Category: Objective Questions

Genetic Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Organelle Transformation”.

1. Mitochondrial genome encodes tRNAs ___________ and polypeptides involved in _______
a) mRNAs, oxidative phosphorylation
b) rRNAs, oxidative phosphorylation
c) rRNAs, reductive phosphorylation
d) mRNAs, reductive phosphorylation
Answer: b
Explanation: Mitochondrial genome encodes tRNAs, rRNAs and polypeptides which are required for oxidative phosphorylation. tRNAs and rRNAs are also encoded by chloroplast genome.

2. Atrazine is a herbicide and it acts on _________
a) reaction centre in photosystemI
b) reaction centre in photosytemII
c) reaction centre in both the photosystems
d) neither of the photosystems
Answer: b
Explanation: Atrazine is a herbicide and it acts on a reaction centre present in photosystem II. This herbicide is a product of chloroplast psbA gene.

3. Allotopic gene expression is the case when the presence of a normal gene in an organelle is not a problem in expression.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: At times, the presence of a normal gene in the organelle doesn’t create a problem and thus inserting modified organelle genes into the nucleus may be expressed well. Such an expression is called a allotropic gene expression.

4. atpB encodes _______ subunit of ATP synthase, an enzyme used for generation of ______
a) beta, ADP
b) alpha, ATP
c) beta, ATP
d) alpha, ADP
Answer: c
Explanation: atpB encodes a beta subunit of ATP synthase, it is a multisubunit complex used for generation ATP and it is done in the presence of light reaction.

5. Bacterial aadA gene is responsible for conferring resistance to _________
a) spectinomycin
b) streptomycin
c) ampicillin
d) spectomycin and streptomycin
Answer: d
Explanation: Bacterial aadA gene is responsible for conferring resistance to both streptomycin and spectomycin. It is used a selectable marker for chloroplast transformation.

6. How many types of the chloroplast are there in Chlamydomonas?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: Chlamydomonas is having only one type of chloroplast and this property makes it easier to use it for transformation.

7. For transformation of the chloroplast of higher plants, a vector is used which ______ in the chloroplast.
a) doesn’t replicates
b) replicates
c) may or may not replicate
d) replicates under certain specified conditions
Answer: a
Explanation: For transformation of the chloroplast of higher plants, a vector is used which doesn’t replicates in the chloroplast. There is a selectable marker which is present and the gene of interest is flanked by chloroplast DNA.

8. Chloroplast can be transferred through pollen in all crops.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Cholorplast can’t be transferred through pollen for all the crops. Thus incorporation of transgenes in chloroplast may offer more biological containment then that incorporation into nucleus may offer.

9. Mutant strains of Saccharomyces cervevisiae in which endogenous DNA are deleted are called as _________
a) rho0
b) synthetic rho
c) rho+
d) rho-
Answer: a
Explanation: Mutant strains of Saccharomyces cervevisiae in which endogenous DNA are deleted are called as rho0. Synthetic rho- strains are produced when DNA is introduced into mitochondria and concatamers are produced.

10. COX3 gene is a selectable marker. Choose the correct statement with respect to it.
a) It confers the ability to grow by anaerobic respiration
b) It confers the ability to grow by aerobic respiration
c) It confers the ability to grow in absence of uracil
d) It confers the ability to grow in lithium acetate medium
Answer: b
Explanation: COX3 gene is used as a selectable marker. It confers the ability to grow by aerobic respiration in the mutant cells for mitochondrial COX3 gene.

11. The ARG8m gene which produces an enzyme for arginine biosynthesis is located in _______ and is of ______ origin.
a) mitochondrial, nuclear
b) nuclear, mitochondrial
c) nuclear, nuclear
d) mitochondrial, mitochondrial
Answer: a
Explanation: The ARG8m gene which produces an enzyme for arginine biosynthesis is located in the mitochondria but is of nuclear origin. It is designed for expression in the mitochondrion and will confer the ability to grow in the absence of arginine.

