Category: Objective Questions

250+ TOP MCQs on Conic Sections – Circle & Answers | Class 11 Maths

Mathematics Multiple Choice Questions on “Conic Sections – Circle”.

1. Find the equation of circle with center at origin and radius 5 units.
a) x2+y2=25
b) x2+y2=5
c) x2=25
d) y2=25
Answer: a
Clarification: Equation of circle with center at (a, b) and radius r units is
(x-a)2+(y-b)2=r2
So, equation of circle is (x-0)2+(y-0)2=52 => x2+y2=25.

2. Find the equation of circle with center at (2, 5) and radius 5 units.
a) x2+y2+4x-10y+4=0
b) x2+y2-4x-10y+4=0
c) x2+y2+4x+10y+4=0
d) x2+y2+4x-10y-4=0
Answer: b
Clarification: Equation of circle with center at (a, b) and radius r units is
(x-a)2+(y-b)2=r2
So, equation of circle is (x-2)2+(y-5)2=52 => x2+y2-4x-10y+4=0.

3. Find the center of the circle with equation x2+y2-4x-10y+4=0.
a) (-2, 5)
b) (-2, -5)
c) (2, -5)
d) (2, 5)
Answer: d
Clarification: Comparing the equation with general form x2+y2+2gx+2fy+c=0, we get
2g=-4 => g=-2
2f=-10 => f=-5
c=4
Center is at (-g, -f) i.e. (2, 5).

4. Find the radius of the circle with equation x2+y2-4x-10y+4=0.
a) 25 units
b) 20 units
c) 5 units
d) 10 units
Answer: c
Clarification: Comparing the equation with general form x2+y2+2gx+2fy+c=0, we get
2g=-4 => g=-2
2f=-10 => f=-5
c=4
Radius = (sqrt{g^2+f^2-c} = sqrt{4+25-4})=5.

5. Find the equation of circle which pass through (5, 9) and center at (2, 5).
a) x2+y2+4x-10y+4=0
b) x2+y2-4x-10y+4=0
c) x2+y2+4x+10y+4=0
d) x2+y2+4x-10y-4=0
Answer: b
Clarification: Equation of circle with center at (a, b) and radius r units is
(x-a)2 + (y-b)2 = r2
(5-2)2 + (9-5)2 = r2 => r2=32+42 => r=5.
So, equation of circle is (x-2)2+(y-5)2=52 => x2+y2-4x-10y+4=0.

6. If a circle pass through (2, 0) and (0, 4) and center at x-axis then find the radius of the circle.
a) 25 units
b) 20 units
c) 5 units
d) 10 units
Answer: c
Clarification: Equation of circle with center at x-axis (a, 0) and radius r units is
(x-a)2+(y)2=r2
=>(2-a)2+(0)2=r2
And (0-a)2+(4)2=r2
=>(a-2)2=a2+42 => (-2)(2a-2) =16 => a-1=-4 => a=-3
So, r2 = (2+3)2=52
r=5 units.

7. If a circle pass through (4, 0) and (0, 2) and center at y-axis then find the radius of the circle.
a) 25 units
b) 20 units
c) 5 units
d) 10 units
Answer: c
Clarification: Equation of circle with center at y-axis (0, b) and radius r units is
(x)2+(y-b)2=r2
=>(4)2+(-b)2=r2
And (0)2+(2-b)2=r2
=>(b-2)2=b2+42 => (-2)(2b-2)=16 => b-1=-4 => b=-3
So, r2=42+32=52 => r=5 units.

8. The point (1, 4) lie ___________ the circle x2+y2-2x-4y+2=0.
a) inside circle
b) outside circle
c) on the circle
d) either inside or outside
Answer: b
Clarification: Circle has equation x2+y2-2x-4y+2=0.
12+42-2*1-4*4+2 = 1+16-2-16+2 =1 > 0 so, point is outside the circle.

9. The point (0, 0) lie ___________ the circle x2+y2-2x-4y=0.
a) inside circle
b) outside circle
c) on the circle
d) either inside or outside
Answer: c
Clarification: Circle has equation x2+y2-2x-4y=0.
02+02-2*0-4*0+0 = 0 so, point is on the circle.

10. The point (6, 2) lie ___________ the circle x2+y2-2x-4y-36=0.
a) inside circle
b) outside circle
c) on the circle
d) either inside or outside
Answer: c
Clarification: Circle has equation x2+y2-2x-4y-16=0.
62+22-2*6-4*2-36 = 36+4-12-8-36 =-16<0 so, point is inside the circle.

250+ TOP MCQs on Built-in Commands and Answers

Linux / Unix questions and answers focuses Built-in Commands in Linux Bash Shell. This is set-2.1. The ‘logout’ built in command is used to
a) shutdown the computer
b) logoff of the computer
c) logout the current user
d) to exit the current shell

Answer: d
Clarification: None.

