Category: Objective Questions

Cloning Objective Questions and Answers

Cloning Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam Cloning Multiple choice Questions. Quiz Cloning Test Questions

1.Which of the following is a description of a clone?

A. the nucleus of a normal body cell

B. a  group of cells or organisms which are genetically identical and have all been produced from the same original cell

C. a  group of cells from the inner layer of an embryo which can grow into a variety of tissues

D. a  group of organisms with the same parents

Ans: B

2.Adult cell cloning is also known as:

A. embryo cloning

B. biomedical cloning

C. research cloning

D. reproductive cloning

Ans: D

3.Dolly the sheep was cloned from which type of differentiated adult cell?

A. udder

B. skin

C. blood

D. kidney

Ans: A

4.In embryo cloning one embryo is split to form a number of identical embryos which are then implanted into surrogate mothers. Which of the following statements is NOT true about embryo cloning?

A. it is a form of artificial twinning

B. each animal born is identical to the others

C. it is used to replicate embryos which have been genetically modified to produce human therapeutic proteins

D. the egg and nucleus are treated by a mild electric shock to stimulate development

Ans: D

5.Which of the following terms is another name for somatic cell nuclear transfer?

A. embryo cloning

B. biomedical cloning

C. adult cell cloning

D. reproductive cloning

Ans: B

6.The aim of therapeutic cloning is to produce stem cells which may give rise to new tissues or organs. However there are some ethical objections to the process, mainly because it involves the formation of:

A. insulin producing cells

B. stem cells

C. cloned human embryos

D. cloned spinal cord

Ans: C

7.Which of the following statements is NOT true about mammalian cloning:

A. many cloned embryos and live offspring have developmental problems

B. it has a poor success rate

C. up to three different females are needed

D. it is an easy, reliable procedure

Ans: D

8.A great deal of work into the cloning of mammals has gone on since the birth of Dolly the sheep. Which of the following species of mammals has not, so far, been cloned?

A. cat

B. pig

C. chimpanzee

D. cow

Ans: C

9. Opponents of gene therapy insist that

a. Germ-line therapy is permissible 

b. Gene therapy is harmless 

c. Reproductive freedom has limits 

d. Reproductive freedom is a personal right 

Ans: C

10. In agriculture, cloning to propagate plant strains is

  a. Prohibited 

  b. Commonplace 

  c. Rare 

  d. Not technically feasible 

Ans: B

11. The cloning that has provoked the most public consternation and media attention is

  a. Research cloning 

  b. Animal cloning 

  c. Therapeutic cloning 

  d. Reproductive cloning 

Ans: D

12. The notion that a human clone would be identical to an existing person, the clone’s “parent,” is

  a. False 

  b. True 

  c. Plausible 

  d. Scientifically proven 

Ans: a

13. According to Dan Brock, concluding that a human being created by human cloning is of less value or is less worthy of respect than one created by sexual reproduction would be

  a. Reasonable 

  b. Impossible 

  c. A mistake 

  d. Logical 

Ans: c

14. The prevention or treatment of diseases through methods such as genetic testing, abortion of defective embryos, and germ-line therapy is known as

  a. Positive eugenics 

  b. Negative eugenics 

  c. Reverse genetics 

  d. Pro-eugenics 

Ans: b

15. John Harris denies that there is a morally significant difference between genetic repair and

  a. Genetic testing 

  b. Genetic treatment 

  c. Genetic reversal 

  d. Genetic enhancement 

Ans: d

16. Soren Holm argues against reproductive cloning, asserting that it violates a right to

  a. An open future 

  b. A closed future 

  c. A future 

  d. A life in the shadow 

Ans: a

17. Einstein’s clone would have Einstein’s genes but would not

  a. Be alive 

  b. Be as smart as Einstein 

  c. Be Einstein 

  d. Be a true clone 

Ans: c

18. Among animals and humans, clones appear naturally in the form of

  a. Siblings 

  b. Identical twins 

  c. Older siblings 

  d. Germ lines

Ans: b

19. Problems in obtaining large amounts of proteins encoded by recombinant genes can often be overcome by the use of these special cloning vectors

A) BACs

B) expression vectors

C) YACs

Ans: b

20. A genomic library is:

A) a database where the sequence of an organisms genome is stored

B) a collection of many clones possessing different DNA fragments from the same organisms bound to vectors