12. Barstar is _________
a) RNAse
b) RNAse inhibitor
c) DNAse
d) DNAse inhibitor
Answer: b
Explanation: Barstar is RNAse inhibitor. And Barsar is RNAse and inhibitor is used as a selectable marker. Barsar is used for degrading the mitochondrial RNA. Barstar added helps in suppressing the function of Barsar and thus restoration of mitochondrial function takes place.

13. Caenorhabditis elegans is a model organism of great importance in biological systems. It is a/an _________
a) algae
b) parasite
c) fungi
d) nematode
Answer: d
Explanation: Caenorhabditis elegans is a model organism of great importance in biological systems and it is a nematode. The genetic manipulation of the organism is quite complex.

14. DNA can be injected into Caenorhabditis elegans by biolistic transformation. The injected DNA forms arrays of extrochromosomal copies which are stable in nature.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: DNA can be injected into Caenorhabditis elegans by biolistic transformation. The injected DNA forms extrachromosomal copies but these are not stable in nature. This can be avoided by the incorporation of poison sequences.

Genetic Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “The Basic Technique”.

1. The process of amplification of specific DNA sequences by an enzymatic process is termed as ____________
a) amplification
b) polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
c) translation
d) microarrays
Answer: a
Explanation: The process of amplification of specific DNA sequences by an enzymatic process is termed as Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). For the PCR to take place there should be small sequences at each end which should be known.

2. What are primers?
a) Primers are the short sequences at the end of the nucleotide sequences which are used for amplification
b) Primers are the short sequences which are complementary to the nucleotides at the end of the sequence which is to be amplified
c) Primers are the short sequences present anywhere in the nucleotide sequence to be amplified
d) Primers are the short sequences which are complementary to the nucleotides anywhere in the sequence to be amplified
Answer: b
Explanation: Primers are short nucleotide sequences which are complementary to the stretches at the ends of the DNA sequence to be amplified.

3. A reaction mixture for PCR consists of ____________
a) heat unstable polymerase
b) primers in a limited amount
c) deoxynucleoside triphosphate (dNTPs)
d) a region complementary to the sequence to be amplified
Answer: c
Explanation: A reaction mixture for PCR consists of the region of the DNA sequence to be amplified, primers in large molar excess, heat stable polymerase and dNTPs. Heat stable polymerase which is used commonly is Taq polymerase.

4. Which of the following is a characteristic of Taq polymerase?
a) It is an RNA polymerase
b) It is heat stable
c) It is obtained from thermophilic bacterium and can be grown in the laboratory below a temperature of 75 degrees
d) It is used in cellular synthesis processes and the optimum temperature is at least 90 degrees
Answer: b
Explanation: Taq polymerase is a DNA polymerase obtained from thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquatics. It is heat stable and can be grown in the laboratory at a temperature above 75 degrees. It is used in cellular DNA synthesis processes and the optimum temperature is at least 80 degrees. It is not readily denatured by repeated cooling and heating cycles and thus is used in amplification processes.

5. These are steps taken in carrying out the PCR reaction:
i) Attaching of primers by cooling
ii) Denaturation of strands
iii) DNA synthesis
iv) Heating
Which is the correct order?
(Mentioned from starting to ending the reaction)
a) i)-ii)-iii)-iv)
b) ii)-i)-iii)-iv)
c) iv)-iii)-ii)-i)
d) iv)-ii)-i)-iii)
Answer: d
Explanation: PCR consists of a series of steps. Firstly, the reaction mixture is heated so that the strands are separated i.e. their denaturation takes place. Then it is again cooled so that the primers are able to attach. Once the primers are attached, the synthesis of DNA is allowed. This whole process is repeated.

6. Which of the following is not a condition for PCR?
a) Initial melting carried out for 5 minutes at 94 degrees
b) Initial melting followed by 30 cycles each consisting of melting for 1 minute at 94 degrees
c) Renaturation for 5 minutes at 60 degrees
d) DNA synthesis at 72 degrees for 1.5 minutes
Answer: c
Explanation: The melting temperature is 94 degrees and the initial melting is carried for 5 minutes at this temperature. It is followed by 30 cycles each consisting of melting for 1 minute at 94 degrees. The renaturation is carried for 1 minute at 60 degrees. The DNA synthesis is carried out at 72 degrees for 1.5 minutes. After the 30 cycles, a final round of extension is carried out for 10 minutes.

