Category: Objective Questions

300+ [UPDATED] Data Mining MCQs and Answers [PDF]

Data Mining Objective Questions and Answers

Data Mining Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam Data Mining Multiple choice Questions. Quiz Data Mining Test Questions

1) The problem of finding hidden structure in unlabeled data is called… | Data Mining Mcqs

A. Supervised learning

B. Unsupervised learning

C. Reinforcement learning

Ans: B

2) Task of inferring a model from labeled training data is called | Data Mining Mcqs

A. Unsupervised learning

B. Supervised learning

C. Reinforcement learning

Ans: B

3) Some telecommunication company wants to segment their customers into distinct groups in order to send appropriate subscription offers, this is an example of  | Data Mining Mcqs

A. Supervised learning

B. Data extraction

C. Serration

D. Unsupervised learning

Ans: D

4) Self-organizing maps are an example of… | Data Mining Mcqs

A. Unsupervised learning

B. Supervised learning

C. Reinforcement learning

D. Missing data imputation

Ans: A

5) You are given data about seismic activity in Japan, and you want to predict a magnitude of the next earthquake, this is in an example of… | Data Mining Mcqs

A. Supervised learning

B. Unsupervised learning

C. Serration

D. Dimensionality reduction

Ans: A

6) Assume you want to perform supervised learning and to predict number of newborns according to size of storks’ population (http://www.brixtonhealth.com/storksBabies.pdf), it is an example of …  | Data Mining Mcqs

A. Classification

B. Regression

C. Clustering

D. Structural equation modeling

Ans: B

7) Discriminating between spam and ham e-mails is a classification task, true or false? | Data Mining Mcqs

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

8) In the example of predicting number of babies based on storks’ population size, number of babies is… | Data Mining Mcqs

A. outcome

B. feature

C. attribute

D. observation

Ans: A

9) It may be better to avoid the metric of ROC curve as it can suffer from accuracy paradox. | Data Mining Mcqs

A. True

B. False

Ans: B

10) which of the following is not involve in data mining? | Data Mining Mcqs

A. Knowledge extraction

B. Data archaeology

C. Data exploration

D. Data transformation

Ans: D

11) Which is the right approach of Data Mining? | Data Mining Mcqs

 

A. Infrastructure, exploration, analysis, interpretation, exploitation

B. Infrastructure, exploration, analysis, exploitation, interpretation

C. Infrastructure, analysis, exploration, interpretation, exploitation

D. Infrastructure, analysis, exploration, exploitation, interpretation

Ans: A

12)   Which of the following issue is considered before investing in Data Mining? | Data Mining Mcqs

A. Functionality

B. Vendor consideration

C. Compatibility

D. All of the above

Ans: D

13.  Adaptive system management is  | Data Mining Mcqs

A. It uses machine-learning techniques. Here program can learn from past experience and adapt themselves to new situations

B. Computational procedure that takes some value as input and produces some value as output.

C. Science of making machines performs tasks that would require intelligence when performed by humans

D. none of these

Ans: A

14. Bayesian classifiers is | Data Mining Mcqs 

A. A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of examples using the probabilistic theory.

B.  Any mechanism employed by a learning system to constrain the search space of a hypothesis

C.  An approach to the design of learning algorithms that is inspired by the fact that when people encounter new situations, they often explain them by reference to familiar experiences, adapting the explanations to fit the new situation.

D. None of these

Ans: A

15. Algorithm is | Data Mining Mcqs 

A. It uses machine-learning techniques. Here program can learn from past experience and adapt themselves to new situations

B. Computational procedure that takes some value as input and produces some value as output

C. Science of making machines performs tasks that would require intelligence when performed by humans

D. None of these

Ans: B

16. Bias is | Data Mining Mcqs 

A.A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of examples using the probabilistic theory

B. Any mechanism employed by a learning system to constrain the search space of a hypothesis

C. An approach to the design of learning algorithms that is inspired by the fact that when people encounter new situations, they often explain them by reference to familiar experiences, adapting the explanations to fit the new situation.

D. None of these

Ans: B

17. Background knowledge referred to | Data Mining Mcqs 

A.  Additional acquaintance used by a learning algorithm to facilitate the learning process

B. A neural network that makes use of a hidden layer

C. It is a form of automatic learning.

D. None of these

Ans: A

18. Case-based learning is | Data Mining Mcqs 

A. A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of examples using the probabilistic theory.

B. Any mechanism employed by a learning system to constrain the search space of a hypothesis

c. An approach to the design of learning algorithms that is inspired by the fact that when people encounter new situations, they often explain them by reference to familiar experiences, adapting the explanations to fit the new situation.

D. None of these

Ans: C

19. Classification is | Data Mining Mcqs 

A. A subdivision of a set of examples into a number of classes

B. A measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory

C. The task of assigning a classification to a set of examples

D. None of these

Ans: A

20. Binary attribute are | Data Mining Mcqs 

A. This takes only two values. In general, these values will be 0 and 1 and .they can be coded as one bit

B. The natural environment of a certain species

C. Systems that can be used without knowledge of internal operations

D. None of these

Ans: A

21. Classification accuracy is 

A. A subdivision of a set of examples into a number of classes

B. Measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory

C. The task of assigning a classification to a set of examples

D. None of these

Ans: B

22. Biotope are 

A. This takes only two values. In general, these values will be 0 and 1

and they can be coded as one bit.

B. The natural environment of a certain species

C. Systems that can be used without knowledge of internal operations

D. None of these

Ans: B

23. Cluster is 

A. Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects

B. Operations on a database to transform or simplify data in order to prepare it for a machine-learning algorithm

C. Symbolic representation of facts or ideas from which information can potentially be extracted

D. None of these

Ans: A

24. Black boxes are 

A. This takes only two values. In general, these values will be 0 and 1

and they can be coded as one bit.