2. The command ‘umask -S’
a) prints the current mask using symbolic notation
b) prints the current mask using octal numbers
c) sets the mask to 000
d) sets the mask to 777

Answer: a
Clarification: None.

3. The ‘mapfile’ command
a) reads lines of standard input and assigns each to the element of an indexed array
b) reads lines of standard output file
c) reads lines of standard error file
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Clarification: None.

4. Which option of the kill command sends the given signal name to the specified process?
a) -l
b) -n
c) -s
d) -a

Answer: c
Clarification: None.

5. Which command removes a directory from directory stack?
a) dirs
b) popd
c) pushd
d) rm

Answer: b
Clarification: None.

6. Which command puts a script to sleep untill a signal is recieved?
a) sleep
b) suspend
c) disown
d) break

Answer: b
Clarification: None.

7. The command ‘ulimit’
a) set a limit on specified resource for system users
b) set/show process resource limit
c) set a limit on specified resource for system users & set/show process resource limit
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Clarification: None.

8. Which command identifies the resource of a command?
a) type
b) typeset
c) select
d) source

Answer: a
Clarification: None.

9. Which command wait for the specified process to complete and return the exit status?
a) sleep
b) wait
c) delay
d) stop

Answer: b
Clarification: None.

10. Which command prints the accumulated user and system times for processes run from the shell?
a) time
b) times
c) both time and times
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b

250+ TOP MCQs on Nitration of Paraffinic Hydrocarbons and Answers

Unit Processes online quiz on “Nitration of Paraffinic Hydrocarbons”.

1. The paraffinic are affected by the attack of ?
a) Electrophile
b) Nucleophile
c) Free radical
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Clarification: The paraffinic are susceptible i.e. inert to the attack of electro or nucleophile whereas they are affected by certain atoms or free radicals.

2. The nitration in paraffinic produces ?
a) Mononitroparaffins
b) Dinitroparaffins
c) Trinitroparaffins
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Clarification: The nitration process cannot produce any polynitro compounds hence we only get Mononitration paraffin’s.

3. What do you mean by Optimum temperature?
a) Least temperature at which the reaction starts
b) Average temperature to produce desired product
c) Temperature at which we get maximum yield
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Clarification: Optimum temperature is a temperature at which we get maximum yield i.e maximum about of desired product.

4. How do we increase yield?
a) Getting optimum temperature
b) Decreasing the activation energy
c) Increasing the surface: volume ratio of reactor
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Clarification: The above points increases the conversion rate of Nitric acid, hence the yield also increases.

5. What effect does Bromine has on yield and conversion of nitric acid to nitro paraffins?
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Inert
d) Does not affect
Answer: a
Clarification: Bromine has a beneficial effect on yield and conversion of Nitric acid to Nitroparaffins, similarly Chlorine also effects the yield.

6. Reaction increases when Carbon chain becomes more branched?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The rate of reaction decreases as carbon becomes more branched as these branches cause hindrance to reactions.

7. The temperature coefficients for hydrogen substitution are in the order primary > Secondary > Tertiary.
a) True
b) False
Answer: True
Clarification: The rate of substitution in the reverse order at low temperature. As the reaction temperature is increased, the rates tend to approach equality.

8. What is an Alkyl radical?
a) -CH3
b) -C2H5
c) -C3H7
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Clarification: Alkyl mean atom or molecule containing a ‘C’ atom, which all the above contains and radical which can easily react with other molecule as it has a vacant spot.

9.The Liquid phase nitration is of less importance than the gas phase nitration because of ?
a) Low yield
b) Lower conversion
c) Occurrence of unwanted side reactions
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Clarification: It is easier for the reaction in gas phase than in liquid phase due to the above reasons.

10. 2RCH2CH2 + NO2 ——–> HNO2 + RCH=CH2 what is the name of this reaction?
a) Paraffin formation
b) Olefin formation
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Clarification: Olefin formation has a double bond between two Carbon atoms with the help of nitro group, given in following reaction.


To practice all areas of Unit Processes for online Quizzes,

300+ TOP Software Engineering MCQs and Answers [PDF]

Software Engineering Objective Questions and Answers

Software Engineering Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam Software Engineering Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Software Engineering Test Questions

1. The most important feature of spiral model is | Software Engineering Mcqs

(A) requirement analysis.

(B) risk management.

(C) quality management.

(D) configuration management.

Ans: B

2. The worst type of coupling is | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) Data coupling.

(B) control coupling.

(C) stamp coupling.

(D) content coupling.

Ans: D

3 IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) Software requirement specification.

(B) Software design.

(C) Testing.

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Ans: A

4 One of the fault base testing techniques is | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) unit testing. (B) beta testing.

(C) Stress testing. (D) mutation testing.

Ans: D

5 Changes made to an information system to add the desired but not necessarily the required features is called | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) Preventative maintenance.

(B) Adaptive maintenance.