7. Primers and polymerases are added again during the reaction because they get consumed as the reaction proceeds.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Primers and polymerases are not added more as the reaction proceeds. It is so because the polymerase is heat stable and is not destroyed during the reaction. Primers on the other hand are added in excess at the beginning of the reaction.

8. All the molecules generated during PCR will not be full length. Some will also be of intermediate length. Which of the statements is correct?
a) After first cycle, majority of the molecules will be full length and only some will be of intermediate length
b) In the next cycle, each intermediate molecule will generate one intermediate molecule and one target molecule
c) The number of full length molecules increase as number of cycles proceed
d) The number of intermediate molecules increase geometrically and the number of target molecules increase arithmetically
Answer: b
Explanation: Intermediate molecules are those which would be having primer at one end and the other end won’t be defined. After the first cycle, half of the molecules would be full length and half would be of intermediate length. In the next cycle, each intermediate molecule generates one intermediate molecule and one target molecule. Target molecule is that which is defined by primers at both the ends. The number of full length molecules remains constant. But, target molecules increase geometrically and the intermediate molecules increase arithmetically.

9. Which of the following activity is not present in Taq polymerase?
a) 5’-3’ polymerase
b) 5’-3’ exonuclease
c) 3’-5’ exonuclease
d) Both 5’-3’ polymerase and 5’-3’ exonuclease
Answer: c
Explanation: Taq polymerase is not having 3’-5’ exonuclease activity. It is a proof reading activity and it is very important to have a check on the mutations if they are encountered in the PCR products.

10. Choose the correct statement.
a) Taq polymerase is having high processivity
b) Processivity is defined in this case as a synthesis of DNA by polymerase
c) It requires a 5’ end for the elongation to take place
d) The maximum size of the molecules which can be synthesized is 10kbp
Answer: b
Explanation: Taq polymerase is having low processivity. It means that it falls off from the template before it has synthesized a large piece of DNA. It requires a 3’ OH for carrying out the elongation. The maximum size of the molecules which can be synthesized is 2-4 kbp.

11. What is the half life cycle for Taq polymerase?
a) 40 minutes
b) 80 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 50 minutes
Answer: a
Explanation: The half life cycle for Taq polymerase is 40 minutes at 94 degrees. Thus, at the end of the 30 cycles, a significant loss of activity takes place.

12. Taq polymerase incorporates which residue at 3’ end?
a) G
b) T
c) A
d) C
Answer: c
Explanation: It incorporates A residue at the 3’ end. This overhang is often useful in carrying out the cloning of these PCR products.

13. Polymerases are also available from other Thermus species. Which of the following is correct?
a) Thermus flavus gives Tfl enzyme
b) Thermus thermopilus gives Tfl enzyme
c) They are having proof reading activity
d) Thermus flavus gives Tth enzyme
Answer: a
Explanation: Other Thermus species also provide polymerases. Thermus flavus gives Tfl enzyme and Thermus thermopilus gives Tth enzyme. They are also 3’-5’ proof-reading activity.

14. Polymerases are available with proof reading activity. Which of the following are the characteristics of these types of polymerases?
a) They add A residue at 3’ end
b) They are obtained from Thermococcus litoralis
c) They can’t be obtained from archaebacteria
d) The marine bacteria from which they are obtained grow at temperatures lower than that of Thermus aquatics
Answer: b
Explanation: As these polymerases are having a proof-reading activity, they generally don’t add any residue at the end. They are obtained from bacteria such as Thermococcus litoralis and grow at temperatures above than that of Thermus aquatics. They can also be obtained from archaebacteria.

15. Thermococcus litoralis grows at a temperature upto 98 degrees.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermococcus litoralis grows at a temperature upto 98 degrees. The half life is also high, 90% of its activity is retained after 1 hour of incubation at 95 degrees.

Bioinformatics Multiple Choice Questions on “Dot Matrix Sequence Comparison”.