B. The natural environment of a certain species

C. Systems that can be used without knowledge of internal operations

D. None of these

Ans: C

25. A definition of a concept is if it recognizes all the instances of that concept 

A. Complete

B. Consistent

C. Constant

D. None of these

Ans: A

26. Data mining is 

A. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge discovery process

B. The stage of selecting the right data for a KDD process

C. A subject-oriented integrated time variant non-volatile collection of data in support of management

D. None of these

Ans: A

27. A definition or a concept is if it classifies any examples as coming within the concept 

A. Complete

B. Consistent

C. Constant

D. None of these

Ans: B

28. Data independence means 

A. Data is defined separately and not included in programs

B. Programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data.

C. Programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of data

D. Both (B) and (C).

Ans: D

29. E-R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity set?

A. Dotted rectangle

B. Diamond

C. Doubly outlined rectangle

D. None of these

Ans: C

30. SET concept is used in 

A. Network Model

B. Hierarchical Model

C. Relational Model

D. None of these

Ans: D

31. Relational Algebra is 

A. Data Definition Language

B. Meta Language

C. Procedural query Language

D. None of the above

Ans: C

32. Key to represent relationship between tables is called 

A. Primary key

B. Secondary Key

C. Foreign Key

D. None of these

Ans: C

33. ________ produces the relation that has attributes of Ri and R2 

A. Cartesian product

B. Difference

C. Intersection

D. Product

Ans: A

34. Which of the following are the properties of entities? 

A. Groups

B. Table

C. Attributes

D. Switchboards

Ans: C

35. In a relation 

A. Ordering of rows is immaterial

B. No two rows are identical

C. (A) and (B) both are true

D. None of these

Ans: C

300+ [UPDATED] Behavioural MCQs and Answers [PDF]

Behavioural Objective Questions and Answers

Behavioural Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam Behavioural Multiple choice Questions. Quiz Behavioural Test Questions

1. Which of the following is not one of the suggested strategies for preparing for your job interview:

A. conduct research on the company/industry

B. prepare answers to possible interview questions

C. gather key resources (extra resumes, reference list) to take with you

D. plan to ask about salary and benefits at the beginning of the interview

Answer: D

2. Wearing a formal suit is always the safest “dress for success” attire.

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

3. Being the most qualified candidate for the position just about guarantees you will get the job.

A. true

B. false

Answer: B

4. The STAR (situation, task, action, results) Technique refers to a tool you should consider using for developing answers to what type of interview questions?

A. traditional/conventional

B. psychological

C. behavioral

D. historical

Answer: C

5. Greeting the receptionist/assistant when you arrive and treating him or her with respect is an important key to your success.

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

6. Which part of the interview is the most important?

A. first minute

B. answers to the toughest questions

C. final minute

D. the whole time

Answer: D

7. What are three most important keys to success in interviews?

A. good cologne, nice smile, fresh breath

B. making eye contact, showing enthusiasm, speaking clearly

C. fresh breath, nice smile, making eye contact

D. developing rapport, good posture, fresh breath

Answer: B

8. It is best to arrive how early before an interview?

A. 1 hour

B. 30 minutes

C. 10 minutes

D. 1 minute

Answer: C

9. You should use only examples from your actual work experience to answer the question during a job interview.

A. true

B. false

Answer: B

10. The best thing to do in an interview when you get a question that stumps you temporarily is:

A. sit there and just stare at the interviewer

B. keep saying, good question, good question

C. respond with, I just really cannot answer that

D. paraphrase the question while giving yourself time to think

Answer: D

11. Taking detailed notes in an interview is an accepted practice.

A. true

B. false

Answer: B

12. When the interviewer asks you the question, “tell me about yourself,” she really wants what in response?

A. a 10-minute detailed story of your life, from birth to present

B. a concise narrative of your personal and professional background and goals and how they relate to the job at hand

C. a short narrative of your personal life, leaving nothing to the imagination

D. a long-winded account of your last vacation

Answer: D

13. How should you respond to the question, “where do you see yourself in five years?”

A. I just want to be at a place in my life when I am happy with who I am — the job I am doing would have to support that.

B. I could see myself starting my own business.

C. I would hope I am still with this organization in a position of increased responsibility, making a vital contribution to its success.

D. I just want to have a steady income that I am satisfied with and that allows me to be financially independent.

Answer: C

14. The best way to answer the question, “Why do you want to work for our company,” is by saying:

A. You have been the market leader for the past five years because of the reputation of your products and quality of customer satisfaction and I would like to contribute my services to continue the successes of the organization.

B. You have been the market leaders for the past five years, and I think it would be really great for my career to work for your organization.

C. I love the fact that I can dress in jeans every day and that the office is only a five minute bike ride from the beach.

D. I am really attracted by the great salary and benefits your company offers.

Answer: A

15. If you are asked to discuss your current boss, whom you dislike, you should tell the truth about him.

A.true

B.false

Answer: B

16. If you are returning to the workforce or have gaps in your employment history and are asked about what you were doing during that time, you should:

A. talk about volunteering or consulting work you completed

B. mention that being a parent takes top priority in your life

C. discuss the long mourning period over the loss of a loved one

D. state that you tend to need breaks between jobs

Answer: D

17. No matter what, you should always ask a question when the interviewer asks if you have any questions about the job or the company.

A.true

B.false

Answer: B

18. Which of the following is not one of the most common mistakes job-seekers make during job interviews:

A. limp, clammy handshake

B. over-emphasis on money

C. lack of interest and enthusiasm

D. too much knowledge of the company

Answer: D

19. At the end of the interview, you should always ask about the next step in the process.

A. true

B. false

Answer: B

20. As soon as you get back from the interview, you should:

A. put your feet up and relax, knowing you did a great interview

B. spend hours kicking yourself for some poor answers you gave

C. immediately fire off thank you letters to each person who interviewed with you

D. quit your current job in anticipation of a new job offer

Answer: D

21. What is the purpose of the job interview?

A.To provide you an opportunity to tell the employer about your qualifications and to do the best job of selling yourself.

B.To answer all the questions asked by the employer in an honest and convincing way.

C.To enable both the organization and potential employee to obtain the information needed to make an informed decision.

Answer: C

 22. What is the best way to respond to the request, “Tell me about yourself?”

A.Describe your hobbies and interests so that you are more than just a name on a resume.

