250+ TOP MCQs on Exhaustive Algorithms and Answers

Bioinformatics Multiple Choice Questions on “Exhaustive Algorithms”.

1. Related sequences are identified through the database similarity searching and as the process generates multiple matching sequence pairs, it is often necessary to convert the numerous pair wise alignments into a single alignment.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: A natural extension of pair wise alignment is multiple sequence alignment, which is to align multiple related sequences to achieve optimal matching of the sequences. Related sequences are identified through the database similarity searching. As the process generates multiple matching sequence pairs, it is often necessary to convert the numerous pair wise alignments into a single alignment, which arranges sequences in such a way that evolutionarily equivalent positions across all sequences are matched.

2. There is a unique advantage of multiple sequence alignment because it reveals more biological information than many pair wise alignments can.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: It is truly an advantage of multiple sequence alignment. For example, it allows the identification of conserved sequence patterns and motifs in the whole sequence family, which are not obvious to detect by comparing only two sequences.

3. Which of the following cannot be related to multiple sequence alignment?
A. Many conserved and functionally critical amino acid residues can be identified in a protein multiple alignment
B. Multiple sequence alignment is also an essential prerequisite to carrying out phylogenetic analysis of sequence families and prediction of protein secondary and tertiary structures
C. Multiple sequence alignment also has applications in designing degenerate polymerase chain reaction (PCR) primers based on multiple related sequences
D. This method does not contribute much to degenerate polymerase chain reaction (PCR) primers creation

Answer: D
Explanation: In practice, heuristic approaches are most often used. Multiple sequence alignment has applications in designing degenerate (PCR) primers based on multiple related sequences.

4. The scoring function for multiple sequence alignment is based on the concept of sum of pairs (SP).
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: Multiple sequence alignment is to arrange sequences in such a way that a maximum number of residues from each sequence are matched up according to a particular scoring function and is based on the concept of sum of pairs (SP). As the name suggests, it is the sum of the scores of all possible pairs of sequences in a multiple alignment based on a particular scoring matrix.

5. Which of the following scores are not considered while calculating the SP scores?
A. All possible pair wise matches
B. All possible mismatches
C. All possible gap costs
D. Number of gap penalties

Answer: D
Explanation: In calculating the SP scores, each column is scored by summing the scores for all possible pair wise matches, mismatches and gap costs. The score of the entire alignment is the sum of all of the column scores. The score of the entire alignment is the sum of all of the column scores. In that case, option d becomes irrelevant choice here.

6. Given a multiple alignment of three sequences, the sum of scores is calculated as the sum of the dissimilarity scores of every pair of sequences at each position.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: Given a multiple alignment of three sequences, the sum of scores is calculated as the sum of the similarity scores of every pair of sequences at each position. The scoring is based on the BLOSUM62 matrix. If the total score for the alignment is 5, which means that the alignment is 25 = 32 times more likely to occur among homologous sequences than by random chance.

7. There are two approaches viz. exhaustive and heuristic approaches used in multiple sequence alignment.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: The exhaustive alignment method involves examining all possible aligned positions simultaneously. Similar to dynamic programming in pair wise alignment, which involves the use of a two-dimensional matrix to search for an optimal alignment, to use dynamic programming for multiple sequence alignment, extra dimensions are needed to take all possible ways of sequence matching into consideration.

8. In a multidimensional search matrix, for aligning N sequences, an (N+2)-dimensional matrix is needed to be filled with alignment scores.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: In a multidimensional search matrix, for aligning N sequences, an N-dimensional matrix is needed to be filled with alignment scores. For instance, for three sequences, a three-dimensional matrix is required to account for all possible alignment scores. Back-tracking is applied through the three-dimensional matrix to find the highest scored path that represents the optimal alignment.

9. As the amount of computational time and memory space required increases exponentially with the number of sequences, it makes the multidimensional search matrix method computationally prohibitive to use for a large data set.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: This is indeed the drawback of that method. For this reason, full dynamic programming is limited to small datasets of less than ten short sequences. For the same reason, few multiple alignment programs employing this “brute force” approach are publicly available.

10. Which of the following is untrue about DCA?
A. It stands for Divide-and-Conquer Alignment
B. It works by breaking each of the sequences into two smaller sections
C. The breaking points during the process are determined based on regional similarity of the sequences
D. If the sections are not short enough, further divisions are restricted as well

Answer: D
Explanation: This is a web-based program that is in fact semi exhaustive because certain steps of computation are reduced to heuristics. If the sections are not short enough, further divisions are carried out. When the lengths of the sequences reach a predefined threshold, dynamic programming is applied for aligning each set of subsequences. The resulting short alignments are joined together head to tail to yield a multiple alignment of the entire length of all sequences.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Ab Initio Approach and Answers

Bioinformatics Multiple Choice Questions on “Ab Initio Approach”.