C) a book that describes how to isolate DNA from a particular organism

Ans: b

21. The first step in cloning a gene is to

A) insert a plasmid into a bacterium

B) isolate the DNA from the organism that contains the desired gene

C) plate cells on agar

D) treat plasmids with restriction enzymes

Ans: b

22. Plasmids are put into bacterial cells by

A) restriction enzymes

B) DNA ligase

C) binding of cohesive sticky ends

D) transformation

Ans: D

23. Restriction enzymes

A) cut donor DNA evenly so smooth edges result

B) cut donor DNA but do not affect plasmids

C) make staggered cuts at specific sequences in DNA in both donor DNA and plasmid

D) are used to incorporate plasmids into bacterial host cells

Ans: C

24. DNA fragments can hybridize with plasmids that have been cut by the same restriction enzyme.

A) True

B) False

Ans: A

25. DNA ligase enzyme joins the cohesive ends of the desired DNA fragment with the cohesive ends of the plasmid.

A) True

B) False

Ans: A

26. What is the name of the first sheep to be cloned from an adult sheep?

  A: Polly 

  B: Dolly 

  C: Molly 

Ans: B

27. When was the first animal cloned?

  A: 1960 

  B: 1970 

  C: 1975 

Ans: B

28. What was the first animal to be cloned?

  A: A bee 

  B: A frog 

  C: A weasel 

Ans: B

29. When was the first test tube baby born?

  A: 1953 

  B: 1978 

  C: 1983 

Ans: B

30. When were the first human cells cloned?

  A: 1981 

  B: 1993 

  C: 2002

Ans: B

31. The term “clone”, originally used in botany before it entered molecular genetics, means what in Greek?

a. Twin 

b. Twig 

c. Root 

d. Copy

Ans: B

32. Cloning, the process of creating an identical copy of an organism, is only attainable by artificial means.

a. False 

b. True

Ans: A

33. Which of the following statements about the process of cloning is not true?

A. Cloning could be theoretically used to bring extinct species back to life 

B. Scientists use more than one method for cloning. 

C. Cloning can be used therapeutically, to create replacement organs or tissue. 

D. Cloning produces a completely identical copy of an organism.

Ans: D

34. How many unsuccessful attempts did it take to finally create Dolly, the first successfully cloned mammal?

A. 276 

B. 19 

C. 76 

D. 154

Ans:  A

35.  Prometea, an example of successfully cloned mammal, was what type of animal?

A. Rabbit 

B. Pig 

C. Horse 

D. Cat

Ans:  C

36.  The first successful experiment in which a cloned animal embryo reached an adult state, was carried out in what year?

A. 1952 

B. 1926 

C. 1907 

D. 1973

Ans: A

37. Substance vital for treating what hereditary blood defect that occurs almost exclusively in males, has been produced by cloning?

A. Thalassemia 

B. Hemophilia 

C. Anemia 

D. Hemoglobinopaties

Ans: B

38. What prevents scientists from fulfilling one of science fiction writers’ dreams – to clone a dinosaur?

A. Lack of live dinosaur tissue 

B. The difference in environmental conditions now and then 

C. The need for a mother from a closely related species 

D. The lack of knowledge about their embryonal development

Ans: C

39. Which of these can be defined as a clone’s biological mother and father?

A. None of these 

B. The egg cell donor and the surrogate mother 

C. The genetic material donor and the egg cell donor 

D. The egg cell donor and the surrogate mother

Ans: A

40. What do parents pass down to their kids?

a. NOTHING

b. JEANS

c. GENES

Ans: B

Apachi Webserver Objective Questions

1) What does the following set of Directives do? AddType application/x-httpd-php3 .php3. | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

a) Adds all files with the extension .php3 to the MIME Type application/x-httpd-php3.

b) Creates a new user defined type that can be used subsequently in variable declarations.

c) Makes it easier to load new definitions into the configuration files.

d) Installed the php3 software onto the system.

Ans: A

2) What does the HostNameLookups double do? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

a) Makes Apache perform 2 forward name lookups from different DNS servers to confirm the host name prior to logging.

b) Performs a host name lookup in the double file prior to logging the result.

c) Performs both a reverse name lookup and then a forward name lookup on that result, prior to logging the result.

d) Sets the hostname to double for all host names logged.

Ans: C

3) On a Microsoft Windows server the MaxSpareServers sets the number of idle child server processes that are allowed before the parent process begins to kill off the idle child processes. True or False? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

a) True

b) False

4) What does the -v option do during startup? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

a) Starts Apache in verbose mode with maximum logging.

b) Has no impact on Apache and has been discontinued as of Apache 1.2.6.

c) Displays the version of Apache and the build date and exits.

d) Disables virtual hosting for the specified virtual host name(s).

Ans: C

5) What does the mod_dir Module provide? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

a) It provides a basic file directory searching capability for Apache to resolve spelling mismatches.

b) It provides trailing slash “/” redirects and serving diectory index files.

c) It allows remote synchoronizaiton for tools such as Microsoft Frontpage.

d) It has been discontunued as of Apache 1.2 and is no longer used.