B.Describe how your qualifications would enable you to provide value if you were hired.

C.Describe what an ideal job would provide you by way of challenge and earnings potential.

Answer: B

23. How should you respond to the request, “Tell me about your accomplishments or abilities.”

A.Quickly summarize educational degrees or certificates then state your prior job titles and employers in chronological order.

B.Describe the accomplishments or abilities that would be of the most value to the employer and give specific examples of having used them before.

C.Briefly list the jobs you have held throughout your career, highlighting the progression in job titles and compensation.

Answer: B

24. When talking about yourself during the interview, you should:

A.Describe your people skills in detail — specific knowledge can be taught on the job but people skills are more ingrained and therefore more important when hiring.

B.Be sure to outline both your “book” knowledge and the practical experience you have acquired to show both academic and real-world accomplishments.

C.Emphasize your strengths wherever you have them, being sure to include people skills, job knowledge, and the tools you have learned to use.

Answer: C

25. How should you respond to the question, “What are your goals?”

A.Aim for the moon — this is your best chance to show that you are ambitious and anxious to get on with your career.

B.Be humble as overly aggressive individuals threaten some people.

C.State what you think can realistically be accomplished in the short term (1-2 years).

Answer: C

26. What is the best way to respond to the question: “Why do you want this job?”

A.Indicate that it is right for your career.

B.Indicate that you feel you can learn a lot to be an effective employee.

C.Indicate how you can make valuable contributions in this job.

Answer: C

27. Which of the following is the most important information you need to find out during the interview

A.Who your immediate supervisor would be and how he or she manages people.

B.The salary and benefit package.

C.What career path this job will put you on.

Answer: A

 28. You have just been asked about an event in your life that you would rather not discuss, e.g., an arrest, bad credit, or failed courses. How do you respond?

A.Indicate that it is premature at this point to talk about those topics before any serious offer has been made.

B.Briefly but honestly relate what happened and what you learned or how you’ve changed.

C.Now is a good time for humor, laughingly state that it was a long time ago and not a very smart move.

Answer: B

 29. When is the best time to ask about or to respond to questions about the compensation package?

A.Toward the end of the interview when you feel the interviewer understands how your skills can benefit the organization.

B.When the interviewer asks, “How much do you need to earn?”

C.At the beginning of the interview, so you can tell if it is worth taking your time and the time of the interviewer.

Answer: A

 30. What is the most important information that you need about the people you will be working with, your manager and colleagues?

A.The qualifications and experiences of the team members.

B.How everyone gets along as a team.

C.Your immediate supervisor’s descriptions and opinions of your team members.

Answer: C

Behavioural objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

300+ [UPDATED] Teradata MCQs and Answers [PDF] Quiz

Best Teradata Objective Questions with Answers

Teradata Objective Questions Pdf Download for Exam Teradata MCQs. These objective type Teradata questions are very important for campus placement test and job interviews. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many IT companies.

1. Which statement is true about an OLTP environment?

A. Transactions are  write intensive.

B. The number of rows transaction is large.

C. The number of rows  per transaction is small.

D. Transactions typically occur within seconds, not minutes.

Answer:: C,D

2. Which statement  is true  about partitioned primary indexes (ppl)?

A. ppl  is beneficial in queries specifying  range constraints.

B. Ppl  is used to enhance performance against small tables.

C. They reduce the number of rows processed by using partition elimination.

D. To store rows using  PPL you specify partitioning in the CREATE TABL statement.

Answer:: A,C

3. What  are two benefits of not requiring rows to be stored in order in a table?

A. Unordered data allows for more rows in a data block.

B. Unordered data does not need maintenance to preserve order.

C. Unordered data  is  independent of any query being submitted.

D. Unordered data  requires the use of all AMPs there by increasing the parallelism of the total system.

Answer:: B,C

4. Which statement is true about a primary index operation?

A. The degree of uniqueness is not critical to efficiency.

B. When choosing a primary index you should pick a column with a severely limited value set.

C. If distribution is skewed an all-AMP operation will take longer than if all AMPs were evenly utilized.

D. Selecting a NUPI for storing data provides for maximum efficiency and makes the best  use of the parallel  features of Teradata.

Answer:: C

5. What are two reasons for choosing different columns for the primary index than are defined for the primary key?

A. Join performance.

B. Known access paths.

C. Even data distribution

D. To enforce uniqueness

Answer::A,B

6. Which statement is true concerning job responsibilities of the Teradata DBA?

A. Reorganizations are not required

B. Physical partitioning of disk space is not required

C. All related data can be placed in a single physical partition

D. Range distribution must be used to analyze data distribution

Answer:: A,B

7. In a two clique Teradata system, data is hashed across all AMPs?

A. System

B. Cluster

C. Clique

D. Disk array

Answer:: A

8. A database administrator has defined  a user with no permanent space.Which objects can be found in this user?

A. Views

B. Tables

C. Macros

D. Triggers

Answer:: A

9. Which  statement is true about temporary space?

A. Temporary space is assigned at the table level

B. Temporary space is subtracted from SysAdmin

C. Temporary space is spool space currently not used

D. Temporary space is permanent space currently not used

Answer:: D

10. Which statement about the  functions of the PE are true?

A. It  breaks down SQL requests into steps

B. It  verifies SQL requests for proper syntax

C. It  handles output conversion and formatting

D. It can manage up to 120 individual sessions

E. It determines which AMP should Receive a message

Answer:: A,B,D

11. Which component can be involved in a connection between Teradata and a mainframe host?

A. PE

B. AMP

C. BYNET

D. ESCON cables

E. Host Channel Adapter

Answer:: A,D,E

12. You have a Teradata  system  with 100 GB  of permanent space  and you create user  A with 30 GB permanent space.If  user  A  creates user  B  with 20 GB permanent space will user  A  have?