1. Which of the following is not a software for dot plot analysis?
A. SIMMI
B. DOTLET
C. DOTMATCHER
D. LALIGN

Answer: A
Explanation: For the purpose of dot plot interpretation there are various softwares currently present. Among these SIM is used for these kinds of alignments through dot-plot method that is wrongly abbreviated.

2. The softwares for dot plot analysis perform several tasks. Which one of them is not performed by them?
A. Gap open penalty
B. Gap extend penalty
C. Expectation threshold
D. Change or mutate residues

Answer: D
Explanation: The gap penalties mentioned above are for the determination of score of the aligning sequences. The change in residue barely takes place as there are number of other softwares for that purpose and also the main objective is to find the score of the alignment.

3. For palindromic sequences, what is the structure of the dot plot?
A. 2 intersecting diagonal lines at the midpoint
B. One diagonal
C. Two parallel diagonals
D. No diagonal

Answer: A
Explanation: For perfectly aligned sequences there is a diagonal formation of dot plot. For palindromic sequences i. e. for sequences that are symmetrical from the midpoint of the sequence, there exist 2 intersecting diagonals on the plot.

4. For significantly aligning sequences what is the resulting structure on the plot?
A. Intercrossing lines
B. Crosses everywhere
C. Vertical lines
D. A diagonal and lines parallel to diagonal

Answer: D
Explanation: If there is alignment of sequences there is a significantly bold diagonal visible on the plot. And if the is a bit imperfect, the diagonal is shattered too to an extent and forms small parallel lines to it.

5. When was this method, first described?
A. 1959
B. 1966
C. 1970
D. 1982

Answer: c
Explanation: This method was first described in 1970. Briefly, this method involves constructing a matrix with one of the sequences to be compared running horizontally across the bottom, and the other running vertically along the left-hand side.

6. Who were the inventors of this method?
A. Smith-Waterman
B. Margaret Preston
C. Gibbs and McIntyre
D. Needleman-Wunsch

Answer: c
Explanation: The first computer aided sequence comparison is called “dot-matrix analysis” or simply dot-plot. The first published account of this method is by Gibbs and McIntyre (1970 The diagram, a method for comparing sequences. Eur. J. Biochem 16: 1-11).

7. Which of the following is true for EMBOSS Dottup?
A. Allows you to specify threshold
B. Doesn’t allow you to specify threshold
C. Doesn’t allow you to specify window size
D. If all cells in the window are identity, it colors in some specific cells in the window

Answer: B
Explanation: The EMBOSS Dottup doesn’t allow you to specify threshold but allows you to specify window size. Also, if all cells in the window are identity, it colors in all the cells in the window.

8. Isolated dots that are not on the diagonal represent exact matches.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: Those isolated dots represent random matches. The dots on the diagonal represent the perfect alignment and the dots with vertical and horizontal shifts show insertions and deletions.

9. Vertical frame shifts show ______ while the horizontal ones show _______
A. insertion, insertion
B. insertion, deletion
C. deletion, deletion
D. deletion, insertion

Answer: B
Explanation: Deletion and insertion of nucleotides is quite common in alignment process. The dot plot easily represents them with vertical and horizontal shifts. And the mutations are totally out of the diagonal zone.

10. Dot plot of repeating elements would be small crosses on plot.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: The repeating elements would be represented in parallel lines in repetitive manner. Better is the repetition; better is the nature of parallel lines. Also, the intersections show the pallindromic sequences.

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Bioprocess Engineering Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Steps in Bioprocess Development: A Typical New Product from Recombinant DNA”.

1. Which components of cell help in the manufacturing of new biological products?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Lipids
D. Nucleic acids
Answer: B
Explanation: Proteins such as enzymes play a very important role in the manufacturing of biological products, they provide the quality and stability with increased product efficiency and reducing consumption in energy, water and raw materials – and generating less waste.