Ans: B

6) What action(s) must be done to enable cookies within Apache? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

a) Only installing the mon_usertrack.

b) Installing mod_cookies.

c) Installing mon_usertrack and setting the Directive cookietracking on.

d) Only setting the Directive cookietracking on.

Ans: C

7) What option in the IndexOptions Directive is only available after Apache 1.3.10? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

a) FancyIndexing

b) IconHeight

c) NameWidth

d) FoldersFirst

Ans: D

8) What Module is CacheSize used with? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

a) mod_proxy

b) mod_ssl

c) mod_usertrack

d) mod_alias

Ans: A

9) What does the SendBufferSize Directive do? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

a) Sets the internal IPC buffer settings to the specified amount.

b) Sets the number of 4k buffers in Windows for optimal disk buffering.

c) Sets the TCP buffer size to the specified amount.

d) Allows the default SMB TCP delay to be overridden.

Ans: C

10) What is the function of the mod_imap Module? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

a) Handles IMAP e-mail protocols for Apache.

b) Performs image map handling.

c) Allows for shared inter-module memory protocols.

d) There is no mod_imap Module which is available for Apache.

Ans: B

11. By default, where are the HTML files located for the default site on a Windows Apache server? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

A. C:Inetsrvwwwroot

B. C:Program FilesApache Software Foundation

C. C:Program FilesApache Software FoundationApache2.2www

D. C:Program FilesApache Software FoundationApache2.2htdocs (Answer)

E. C:Program FilesApache Software FoundationApache2.2htdocswww

Ans: D

12. Where is the default location for the main Apache configuration file (httpd.conf) on Windows? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

A. C:Program FilesApache Software FoundationApache2.2conf

B. C:Program FilesApache Software FoundationApache2.2conftextra

C. C:OpenSSLconf

D. C:Program FilesApache Software FoundationApache2.2configuration

Ans: A

13. What is the default extension for Apache configuration files? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

A..con

B..conf

C. .txt

D. .configuration

E. .xml

Ans: B

14. Which of the following is not a valid protocol for PCI compliance? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

A.SSLv2

B. AES-SHA 56 bit

C. SSLv1

D.All of the above

Ans: D

15. What is the recommended directive to load the Intermediate certificate(s)? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

A.SSLCertificateFile

B. SSLCACertificateFile

C.SSLCertificateChainFile

D. SSLCACertificatePath

Ans: C

16. If a certificate is issued off of the DigiCert High Assurance CA-3 certificate, how many Intermediate certificate files (.crts) will need to be specified in the Apache configuration file? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

A.One

B. Two

C. Three

D. None

Ans: A

17. Where are the Apache log files located by default? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

A.C:Program FilesApache Software FoundationApache2.2log

B. C:Program FilesApache Software FoundationApache2.2htdocs

C. C:Program FilesApache Software FoundationApache2.2conf

D.C:Program FilesApache Software FoundationApache2.2logs

Ans: D

18. What’s the location of log files for Apache server? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

A. /deck/log/httpd

B. /var/log/httpd

C. /drive/log/httpd

D. /location/log/httpd

Ans: B

19. What’s the Comamnd to check the version of Apache server? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

A. rpm -qa |grep | version http|

B. rpm –qa |grep httpd

C. rpm -qa |check http | version

D. rpm -qa |grep http | version

Ans: B

20. Does Apache act as Proxy server? | Apachi Webserver Mcqs

A. can’t be determined

B. Yes, by default

C. yes,using mod_proxy module.

D. No

Ans: C

21. Apache server works on which ports?

A. http – port 80 only

B. Both http – port 80 and https – port 443

C. https – port 443 only

D. none of these

Ans: B

22. How do you change the default web root?

A. Change the DocumentRoot in httpd.server file.

B. change the DocumentRoot n httpd.admin file.

C. change the DocumentRoot in httpd.root file.

D. change the DocumentRoot in httpd.conf file.

Ans: D

23. What’s the command to stop Apache?

A. apachectl -k exit /etc/init.d/apache2 exit (Linux)

B. apachectl -k run /etcfiit.d/apache2 stop (Linux)

C. apachectl -k interact /etc/init.d/apache2 stop (Linux)

D. apachectl -k stop /etc/init.d/apache2 stop(Linux)

Ans: D

24. Which of the following is true about the Apache HTTP server?

A. can be customised by writing ‘modules’ using the Apache module API

B. is a powerful flexible, HTTP/1.1 compliant web server

C. All of these

D. implements the latest protocols, including KTTP/1.1 (RFC2616)

Ans: C

25. If you specify both deny from all and allow from all, what will be the default action of Apache?

A. Can’t be determined

B. Only allow will be performed.

C. Deny always takes precedence over allow

D. Allow always takes precedence over deny.

Ans: C

26. What’s the command to Restart Apache?

A. apachectl -k restart /etc/init.d/apache2 system

B. apachectl –k restart /etc/init.d/apache2 restart

C. apachectl -k run /etc/init.d/apache2 restartsystem

D. apachectl -k perform /etc/init.d/apache2 restart

Ans: B

27. htpasswd:

A. it creates a new user

B. None of these

C. asks to specify a password for that user

D. Both it creates a new user and asks to specify a password for that user

Ans: D

28. To cause the Web server to work around the NFS locking limitations, include a line such as the following in your server configuration files:

A. None of these

B. Lockfile /var/run/apache-lock

C. SetFile/var/run/apache-access

D. CreateFile /var/run/apache-startup

Ans: B

Best SharePoint Objective Questions and Answers

SharePoint Objective Questions Pdf Download for Exam SharePoint MCQs. These objective type SharePoint questions are very important for campus placement test and job interviews. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many IT companies.

1.What are the Correct statements about Configuration Database in SharePoint 2007.

A. Every Web Application has its own Configuration DB.

B. A Farm can have only a single config DB.

C. All the servers in a same farm are registered in the same Config DB.

D. A Config DB is created after running the Configuration WizarD.

Ans:  B,C

2.Select the correct SQL Server Database versions which can be used for SharePoint Installation.

A. SQL Server 2008

B. SQL Server 2005

C. SQL Server 2000 with SP1

D. SQL Server 2000 with SP3a

Ans:  A,B

 

3. Select the correct software configuration combination which can be used to install SharePoint 2007. 

A. .NET 2.0 with Windows XP

B. .NET 2.0 , Windows Server 2003 Enterprise (SP1), IIS 6.0

C. .NET 2.0 , Windows Server 2003 , IIS 5.0

D. .NET 2.0 , Windows Server 2003 Standard (SP1), IIS 6.0

Ans:  B,D

 

4. Select the correct activities happening while doing the SharePoint Installation (Multiple Select).

A. IIS modification happens during running the Configuration WizarD. 

B. IIS modification happens during installing the SharePoint Server.

C. A Web Application is created to host Central Administration while running the Configuration WizarD. 

D. A Config DB is created for the SharePoint Farm while running the Configuration WizarD.

Ans:  A,C

 

5. Choose the correct options regarding SharePoint Installation.

A. Selecting Basic & Stand Alone mode allows to install SharePoint Server with SQL Server Express Edition.

B. Web Front End also install the Shared Services on the machine.

C. We can not choose Web Front End mode while installing SharePoint for a Server until we have a Complete installation on one server in the farm. 

D. Complete Installation allows to add/remove servers from the farm. 

Ans:  A,C

 

6. Adding a server to provide only Excel Services to an existing SharePoint Farm,what kind of installation we need to perform on the Server.

A. Basic

B. StandAlone

C. Web Front End

D. Complete

Ans:  D

 

7. To add a server to an existing SharePoint Farm which serves only as web front End machine, what kind of installation we can perform.

A. Basic

B. StandAlone

C. Web Front End

D. Complete

Ans:  C,D

 

8. Following Databases are created after the successful completion of the configuring wizard in SharePoint 

A. Cofig DB for the SharePoint Farm

B. SSP Content DB

C. Content DB for the Central Admin

D. Config DB for the Central Admin

Ans:  A,C

 

9. Select correct statements regarding the changes in IIS during the installation and configuration of SharePoint 2007.

A. No changes were made to IIS during the installation of SharePoint Server 2007

B. 2 Application pools are created in IIS after the Configuration Wizard

C. The Central Administration Web site was created using the SharePoint Central Administration 3.0 application pool.

D. The Central Administration Web site was created using the OfficeServerApplicationPool application pool.

Ans:  A,B,C

 

10. Name the two application pool accounts which are created after successful completion of configuration Wizard of SharePoint 2007.