(C) Corrective maintenance.

(D) Perfective maintenance.

Ans: D

6 All the modules of the system are integrated and tested as complete system in the case of | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) Bottom up testing

(B) Top-down testing

(C) Sandwich testing

(D) Big-Bang testing

Ans: D

7 If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has only one interpretation, SRS is said to be | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) correct.

(B) unambiguous.

(C) consistent.

(D) verifiable.

Ans: B

8 A fault simulation testing technique is | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) Mutation testing

(B) Stress testing

(C) Black box testing

(D) White box testing

Ans: A

9 Modules X and Y operate on the same input and output data, then the cohesion is | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) Sequential

(B) Communicational

(C) Procedural

(D) Logical

Ans: B

10 If the objects focus on the problem domain, then we are concerned with | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) Object Oriented Analysis.

(B) Object Oriented Design

(C) Object Oriented Analysis & Design

(D) None of the above

Ans: A

11 SRS is also known as specification of | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) White box testing

(B) Stress testing

(C) Integrated testing

(D) Black box testing

Ans: D

12 The model in which the requirements are implemented by category is | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) Evolutionary Development Model

(B) Waterfall Model

(C) Prototyping

(D) Iterative Enhancement Model

Ans: A

13 SRD stands for | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) Software requirements definition

(B) Structured requirements definition

(C) Software requirements diagram

(D) Structured requirements diagram

Ans: B

14 A COCOMO model is | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) Common Cost Estimation Model.

(B) Constructive Cost Estimation Model.

(C) Complete Cost Estimation Model.

(D) Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model.

Ans: B

15 Which of the following statements is true | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) Abstract data types are the same as classes

(B) Abstract data types do not allow inheritance

(C) Classes cannot inherit from the same base class

(D) Object have state and behavior

Ans: B

16 The desired level of coupling is | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) No coupling

(B) Control coupling

(C) Common coupling

(D) Data coupling

Ans: D

17 In the spiral model ‘risk analysis’ is performed | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) In the first loop

(B) in the first and second loop

(C) In every loop

(D) before using spiral model

Ans: C

18 For a well understood data processing application it is best to use | Software Engineering Mcqs

(A) The waterfall model

(B) prototyping model

(C) the evolutionary model

(D) the spiral model

Ans: A

19 Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) cause-effect graph

(B) dependence matrix

(C) Structure chart

(D) SRS

Ans: B

20 The symbol represents | Software Engineering Mcqs 

(A) mandatory 1 cardinality

(B) mandatory many cardinality

(C) optional 0 or 1 cardinality

(D) optional zero-many cardinality

Ans: D

21 Each time a defect gets detected and fixed, the reliability of a software product 

(A) increases.

(B) decreases.

(C) remains constant.

(D) cannot say anything.

Ans: A

22 Output comparators are used in 

(A) static testing of single module

(B) dynamic testing of single module

(C) static testing of single and multiple module

(D) dynamic testing of single and multiple module

Ans: D

23 The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is 

(A) object.

(B) class.

(C) inheritance.

(D) aggregation.

Ans: C

24 The level at which the software uses scarce resources is 

(A) reliability

(B) efficiency

(C) portability

(D) all of the above

Ans: B

25 If every requirement can be checked by a cost-effective process, then the SRS is 

(A) verifiable

(B) traceable

(C) modifiable

(D) complete

Ans: A

26 Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing environment is called 

(A) adaptive maintenance

(B) corrective maintenance

(C) perfective maintenance

(D) preventive maintenance

Ans: A

27 All activities lying on critical path have slack time equal to 

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) None of above

Ans: A

28 Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of 

(A) Acceptance testing

(B) Integration testing

(C) System Testing

(D) Unit testing

Ans: A

29 An object encapsulates 

(A) Data

(B) Behaviour

(C) State

(D) Both Data and behaviour

Ans: D

30 In function point analysis, number of general system characteristics used to rate the system are

(A) 10

(B) 14

(C) 20

(D) 12

Ans: B

31 Aggregation represents 

(A) is_a relationship

(B) part_of relationship

(C) composed_of relationship

(D) none of above

Ans: C

32 If P is risk probability, L is loss, then Risk Exposure (RE) is computed as 

(A) RE = P/L

(B) RE = P + L

(C) RE = P*L

(D) RE = 2* P *L

Ans: C

33 Number of clauses used in ISO 9001 to specify quality system requirements are: 

(A) 15

(B) 20

(C) 25

(D) 28

Ans: B

34 ER model shows the 

(A) Static view.

(B) Functional view.

(C) Dynamic view.

(D) All the above.

