrator

C. The typical roles of a data administrator and redesigning existing applications

D. The typical roles of a database administrator and redesigning existing applications

Answer: B

 

16. To build a data warehouse and develop business intelligence applications, it is important that an organization build and maintain a comprehensive repository. | Database Administration Mcqs

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

 

17. Failure to control confidentiality may lead to loss of competitiveness. | Database Administration Mcqs

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

 

18. Authorization tables contain highly sensitive data and should be protected by stringent security rules. | Database Administration Mcqs

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

 

19. A transaction log shows before and after images of records that have been modified by transactions. | Database Administration Mcqs

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

 

20. The greatest threat to business security is often internal rather than external. | Database Administration Mcqs

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

 

21. Information repositories are replacing data dictionaries in many organizations.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

 

22. Mirrored databases are almost always provided in high-availability systems.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

 

23. Databases are not the property of a single function or individual within the organization.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

 

24. Queries that do full table scans should be avoided.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

 

25. The restore/rerun technique involves reprocessing the day’s transactions up to the point of failure.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

 

26. Backward recovery is used to reverse the changes made by transactions that have aborted, or terminated abnormally.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

 

27. A disaster recovery plan does not need to include the shipment of database backups to other sites.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

 

28. With concurrent processing involving updates, a database with concurrency control will be compromised due to interference between users.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

 

29. Data modeling and database design are key responsibilities of data and data base administration.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

 

30. Incorrect data is easy to detect.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

Bio Informatics Objective Questions

Bio Informatics Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam Bio Informatics Multiple choice Questions. Quiz Bio Informatics Test Questions

1. The first bioinformatics database was created by

A. Richard Durbin

B. Dayhoff

C. Michael j.Dunn

D. Pearson

Ans: B

2. SWISSPROT protein sequence database began in

A. 1985

B. 1986

C. 1987

D. 1988

Ans: C

3. An example of Homology & similarity tool?

A. PROSPECT

B. EMBOSS

C. RASMOL

D. BLAST

Ans: D

4. The tool for identification of motifs?

A. COPIA

B. patternhunter

C. PROSPECT

D. BLAST

Ans: A

5. First molecular biology server Expasy in the year?

A. 1991

B. 1992

C. 1993

D. 1994

Ans: C

6. Deposition of cDNA into inert structure is

A. DNA finingerprinting

B. DNA polymerase

C. DNA probes

D. DNA microarrays

Ans: D

7. Human genome contains about

A. 2 billion base pairs

B. 3 billion base pairs

C. 4 billion base pairs

D. 5 billion base pairs

Ans: B

8. The identification of d–gs through genomic study

A. Genomics

B. Cheminformatics

C. Pharmagenomics

D. Phrmacogenetics

Ans: C

9. Analysing or comparing entire genome of species

A. Bioinformatics

B. Genomics

C. Proteomics

D. Pharmacogenomics

Ans: B

10. Characterizing molecular component  is

A. Genomics

B. Cheminformatics

C. Proteomics

D. Bioinformatics

Ans: D

11. If you were using a proteomics approach to find the cause of a muscle disorder, which of the following techniques might you be using?

 

a. creating a genomic library

b. sequencing the gene responsible for the disorder

c. developing physical maps from genomic clones

d. determining which environmental factors influence the expression of your gene of interest annotating the gene sequence

Ans: D

12. Shotgun cloning differs from the clone-by-clone method in which of the following ways?

 

A. The location of the clone being sequenced is known relative to other clones within the genomic library in shotgun cloning.

B. Genetic markers are used to identify clones in shotgun cloning.

C. Computer software assembles the clones in the clone-by-clone method.

D. The entire genome is sequenced in the clone-by-clone method, but not in shotgun sequencing.

E. No genetic or physical maps of the genome are needed to begin shotgun cloning.

Ans: E

 

13. CpG islands and codon bias are tools used in eukaryotic genomics to __________.

 

a. identify open reading frames

b. differentiate between eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA sequences

c. find regulatory sequences

d. look for DNA-binding domains

e. identify a gene’s function

Ans: A

14. As the complexity of an organism increases, all of the following characteristics emerge except __________.

a. the gene density decreases

b. the number of introns increases

c. the gene size increases

d. an increase in the number of chromosomes

e. repetitive sequences are present

Ans: D

15. Gene duplication has been found to be one of the major reasons for genome expansion in eukaryotes. In general, what would be the selective advantage of gene duplication?