A. SharePoint Central Administration 3.0

B. SharePointServerApplicationPool

C. OfficeServerApplicationPool

D. SharePoint Administration 3.0

Ans:  A,C

 

11. Choose the correct statements about Variations used in SharePoint 2007 .

A. For Variation to work Office SharePoint Server Publishing Infrastructure should be activateD.

B. Variation changes the content into the specified language while copying into the target site. 

C. For content to be pushed from source to target, it must share a content type

D. Variation can copy the data from target site to parent site.

Ans:  A,C

 

12. Select the correct combination for the available features and the SharePoint Server License Type.

A. Standard – Excel Service

B. Enterprise – Excel Service

C. Enterprise – Report Service

D. Standard – InfoPath Forms Services

Ans:  B,C

 

13.Name the three stages of Quiescing in SharePoint 2007 

A. Normal 

B. Quiescing 

C. Dequiesced 

D. Quiesced

Ans:  A,B

 

14. What are the correct statement with the Feature Installation/Activation in SharePoint

A. Feature can only be Installed through STSADM commands

B. Feature can be Installed through Central Administration 

C. Feature needs to be deactivated from SharePoint side where it is activated, before uninstalling the Feature

D. Feature can be uninstalled through STSADM Commands as well from Central Administration

Ans:  A,C

 

15. Choose the Correct steps required to deploy a feature in SharePoint 

A. Create a Folder in C.Program FilesCommon Filesmicrosoft sharedWeb Server Extensions12TEMPLATEFEATURES 

B. Create a Folder in C.Program FilesCommon Filesmicrosoft sharedWeb Server Extensions12binFEATURES 

C. Create a Feature.xml file in the Feature Folder Created

D. Use Central Administration to Install the Feature

Ans:  A,C

 

16. What is the Database which get created when we install WSS keeping all the defaults while installing

A. SQL Server 2000 Compact Edition

B. SQL Server 2005 Embedded Edition

C. SQL Server 2000 Embedded Edition

D. SQL Server 2005 Compact Edition

Ans:  B

 

17. What kind of Site Template we need to select for the site collection on the Destination Server Farm to receive the initial deployment job while using Content Deployment Feature in SharePoint 2007.

A. Publishing Template

B. Team Site

C. Blank

D. Any Template can be used

Ans:  C

 

18. Select the Information Management Policy which is not available in SharePoint 2007 by default.

A. Labels

B. Auditing

C. Archiving

D. Barcode

Ans:  C

 

19. Select the wrong STSADM commands related to Solution Deployment in SharePoint 2007.

A. stsadm -o addsolution -filename SampleSolution.wsp

B. stsadm -o deploysolution -name SampleSolution.wsp

C. stsadm -o retractsolution -name SampleSolution.wsp

D. stsadm -o removesolution -name SampleSolution.wsp

Ans:  D

 

20. When we take the Content DB associated with a web application to Offline status what effect it has on the sites in SharePoint 2007.

A. User can not browse any site collection created in the content dB.

B. No New further site collection can be created in this content dB.

C. No new sub sites can be created in the site collections already created in this content db

D. No modification can be made in the site collections associated with the content db and they become read only.

Ans:  B

 

21. Which of them is not the Core Upgrade methods to migrate from SharePoint 2003 to Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007.

A. InPlace Upgrade

B. Gradual Upgrade 

C. OutPlace Upgrade

D. Content DB Migration

Ans:  C

 

22. You are planning to migrate from WSS 2.0 to WSS 3.0. What are the correct migration path which are possible. 

A. WSS 2.0 to Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007

B. WSS 2.0 to WSS 3.0

C. SharePoint Portal Server 2003 to Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007

D. Content Management Server to Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007

Ans:  B,C

 

23. Which Information Management Policy does not come OOB with SharePoint 2007.

A. Labels

B. Expiration

C. Barcodes 

D. Deletion

Ans:  D

 

24. While enabling Diagnostic Logging in Event Log what are the levels which are available which can be reported . 

A. Error

B. Unexpected

C. Warning 

D. Audit Failure

Ans:  A,C

 

25. While enabling Diagnostic Logging in Trace Log what is the levels which is not available which can be reporteD. 

A. Verbose

B. Medium

C. High 

D. Information

Ans:  D

 

26. What are the correct statements regarding Recycle Bin in the SharePoint 2007.

A. There are two level of Recycle Bin in SharePoint 2007.

B. We can turn off both stage Recycle Bin through Central Admin.

C. We can turn off only only second stage Recycle Bin through Central Admin.

D. Once the Recycle Bin status is turned off all the deleted items in the recycle bin are permanently deleted

Ans:  A,B,C

 

27. Select the correct server roles which we can have on different Servers in a Microsoft Office SharePoint 2007 Farm . 

A. Index Server

B. Forms Server

C. Query Server

D. Excel Calculation Server

Ans:  A,C,D

 

28. What is the new STSADM command which is introduced with SP2 release of SharePoint Server 2007.

A. Preupgradedetail

B. Preupgrademetod

C. Preupgradecheck

D. No new command has been introduced with SP2 pack

Ans:  C

 