Ans: A

35 The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called:

(A) CASE Tools

(B) CAME tools

(C) CAQE tools

(D) CARE tools

Ans: A

36 Changes made to the system to reduce the future system failure chances is called 

(A) Preventive Maintenance

(B) Adaptive Maintenance

(C) Corrective Maintenance

(D) Perfective Maintenance

Ans: A

37 Requirements can be refined using 

(A) The waterfall model

(B) prototyping model

(C) the evolutionary model

(D) the spiral model

Ans: B

38 The model that assumes that effort and development time are functions of product size alone is 

(A) Basic COCOMO model

(B) Intermediate COCOMO model

(C) Detailed COCOMO model

(D) All the three COCOMO models

Ans: A

39 Structured charts are a product of 

(A) requirements gathering

(B) requirements analysis

(C) design

(D) coding

Ans: C

40 The problem that threatens the success of a project but which has not yet happened is 

(A) bug

(B) error

(C) risk

(D) failure

Ans: C

41 The main purpose of integration testing is to find 

(A) design errors

(B) analysis errors

(C) procedure errors

(D) interface errors

Ans: D

42 Pseudocode can replace 

(A) flowcharts

(B) structure charts

(C) decision tables

(D) cause-effect graphs

Ans: A

43 If a program in its functioning has not met user requirements is some way, then it is 

(A) an error.

(B) a failure.

(C) a fault.

(D) a defect.

Ans: D

44 The testing that focuses on the variables is called 

(A) black box testing

(B) white box testing

(C) data variable testing

(D) data flow testing

Ans: A

45 CASE Tool is 

(A) Computer Aided Software Engineering

(B) Component Aided Software Engineering

(C) Constructive Aided Software Engineering

(D) Computer Analysis Software Engineering

Ans: A

46 Software consists of 

(A) Set of instructions + operating procedures

(B) Programs + documentation + operating procedures

(C) Programs + hardware manuals

(D) Set of programs

Ans: B

47 Which is the most important feature of spiral model? 

(A) Quality management

(B) Risk management

(C) Performance management

(D) Efficiency management

Ans: B

48 Which phase is not available in software life cycle? 

(A) Coding

(B) Testing

(C) Maintenance

(D) Abstraction

Ans: D

49 Which is not a step of requirement engineering? 

(A) Requirements elicitation

(B) Requirements analysis

(C) Requirements design

(D) Requirements documentation

Ans: C

50 FAST stands for 

(A) Functional Application Specification Technique

(B) Fast Application Specification Technique

(C) Facilitated Application Specification Technique

(D) None of the above

Ans: C

300+ [UPDATED] Medical Officer MCQs and Answers [PDF]

Medical Officer Objective Questions and Answers

Medical Officer Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam Medical Officer Multiple choice Questions. Quiz Medical Officer Test Questions

 

1) a bed patient in a hospital is called a

 

  A. inpatient (Correct Answer)

  B. outpatient

  C. third party payer

  D. provider

Ans: A

 Mcqs on Medical Officer

2) one who acts for the insured or the carrier in a claim is called

 

  A. doctor

  B. adjuster (Correct Answer)

  C. provider

  D. subscriber

Ans: B

 

3) a request for payment under an insurance contractor bond is called a(an)

 

  A. insurance application

  B. claim (Correct Answer)

  C. dual choice request

  D. total disability

Ans: B

 

4) payment made periodically to keep an insurance policy in force is called

 

  A. time limit

  B. premium (Correct Answer)

  C. coinsurance

  D. fee for service

Ans: B

 

5) a person or institution that gives medical care is an

 

  A. third party payer

  B. provider (Correct Answer)

  C. adjuster

  D. insurance agent

Ans: B

 

6) Benefits in the form of cash payments rather than service are called

 

  A. indemnity (Correct Answer)

  B. hospital benefits

  C. catastrophic health benefits

  D. cash advances

Ans: A

 

7) An Amount the insured must pay before policy benefits begin is called

 

  A. indemnity

  B. extended benefits

  C. deductible (Correct Answer)

  D. catastrophic

Ans: C

 

8) an organization that offers insurance against losses in exchange for a premium is called a

 

  A. rider

  B. health maintenance organization (Correct Answer)

  C. member physician

  D. bank

Ans: B

 

9) health insurance that provides protection against the high cost of treating severe or lengthy illnesses or disabilities is called

 

  A. catastrophic (Correct Answer)

  B. severe

  C. third party payer

  D. none of the above

Ans: A

 

10) a patient receiving ambulatory care at a hospital or other health facility without being admitted as a bed patient is called a (an)

 

  A. inpatient

  B. outpatient (Correct Answer)

  C. carrier

  D. adjuster

Ans: B

 

11) an illness of injury that prevents an insured person from performing one or more of the functions of his regular job is called

 

  A. partial disability (Correct Answer)

  B. permanent disability

  C. total disability

  D. resultant disability

Ans: A

 

12) a previous injury disease or physical condition that existed before the health insurance policy was issued is called

 

  A. preexisting condition (Correct Answer)

  B. prior exposure

  C. foregoing condition

  D. none of the above

Ans: A

 

