Category: Objective Questions

Bioinformatics Multiple Choice Questions on “Performance Evaluation”.

1. Rigorously evaluating the performance of RNA prediction programs has traditionally been hindered by the dearth of three-dimensional structural information for RNA.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: The availability of recently solved crystal structures of the entire ribosome provides a wealth of structural details relating to diverse types of RNA molecules. The high resolution structural information can then be used as a benchmark for evaluating state-of-the-art RNA structure prediction programs in all categories.

2. If prediction accuracy can be represented using a ______ the ______ programs score roughly 20% to 60% depending on the length of the sequences.
A. multiple parameter, ab initio–based
B. single parameter, ab initio–based
C. multiple parameter, comparative–based
D. single parameter, comparative–based

Answer: B
Explanation: As mentioned, the scores depend on the length of the sequences. Generally speaking, the programs perform better for shorter RNA sequences than for longer ones.

3. For _________ RNA sequences, such as tRNA, some programs may be able to produce _________% accuracy.
A. small, 70
B. small, 40
C. large, 90
D. large, 75

Answer: A
Explanation: The number of the percentage may vary but the qualitative idea is that for small RNA sequences, some programs may produce better accuracy. The major limitation for performance gains of this category appears to be dependence on energy parameters alone, which may not be sufficient to distinguish different structural possibilities of the same molecule.

4. The pre-alignment independent programs fare __________ for predicting long sequences.
A. slight better
B. much better
C. a bit worse
D. much worse

Answer: D
Explanation: For small RNA sequences such as tRNA, both subtypes can achieve very high accuracy (up to 100%). This illustrates that the comparative approach is consistently more accurate than the ab initio one.

5. Based on recent benchmark comparisons, the comparative-type algorithms can reach an accuracy range of 20% to 80%.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: The results depend on whether a program is pre-alignment dependent or not. Most of the superior performance comes from pre-alignment-dependent programs such as RNAalifold.

6. In comparative approach to RNA structure prediction, algorithms that do not use pre-alignment, align multiple input sequences and infers a consensus structure.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: The alignment is produced using dynamic programming with a scoring scheme that incorporates sequence similarity as well as energy terms. Because the full dynamic programming for multiple alignment is computationally too demanding, currently available programs limit the input to two sequences.

7. In comparative approach to RNA structure prediction, Foldalign is a web-based only program for RNA alignment
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: Foldalign is a web-based program for RNA alignment and structure prediction. The user provides a pair of unaligned sequences.

8. In comparative approach to RNA structure prediction, the Foldalign program doesn’t use the covariation information.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: The program uses a combination of clustal and dynamic programming with a scoring scheme that includes covariation information to construct the alignment. A commonly conserved structure for both sequences is subsequently derived based on the alignment. To reduce computational complexity, the program ignores multi-branch loops and is only suitable for handling short RNA sequences.

9. In comparative approach to RNA structure prediction, Dynalign is a ________ program.
A. Windows based
B. Fedora
C. UNIX
D. iOS based

Answer: c
Explanation: Is a UNIX program with a free source code for downloading. Here, the user again provides two input sequences. The program calculates the possible secondary structures of each using a method similar to Mfold.

10. In comparative approach to RNA structure prediction, in Dynalign program–by comparing _________ from each sequence, a ______ structure common to both sequences is selected that serves as the basis for sequence alignment.
A. multiple alternative structures, lowest energy
B. single structure, lowest energy
C. single structure, highest energy
D. multiple alternative structures, highest energy

Answer: A
Explanation: The unique feature of this program is that it does not require sequence similarity and therefore can handle very divergent sequences. However, because of the computation complexity, the program only predicts small RNA sequences such as tRNA with reasonable accuracy.

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Bioprocess Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Thermodynamic Preliminaries”.

1. From which of the following processes, only the input of the material is allowed but not output?
A. Batch process
B. Fed-Batch process
C. Semi-Batch process
D. Continuous process
Answer: B
Explanation: In fed-batch process, nothing is removed from the reactor during the process, but one substrate component is added in order to control the reaction rate by its concentration. In a fed-batch process, a basal medium supports initial growth and production, and a feed medium prevents depletion of nutrients and sustains the production phase.