 

a. If one gene copy is nonfunctional, a backup is available.

b. Larger genomes are more resistant to spontaneous mutations.

c. Duplicated genes will make more of the protein product.

d. Gene duplication will lead to new species evolution.

Ans: A

16. How are so many different antibodies produced from fewer than 300 major genes?

 

A. gene duplication

B. alternative splicing mechanisms

C. the formation of polyproteins

D. the formation of nonspecific B cells

E. recombination, deletions, and random assortment of DNA segments

Ans: E

17. Two-dimensional gels are used to __________.

 

A. separate DNA fragments

B. separate RNA fragments

C. separate different proteins

D. observe a protein in two dimensions

E. separate DNA from RNA

Ans: C

 

18. What would be a likely explanation for the existence of pseudogenes?

 

a. gene duplication

b. gene duplication and mutation events

c. mutation events

d. unequal crossing over

e. evolutionary pressure

Ans: B

19. If you enter a set of IUPAC codes into BLAST, you are probably trying to

A. find out whether a certain protein has any role in human disease.

B. search for the genes that are located on the same chromosome as a gene whose sequence you have.

C. find which section of a piece of DNA is transcribed into mRNA.

D. determine the identity of a protein.

Ans: D

20. Your lab partner is using BLAST, and his best E value is 3. This means that

A. he’s found 3 proteins in the database that have the same sequence as his protein.

B. the chance that these similarities arose due to chance is one in 10^3.

C. there would be 3 matches that good in a database of this size by chance alone.

D. the match in amino acid sequencs is perfect, except for the amino acids at 3 positions.

Ans: C

21. You do a BLAST search on a DNA sequence and it identifies it as ‘Exon 1’ of a certain gene. An exon is

A. a section of a eukaryotic gene that is translated into protein.

B. a section of a eukaryotic gene that is NOT translated into protein.

C. a regulatory sequence that turns genes on and off.

D. DNA that has no genetic role, but does maintain the physical structure of a chromosome.

Ans: A

22. You see that your lab partner is staring at a colorful Swiss-Prot page. He’s probably trying to

A. translate a DNA segment into protein.

B. find out structural and functional information about a protein he’s identified.

C. determine how many harmful mutations have been reported in a certain gene.

D. identify an amino acid sequence.

Ans: B

23. Your TA tells you to go to the NCBI Human Genome page. What does she probably want you to do?

A. Determine what genes are around ‘your’ protein’s gene on its chromosome.

B. Identify a DNA sequence and see if it came from a human.

C. Look up papers about diseases caused by abnormalities in a certain protein.

D. Look at colorful, rotating, 3-D pictures of the tertiary structure of a protein.

Ans: A

24. Many scientists are very interested in studying mitochondrial DNA because it

A. is only present in vertebrates closely related to humans.

B. replicates by synthesizing an mRNA that then acts as a DNA polymerase.

C. contains over 50% of the genes in the human genome.

D. mutates rapidly and allows us to study evolution over short time scales.

Ans: D

25. A single piece of information in a database is called

A. File

B. Field

C. Record

D. Data set

Ans: B

26. Which of the following is a nucleotide sequence data base?

A. EMBL

B. SWISS PROT

C. PROSITE

D. TREMBL

Ans: A

26. Operating system is 

A. A collection of hardware components

B. A collection of input-output devices

C. A collection of software routines

D. All of the above

Ans: C

27. A data base of current sequence map of the human genome is called

A. OMIM

B. HGMD

C. Golden path

D. GeneCards

Ans: C

28. BLAST programme is used in 

A. DNA sequencing

B. Amino acid sequencing

C. DNA bar coding

D. Bioinformatics

Ans: D

29. SWISS PORT is related to 

A. Portable data

B. Swiss Bank data

C. Sequence data bank

D. Sequence sequence data

Ans: C

30. BLOSUM matrices are used for

A. Multiple sequence alignment

B. Pair wise sequence alignment