13) one who belongs to a group insurance plan is called

 

  A. third party payer

  B. subscriber (Correct Answer)

  C. carrier

  D. none of the above

Ans: B

 

14) a sum of money provided in an insurance policy, payable for covered services is called

 

  A. deductible

  B. benefits (Correct Answer)

  C. dues payable

  D. premium

Ans: B

 

15) to prevent the insured from receiving a duplicate payment for losses under more than one insurance policy is called

 

  A. fee for service

  B. hospital benefits

  C. coordination of benefits (Correct Answer)

  D. non duplication benefits

Ans: C

 

16) a requirement under a health care policy dictated that the insured be responsible for a percentage of covered services, this is called

 

  A. coinsurance (Correct Answer)

  B. pre defined policy

  C. comprehensive

  D. in percent policy

Ans: A

 

17) Insurance designed to offset medical expenses resulting from catastrophic or prolonged illness or injury is called

 

  A. primary insurance

  B. major medical (Correct Answer)

  C. whole life policy

  D. comprehensive

Ans: B

 

18) An unexpected event which may cause injury is a(n)

 

  A. dread disease rider

  B. accident (Correct Answer)

  C. adjuster

  D. none of the above

Ans: B

 

19) A doctor who agrees to accept an insurance companies pre-established fee as the maximum amount to be collected is a(n)

 

  A. subscriber

  B. claim representative

  C. participating physician (Correct Answer)

  D. adjuster

Ans: C

 

20) Insurance plans that pay a physician’s full charge if it does not exceed his normal charge or does not exceed the amount normally charged for the service is

 

  A. usual, customary, and reasonable (Correct Answer)

  B. comprehensive

  C. dual choice

  D. none of the above

Ans: A

 

21) The period of the time in which a notice of claim or proof of loss must be filed is a(n)

 

  A. waiting period

  B. policy dates

  C. time limit (Correct Answer)

  D. grace period

Ans: C

 

22) A health program for people age 65 and older under social security is

 

  A. tri-care

  B. medicare (Correct Answer)

  C. champva

  D. worker’s compensation

Ans: B

 

23) A Civilian health and medical program of the uniform services is

 

  A. Tri-care (Correct Answer)

  B. medicare

  C. medicaid

  D. worker’s compensation

Ans: A

 

24) A form of insurance paid by the employer providing cash benefits to workers injured or disabled in the course of employment is

 

  A. Tri-care

  B. Champus

  C. Worker’s Compensation (Correct Answer)

  D. Medicaid

Ans: C

 

25) A recap sheet that accompanies a medicare or medicaid check, showing breakdown and explanation of payment on a claim is a(n)

 

  A. fee for service

  B. explanation of benefits (Correct Answer)

  C. coordination of benefits

  D. dual choice

Ans: B

 

26) a type of insurance whereby the insured pays a specific amount per unit of service and the insurer pays the rest of the cost is a(n)

 

  A. co-payments (Correct Answer)

  B. coordination of benefits

  C. deductible

  D. indemnity

Ans: A

 

27) In Insurance, greater coverage of diseases or an accident  and greater indemnity payment in comparison with a limited clause is a(n)

 

  A. co-payment

  B. comprehensive (Correct Answer)

  C. deductible

  D. major medical

Ans: B

 

28) a rider added to a policy to provide additional benefits for certain conditions is a(n)

 

  A. hospital benefits

  B. dread disease rider (Correct Answer)

  C. preexisting condition

  D. none of the above

Ans: B

 

29) An interval after a payment is due to the insurance company in which the policy holder may make payments, and still the policy remains in effect is a(n)

 

  A. extended benefits

  B. grace period (Correct Answer)

  C. coordination of benefits

  D. lapse time

Ans: B

 

30) An agreement by which a patient assigns to another party the right to receive payment from a third party for the services the patient has received is a(n)

 

  A. assignment (Correct Answer)

  B. coordination of benefits

  C. non duplication of benefits

  D. none of the above

Ans: A

 

31) a skilled nursing facility for patients receiving specialized care after discharge from a hospital is a(n)

 

  A. extended care facility (Correct Answer)

  B. post care facility

  C. nursing home

  D. none of the above

Ans: A

 

32) Payment for hpspital charges incurred by an insured person because of injury or illness is a(n)

 

  A. hospital benefits (Correct Answer)

  B. catastrophic health benefits

  C. extra help benefits

  D. none of the above

Ans: A

 

33) An agen of an insurance company who solicits or initiates contracts of insurance and services the policyholder for the insurer is a(n)

 

  A. insurance agent (Correct Answer)

  B. claim representative

  C. carrier

  D. member physician

Ans: A

 

34) A method or charging whereby a physician presents a bill for each service rendered is a(n)

 

  A. non duplication of benefits

  B. fee for service (Correct Answer)

  C. monthly statement

  D. none of the above

Ans: B

 