1. In dot matrix in ab initio methods, the diagonals _____________ to the main diagonal represent regions that can self hybridize.
A. parallel
B. cutting in random fashion
C. perpendicular
D. adjacent parallel

Answer: c
Explanation: The diagonals perpendicular to the main diagonal represent regions that can self hybridize to form double-stranded structure with traditional A–U and G–C base pairs. In reality, the pattern detection in a dot matrix is often obscured by high noise levels.

2. In dot matrix in ab initio methods, one way to reduce the noise in the matrix is to select an appropriate window size of a maximum number of contiguous base matches.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: To reduce the noise in the matrix is to select an appropriate window size of a minimum number of contiguous base matches. Normally, only a window size of four consecutive base matches is used. If the dot plot reveals more than one feasible structure, the lowest energy one is chosen.

3. In dynamic programming, in ab initio methods, the use of a dot plot can be effective in finding a ____ secondary structure in a ________ molecule.
A. multiple, large
B. single, large
C. single, small
D. multiple, small

Answer: c
Explanation: Mostly, The use of a dot plot can be effective in finding a single secondary structure in a small Molecule. However, if a large molecule contains multiple secondary structure segments, choosing a combination that is energetically most stable among a large number of possibilities can be a daunting task.

4. In ab initio methods, a quantitative approach such as dynamic programming can be used to assemble a final structure with optimal base-paired regions.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: In this approach, an RNA sequence is compared with itself. A scoring scheme is applied to fill the matrix with match scores based on Watson–Crick base complementarity.

5. In dynamic programming, in ab initio methods, Often ________ base pairing and energy terms of the base pairing _____ incorporated into the scoring process.
A. G-C, are
B. G–U, are not
C. G–U, are also
D. G-C, are not

Answer: c
Explanation: Although the traditional structure comprises of A–U and G–C base pairs, G-U base pairing is incorporated into the scoring process. A path with the maximal score within a scoring matrix after taking into account the entire sequence information represents the most probable secondary structure form.

6. The dynamic programming method produces ____ structure with _____ score.
A. one, single best
B. multiple, single best
C. multiple, multiple
D. single, multiple

Answer: A
Explanation: However, this is potentially a drawback of this approach. In reality an RNA may exist in multiple alternative forms with near minimum energy but not necessarily the one with maximum base pairs.

7. The problem of dynamic programming to select one single structure can be complemented by adding a probability distribution function, known as the _________ which calculates a mathematical distribution of probable base pairs in thermodynamic equilibrium.
A. partition function
B. division function
C. increment function
D. fold function

Answer: A
Explanation: This function helps to select a number of suboptimal structures within a certain energy range. The MFOLD and RNAFold are two well-known programs using the ab initio prediction method.

8. Which of the following is correct about MFOLD?
A. It uses the dynamic programming only
B. It uses the thermodynamic calculations only
C. It uses the both dynamic programming and thermodynamic calculations as well
D. It doesn’t take into account the themoststablility of the secondary structures

Answer: B
Explanation: It is a web-based program for RNA secondary structure prediction. It combines dynamic programming and thermodynamic calculations for identifying themostable secondary structures with the lowest energy. It also produces dot plots coupled with energy terms. This method is reliable for short sequences but becomes less accurate as the sequence length increases.

9. Like Mfold, RNAfold only examines the energy terms of the optimal alignment in a dot plot.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation: It is one of the web programs in the Vienna package. Unlike Mfold, which only examines the energy terms of the optimal alignment in a dot plot, RNAfold extends the sequence alignment to the vicinity of the optimal diagonals to calculate thermodynamic stability of alternative structures.

10. Which of the following about the RNAFold is incorrect?
A. It extends the sequence alignment to the vicinity of the optimal diagonals to calculate thermodynamic stability of alternative structures
B. It incorporates a partition function
C. It doesn’t necessarily use a partition function
D. It aims to select a number of statistically most probable structures in one of its steps

Answer: c
Explanation: Based on both thermodynamic calculations and the partition function, a number of alternative structures that may be suboptimal are provided. The collection of the predicted structures may provide a better estimate of plausible foldings of an RNA molecule than the predictions by Mfold.