2. From the following type of processes, which type depends on the steady-state condition?
A. Batch process
B. Fed-Batch process
C. Semi-Batch process
D. Continuous process
Answer: D
Explanation: If all properties of a system, such as temperature, pressure, concentration, volume, mass, etc. do not vary with time, the process is said to be at steady state. Continuous processes may be either steady state or transient. It is usual to run continuous processes as close to steady state as possible; however, unsteady-state conditions will exist during start-up and for some time after any change in operating conditions.

3. If the matter flows through a pipe with constant velocity, is this the condition of thermodynamic equilibrium.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation: The flow through a pipe at a constant velocity, clearly there is flow of matter and so it is not in thermodynamic equilibrium, however since the velocity does not change with time it is in a steady state.

4. In the fluid, when the flow velocity is constant at each point over time. Which term is applicable over this condition?
A. Thermodynamic equilibrium
B. Osmotic equilibrium
C. Hydrostatic equilibrium
D. Water pressure equilibrium
Answer: C
Explanation: In fluid mechanics, a fluid is said to be in hydrostatic equilibrium or hydrostatic balance when it is at rest, or when the flow velocity at each point is constant over time. This occurs when external forces such as gravity are balanced by a pressure gradient force.

5. Which of the following is the example of extensive properties?
A. Color
B. Temperature
C. Mass
D. Solubility
Answer: C
Explanation: Thermodynamic properties are divided into two broad types: intensive properties and extensive properties. An extensive property is any property that depends on the size (or extent) of the system under consideration. An intensive property is a bulk property, meaning that it is a physical property of a system that does not depend on the system size or the amount of material in the system. Mass and volume are extensive properties.

6. Which of the following is an example of neither intrinsic nor extrinsic property?
A. Mass
B. Electrical resistance (Series)
C. Electrical resistance (Parallel)
D. Temperature
Answer: C
Explanation: When two wires with electrical resistances R1 and R2 are connected in series than the total resistance is an extensive quantity R_total = R1 + R2, but when the wires are connected in parallel the total resistance is not extensive 1/R_total = 1/R1 + 1/R2. Therefore, electrical resistance is not an extensive nor intensive quantity.

7. Which of the following is the example of Reflexivity equivalence relation?
A. A ∼ A
B. A ∼ B
C. A ∼ C
D. C ∼ B
Answer: A
Explanation: The equivalence relation is of reflexivity as an example of a reflexive relation is the relation “is equal to” on the set of real numbers since every real number is equal to itself. A reflexive relation is said to have the reflexive property or is said to possess reflexivity. Along with symmetry and transitivity, reflexivity is one of three properties defining equivalence relations.

8. Conversion of 40°C into Fahrenheit.
A. 40 F
B. 100 F
C. 4 F
D. 104 F
Answer: D
Explanation: T(°F) = T(°C. × 9/5 + 32
= 40 × 9/5 + 32
= 104 F.

9. Conversion of 40 K into Celsius.
A. -233.15 °C
B. 233.15 °C
C. –245 °C
D. 245 °C
Answer: A
Explanation: T(°C. = T(K) – 273.15
= 40 – 273.15
= -233.15 °C.

10. Two metal strips that constitute a thermostat must necessarily differ in their _______________
A. Mass
B. Length
C. Resistivity
D. Coefficient of linear expansion
Answer: D
Explanation: Thermostat is used in electric apparatus like a refrigerator, Iron etc for automatic cut off. Therefore for metallic strips to bend on heating their coefficient of linear expansion should be different.

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Bioprocess Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Factors Affecting Broth Viscosity”.

1. In the following Vand’s equation what does “Φ”, represents?
μ = μ_L (1+ 2.5 Φ + 7.25 Φ²)
A. Mass fraction of solids
B. Mass fraction of liquids
C. Volume fraction of solids
D. Volume fraction of liquids
Answer: C
Explanation: The viscosity of a suspension of spheres in Newtonian liquid can be predicted using the Vand equation, where μL is the viscosity of the suspending liquid and Φ is the volume fraction of solids.This equation has been found to hold for yeast and spore suspensions up to 14 vol% solids.

2. The filamentous cells will become flexible under which of the following condition?
A. Increased osmotic pressure and low turgor pressure
B. Decreased osmotic pressure and high turgor pressure
C. Increased osmotic pressure and high turgor pressure
D. Decreased osmotic pressure and low turgor pressure
Answer: A
Explanation: Osmotic pressure of the culture medium affects cell turgor pressure. This in turn affects the hyphal flexibility of filamentous cells; increased osmotic pressure gives a lower turgor pressure making the hyphae more flexible. Improved hyphal flexibility reduces broth viscosity, and can also have a marked effect on yield stress.