35) The Tri-care fiscal begins ________ and ends ________

 

  A. January 1 to December 31

  B. October 1 to September 1

  C. October 1 to September 30 (Correct Answer)

  D. July 1 to june 31

Ans: C

 

36. What is a Procedure Code?

a) a software program that automates many of the administrative and financial tasks in a medical practice

b) private or government organization that insures or pays for health care on behalf of beneficiaries

c) a code that identifies a medical service

d) a person or entity who buys an insurance plan; the insured

Ans: c

37. What is a Statement?

a) amount due before benefits start

b) a list of all services performed for a patient, along with the charges for each service

c) an explanation of benefits transmitted electronically by a payer to a provider

d) a code that identifies a medical service

Ans: b

 

38. What is a Diagnosis?

a) physician’s opinion of the nature of the patient’s illness or injury

b) amount due before benefits start

c) a person or entity who buys an insurance plan; the insured

d) None of the above

Ans: a

 

39. What is a Practice Management Program (PMP)?

a) a software program that automates many of the administrative and financial tasks in a medical practice

b) physician’s opinion of the nature of the patient’s illness or injury

c) a code that identifies a medical service

d) a person or entity who buys an insurance plan; the insured

Ans: a

 

40. What is a Documentation?

a) physician’s opinion of the nature of the patient’s illness or injury

b) a record of health care encounters between the physician and the patient, created by the provider

c) a person or entity who buys an insurance plan; the insured

d) physician’s opinion of the nature of the patient’s illness or injury

Ans: a

 

41. What is a Health Plan?

a) a code that identifies a medical service

b) a list of the procedures and charges for a patient’s visit

c) a person or entity who buys an insurance plan; the insured

d) a plan, program, or organization that provides health benefits

Ans: d

 

42. What is a Medical Record?

a) a chronological record of a patient’s medical history and care that includes information that the patient provides, as well as the physician’s assessment, diagnosis, and treatment plan

b) monies that are flowing into a business

c) physician’s opinion of the nature of the patient’s illness or injury

d) a code that identifies a medical service

Ans: a

 

43. What is a Payer?

a) physician’s opinion of the nature of the patient’s illness or injury

b) private or government organization that insures or pays for health care on behalf of beneficiaries

c) a list of all services performed for a patient, along with the charges for each service

d) a chronological record of a patient’s medical history and care that includes information that the patient provides, as well as the physician’s assessment, diagnosis, and treatment plan

Ans: b

 

44. What is a Accounts Receivable (AR)?

a) amount due before benefits start

b) monies that are flowing into a business

c) a code that identifies a medical service

d) treatment provided by a physician to a patient for the purpose of preventing, diagnosing, or treating an illness, injury, or its symptoms in a manner that is appropriate and is provided in accordance with generally accepted standards of medical practice

Ans: b

 

45. What is a Policyholder?

a) a plan, program, or organization that provides health benefits

b) a person or entity who buys an insurance plan; the insured

c) monies that are flowing into a business

d) a plan, program, or organization that provides health benefits

Ans: b

 

46. What is meant by Medical Necessity?

a) physician’s opinion of the nature of the patient’s illness or injury

b) monies that are flowing into a business

c) a plan, program, or organization that provides health benefits

d) treatment provided by a physician to a patient for the purpose of preventing, diagnosing, or treating an illness, injury, or its symptoms in a manner that is appropriate and is provided in accordance with generally accepted standards of medical practice

Ans: d

 

47. What is meant by Remittance Advice (RA)?

a) an explanation of benefits transmitted electronically by a payer to a provider

b) a fixed fee paid by the patient at the time of an office visit

c) monies that are flowing into a business

d) a software program that automates many of the administrative and financial tasks in a medical practice

Ans: a

 

48. What is Copayment?

a) a code that identifies a medical service

b) a chronological record of a patient’s medical history and care that includes information that the patient provides, as well as the physician’s assessment, diagnosis, and treatment plan

c) a fixed fee paid by the patient at the time of an office visit

d) a person or entity who buys an insurance plan; the insured

Ans: c

 

49. What is meant by Encounter Form?

a) a list of the procedures and charges for a patient’s visit

b) a software program that automates many of the administrative and financial tasks in a medical practice

c) a person or entity who buys an insurance plan; the insured

d) an explanation of benefits transmitted electronically by a payer to a provider

Ans: a

 

50. What is meant by Deductible?

a) private or government organization that insures or pays for health care on behalf of beneficiaries

b) a list of all services performed for a patient, along with the charges for each service

c) amount due before benefits start

d) a software program that automates many of the administrative and financial tasks in a medical practice

Ans: c

 

 

Top 300 First Aid Multiple Choice Questions MCQs Quiz

First Aid MCQs and Answers

First Aid Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam First Aid Multiple choice Questions. Quiz on First Aid Test Questions

1) How many compressions and breaths should you do for each cycle of CPR?