C. Phylogenetic analysis

D. All of the above

Ans: B

31. Phylogenetic relationship can be shown by 

A. Dendrogram

B. Gene Bank

C. Data retrieving tool

D. Data search tool

Ans: A

32. PRINTS are software used for 

A. detection of genes from genome sequence

B. detection of tRNA genes

C. prediction of function of a new gene

D. Identification of functional domains/motifs of proteins

Ans: D

33. The term bioinformatics was coined by

A. J D Watson

B. Margaret Dayhoff

C. Pauline Hogeweg

D. Frederic Sanger

Ans: C

34. Margaret Dayhoff developed the first protein sequence database called

a) SWISS PROT

b) PDB

c) Atlas of protein sequence and structure

d) Protein sequence databank

Ans: C

35. Step wise method for solving problems in computer science is called

a) flowchart

b) sequential design

c) procedure

d) algorithm

Ans: D

36. The first published completed gene sequence was of

a) M 13 phage

b) T 4 phage

c) f X174

d) lambda phage

Ans:C

37. The term used to refer something ‘performed on computer or computer simulation”

a) dry lab

b) web lab

c) invitro

d) insilico

Ans:D

38. ‘Laboratory work using chemicals, d–gs etc using water’ is referred as

a) dry lab

b) web lab

c) wet lab

d) insilico

Ans:C

39. ‘Laboratory work using computers and computer generated models generally offline’ is referred as

a) dry lab

b) web lab

c) wet lab

d) insilico

Ans:A

40. ‘Laboratory work using computers and associated web based analysis generally online’ is referred as

a) dry lab

b) web lab

c) wet lab

d) insilico

Ans:B

41. ‘invitro’  in latin means

a) within the glass

b) within the lab

c) outside the lab

d) outside the glass

Ans:A

42. Application of bioinformatics include

a) data storage and management

b) d–g designing

c) understand relationships between organisms

d) all of the above

Ans:D

43. The computational methodology that tries to find the best matching between two molecule, a receptor and ligand is called

a) molecular matching

b) molecular docking

c) molecular fitting

d) molecule affinity checking

Ans:B

44. Proteomics is the study of

a) set of proteins

b) set of proteins in a specific region of the cell

c) entire set of expressed proteins in a cell

d) none of these

Ans:C

45. The process of finding relative location of genes on a chromosome is called

a) gene tracing

b) genome mapping

c) genome walking

d) chromosome walking

Ans:B

46. A compound that has desirable properties to become a d–g is called

a) lead

b) find

c) fit d–g

d) fit compound

Ans: A

3ds Max Objective type Questions & Answers

Dear readers, these 3ds Max Multiple choice Questions Pdf Download for Exam 3ds Max. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview, normally questions start with some basic concept of the subject and later they continue based on further discussion and what you answer:

 

1. a type of geometric model of a three-dimensional object in which the basic shape is made up of points, or vertices, connected by edges

a. Maps

b. NTSC

c. SMPTE

d. Mesh

Ans: d

2. Which  comprises six user-interface panels that give you access to most of the modeling features of 3ds Max, as well as some animation features, display choices, and miscellaneous utilities.

 a. Material

b. Render

c. Frame Rate

d. Command Panel

Ans: d

3. Which is a type of deformable object. It provides controls for manipulating a mesh object made up of triangular faces as an object and at three sub-object levels: vertex, edge and face.

 a. Element

b. Keyframes

c. Editable Mesh

d. Title Bar

Ans: c

4. _________ is a polygonal mesh; that is, unlike an editable mesh, it uses more than three-sided polygons.

a. Viewport

b. Title Bar

c. Editable Poly

d. Editable Mesh

Ans: c

5. which Displays animation keys and frame numbers, can be “scrubbed” to quickly view the results of the animation created.

a. Tile

b. Title Bar

c. Time Slider

d. Render

Ans: c

6. which is the color that an object reflects when illuminated by “good lighting.” Also referred to as its natural color.

a. Editable Poly

b. Title Bar

c. Specular color

d. Diffuse Color

Ans: d

           