3. The temperature is directly proportional to viscosity.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation: A fluid’s viscosity strongly depends on its temperature. Along with the shear rate, temperature really is the dominating influence. The higher the temperature is, the lower a substance’s viscosity is. Consequently, decreasing temperature causes an increase in viscosity. The relationship between temperature and viscosity is inversely proportional for all substances. A change in temperature always affects the viscosity – it depends on the substance just how much it is influenced by a temperature change. For some fluids a decrease of 1°C already causes a 10 % increase in viscosity.

4. The pressure is directly proportional to viscosity?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation: Viscosity increases with increasing pressure because the amount of free volume in the internal structure decreases due to compression. Consequently, the molecules can move less freely and the internal friction forces increase. The result is an increased flow resistance.

5. Convert 5 cP to Pa.s and estimate the correct answer.
A. 0.5
B. 0.25
C. 0.05
D. 0.005
Answer: D
Explanation: 1 centipoise [cP] = 0.001 pascal second [Pa•s]
so,
5 centipoise = 0.005 pascal second.

6. If the particle size is small in fluid than viscosity will ___________
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. Slightly increase
Answer: B
Explanation: The size of the particles of a substance will greatly affect its viscosity. Small particles can move more easily past each other and can therefore flow faster, meaning they have a lower viscosity. Large particles would mean a higher viscosity.

7. The force of attraction between the particles is directly proportional to viscosity.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation: Particles of the same substance have an attractive force on one another. Some substances have a strong attraction while some substances have a weaker attraction. The stronger the attraction of particles, the higher the viscosity.

8. Conversion of 5 Pa-s into Poise will be ____________
A. 0.5
B. 50
C. 500
D. 0.05
Answer: B
Explanation: Ten poise equal one pascal second [Pa s] making the centipoise [cP] and millipascal second [mPa s] identical.
1 Pa-s = 10 P
So,
5 Pa-s = 50 P.

9. When a gas is heated its viscosity will ___________
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain same
D. Slightly increase
Answer: A
Explanation: A gas’s viscosity increases when heated (more energy causing more movement + therefore more friction because particles are hitting each other). Decreases when cooled.

10. A fluid is flowing between two layers. Calculate the shearing force if the shear velocity is 0.25 m/s and has length 2 m and dynamic viscosity is 2Ns/m².
A. 0.2 N/m²
B. 0.4 N/m²
C. 0.5 N/m²
D. 0.6 N/m²
Answer: C
Explanation: Given: Shear velocity u = 0.25 m/s,
shear stress y = 0.125/s
dynamic viscosity μ = 2 Ns/m²
The shearing stress is given by,
F = μ A u/y
F = 2 Ns/m² × 0.125 /s
F = 0.5 N/m²
Therefore, the shearing stress is 0.5 N/m².

11. Calculate the density of fluid having an absolute viscosity of 0.89 Ns/m² and kinematic viscosity of 2 m²/s.
A. 0.445 kg/m³
B. 0.440 kg/m³
C. 0.544 kg/m³
D. 0.550 kg/m³
Answer: A
Explanation: Known: Absolute viscosity μ = 0.89 Ns/m², kinematic viscosity ν = 2 m³/s.
The density is given by,
(p=frac{u}{v})
(p=frac{0.89 Ns^2}{2 m^2})
p = 0.445kg/m³
Therefore, the density of fluid is 0.445kg/m³.

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Bioprocess Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Ideal Reactor Operation”.

1. Aerobic reactions are not batch operations.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: Aerobic reactions are not batch operations in the strictest sense; the low solubility of oxygen in aqueous media means that it must be supplied continuously while carbon dioxide and other off-gases are removed.

2. In a perfectly mixed reactor _________
A. The output composition is different from input composition
B. The output composition is identical from input composition
C. Both output and input composition are constant
D. Both output and input composition are not constant

Answer: B
Explanation: In a perfectly mixed reactor, the output composition is identical to composition of the material inside the reactor, which is a function of residence time and rate of reaction.