A. 10 GB

B. 30 GB

C. 70 GB

D.  80 GB

Answer:: A

13. What is function of an AMP?

A. It has access to a single vdik

B. It does output conversion and formatting

C. It does the physical work associated with generating an answer set

D. It developes the least expensive plan to return the requested response set

Answer:: A,B,C

14. Which  feature is unique to teradata?

A. Mature  optimizer

B. Concurrent  users

C. Parallel  architecture

D. Industry  standard  access  language(SQL)

Answer:: A,C

15. What  is  main  feature  of  the  Teradata  database?

A. Portable   to  any   platform

B. Parallel  aware  optimizer

C. Unconditional   parallelism

D. Automatic   data  distribution

Answer:: B,C,D

16. Due  to  linear  scalability, which can Teradata   provider?

A. Redundant data storage for fault tolerance

B. Ability to accommodate 32 CPUs on a node

C. Investment protection for application development

D. Increased workload without decreased throughput

Answer:: C,D

17. Which utility allows you to copy a table and restore it to another Teradata database?

A. FastExport

B. Table  Rebuild

C. Archive  Recovery

D. Teradata   Copy  Tool

Answer:: C

18. Which tool restricts queries based on set threshould?

A. BTEQ

B. TDQM

C. Teradata  Manager

D. Teradat    SQL  Assistant

Answer:: B

19. Which utility performs block level operating against populated tables?

A. Tpump

B. BulkLoad

C. Fastload

D. Multiload

Answer:: D

20. Which tool and utility is part of the Teradata Analyst suite?

A. Teradata   index   Wizard

B. Query  Capture   Database

C. Priority   Scheduler   Facility

D. Teradata  System Emulation  Tool

E. Teradata  Dynamic  Query   Manager

Answer:: A,B,C

21. Which  statement    is true  about  Fallback?

A. Fallback  is  associated  with  AMP  cluster

B. Fallback   can  be  specified   at  the  table  level

C. Fallback  does  not  require  additional  disk  space

D. Fallback  is  a  data  protection  scheme  that  uses  cliques

Answer:: A,B

22. Which  feature  of  transient   journaling  ensure  data  integrity?

A. It  is  automatic

B. After  images   of  changed  rows  are  captured

C. Transient  journal  rows  are   deleted by  a  restart

D. Data  is  returned  to  its  original  state  after  transaction   failure

Answer:: A,D

23. Which  statement   is  true   about   RAID  5  protection?

A. A  disk  failure  does  not  affect  performance

B. Missing  blocks  of  data  can  be  reconstructed

C. RAID  5  has  a  higher  space penality  than RAID  1

D. Data  and  parity  are   striped  across  a  rank  of  disks

Answer:: A,C

24. Which  statement    about  vproc   migration  during  a  node  failure is  true?

A. Access   to  all  data  is  maintained

B. Access  to  some  data  is  maintained

C. System  performance  remains  constant

D. System  performance   degradation   is  proportional  to  clique  size

Answer:: A,D

25. Which  is the  characteristic of  Active  Data  Warehousing?

A. Allows  for  data  redundancy

B. Provides  scalability  to support  large  amounts  of  detailed  data

C. Allows  users to directly  update  the  operational  data store (ODS)

D. Provides  an integrated environment  that supports   strategic  and  tactical queries

Answer:: B,C,D

26. Which stage in the  data warehouse usage evolution  lead  to  Active Data Warehousing?

A. Data access

B. Continuous update

C. Analytical modeling

D. Program modification

E. Event-based triggering

Answer:: B,C,E

27. What type of processing is needed in decision support data warehouse  environment?

A. Ad hoc queries

B. Pre-defined reports

C. Analytical modeling

D. Continuous update

E. Event-based triggering

Answer:: A,B,C

28. Which type of data is found in data mart?

A. Detailed data for a particular use

B. All detailed data for general use

C. Summary data for a particular use

D. Summarized subset of detailed data for general use

Answer:: A,C

29. What is benefit  of a centrally located logical architecture?

A. Minimizes synchronization

B. Reduces departmental politics

C. Provides departmental data control

D. Provides a single view of the business

Answer:: A,D

30. How many AMP(s)  are typically when using a unique secondary index?

A. One-AMP

B. Two-AMP

C. Multi-AMP

D. All-AMP

Answer:: B

31. What happens when a  full table scan occurs on Teradata?

A. Each data block for a table is read

B. Each data row is accessed only one

C. All data rows are copied into temporary space

D. A random set of data blocks for a table is read

Answer:: A,B

32. How does  Teradata  handle data access?

A. The PEs handle session control functions

B. The BYNET sends a communication between the nodes

C. The BYNET sends the answer set back to the application

D. The AMPs converts the SQL into steps that are sent out by the Dispatcher

E. The AMPs retrieves and performs database functions on the requested rows

Answer:: A,B,E

33. What type of indexes available in the  Teradata RDBMS?

A. Join index

B. Hash index

C. Primary key index

D. Value ordered index

Answer:: A,B,D

34. How is data distributed with a partitioned primary index?

A. It  is  based on the secondary index

B. It is on the partitioning column

C. It is based on the primary key of the table

D. It is based on the primary index of the table

Answer:: D

35. Which is reason for a unique primary index (UPI)?

A. A UPI is the primary key of the table

B. A UPI access is a one AMP operation

C. A UPI guarantees even data distribution

D. A UPI requires no duplicate row checking during loads

Answer:: B,C,D

36. What is advantage of a Teradata relational database?

A. It  requires users to know the access path of the data

B. It  contains logically related data for a  specific purpose

C. It is designed to represent a business and its practices

D. It allows maximum flexibility in selecting and using data

Answer:: C,D

37. According  to  relational concepts, which  is a characteristic of  a  row?

A. Row sequence is  specified

B. Rows can have different formats

C. A row is one instance of all columns

D. Duplicate rows are allowed in a table

Answer:: C,D

38. What is characteristics of a Teradata RDBMS?

A. Is application driven

B. Models the process

C. Models the business

D. Is easy to understand

E. Is founded on mathematical set theory

Answer:: C,D,E

39. What is relational database concepts that govern how rows, columns  and tables  are created?

A. The order of rows in a table is arbitrary

B. A table can contain only one row formats

C. A table can contain multiple row formats

D. The order of rows in a table is keyed to the primary index

Answer:: A,B

40. Due to linear scalability, which can Teradata provide?

A. Redundant data storage for fault tolerance

B. Ability to accommodate 32 CPUs on a node

C. Investment protection for application development

D. Increased workload without decreased throughput

Answer:: C,D

41. Why would you have two physical LAN connections per node connected to the customer’s network?

A. For  redundancy

B. To double the request speed

C. So two session connections can be  made concurrently

D. So one can accept requests and the other can return responses

Answer:: A

42. Which feature is not unique  to Teradata?

A. Mature optimizer

B. Concurrent users

C. Parallel architecture

D. Industry standard access language  (SQL)

Answer:: A,C

43.     Teradata Has been called a —————- architecture.

A. Shared Nothing

B. Anything  Goes.

c. Shared Nothing.