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300+ TOP MCQs on Categories of Ligation Reaction and Answers

Genetic Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Categories of Ligation Reaction”.

1. Ligation is defined as ______________
a) Alignment of only double stranded DNA molecules at the ends and the formation of phosphodiester bonds between both the strands
b) Alignment of either of the double or single stranded DNA molecules and formation of glycosidic bonds between both the strands
c) Alignment of either of the double or single stranded DNA molecules and the formation of phosphodiester bonds. The bond can be between either one or both the strands
d) Alignment of single stranded DNA molecules and formation of glycosidic bonds between these strands
Answer: c
Explanation: Ligation is basically the formation of bonds between the ends of two DNA strands. The strands can be single or double. The nature of the bond is phosphodiester, which means that bond is formed between sugar and phosphate. The phosphodiester bond can either be formed between one strand or both the strands.

2. If only one bond is broken in the sugar-phosphate backbone, it is called as ___________
a) gap
b) nick
c) break
d) leakage
Answer: b
Explanation: In the case, if only one bond is broken in the sugar phosphate backbone, it is termed as nick. If a number of nucleotides are missing, it is termed a gap. Nick can be sealed by ligation reactions but gap can’t be sealed by a ligation reaction.

3. How many categories of ligation reaction are there on the basis of ends created?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two categories of ligation reaction and are named as blunt-ended and sticky ended reaction. They are named because of the nature of the ends of the molecules to be ligated.

4. In the case of blunt-end ligation, blunt ends can be generated by ___________
a) simply the action of restriction endonuclease which gives straight ends
b) the polishing of staggered ends
c) both the action of restriction endonuclease which gives straight ends and polishing of staggered ends
d) by the action of restriction endonuclease which gives staggered ends
Answer: c
Explanation: Blunt ends are those which don’t have single stranded ends as overhangs. The ends are double stranded. And these can be generated by polishing the staggered ends or the action of restriction endonuclease which generate straight ends.

5. The ligation reaction is more efficient in which case?
a) Blunt end ligation
b) Sticky end ligation
c) Both have the same efficiency
d) Depends on the reaction conditions
Answer: b
Explanation: Sticky end ligation is generally more efficient than blunt end ligation. It is so because sticky end ligation is carried out because of complementary base pairing.

6. The sticky ends are held together by which type of bonds?
a) Hydrogen bond
b) Covalent bond
c) Ionic bond
d) Van-der-waal forces
Answer: a
Explanation: The sticky ends are held together by the hydrogen bonds. Hydrogen bonds are weak in nature and can easily be broken.

7. Why sticky ended ligations are carried out at temperatures lower than room temperature?
a) It is so because the vibrational and kinetic energy of the molecules at room temperature is lower than that of the energy required to break the bonds holding the ends
b) The energy required to break the bonds holding the ends is very less than that of the kinetic and vibrational energy at room temperature
c) The enzyme carrying out ligation is unstable at low temperature
d) The sticky ends created, don’t just relegate at low temperature
Answer: a
Explanation: The sticky ends are held together by the hydrogen bonds. These hydrogen bonds are weak in nature and the energy required to break them is very less than the kinetic and vibrational energy of the molecules at room temperature. Hence the reaction is carried at 4 degrees.

8. Ligation reaction can be both intramolecular and intermolecular in nature.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Ligation reaction can be both intramolecular and intermolecular in nature. The intermolecular reaction is that which ends ligated are of two different molecules. The intramolecular ligation is that which ends ligated belong to the same molecule.

9. If a ligation reaction is being carried out and recircularization is observed, which type of reaction is being carried out?
a) Intramolecular
b) Intermolecular
c) Both observe recircularization equally
d) Recirculation is not possible in any of the cases
Answer: a
Explanation: Recircularization is the phenomenon of joining the ends of the same molecule. It happens in the case of intramolecular ligation reaction.

10. What is the kinetics of the intramolecular and intermolecular ligation reactions?
a) Second order kinetics for intramolecular and first order for intermolecular
b) First order kinetics for intramolecular and second order for intermolecular
c) Both are first order
d) Both are second order
Answer: b
Explanation: As the intramolecular reaction requires only the type of reaction species, the reaction is first order.Whereas, on the other hand intermolecular reaction requires collision between two different species and hence it is second order reaction.