A. 15 compressions, 2 breaths

B. 30 compressions, 5 breaths

C. 30 compressions, 2 breaths

D. 15 compressions, 5 breaths

E. 30 compressions, 15 breaths

Answer: C

2) What causes Anaphylactic shock?

A. Choking

B. Insect sting or spider bites

C. 3rd degree burns

D. Heart attack

E. Stroke

Answer: B

3) What are the symptoms of third degree burn?

A. Charred skin, no pain

B. Charred skin, pain

C. Blisters and pain

D. Red and pain

E. Grey and pain

Answer: A

4) What is the first thing you should do for severe bleeding?

A. Put the victim in the recovery position

B. Direct pressure with clean cloth or hand

C. cover with clean cloth

D. Give oxygen

E. Give him water if conscious Explanation Stop the bleeding as soon as possible

Answer: B

5) Witch of the first aid duties below has the highest priority for you as a Cabin attendant?

A. Re-assure the passenger

B. Arange medical attention

C. Be aware of danger

Answer: C

6) What is the main purpose of the “Route”emergency transportation technique when providing treatment to a passenger?

A. To relocate (move) the passenger

B. To administer rescue breathing

C. To remove a blockage in the victims airway

D. To remove a blockage in the victims airway

E. To treat the absence of a victims breathing

Answer: A

7) What is your FIRST action when examining the condition of a patient?

A. Check for breathing

B. Check for insurance

C. Speak to the victim and shake his shoulders

D. Check for external injuries,

Answer: C

8) What is the main purpose of the “Heimlich” procedure

A. To remove a blockage in the victims airway

B. To treat the absence of a victims breathing

C. To treat an insufficient breathing

Answer: A

9) What’s happens with the carbonic acid dioxide (CO2) produced by the human body?

A. It remains in the body cells

B. It is transferred to the heart muscle

C. It is exhausted via the blood and breathing system

Answer: C

10) What can you do to avoid that a person experiences a short period of uncousciousness “Fainting”

A. Speak to the victim and administer a pain stroke

B. Let the victim remain in its chair

C. Apply fresh air, let the victim lay-down and reassure the victim

Answer: C

11) What applies to a victim with a reduced counsciousness?

A. The victim is still capable to speak

B. The victim is in shock

C. The victim does not react to speaking and shacking

D. The victim is still alert

Answer: A

12) How can you recognize a vein bleeding?

A. Blood flows equally out of the wound

B. Blood flows with pulses out of the wound

C. Blood flows slowly out of the wound

Answer: A

13) Where do you position the knot in the end of the bandages of a emercengy bandage?

A. Always on top of the bandage

B. Crossed over the wound

C. Clearly away from the wound

Answer: C

14) Witch of the items mentioned below can cause a shock?

A. a short periode of unconsciousness “Fainting”

B. a heart attack

C. a feeling of nausea

Answer: B

15) What should yo do for shock?

A. Give the passenger something to drink

B. Let the passenger sleep

C. Give nothing to drink, re-assure the passenger and seek medical assistance

Answer: C

16) What do you do for small cut.

A. Wash with soap and water, cover with a sterile bandage

B. Only cover with a sterile bandage

C. Clean the wound with cotton wool

Answer: A

17) What is included in the CPR procedure?

A. Rescue breathings only

B. Compression of the chest only

C. Rescue breathing and chest compressions

Answer: C

18) What can cause the blood circulation stop?

A. a heart attack

B. a bleeding in the smaller veins

C. a head wound

Answer: A

19)  What do you do if someone suddenly begins to bleed severely?

A. Tell them to lick out the blood

B. Apply pressure to the wound

C. Scream and run

D. Remove foreign object

Answer: B

20) What are the symptoms of Hypothermia?

A. Warm and sweaty

B. Cold and sweaty

C. Cold, tired, shivering and acting abnormally

D. Just very sweaty

Answer: C

21) What is the best treatment of second degree burn?

A. Put Aloe vera lotion on it

B. Water

C. Put ice on the burn

Answer: B

22) How  do you check for breathing?

A. Listen

B. Look for rising chest

C. Feel with the cheek

D. Look, Listen an Feel

Answer: D

23) A nosebleed can be stopped by:

A. Waiting

B. Pinching briefly the nostrils

C. Give something cold to drink

D. Put some cotton wool into the nose

Answer: B

24) Wich of the first aid duties below has the highest priority for you as a Cabin Attendant?

A. Be aware of danger

B. Re-assure the passenger

C. Arrange medical attention

Answer: A

25) What is your FIRST action when examining the condition of a patient?

A. Check for breathing

B. Check for external injuries

C. Speak to the victim and shake his shoulders

Answer: C

26) What is the correct procedure when treating with the AED?