D.Dual Redundent.

Answer:: A

44.     What are attributes of the teradata database.

A. The Optimizer is parllel aware

B. only runs on UNIX.

C. Data distrubution is Automatic.

D.Designed around online Transaction Processing.

Answer::A,C,D.

45.    What does linear Scalability provide?

A.Protection on Investment for application Development.

B.Unconditional,quick response times for data quires.

C. Increase workload without decreased through put.

D. Consistent results with inconsistent data.

Answer:: A,C.

46.    Which two Statements are true concerning the benefits of a business modal?

A.  The Data modal is consistent  no mater how much data.

B.  Data is organized by what it represents.

C.  Data never Skewed.

D.  Allows DBA’s to distribute data properly.

47.    Whoose the attributes which best describe OLTP?

A.  Based on transational set theory.

B.  Exceptional for processing ad hoc quires.Small number of rows for transaction.

C.  Small number of rows for transaction.

D. Transaction tipically occur in seconds instead of minutes.

Answer:: C,D.

48. an rdbms lets you view the data as a collections of:

A.rows

B.columns

c.tables

D.indexes

Answer:A

49. which two statements are true

A.In tera data structure ,a user  is similar to data base

B. a user must always have a password

C.in teradata, a data base must always contain tables

D.a tera data database must always have perm space allocated to it

Answer:B

50. Indexes are unique values:

A.Always

B.some times

C.never

Answer:b

51. What ensures even data distribution?

A.data that is correctly portioned prior to loading

B.tables with an even number of rows.

C.a primary index column with unique values.

D.many tables releated to each other

Answer:C

52. in tera data ,a full-table scan is extermeley rare and performed only when a user specifically requests it.

A.true

B.false

53. Which statement about archival utilities are true?

A.Arc is used along with net valut or net backup in network –attached client enviourments.

B.teradata archival utilities can restore data from tape media.

C.arc is aviliable on channel-attached mainframes and network-attched clients.

D.netvalt  is available on Microsoft windows, and net backup is available on unix mp-ras.

Answer:D

54. Vprocs in tera data systems communicate over the :

A.vnet

b.channel connection

C.Bynet

D.MTDP

Answer:C

55. Which statement about hashing  are true

A.the uniqueness values is a component of the row hash value.

B.in a table that has a  nupi all rows with the same nupi values are distributed to the same amp.

C.two primary  index values that hash to the same row hash values are called hash synonyms.

D.the output of the hashing alogritham is called the hash map.

Answer:B

56. Aclique is a group of nodes that share access to the same:

A.disk arrays

B.network connections

C.clique setting in software

D.pes

Answer:A

57. Duplicate rows are not allowed in:

A.the realitional model

B.the teradata database

C.tables distributed acrossampsbased on a nupi

D.The ANSI standard

Answer:A

58. Which statement about rad is true?

A.RAID 1 uses mirroring,to provide data protection

B.RAID 1 users partey to provide data protection.

C.RAID 5 uses mirroring to provide data protection

D.RAID 5uses parity to provide data protection.

Answer:D

59. Afall back cluster is a group of:

A.disk arrays

B.Amps

C.cliques

D.Nodes

Ans :d

60. Which  of these are rules for foreign keys in realitional theory

A.a foreign key always affects  how realitional data is distruibutted.

B.A Foreign key value may be non-unique.

C.A Foreign key must exists as a primary key in realted table.

d.A table must have one, and only one,foreign key.

Answer:c

61. Which statement about transient journals are true?

A.provide full –table recovery to a specific point in time.

B.Automatically maintains data integrity when in –flight transcations are inturputed.

C.data is returned to its original state after a traniscation failure.

d.allows continued system operation while an amp is down.

Answer:b

62. primarey key value

A.are always unique

b.Are used for distributing data

Answer:A

63. Which statement about indexes is true?

A.both primary and secondary indexes can be created any time during the life time of a table.

B. Both primary and secondrey indexes  must be specified during table creation.

C.A secondrey index is created when a table is created , and a primary index is created any time during the life time of a table.

D. A primary index is created  when a table is created, A secondrey index is created any time during the life time of a table.

Answer:d

64. in teredata ‘s paraell enviourment, response time is as fast as:

A:The average performance of all amps involved

B.The fastest amp involved

C.the slowest amp involved.

D.the sum of all amps are involved

Answer:A

65. The sum of maximum spool speace limits for all databases and users can exceed the disk speace capacity, but the actual disk speace consumed is limited by the disk speace capacity

A.true

B.false

Answer:a

66. the sum of all perm and spoll speace consumed at any point in time cannot exceed the sum of all disk speace avallible on the system.

A.true

B.FALSE

Answer:A

67. A Clique provides protections in the event of a:

A.None of these

B.disk failure

C.disk array contoroller failure

D.node failure

Answer:d

68. all systems have one and only one clique:

A.true

B.false

Answer:B

69. Which of the following statement is true because of the scalabillitey of teradata?

A.to increase system capacity, you can add hardware to an existing system.

B.You will have to rewrite custom application designed for small systems when you add new hardware to increase system capacity.

c.you can same teradata utilities regardless of system size

D. You can use the same database model until you reach twice the data volume it was designed for.

Answer:C

70. what kind of lock allows other users to obtain concurrent read locks on data ,but modify any data ?