7. Which  is a single point in a graphic image.

a. Faces

b. Pixel

c. Edge

d. Spline

Ans: b

 

8. what is called when Two dimensional view of an object , as seen from the Top, Bottom, Front, Back, Left, or Right.

a. Isometric View

b. Orthographic Views

c. Modifiers

d. Perspective View

Ans: b

9. which is the portion of a spline between two vertices

a. Element

b. Segment

c. Tweens

d. Extents

Ans: b

10. An objects maximum dimensions in X, Y, and Z is called_____________.

a. Segment

b. Extents

c. Element

d. Tweens

11. which can change an object’s geometrical structure, deforming it in some way.

a. Tweens

b. Modifier Stack

c. Modifiers

d. Origin

Ans: c

 

12. Which is a type of helper object you can create whenever you need a local reference grid or construction plane somewhere other than the home grid.

a. Grid Object

b. Object

c. Sub-object

d. Grids

Ans: a

13. which records  the beginning and end of each transformation of an object or element in the scene.

a. Faces

b. Vectors

c. Keyframes

d. Vertex

Ans: c

14. A wireframe box that encloses the extents of an object is called_________.

a. Origin

b. Bounding Box

c. Modifiers

d. Animation

Ans: b

 

15. which is a setting or value that you can change.

a. SMPTE

b. Parameter

c. Frame Rate

d. Vertex

Ans: b

 

16. which provides quick access to tools and dialog boxes for many of the most common tasks in 3DS Max.

a. Status Bar

b. Title Bar

c. Menu Bar

d. Main Toolbar

Ans: d

17. What is the display area of the user interface that allows you to view and manipulate the modifiers on an object.

a. Title Bar

b. Modifier Stack

c. Material

d. Modifiers

Ans: b

18. Area of the User Interface where the objects are displayed is called_________

a. Vectors

b. Gizmo

c. Viewport

d. ViewCube

Ans: c

19. an arbitrary point in space is used as the __________

a. Grids

b. Spline

c. Object

d. Origin

Ans: d

 

20. which used to describe the placement and transformation of maps

a. Tile

b. Mesh

c. Edge

d. UVW

Ans: d

21. which specifies  the placement, orientation, and scale of a map on the geometry.

a. Main Toolbar

b. Mapping Coordinates

c. Frame Rate

d. Material Editor

Ans: b

 

22. Which is used to replicate an image used as a map.

a. Tile

b. Pixel

c. Tweens

d. Edge

Ans: a

23. which is used To output the image or scene with camera, lights, shadows, modifiers, and materials applied to it.

a. Vertex

b. Render

c. Grids

d. Mesh

Ans: b

 

24. which is a straight or curved line that connects two vertices in a mesh object or spline.

a. Render

b. Vertex

c. Tile

d. Edge

Ans: d

 

25. images generated by the computer in between the keyframes is called________

a. Tweens

b. Faces

c. Tile

d. Grids

Ans: a

 

26. which viewport display setting that lets you view objects in a given viewport as a wire mesh.

a. Wireframe

b. Frame Rate

c. ViewCube

d. Workflow

Ans: a

27. which contains information about the scene and the active command.

a. Material

b. Title Bar

c. Status Bar

d. Menu Bar

Ans: c

28. which is an icon-based menu available from any button that has a small black triangle

a. Polygons

b. Flyout

c. Faces

d. Object

Ans: b

29. a collection of vertices and connecting segments that form a line or curve is called_________.

a. Tile

b. Origin

c. Spline

d. SMPTE

Ans: c

30. which is the standard time display format for most professional animation work.

a. Maps

b. SMPTE

c. Vertex

d. Tile

Ans: b

31. which displays drop down menus common to many software programs.

a. Menu Bar

b. Status Bar

c. Title Bar

d. Render

Ans: a

32. two-dimensional arrays of lines similar to graph paper are called_________

a. Faces

b. Maps

c. Grids

d. Tile

Ans: c

33. a single point whose sole property is its position in 3D space, which is typically defined by values for the X axis, Y axis, and Y axis is called__________.