2. Which of the following activity is not considered in Protein Fractionation which is routinely used in proteomic research?
A. Reduce the size of the protein pool to be analyzed
B. Remove highly expressed proteins
C. Bring Low abundant proteins into dynamic range
D. Bring High abundant proteins into dynamic range
Answer: D
Explanation: The low abundant proteins are preferred over high abundant proteins as the low abundant proteins prove to be informative biomarkers and enrichment of low abundant proteins has the great advantage of obtaining much larger amount of material that can be used for further fractionations and analyses.

3. The genetic information of the Plasmid is essential to survival of the host cells.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation: Plasmid is an extra chromosomal circular DNA molecules which are not part of the bacterial genome but carry functions advantageous to the host such as produce enzymes which degrade antibiotics or heavy metals and they are used in recombinant DNA as they can replicate independently of the host chromosome.

4. Which chemical is usually used before the Bacterial transformation process?
A. Calcium chloride
B. Potassium chloride
C. Ferric chloride
D. Sodium chloride
Answer: A
Explanation: Before Bacterial transformation, bacteria are treated with a chemical called Calcium chloride, which causes water to enter into the cells and makes them swell. These swollen bacteria are then known as competent bacteria, which is further used in Bacterial transformation process.

5. Why the shake flask is not continuously preferred?
A. Because of resistant to growth
B. Because of increase rate of contamination
C. Because of imprecise control of temperature
D. Because of unlimited stirring
Answer: C
Explanation: Shake flasks are usually subject to media evaporative loss in warmer culture environments, typically 10% of volume per 24 hr at 37°C. This loss changes the density of the culture and prohibits longer term operation of the system and also the temperature control is absent or limited.

6. Which process is also called product recovery?
A. Upstream processing
B. Mid-stream processing
C. Downstream processing
D. Biological processing
Answer: C
Explanation: Downstream processing implies manufacture of a purified product fit for a specific use, generally in marketable quantities, it also refers to the recovery and purification of biosynthetic products, particularly pharmaceuticals, from natural sources such as animal or plant tissue or fermentation broth, including the recycling of salvageable components and the proper treatment and disposal of waste.

7. The scale-up process is preferred to which condition?
A. The migration of a process from the lab-scale to the pilot plant-scale
B. The migration of a process from the bench-scale to the lab-scale
C. The migration of a process from the small-scale to the lab-scale
D. The migration of a process from the bench-scale to the small-scale
Answer: A
Explanation: In scale-up process, product and process development tend to move forward in small steps, this reduces the risk with larger investments in the next step and production level improvement.

8. Which type of fermentation is preferred in bench top fermenter?
A. Batch
B. Fed-batch
C. Continuous
D. Dual or multiple-fermentation
Answer: B
Explanation: Fed-batch fermentation is superior to conventional batch fermentation when controlling concentrations of a nutrient (or nutrients) affect the yield or productivity of the desired metabolite. The advantage of the fed-batch fermentation is that one can control concentration of fed-substrate in the culture liquid at arbitrarily desired levels.

9. The bench-top bioreactor comes under which type of bioreactor?
A. Solid-state bioreactor
B. Photo bioreactors
C. Airlift bioreactors
D. Stirred tank bioreactors
Answer: D
Explanation: The bench-top bioreactor is a mechanically stirred tank bioreactor fitted with a sparger and a rushton turbine. And its volume varies from < 1-L to 10,000-L capacity. The air is added to the culture medium under pressure through a device called sparger. The sparger may be a ring with many holes or a tube with a single orifice. The sparger along with impellers (agitators) enables better gas distribution system throughout the vessel.

10. From the following volumes, which capacity the Pilot-scale bioreactor holds?
A. 100-1000L
B. 1000-10000L
C. 1-100L
D. less than 1L
Answer: A
Explanation: The Pilot-scale bioreactor vessel of capacity 100-1000L is built according to specifications determined from the bench-scale prototype.

11. Which of the following does not comes under the product of Recombinant mammalian cells?
A. Bovine somatotropin
B. Erythropoietin
C. Growth hormone
D. Tissue plasminogen activator
Answer: A
Explanation: Bovine somatotropin is the peptide hormone produced by cows pituitary gland and is used in regulating metabolic processes and mainly comes under the animal recombinants.

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