29. Select the correct objects for which the Change Log feature in SharePoint tracks the changes .

A. Binary deployment

B. List metadata

C. List Items

D. Web Parts

Ans:  B,C

 

30. Which is not the correct version of CAL (Client Access License) available for SharePoint Server.

A. Office SharePoint Server 2007 Standard Edition

B. Windows SharePoint Services 3.0

C. Office SharePoint Server 2007 Enterprise Edition

D. Office SharePoint Server 2007 Developer Edition

Ans:  C

 

31. Following statements are correct for the domain account that is used to deploy SharePoint 2007..

A. Account should be local administrator on the Web servers

B. Account should be added as in the dbcreator role of SQL Server

C. Account should be added as in the securityadmin role of SQL Server

D. Added in the db_owner role in the master database in SQL Server

Ans:  A,B,C

 

32. Which is the user account SharePoint uses to access the configuration database or the content database for the Central Administration site.

A. The Farm Administrator Account

B. The Site Collection Administrator for the Central Administration Site

C. The System account configured as the identity of the application pool 

D. The domain account that is used to deploy SharePoint

Ans:  C

 

33.What are correct statements about the Managed Path in SharePoint 2007 

A. Managed Path can be created of type “Wildcard Inclusion”

B. Managed Path can be created of type “Explicit Inclusion”

C. Managed Path are created at Web Application Level

D. Managed Path are created at Farm Level

Ans:  A,B

 

34.Following type of content sources can be crawled by default in SharePoint 2007

A. SharePoint Sites

B. Web Sites

C. File Share

D. Exchange Public Folder

Ans:  A,B,C,D

 

35. Select the correct caching which is available in SharePoint 2007 

A. Output Caching

B. Object Caching

C. Disk Based Caching

D. Page Caching

Ans:  A,B,C

 

36. Select the correct statements. 

A. BUILTINAdministrators is a member of the Farm Administrators group by default

B. BUILTINAdministrators is not a member of the Farm Administrators group by default

C. By default Farm Administrators are Site Collection Administrators for all the site collections in the farm.

D. By default Farm Administrators are not the Site Collection Administrators for all the site collections in the farm.

Ans:  A,D

 

37. The acronym WSS stands for what?

A. Windows Sharepoint Services

B. Windows Services Sharepoint

C. Windows Solid State

D. Windows Solely Solid

Ans: A

 

38. To stop the OWS Timer what is the best command to run?

A. StopServiceOnDeveloperVPC.cmd

B. StopServicesOnDeveloperVPC.cmd

C. StopServicesOnDevVPC.cmd

D. StopOnDeveloperVPC.cmd

Ans: B

 

39. The 12 Hive is found in WSS v3 in what location?

A. %CommonProgramFiles%Microsoft SharedWeb Server extensions15

B. %CommonProgramFiles%Microsoft SharedWeb Server extensions12

C. %CommonProgramFiles%Microsoft SharedWeb Server extensions10

D. %CommonProgramFiles%Microsoft SharedWeb Server extensions21

Ans: B

 

40. A farm is made-up of one or more what?

A. Web commands

B. Web systems

C. Web services

D. Web applications

Ans: D

 

41. In Sharepoint 2007 when in the template selection wizard – what two tabs are MOSS only options?

A. Enterprise and Development

B. Enterprise and Wiki

C. Blog and Development

D. Colloboration and Development

Ans: A

 

42. The top level web site in a site collection is what?

A. The root

B. The nest

C. The parent

D. The top

Ans: C

 

43. In Sharepoint 2007 – to create a web application you would use what?

A. The Sharepoint 2.0 Central Administration Site

B. The Sharepoint 3.0 Local Administration Site

C. The Sharepoint 3.0 Central Administration Site

D. The Microsoft 3.15 Central Administration Site

Ans: C

 

44. A site collection is called an?

A. SPSite

B. GPSite

C. DPSite

D. APSite

Ans: A

 

45. WSS v3 introduced what?

A. Data columns and site columns

B. Content types and site columns

C. Content types and directed lookup columns

D. Content types and wiki columns

Ans: B

 

46. All web sites and workspaces below the parent site are called what?

A. Child web sites

B. Parent web sites

C. Fortified web sites

D. Vertical web sites

Ans: A

 

47. Using Powershell in Sharepoint 2010 which command is best to use for listing all sites on a farm?

A. Catch-SPSite

B. Get-SSite

C. Get-SPSite

D. Get-Spite

Ans: C

 

48. In Powershell 2010 what is the best cmdlet to discover commands?

A. Get-Help

B. Get-Command

C. Help-Command

D. Get-Educate

Ans: A

 