a. Render

b. Edge

c. Vectors

d. Vertex

Ans: d

 

34. what is Found at the top of windows program. Designates the title of software, version and document that is open.

a. Material

b. Status Bar

c. Title Bar

d. Menu Bar

Ans: c

 

35. viewing a series of related still images in quick succession causes them to appear as if they are in continuous motion. Based on ” Persistence of Vision” is called__________

a. Animation

b. Origin

c. Parameter

d. Tile

Ans: a

36. which is a 3D navigation tool that also lets you switch between standard and isometric views.

a. Edge

b. ViewCube

c. Viewport

d. Wireframe

Ans: b

 

37. The geometry that appears in viewports, but not in the scene. You manipulate a gizmo to modify the scene geometry or other effects. Provides a visual aid when you transform objects is called_________.

a. Pixel

b. Tile

c. Gizmo

d. Grids

Ans: c

38. which objects are viewed with the rules of perspective applied to them. They have a vanishing point.

a. Isometric View

b. Perspective View

c. Parameter

d. Time Slider

Ans: b

 

39. which change an object or the objects location. Usually done with Move, Rotate or Scale.

a. Transform

b. Tweens

c. Vectors

d. Render

Ans: a

40. The sides of an object are equally inclined to the screen is called________.

a. Orthographic Views

b. Frame Rate

c. Isometric View

d. Origin

Ans: c

41. which is used to design materials and maps.

a. Material Editor

b. Time Slider

c. Material Map Browser

d. Material

Ans: a

42. This is the number of frames displayed for every second of real time.

a. Frame Rate

b. Parameter

c. Wireframe

d. Vertex

Ans: a

43. one of two or more individual mesh objects grouped together into one larger object is called_______.

a. Element

b. Extents

c. Object

d. Tweens

Ans: a

44. which is the name of the video standard used in North America, most of Central and South America, and Japan. The frame rate is 30 frames per second.

a. NTSC

b. Tile

c. Edge

d. UVW

Ans: a

45. which allows you to access pre-made materials and maps that come with 3DS MAX

a. Parameter

b. Material Editor

c. Material Map Browser

d. Time Slider

Ans: c

 

46. Which Opens the Graphite Modeling Tools panel.

a. Material Editor

b. Alignment Tools

c. Graphite Modeling Tools

d. Manage Layers

Ans: c

47. Which Opens the Rendered Frame Window.

a. Material Editor

b. Rendered Frame Window

c. Quick Render

d. Render Setup

Ans: b

48. Which Opens the Material Editor window.

a. Open Curve Editor

b. Render Setup

c. Material Editor

d. Manage Layers

Ans: c

 

49. Which Produces a quick test rendering of the current viewport without opening the Render Setup dialogue box using the production settings, the iterative render mode or the ActiveShade window.

a. Material Editor

b. Manage Layers

c. Render Setup

d. Quick Render

Ans:  d

50. Which Opens the Layer Manager interface where you can work with layers.

a. Alignment Tools

b. Render Setup

c. Quick Render

d. Manage Layers

Ans: d

51. Which Lists and allows you to select a set of named objects.

a. Mirror Selection Objects

b. Render Setup

c. Alignment Tools

d. Selection Sets Drop-Down List

Ans: d

52. Which Opens the Function Curves Editor.

a. Material Editor

b. Open Curve Editor

c. Render Setup

d. Open Schematic View

Ans: b

53. Which Opens the Render Setup dialogue box for setting rendering options.

a. Material Editor

b. Manage Layers

c. Quick Render

d. Render Setup

 

54. Which Opens the alignment dialogue box for positioning objects, allows objects to be aligned by their normals, determines the location of highlights, and aligns objects to a camera or view.

a. Manage Layers

b. Graphite Modeling Tools

c. Render Setup

d. Alignment Tools

Ans: d

55. Which Creates a mirrored copy of the selected object.

a. Manage Layers

b. Open Schematic View

c. Material Editor

d. Mirror Selection Objects

Ans: d

56. Which Opens the Schematic View window.

a. Rendered Frame Window

b. Render Setup

c. Open Curve Editor

d. Open Schematic View

Ans: d