3. Convert v_max = 2.5 mmol m^-3 s^-1 into mM h^-1.
A. 2500
B. 900
C. 25
D. 9

4. Convert v_max = 7 mmol m^-3 s^-1 into mM h^-1.
A. 25
B. 20
C. 25.20
D. 20.25

5. In batch reaction time with enzyme deactivation, calculate the first-order deactivation rate constant.
(Given – s_o = 12 mM; v_max = 9 mM h^-1; K_m = 8.9 mM; s_f = 1.2 mM; t_h = 4.4 h).
A. 0.150 h^-1
B. 0.158 h^-1
C. 0.155 h^-1
D. 0.154 h^-1

6. By taking the parameters of Q5, and the batch reaction time t_b.
A. 5.0 h
B. 10.0 h
C. 15.0 h
D. 20.0 h

7. Zymomonas mobilis is used to convert glucose to ethanol in a batch fermenter under anaerobic conditions. The yield of biomass from substrate is 0.06 g g^-1; Y_PX is 7.7 g g^-1. The maintenance coefficient is 2.2 g g^-1 h^-1; the specific rate of product formation due to maintenance is 1.1 h^-1. The maximum specific growth rate of Z. mobilis is approximately 0.3 h^-1.5 g bacteria are inoculated into 50 litres of medium containing 12 g l^-1 glucose. Determine batch culture times required to produce 10 g biomass.
A. 3.1 h
B. 3.3 h
C. 3.5 h
D. 3.7 h

8. By taking the pararmeters of Q7 and Determine batch culture times required to achieve 90% substrate conversion.
A. 5.1 h
B. 5.3 h
C. 5.5 h
D. 5.7 h

9. By taking the parameters question 8 and question 7, determine batch culture times required to produce 100 g ethanol.
A. 3.2 h
B. 3.4 h
C. 3.6 h
D. 3.8 h

10. The Zymomonas mobilis cells are used for chemostat culture in a 60 m³ fermenter. The feed contains 12 g l^-1 glucose; K_s for the organism is 0.2 g l^-1. What flow rate is required for a steady-state substrate concentration of 1.5 g l^-1?
A. 15.6 m³ h^-1
B. 15.8 m³ h^-1
C. 15.4 m³ h^-1
D. 15.2 m³ h^-1

12. By taking Q10 and Q11 into account and at the flow rate of Q10, what concentration of ethanol is produced?
A. 5.1 g l^-1
B. 5.3 g l^-1
C. 5.5 g l^-1
D. 5.7 g l^-1

13. Which of the following type is of the perfusion culture?
A. Batch
B. Conc. Batch
C. Continuous
D. Conc. Fed-Batch

Answer: D
Explanation: Concentrated Fed-Batch- In a process that can be considered a form of perfusion, the culture is perfused to generate ultrahigh cell concentration, greater than 10⁸ cells/mL; and the product is also retained in the vessel.

14. Immobilised lactase is used to hydrolyse lactose in dairy waste to glucose and galactose. Enzyme is immobilised in resin particles and packed into a 0.5 m³ column. The total effectiveness factor for the system is close to unity; K_m for the immobilised enzyme is 1.32 kg m^-3; V_max is 45 kg m^-3 h^-1. The lactose concentration in the feed stream is 9.5 kg m^-3; a substrate conversion of 98% is required. The column is operated with plug flow for a total of 310 d per year. At what flow rate should the reactor be operated?
A. 1.56 m³ h^-1
B. 1.58 m³ h^-1
C. 1.50 m³ h^-1
D. 1.54 m³ h^-1

15. By taking the parameters of Q14 into consideration, estimate how many tonnes of glucose are produced per year?
A. 56.3 tonnes yr^-1
B. 56.6 tonnes yr^-1
C. 56.7 tonnes yr^-1
D. 56.5 tonnes yr^-1

Bioprocess Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Bioreactors”.

1. The stem cells are differentiated cells.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation: A stem cell is an undifferentiated cell capable of continuous self-renewal that can also produce large numbers of differentiated progeny, depending on extracellular factors.

2. Hematopoietic stem cells are derived from __________
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Epiderm
Answer: C
Explanation: Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are the stem cells that give rise to blood cells through the process of haematopoiesis. They are derived from mesoderm and located in the red bone marrow, which is contained in the core of most bones.

3. All stem cells are hematopoietic.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation: These non-hematopoietic stem cells make up a small proportion of the stromal cell population in the bone marrow and can generate bone, cartilage, and fat cells that support the formation of blood and fibrous connective tissue.