49. What are two new features in Sharepoint 2010?

A. Document Refernce and document

B. Document ID’s and document sets

C. Document objects and document sets

D. Document ID’s and document parts

Ans: B

 

50. This tool helps with Metadata groups?

A. The term store management stool

B. The term store management bool

C. The term store management tool

D. The term store management fool

Ans: C

 

51. In Sharepoint 2010 these are three search center templates?

A. Enterprise Center, Basic Center, Fast Center

B. Enterprise Search Center, Basic Search Center, Fast Search Center

C. Search Center, Search Center2, Search Center3

D. Enterprise Search Center, Canvas Search Center, Blinky Search Center

Ans: B

 

52. Settings for managed properties can be configured programatically using what?

A. Microsoft.Office.Server.Search.Administration.Managed property class

B. Microsoft.Office.Sever.Search.Administration.Managed property class

C. Microsoft.Office.Server.Arch.Administration.Managed property class

D. Microsoft.Location.Server.Search.Administration.Managed property class

Ans: A

 

53. A web service used for connections?

A. officefile.asmx

B. officialsmile.asmx

C. officefiles.asmx

D. officialfile.asmx

Ans: D

 

54. A list can support how many list items in Sharepoint 2010?

A. 80 million items

B. 70 million items

C. 60 million items

D. 50 million items

Ans: D

 

55. The Powershell command to list the shell administrator?

A. Get-SpShellAdmin

B. Get-ShellAdmin

C. Get-SAdmin

D. Get-ShShellAdmin

Ans: A

 

56. The Powershell command to access farm configurations?

A. Get-Spfarm

B. Get-SPFarmConfig

C. Get-SFarm

D. Get-ShFarmAdmin

Ans: B

 

57. What command best describes how to enable Kerberos?

A. cscript c:inetpubadminadsulti.vbs set W3SVC//root/NTAuthentication Providers “Negotiate, NTLM”

B. cscript c:inetpubadmin scriptsadsulti.vbs set W3SVC//root/NTAuthentication Providers “Negotiate, NTLM”

C. cscript c:inetpubadmin scriptsadsutil.vbs set W3SVC//root/NTAuthentication Providers “Negotiate, NTLM”

D. script c:inetpubadmin scriptsadsulti.vbs set W3SVC//root/NTAuthentication Providers “Negotiate, NTLM”

Ans: C

 

58. What command best describes how blocked file types can be managed from the command line?

A. stsadm -o blockedlist -extension – [add/delete]

B. stsadm -o blockedfilelist -extension – [add/delete]

C. stsadm -o blockedfilelist -ext – [add/delete]

D. stsadm -b blockedfilelist -extension – [add/delete]

Ans: B

 

59. What best describes the visitors group?

A. Should have read only access

B. Should have contribute access

C. Should have execute access

D. Should have zero access

Ans: A

 

60. What best describes the members group?

A. Has read access by default

B. Has delete rights by default

C. Has contributor rights by default

D. Has zero rights by default

Ans: C

 

61. What port is typically are used for SMB (Server Message Block)?

A. 445

B. 446

C. 447

D. 448

Ans: A

 

61. What ports are typically used for NetBios?

A. 134,135,136,137

B. 135,137,138,139

C. 135,138,139,140

D. 140,141,142,143

Ans: B

 

62. What ports are typically used for SQL Server?

A. 1431 and 1432

B. 1430 and 1435

C. 1436 and 1439

D. 1433 and 1434

Ans: D

 

63. What command best describes the way to change a TCP port?

A. stsadm -o setadminport -port

B. stsadm -t setadminport -port

C. stsadm -o setport -port

D. stsadm -o port -port

Ans: A

 

64. What best describes how to obtain permission levels?

A. Site hashing -> site settings -> users and permissions -> advanced permissions

B. Site actions -> site rightings -> users and permissions -> advanced permissions

C. Site actions -> site settings -> users and permissions -> advanced permissions

D. Site actions -> site settings -> users -> advanced Permissions

Ans: C

 

65. What best describes the security trimmed user interface (UI)?

A. Disallow users from viewing lists, documents and options not available to them

B. Allow users from viewing lists, documents and options not available to them

C. Disallow users from viewing pages, documents and pages not available to them

D. Disallow admins from viewing lists, documents and options not available to them

Ans: A

 

66. What best describes the search database?

A. Hosts lists – mainly of metadata and crawl histories

B. Hosts content – mainly of metadata and crawl histories

C. Hosts content – mainly of metadeals and crawl histories

D. Hosts a combo – mainly of metadata and crawl Histories

Ans: B

 

67. What best describes a user profile element?

A. firstname, lastname, name, personal site information, primary active directory account, customizable fields

B. firstname, personal site information, primary active directory account, customizable fields

C. firstname, primary active directory account, customizable fields

D. firstname, lastname, customizable fields

Ans: A

 