A.Exclusive

B.Read

C.Write

D.Access

Answer:B

300+ TOP MCQs on Cloning the cDNA and Specialized Libraries – 1 and Answers

Genetic Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Cloning the cDNA and Specialized Libraries – 1”.

1. RNaseH method and homopolymer tailing method generates blunt ended cDNA molecules. Which of the following can be used for attaching them to vector?
a) Blunt ended ligation
b) Addition of linkers
c) Using appropriate restriction enzymes
d) All the methods can be used equivalently
Answer: d
Explanation: As the products of RNaseH method and homopolymer tailing method generates dsDNA and blunt ended molecules, there are many methods to attach them to vector. Blunt ended ligation, the addition of linkers and restriction enzymes all can be used.

2. Choose the correct statement for modification of homopolymer tailing method.
a) It includes modification of primers
b) Primers are varied by simply altering their size by randomly adding or removing bases
c) The 5’ end of the first cDNA strand is tailed with C residues
d) A single stranded oilgonucleotide is then used for second strand synthesis
Answer: a
Explanation: The modification of homopolymer tailing method includes modification of primers. Primers can be modified by the introduction of restriction sites in them. The 3’ end of the first cDNA strand is tailed with C residues. Another oligo-dG primer precedes the introduced restriction site and is contained with the double stranded oligonucleotide region. It is used for second strand synthesis.

3. By synthesizing two strands separately then annealing them leads to formation of double stranded oligonucleotide.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Double stranded oligonucleotides are required for the synthesis of second cDNA strand. This double stranded oligonucleotide is synthesized by separately synthesizing two strands and then annealing them.

4. Choose the incorrect statement for the homopolymer tailing of cDNA strands.
a) The blunt ended double stranded cDNA molecules are treated with terminal transferase and dCTPs
b) Vector is also treated with terminal transferase and dGTPs
c) The vector and cDNA can now anneal with the help of DNA ligase
d) If gaps are created they can be repaired by physiological processes
Answer: c
Explanation: For homopolymer tailing of cDNA strands, the blunt ended double stranded molecules are treated with terminal transferase and dCTPs. This leads to the addition of C residues at 3’ end. Vector is also treated with terminal transferase and dGTPs. This leads to annealing of vector and cDNA molecules and DNA ligase is not required. The gaps created can be repaired by physiological processes once the recombinant molecules enter the host.

5. Choose the correct statement if the RNA is non polydenylated.
a) A collection of chemically synthesized oligonucleotides is used as primers
b) They are usually tetramer
c) Unequal quantities of A, G, T and C are used
d) The primers attach at only specific sequences for first strand synthesis
Answer: a
Explanation: As the RNA is non polyadenylated, oilgo-dT primer can’t be used and in place of it a collection of chemically synthesized oligonucleotides is used as primers. They are usually hexamers and are made by equal quantities of A, G, C and T. And thus all hexameric sequences can be synthesized. The primers can attach to the RNA sequences throughout.

6. In case if molecules smaller than the fragments required for making a full genomic library are used for making a collection. This collection is called as ___________
a) library
b) shelf
c) small library
d) mini library
Answer: b
Explanation: If the molecules smaller than the fragments required for making a full genomic library are used for collection, this collection is called a shelf. It is a subsection of the library.

7. Choose the correct statement for construction of a library subsection.
a) The size of a particular restriction fragment on which the gene is located is not known
b) The size of the restriction fragment can be known by carrying out southern blotting
c) Another digest of the genomic DNA is carried out by a different enzyme
d) DNA fragments of different size are recovered after carrying out gel electrophoresis
Answer: b
Explanation: For the construction of a subsection of the library, some steps are followed. The size of a particular restriction fragment on which gene is located is known at times. The size of the fragment can be known by carrying out southern blotting. After the size is known, another digest of the genomic DNA is carried out and is done by the same enzyme. DNA fragments of the approximately same size are recovered from the gel after carrying out gel electrophoresis. They can be further cloned into a vector.

8. Any cDNA library would represent a fraction of RNA species of an organism.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Any cDNA library would represent a fraction of RNA species of an organism, the whole organism can’t be represented in a library. It depends on the developmental stage, physiological state and the tissue from which RNA was isolated.

9. What do we mean by housekeeping genes?
a) Housekeeping genes are those genes which are specific to an organism
b) Housekeeping genes are those genes which are present in all the organisms
c) Housekeeping genes are those genes which are meant for repair and maintenance in a species of organism
d) Housekeeping genes are those genes which required for the replication process
Answer: b
Explanation: Housekeeping genes are those genes which are present in all the organisms. cDNA libraries may therefore contain housekeeping genes and genes specific to that organism.

10. Choose the correct statement for RNA fractionation.
a) The RNA is fractioned by size but before separating on oligo-dT cellulose
b) A sucrose density gradient is used
c) The RNA is applied to the top of a pre-poured gradient and during centrifugation smaller molecules move down the tube faster
d) Different bands are formed according to the density in the sucrose density gradient
Answer: b
Explanation: RNA fractionation is carried out and the basis is the size. It is fractioned by size after carrying out separation on oligo-dT cellulose. A sucrose density is used for size based separation. The RNA is applied to the top of a pre-poured gradient and during centrifugation larger molecules move down the tube faster. There are different bands formed on the basis of size in the sucrose density gradient.

11. What is done after RNA fractionation is carried out?
a) Each band is translated in vivo
b) Translation is carried out in wheat gram or lysate of rabbit reticulocyte cells
c) Translation is carried out with a high background
d) Amino acid is not radioactively labelled
Answer: b
Explanation: RNA fractionation is carried out and it is followed by a translation of each band in vitro. It is carried out in wheat gram or lysate of rabbit reticuloycte cells. Ribosomes, tRNAs are added in order to carry out the translation with low background. An amino acid is radioactively labelled and thus the polypeptide sequence synthesized is labelled.