4. Lymphoreticular systems does not include immune defense.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation: The lymphoreticular system consists of the spleen, lymphnodes, lymphatic vessels, thymus, and bone marrow. The functions of these systems include immune defense, transport of fats throughout the body, and collection and transport of interstitial fluid (the fluid bathing the cells) back to the circulatory system.

5. Extraction of stem cells is ethical.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation: The key ethical issues concern the destruction of human embryos for stem cell derivation. On the grounds that the human embryo is a human life with moral value justifying its protection, the extraction of embryonic stem cells is unethical.

6. What is correct according to typical cells?
A. Cancerous
B. Non-cancerous
C. Dysplasia condition
D. Normal
Answer: A
Explanation: This might cause you to worry that this means cancer, but atypical cells aren’t necessarily cancerous. The presence of atypical cells is sometimes referred to as “dysplasia.” Many factors can make normal cells appear atypical, including inflammation and infection. Even normal aging can make cells appear abnormal.

7. What do you mean by Coculture?
A. Same types of cells
B. Same types of tissues
C. Same growth medium
D. Different growth medium
Answer: C
Explanation: The act or process of culturing two types of cells or tissue in the same medium.

8. Which of the following type of reactor mimics structure like in bone?
A. Fluidized bed reactors
B. Flatbed reactors
C. Hollow fiber reactors
D. Modified T-Flask
Answer: A
Explanation: Fluidized bed reactors with macroporous supports mimic structures much like that in bone. However, there are challenges in controlling surface chemistry and maintaining the appropriate mix of cell types. Cell sampling and control of reactor conditions can be problematic.

9. Spheroid cultures are:
A. 1-D cell model
B. 2-D cell model
C. 3-D cell model
D. Dimensionless
Answer: C
Explanation: Spheroids are a type of three-dimensional cell modeling that better simulate a live cell’s environmental conditions compared to a two-dimensional cell model, specifically with the reactions between cells and the reactions between cells and the matrix. Spheroids are useful in the study of changing physiological characteristics of cells, the difference in the structure of healthy cells and tumor cells, and the changes cells undergo when forming a tumor.

10. What does “T” refers to in Tissue culture flask (T-Flask)?
A. Total volume of the flask
B. Total weight of the flask
C. Total surface area of the flask
D. Total mass of the flask
Answer: C
Explanation: The “T” referred to the total surface area of the flask that was available for cell growth: thus a T-25 flask had a 25cm² growth area. By the 1960s, straight neck T-flasks was available molded from polystyrene that was treated to enhance cell attachment.

11. What do you mean by Extracorporeal?
A. Outer layer of the tissue
B. Outside of the body
C. Inner layer of the tissue
D. Inside of the body
Answer: b
Explanation: An extracorporeal is a medical procedure which is performed outside the body.

12. Which type of reactor is used to mimic the liver as artificial liver?
A. Fluidized bed reactors
B. Flatbed reactors
C. Hollow fiber reactors
D. Modified T-Flask
Answer: C
Explanation: An extracorporeal device to serve as temporary assist device is realistic (such a system is in clinical trials). A promising design is a hollow-fiber system using porcine (pig) hepatocytes. Such cells are relatively easy to obtain in large quantities and maintain a satisfactory level of differentiated cellular activity in regard to detoxification. A disadvantage is due to limited lifespan (and proliferative ability).

13. What is the fullform of BAL?
A. Bioarticulate liver device
B. Bioartificial liver device
C. Bioaesthetic liver device
D. Bioaseptic liver device
Answer: B
Explanation: A bioartificial liver device (BAL) is an artificial extracorporeal supportive device for an individual who is suffering from acute liver failure.

14. Liver is regenerated naturally.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation: Living-Donor Liver Transplants. Because your liver grows back, you can actually donate a piece of your liver to someone else. After surgery, your liver will regenerate back to its full size. The other person’s new liver will grow back as well, leaving both people with healthy, functioning livers.

15. Which one is not correct according to the function of liver?
A. Detoxifies chemical
B. Metabolizes drugs
C. Proteins related to blood clotting
D. Proteins not related to blood clotting
Answer: D
Explanation: The liver has two large sections, called the right and the left lobes. The liver also detoxifies chemicals and metabolizes drugs. As it does so, the liver secretes bile that ends up back in the intestines. The liver also makes proteins important for blood clotting and other functions.

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