68. What best describes the full import schedule?

A. Usually only run after changing the access source or admin account

B. Usually only run after changing the admin account or source

C. Usually only run after changing the access account or source

D. Usually only run after deleting the access account or source

Ans: C

 

69. What best describes an audience?

A. A way to present information to users by targeting

B. A way to display information to users by targeting

C. A way to prevent coding to users by targeting

D. A way to present information to users by targeting

Ans: D

 

70. What is the best way to view the import log?

A. Shared administration -> user profiles and properties -> view import log

B. Shared services adminsitration -> properties -> view import log

C. Shared services administration -> user profiles and properties -> view import logs

D. Shared services adminsitration -> user profiles and properties -> view import log

Ans:  D

 

71. What best describes the SSP?

A. Shared Services Provider

B. Shared Shovel Provider

C. Session Services Provider

D. Shared Surefire Provider

Ans: A

 

72. What best describes modifying user profiles?

A. Shared self serve administration -> user profilesand my sites -> user profiles and properties

B. Shared services administration -> user profiles and my sites -> user profiles and properties

C. Shared services administration -> user pros and my sites -> user profiles and properties

D. Shared services administration -> user profiles and my highlights -> user profiles and properties

Ans: B

 

73. What best describes the office sharepoint usage reporting enable?

A. Central administration -> ops -> logging and reporting ->usage analysis processing

B. Central administration -> operations -> logs and reporting ->usage analysis processing

C. Central administration -> operations -> logging and reporting ->usage analysis processing

D. Central administration -> operations -> logging and reports ->usage analysis processing

Ans: C

 

74. What best describes where all profile property policies can be managed?

A. Shared services administration -> user profiles and mysites -> profile services policies

B. Shared services administration -> user pros and mysites -> profile services policies

C. Shared services administration -> user profiles and mysites -> profile services police

D. Shared serving administration -> user profiles and mysites -> profile services policies

Ans: A

 

75. What best describes the string property type?

A. Cannot be longer then a combination of 200 characters

B. Cannot be longer then a combination of 300 characters

C. Cannot be longer then a combination of 400 characters

D. Cannot be longer then a combination of 500 Characters

Ans: C

 

76. What best describes starting the Sharepoint Designer?

A. Start -> all programs -> microsoft off -> microsoft office sharepoint designer 2007 -> connect to the

sharepoint site -> file -> open file 

B. Start -> all programs -> microsoft office -> microsoft office sharepoint designer 2007 -> connect to the sharepoint site -> file -> open file

C. Start -> all programs -> microsoft office -> microsoft office sharepoint designer -> connect to the sharepoint site -> fizzle -> open file

D. Start -> microsoft office -> microsoft office sharepoint designer 2007 -> connect to the sharepoint site -> file -> open file

Ans: B

 

77. What are display modes of Sharepoint Designer 2007?

A. Design, Code, Split

B. Design, Code, Spit

C. Design, Ode, Split

D. Sign, Code, Split

Ans: A

 

78. The content of a MOSS site is stored in what?

A. A page file

B. A pig file

C. A pog file

D. A snap file

Ans: A

 

79. The content of a WSS site is built upon what?

A. Shared default.asp file

B. Shared default.as file

C. Shared default.spx file

D. Shared default.aspx file

Ans: D

 

80. What best describes a backup of a website in Sharepoint Designer 2007?

A. Open sit -> site -> administration -> backup web site

B. Open site -> site -> backup web site

C. Open site -> site -> administration -> backup web site

D. Open site -> site -> admin -> backin web site 

Ans: C

 

81. What is the best stsadm command to create an empty site?

A. stsadm -c createweb -url

B. stsadm -o createweb -url

C. stsadm -o web -url

D. stsadm -o createweb -uri

Ans: B

 

82. A smartpage is another name for what?

A. Web page

B. Web section page

C. Web part page

D. Web admin page

Ans: C

 

83. What best describes unghosted sites, they are produced by what?

A. Customized by sharepoint deco

B. Customized by sharepoint 2001

C. Customized by sharepoint 2003

D. Customized by sharepoint designer

Ans: D

 

84. What keyword in onet.xml files is used to prohibit a site page from being editied by Sharepoint Designer?

A. DisableDesignFeatures

B. DisableWebDesignFeatures

C. DisableFeatures

D. DisableWebDesignedFeatures

Ans: B

 

85. What best describes ghosted sites?

A. Default way that page definitions work

B. Default way that sight definitions work

C. Default way that site arguments work

D. Default way that site definitions work

Ans: D