12. The polypeptides produced after addition of mRNA are analysed with antibodies. Choose the incorrect statement for this analysis.
a) Antibodies are added to each reaction tube and precipitation is simply based on antigen-antibody reaction
b) Along with simple antigen-antibody complex, a substrate is added for easy precipitation
c) Protein A-Sepharose is added
d) Protein A-Sepharose binds to IgG antibodies
Answer: a
Explanation: The analysis of polypeptides after addition of mRNA can be carried out by the addition of antibodies. But it is not simply based on antigen-antibody reaction. A substrate for easy precipitation is also added. For this, protein A-Sepharose is added. Protein A-sepharose binds to IgG antibodies. After carrying out centrifugation, it can be pelleted easily.

13. What is done after the recovery of pellets has been carried out in order to know the amount of polypeptides?
a) Denaturing and gel electrophoresis in SDS- Polyacryamide gel
b) Gel electrophoresis in agarose gel
c) Quantitative PCR
d) Weighing pellets
Answer: a
Explanation: After the recovery of pellets has been carried out by the use of antigen-antibody reaction, denaturation and gel electrophoresis in SDS-Polyacrylamide gel. The amount of radioactivity gives the amount and location of polypeptides.

About Us

300+ TOP MCQs on Purification of Plasmid DNA and Answers

Genetic Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Purification of Plasmid DNA”.

1. Isolation of genomic DNA follows the same principles as that of obtaining plasmid from E. coli. Which of the following is not included in it?
a) Cell lysis
b) Removal of proteins
c) Removal of chromosomal DNA
d) Dissolving plasmid in water

Answer: d
Explanation: There are some basic steps which are included in obtaining plasmid DNA from E. coli. Firstly, the cell is lysed, further removal of proteins and chromosomal DNA is done. A plasmid is obtained and collected but not in water. Also, further purification is done if necessary.

2. How many methods are there for obtaining the plasmid DNA from the bacteria?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer: b
Explanation: There are two methods which are used for obtaining the plasmid DNA from the bacteria. They are named as alkaline lysis method and boiling lysis method. They both are having different working principles.

3. Cell lysis is carried out by which substance?
a) Lysozyme and detergents
b) Water
c) Sugar solution
d) Suphuric Acid

Answer: a
Explanation: Cell lysis is carried out by adding lysozyme and detergents. The cell wall is made up of N-acetyl glucoasamine and N-acetyl muramic acid and they are having cross links. The agents added to break the cross links present between the molecules of the cell wall.

4. Chromosomal or genomic DNA is separated by ____________
a) Sedimentation
b) Dissolution in water
c) Centrifugation
d) Distillation

Answer: c
Explanation: Chromosomal or genomic DNA is comparatively heavier and large in size than that of plasmid DNA. Hence, centrifuging at a high speed leads to settling down of the genomic DNA and thus can be separated easily.

5. Proteins can be removed via treatment by?
a) Phenol and chloroform treatment
b) Treatment with sodium hydroxide
c) Chloroform treatment alone
d) Centrifuging

Answer: a
Explanation: Proteins can be removed via treatment with phenol and chloroform treatment. Chloroform is alone not sufficient. The phenol added helps in the destruction of proteins and chloroform helps in its dissolution under acidic conditions.

6. The nucleic acid remaining in the solution can be precipitated by addition of sodium or ammonium acetate and ethanol.
a) False
b) True

Answer: b
Explanation: The nucleic acid is present in the solution and is precipitated by the addition of sodium or ammonium acetate and ethanol. It is because; nucleic acid is polar in nature and thus easily dissolves in water. Hence, to avoid this sodium acetate and ethanol is added. Sodium acetate is shields the charge present on the sugar phosphate backbone and further bonds are easily formed between ethanol and phosphate. It leads to separating out of nucleic acids.

7. Nucleic acid precipitated constitutes of ____________
a) plasmid DNA
b) plasmid DNA, along with RNA and chromosomal DNA
c) rna alone
d) chromosomal DNA only

Answer: b
Explanation: Nucleic acid precipitated contains the plasmid DNA and along with it RNA and remnants of chromosomal DNA are also present. RNA can be removed via adding RNase.

8. Treatment with exonuclease leads to removal of ____________
a) remnants of chromosomal DNA
b) RNase
c) plasmid DNA which is circularized
d) proteins

Answer: a
Explanation: Exonuclease leads to removal of remnants of chromosomal DNA because they are usually having linear ends. The circularized ends of plasmid are protected from the action of exonuclease because they don’t have any free ends for their action.

9. Adsorption onto a solid phase support followed by elution is used as an alternative for separation of which component?
a) chromosomal DNA
b) plasmid DNA
c) RNA alone
d) other impurities

Answer: b
Explanation: This method is used for separation of plasmid DNA. It is advantageous because it avoids the use of phenol and also removes RNA at times along with plasmid DNA.

10. Which of the following components bind to the solid column made of silica, under high salt concentration?
a) Proteins
b) Polysaccharides
c) Both proteins and polysaccharides
d) Plasmid DNA

Answer: d
Explanation: Plasmid DNA binds to a solid support which is made of silica and under high salt concentrations. A high salt concentration doesn’t allow less polar molecules to bind such as polysaccharides and proteins. The binded DNA molecule is further eluted by using a low salt concentration.

11. Purification of DNA by using silica derivatized groups by DEAE is termed as ____________
a) ion exchange resin based method.
b) silica based purification
c) atom based resin exchange method
d) packed bed purification

Answer: a
Explanation: Silica derivatized groups by DEAE are used for purification of DNA. These groups are positively charged and the DNA gets attached to it, along with other species such as RNA which are negatively charged. Further, DNA can be obtained by varying the ionic concentrations.

12. Which of the following is correct with respect to caesium chloride centrifugation?
a) Caesium is light in weight
b) The dissolution of caesium and nucleic acids leads to the formation of gradients
c) According to the amount of supercoiling and A+T content, the DNA settles
d) Nicked DNA settles below than supercoiled DNA

Answer:b
Explanation: Caesium chloride is heavy and when the nucleic acid is dissolved with it, density gradients are formed. According to the extent of supercoiling and G+C content, settling of DNA takes place. The nicked DNA settles above than the nicked DNA.

13. Which of the following components settles at the bottom?
a) RNA
b) Proteins
c) Nicked DNA
d) Supercoiled DNA

Answer: a
Explanation: The component settling at the bottom is RNA. And the proteins float on the free surface. The nicked DNA forms a band above the supercoiled form.