11. What are the effects of increasing concentration of reaction components?
a) It increases chances of ligation in both intramolecular and intermolecular reactions
b) It increases chances of ligation only in intermolecular and no effect on intramolecular
c) It decreases chances of ligation in intramolecular and increases in that of intermolecular
d) It decreases chances of ligation in both types of reaction
Answer: b
Explanation: As the concentration of reaction components is increased, there are increased chances of ligation in intermolecular reaction because of frequency of collision of two different molecules increases. The intramolecular reaction is unaffected because the probability of meeting the ends of a molecule remains the same.

250+ TOP MCQs on Assessing the Significance of Sequence Alignments and Answers

Bioinformatics Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “Assessing the Significance of Sequence Alignments”.

1. On analysis of the alignment scores of random sequences will reveal that the scores follow a different distribution than the normal distribution called the _________
A. Gumbel equal value distribution
B. Gumbel extreme value distribution
C. Gumbel end value distribution
D. Gumbel distribution

Answer: B
Explanation: Originally, the significance of sequence alignment scores was evaluated on the basis of the assumption that alignment scores followed a normal statistical distribution. If sequences are randomly generated in a computer by a Monte Carlo or sequence shuffling method, as in generating a sequence by picking marbles representing four bases or 20 amino acids out of a bag, the distribution may look normal at first glance. But on further analysis the above result was obtained.

2. The statistical analysis of alignment scores is much better understood for ________ than for _______
A. global alignments, local alignments
B. local alignments, global alignments
C. global alignments, any other alignment method
D. Needleman-Wunsch alignment, Smith-Waterman alignment

Answer: B
Explanation: Smith-Waterman alignment algorithm and the scoring system used to produce a local alignment are designed to reveal regions of closely matching sequence with a positive alignment score. In random or unrelated sequence alignments, these regions are rarely found. Hence, their presence in real sequence alignments is significant, and the probability of their occurring by chance alignment of unrelated sequences can be readily calculated.

3. When random or unrelated sequences are compared using a global alignment method, they can have ____________ reflecting the tendency of the global algorithm to match as many characters as possible.
A. very low scores
B. very high scores
C. moderate scores
D. low scores

Answer: B
Explanation: The significance of the scores of global alignments, is more difficult to determine. Using the Needleman-Wunsch algorithm and a suitable scoring system, there are many ways to produce a global alignment between any pair of sequences, and the scores of many different alignments may be quite similar hence the scores obtained might be unusually high.

4. Which of the following are not related to Needleman-Wunsch alignment algorithm?
A. Global alignment programs use this algorithm
B. The output is a positive number
C. Small changes in the scoring system can produce a different alignment
D. Changes in the scoring system can produce the same alignment

Answer: D
Explanation: In general, global alignment programs use the Needleman-Wunsch alignment algorithm and a scoring system that scores the average match of an aligned nucleotide or amino acid pair as a positive number. Hence, the score of the alignment of random or unrelated sequences grows proportionally to the length of the sequences. In addition, there are many possible different global alignments depending on the scoring system chosen, and small changes in the scoring system can produce a different alignment.

5. Waterman, in1989, provided a set of means and standard deviations of global alignment scores between random DNA sequences, using mismatch and gap penalties that produce a linear increase in score with _______ a distinguishing feature of global alignments.
A. alignment score
B. sequence score
C. sequence length
D. scoring system

Answer: c
Explanation: In the algorithm provided by Waterman, the score of the alignment of random or unrelated sequences grows proportionally to the length of the sequences. However, these values are of limited use because they are based on a simple gap scoring system.

6. Who suggested that the global alignment scores between unrelated protein sequences followed the extreme value distribution, similar to local alignment scores? And when?
A. Abagyan and Batalov, in 1981
B. Chvátal and Lipman, in 1984
C. Abagyan and Batalov, in 1997
D. Chvátal and Sankoff, in 1995

Answer: c
Explanation: Abagyan and Batalov, in 1997, suggested the above observation. However, since the scoring system that they used favored local alignments, these alignments they produced may not be global but local. Unfortunately, there is no equivalent theory on which to base an analysis of global alignment scores as there is for local alignment scores.

7. _______ analyzed the distribution of scores among 100 vertebrate nucleic acid sequences and compared these scores with randomized sequences prepared in different ways.
A. Lipman, in 1984
B. Batalov, in 1964
C. Waterman, in 1987
D. Lipman, in 1967

Answer: A
Explanation: When the randomized sequences were prepared by shuffling the sequence to conserve base composition, as was done by Dayhoff and others, the standard deviation was approximately one-third less than the distribution of scores of the natural sequences. Thus, natural sequences are more variable than randomized ones, and using such randomized sequences for a significance test may lead to an overestimation of the significance.