A. Remove clothing, dry the passengers skin (when necessary) attach electrodes and turn on the AED

B. Call for assistance, turn on the AED and follow the instructions provided by the AED.

C. Dry the passengers skin (when necessary), attach electrodes, start rescue breathing, call for assistance and tun on the AED

Answer: B

27) What are the requirements for a cover bandage?

A. It may not absorb any fluids

B. It may not be older than 1 year

C. It must be sterile

Answer: C

28) What do you have to do when a passenger has no breathing?

A. Start CPR immediately

B. Put the victim in the recovery position

C. Continue with the breathing check

D. Count pulsations

Answer: A

29) What is the purpose of the “Heimlich” procedure?

A. To treat the absence of a victims breathing

B. To remove a blockage in the victims airway

C. To treat an insufficient breathing

D. To re-locate (move) the person

Answer: B

30) How can you recognize a arterial bleeding

A. Blood flows equally out of the wound

B. Blood flows slowly out of the wound

C. Blood flow with pulses out of the wound

Answer: C

31) List what FAST stand for:

A. Face, Arms, Speech an Time

B. Fracture, Arm, Speech and Time

C. Face, Abdomen, Sleep and Time

D. Face, Arms, Speech and Treatment

Answer: A

32) How many compressions and breathings should you do for each cycle of CPR?  (adult)

A. 15 compressions and 2 breaths

B. 15 compressions and 1 breaths

C. 30 compressions and 2 breaths

D. 30 compressions and 1 breaths

E. 5 compressions and 2 breaths

Answer: C

33) A passenger has been stung by a honey bee. The stinger is still under the skin and needs to be removed to prevent anaphylactic shock. What do you do next?

A. Remove the stinger using a pair of sterile tweezers

B. Remove the stinger using a credit card or a butter knife to scrape it out

Answer: A

34) A person is alergic for peanut butter an is going into anaphylactic shock. What do you do next?

A. Have them sit with their head between her knees and have them breathe deeply

B. Give them some water to cool the throat

C. Arrange medical attention

D. Give them some sweet drinks

E. Give them some aspirin immediately

Answer: C,E

35) What does ABC stand for? (more answers)

A. Airway

B. Back

C. Breathing

D. C-Spine

E. Circulation

Answer: A,C,E

36) When performing chest compressions on an adult we press the chest:        

A. 2 – 3 cm

B. 2,5 – 3,5 cm

C. 4 – 5 cm

D. 1- 2 cm

E. 5 – 6 cm

Answer: C

37) When dealing with an unconscious casualty, you should check up to ?? seconds for normal breathing.   

A. maximum 2 seconds for normal breathing

B. maximum 5 seconds for normal breathing

C. maximum 10 seconds for normal breathing

D. maximum 30 seconds for normal breathing

E. maximum 60 seconds for normal breathing

Answer: C

38) Having a  ………………pulse is a sign of medical shock.

A. slow

B. rapid

Answer: B

39) What is a scold?

A. A burn by liquid or gas

B. A burn by fire

C. A break in your leg

D. Being beaten with a stick

Answer: A

40) What do you do when someone breaks an arm?

A. Scream and run

B. Put a plaster on it

C. Use an antisceptic wipe

D. Put the arm in a sling

Answer: D

41) Choose all of the factors in the list below that contribute to date rape:

A. Incompatible verbal and body language

B. Gender stereotypes

C. Hanging out with friends

D. Using straight talk

E. Unclear communication

Answer: A,B,E

43) abuser promise to change

A. tension building phase

B. incident/explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: C

44) the victim believes the abuser will change

A. tension building phase

B. incident/explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: C

45) victim is edgy and tries not to upset the abuser

A. tension building phase

B. incident/explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: A

46) abuser feels sorry and guilty

A. tension building phase

B. incident /explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: C

47) abuser has mood swings and is ver unpredictable

A. tension building stage

B. incident/explosiv stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: A

48) abuser physcially, verbally, or sexually assaults the victim

A. tension building phase

B. incident/explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: B

49) abuser emphasizes how much they love the victim

A. tension building stage

B. incident/explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: C

50) abuser constantly criticizes the victim

A. tension building phase

B. incident/explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: A

51) Most poisoning take place in the home

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

52) The risk or rape is higher for women ages 30-40 than for women of other ages

A. true

B. false

Answer: B

53) Most acquaintance rapes involve the use of alcohol on the part of the victim, the assailant or both

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

 

54) kids who are victimzed by bullies tend to get lower grades

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

55) the difference between playful teasing and harassment is the person’s intent

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

56) comments can be considered sexual harassment even if the target welcomes the comments

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

57) the First Responder Law helps protect people hwne they render first aid

A. true

B. false

Answer: B

58) gossiping and spreading rumors is an attempt to damage a person’s reputation

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

59) if someone is having a seizure you should put something in their mouth so they don’t bite their tongue

A. true

B. false

Answer: B

60) harassment is all about power and control

A. true

B. false

Answer: A