14. The location of plasmid DNA can be visualized by addition of:
a) bromophenol blue
b) ethidium bromide
c) ortho xylene
d) texas red

Answer: b
Explanation: Ethidium bromide is added before centrifugation. It is an orange-red coloured stain which gives rosy coloured bands when placed under UV light. It acts upon by intercalating between the bases.

300+ TOP MCQs on Cultured Cells in Mammals and Restricted Areas in Intact Organisms – 1 and Answers

Genetic Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Cultured Cells in Mammals and Restricted Areas in Intact Organisms – 1”.

1. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by the deficiency of the enzyme hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT). Cells deficient in HGPRT die in a medium containing which of the following?
a) Hypoxanthine and thymidine
b) Thymidine
c) Aminopterin and thymidine
d) Hypoxanthine, thymidine and aminopterin (HAT medium)
Answer: d
Explanation: HGPRT deficient cells in the medium containing all three hypoxanthine, thymidine and aminopterin. It is so because aminopterin blocks the endogenous synthesis of purines needed for the synthesis of nucleic acid.

2. Presence of wild-type DNA onto the HGPRT– in the presence of _______ led to DNA uptake and stable transformation.
a) lithium acetate
b) calcium phosphate
c) sodium chloride
d) aluminum sulphate
Answer: b
Explanation: Presence of wild type in HGPRT—in the presence of calcium phosphate led to DNA uptake and stable transformation.

3. Cells deficient in thymidine kinase (TK) are also killed in HAT medium.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Cells deficient in thymidine kinase are also killed in HAT medium. It is so because pyrimidine synthesis is also blocked in the presence of aminopterin and utilization of thymidine in the HAT medium requires a functional TK.

4. Hygromycin is used as a selectable marker in mammalian cultured cells. It is used for ____________
a) initiating protein synthesis
b) inhibiting protein synthesis
c) initiating DNA binding process
d) inhibiting DNA binding process
Answer: b
Explanation: Hygromycin is used as a protein synthesis inhibitor. It is conferred by a bacterial hph gene which encodes hygromycin phosphotransferase. Resistance to hygromycin is used as a selectable marker.

5. Puromycin is a protein synthesis inhibitor. It is conferred by _______ gene.
a) streptococcal
b) bacilovirus
c) streptomyces
d) both streptococcal and streptomyces
Answer: c
Explanation: Puromycin is a protein synthesis inhibitor and is conferred by streptomyces gene. It does so by encoding puromycin-N-acetyltransferase.

6. Resistance to bleomycin (zeocin) is used as a selectable marker for mammalian cultured cells and its function is ____________
a) DNA damaging agent
b) DNA synthesis promoter
c) Inhibiting RNA synthesis
d) Activating RNA synthesis
Answer: a
Explanation: Resistance to bleomycin (zeocin) is used as a selectable marker for mammalian cultured cells and it is a DNA damaging agent. It does so by expression of a binding protein.

7. Resistance to methotrexate, which inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) is used as a selectable marker. This enzyme is involved in the synthesis of _____ carbon units and is required for _____ biosynthesis.
a) two, nucleoside
b) two, nucleotide
c) one, nucleotide
d) one, nucleoside
Answer: d
Explanation: Resistance to methotrexate, which is used as a selectable marker inhibits DHFR enzyme. This enzyme is involved in the synthesis of one carbon units and is required for nucleoside synthesis.

8. Histidinol dehydrogenase allows synthesis of histidine from exogenous histanol.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Histidinol dehydrogenase is also used as a selectable marker. It allows synthesis of histdidine from exogenous histanol and protects from toxic effects of histidinol.

9. Many mammalian cells contain Thymidine Kinase, the mammalian enzyme uses the analogue _____ than does the viral enzyme.
a) more efficiently
b) less efficiently
c) with same efficiency
d) either with same or more efficiency
Answer: b
Explanation: Many mammalian cells contain thymidine kinase, the mammalian enzyme uses the analogue less efficiently than the viral enzyme. If cells lack viral enzyme they are resistant to analogue and are able to grow in a mammalian enzyme.

10. A wide range of host cell lines are available and commonly used human cell lines are obtained from ___________
a) kidney
b) liver
c) lymphoblast from leukaemia patient
d) both kidney and lymphoblast from a leukaemia patient
Answer: d
Explanation: There is a wide range of host cell lines available. Commonly used human cell lines are HeLa 293T, obtained from kidney and Jurkat which is obtained from lymphoblast from a leukaemia patient.

11. DEAE-dextran is used for introduction of DNA. It is a modified _____ and is ______
a) polysaccharide, negatively
b) polysaccharide, positively
c) monosaccharide, positively
d) monosaccharide, negatively
Answer: b
Explanation: There are various methods for the uptake of transformation DNA such as electroporation and DEAE-dextran method. It is a modified polysaccharide and is positively charged. It forms a complex with negatively charged DNA and is taken into cells by endocytosis.

12. Cells whose contents have been removed and replaced, by swelling and shrinking in solutions of suitable osmotic strength are called as ____________
a) protoplast
b) ghosts
c) shrunken cells
d) vacuole
Answer: b
Explanation: Ghosts are those cells whose contents have been removed and replaced by swelling and shrinking in solutions of suitable osmotic strength. Red blood ghosts are also used for the introduction of DNA into mammalian cells.

13. In ___________ cells, virus replication doesn’t take place and viral DNA ___________
a) non-permissive, is also not expressed
b) permissive, is also not expressed
c) non-permissive, can be expressed
d) non-permissive, is always expressed
Answer: c
Explanation: In non-permissive cells, virus replication doesn’t take place and viral DNA can be expressed though.

14. SV40 is a virus and it produces how many transcripts?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: SV40 is a virus and it produces two transcripts. These transcripts are produced by early and late transcripts.

15. Splicing of the transcripts is necessary for efficient expression.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Splicing of both the transcripts is necessary and it is for efficient expression. Sequences that have not been through the splicing process are not expressed efficiently even if introns are removed.