8. If the random sequences were prepared in a way that maintained the local base composition by producing them from overlapping fragments of sequence, the distribution of scores has a _______ standard deviation that is closer to the distribution of the natural sequences.
A. lowest
B. higher
C. lower
D. moderate

Answer: c
Explanation: The conclusion from the above is that the presence of conserved local patterns can influence the score in statistical tests such that an alignment can appear to be more significant than it actually is. Although this study was done using the Smith-Waterman algorithm with nucleic acids, the same cautionary note applies for other types of alignments.

9. The GCG alignment programs have a RANDOMIZATION option, which shuffles the second sequence and calculates similarity scores between the unshuffled sequence and each of the shuffled copies.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation: If the new similarity scores are significantly smaller than the real alignment score, the alignment is considered significant. This analysis is only useful for providing a rough approximation of the significance of an alignment score and can easily be misleading.

10. Dayhoff, 1978- 1983, devised a second method for testing the relatedness of two protein sequences that can accommodate some local variation. Where this method is useful?
A. For finding repeated regions within a sequence
B. For finding similar regions that are in a different order in two sequences
C. For finding small conserved region such as an active site
D. For finding huge regions within sequences

Answer: D
Explanation: As used in a computer program called RELATE (Dayhoff 1978), all possible segments of a given length of one sequence are compared with all segments of the same length from another. An alignment score using a scoring matrix is obtained for each comparison to give a score distribution among all of the segments. A segment comparison score in standard deviation units is calculated as the difference between the values for real sequences minus the average value for random sequences divided by the standard deviation of the scores from the random sequences.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Protein Family Databases and Answers

Bioinformatics Multiple Choice Questions on “Protein Family Databases”.

1. Which of the following statements about COG is incorrect regarding its features?
A. Currently, there are 4,873 clusters in the COG databases derived from unicellular organisms
B. It is constructed by comparing protein sequences encoded in forty-three completely sequenced genomes, which are mainly from prokaryotes, representing thirty major phylogenetic lineages
C. The interface for sequence searching in the COG database is the COGnitor program, which is based on gapped BLAST
D. It is a protein family database based on structural classification
Answer: D
Explanation: COG which stands for Cluster of Orthologous Groups, is a protein family database based on phylogenetic classification. Because orthologous proteins shared by three or more lineages are considered to have descended through a vertical evolutionary scenario, if the function of one of the members is known, functionality of other members can be assigned.

2. Which of the following statements about InterPro is incorrect regarding its features?
A. Protein relatedness is defined by the P-values from the BLAST alignments
B. The most closely related sequences are grouped into the lowest level clusters
C. More distant protein groups are merged into higher levels of clusters
D. The outcome of this cluster merging is a tree-like structure of functional categories
Answer: A
Explanation: InterPro is a database of clusters of homologous proteins similar to COG. Protein relatedness is defined by the E-values from the BLAST alignments. The database further provides gene ontology information for protein cluster at each level as well as keywords from InterPro domains for functional prediction.

3. Pfam is available at four locations around the world. Which of the following is not one of them?
A. UK
B. Sweden
C. US
D. Japan
Answer: D
Explanation: Pfam is available at four locations around the world each providing a core set of functionality for accessing each family. They are US, UK, Sweden and France. Documentation on the content and use of Pfam is available via the web.

4. Which of the following is not a member database of InterPro?
A. SCOP
B. HAMAP
C. PANTHER
D. Pfam
Answer: A
Explanation: The signatures from InterPro come from 11 member databases viz. CATH-Gene3D, HAMAP, PANTHER, Pfam, PIRSF, PRINTS, ProDom, PROSITE, SMART, SUPERFAMILY, TIGRFAMs.

5. Which of the following statements about SCOP is incorrect regarding its features?
A. Proteins with the same shapes but having little sequence or functional similarity are placed in different super families, and are assumed to have only a very distant common ancestor
B. Proteins having the same shape and some similarity of sequence and/or function are placed in ‘families’, and are assumed to have a closer common ancestor
C. SCOP was created in 1994 in the Centre of Protein Engineering and the University College London
D. It aims to determine the evolutionary relationship between proteins
Answer: C
Explanation: SCOP, Structural Classification of Proteins, was created in 1994 in the Centre of Protein Engineering and the Laboratory of Molecular Biology. It was maintained by Alexey G. Murzin and his colleagues in the Centre for Protein Engineering until its closure in 2010 and subsequently at the Laboratory of Molecular Biology in Cambridge, England.

6. What is the source of protein structures in SCOP and CATH?
A. Uniprot
B. Protein Data Bank
C. Ensemble
D. InterPro
Answer: B
Explanation: The source of protein structures in SCOP is PDB (Protein Data Bank). PDB is a secondary database which means it has protein structures derived from primary databases that have the protein sequences. UNIPROT is a primary database.

7. Which of the following statements about SUPERFAMILY database is incorrect regarding its features?
A. Sequences can be submitted raw or FASTA format
B. Sequences must be submitted in FASTA format only
C. It searches the database using a superfamily, family, or species name plus a sequence, SCOP, PDB or HMM ID’s
D. It has generated GO annotations for evolutionarily closed domains and distant domains
Answer: B
Explanation: SUPERFAMILY is a database of structural and functional annotation for all proteins and genomes. It classifies amino acid sequences into known structural domains, especially into SCOP super families. Sequences can be amino acids, a fixed frame nucleotide sequence, or all frames of a submitted nucleotide sequence. Up to 1000 sequences can be run at a time.

8. Which of the following statements about PRINTS and ProDom databases is incorrect regarding its features?
A. PRINTS is a compendium of protein fingerprints
B. Usually the motifs do not overlap, but are separated along a sequence, though they may be contiguous in 3D-space
C. Current versions of ProDom are built using a novel procedure based on recursive BLAST searches
D. ProDom domain database consists of an automatic compilation of homologous domains
Answer: C
Explanation: Current versions of ProDom are built using a novel procedure based on recursive PSI-BLAST searches and not just BLAST searches. And PRINTS is indeed a compendium of protein fingerprints. A fingerprint is a group of conserved motifs used to characterise a protein family; its diagnostic power is refined by iterative scanning of UniProt.

9. Which of the following statements about CATH-Gene3D and HAMAP databases is incorrect regarding its features?
A. CATH-Gene3D describes protein families and domain architectures in complete genomes
B. In CATH-Gene3D the functional annotation is provided to proteins from single resource
C. HAMAP profiles are manually created by expert curators they identify proteins that are part of well-conserved bacterial, archaeal and plastid-encoded proteins families or subfamilies.
D. HAMAP stands for High-quality Automated and Manual Annotation of microbial Proteomes
Answer: B
Explanation: In CATH-Gene3D Protein families are formed using a Markov clustering algorithm, followed by multi-linkage clustering according to sequence identity. Mapping of predicted structure and sequence domains is undertaken using hidden Markov models libraries representing CATH and Pfam domains. Functional annotation is provided to proteins from multiple resources. Functional prediction and analysis of domain architectures is available at the website.

10. Which of the following statements about PANTHER and TIGRFAMs databases is incorrect regarding its features?
A. TIGRFAMs provides a tool for identifying functionally related proteins based on sequence homology
B. TIGRFAMs is a collection of protein families, featuring curated multiple sequence alignments, hidden Markov models (HMMs) and annotation
C. Hidden Markov models (HMMs) are not used in PANTHER
D. PANTHER is a large collection of protein families that have been subdivided into functionally related subfamilies, using human expertise
Answer: C
Explanation: In PANTHER the subfamilies model the divergence of specific functions within protein families, allowing more accurate association with function (human-curated molecular function and biological process classifications and pathway diagrams), as well as inference of amino acids important for functional specificity. Hidden Markov models (HMMs) are built for each family and subfamily for classifying additional protein sequences.

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250+ MCQs on Heat of Reaction for Processes with Biomass Production

Bioprocess Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Heat of Reaction for Processes with Biomass Production”.

1. What is the process of making biomass energy?
A. Oxidation
B. Combustion
C. Reduction
D. Vaporization

Answer: B

2. Refer to Q2 and estimate that the synthesis gas obtained from a coal gasification process can be used for producing methanol, which is used as fuel in direct-methanol fuel cells. Determine the rate of production of methanol if the reaction shown below is releasing 21.6 kW of energy.

CO(g) + 2H2(g) -> CH3OH(l) ΔHr° = -128.08 kJ/mol
A. 455.6 mol/hr
B. 457.2 mol/hr
C. 450.9 mol/hr
D. 454.5 mol/hr

Answer: B

3. Refer to Q4, and calculate 50% excess air.

A. 22.2 kg-air/kg-fuel
B. 23.2 kg-air/kg-fuel
C. 20.2 kg-air/kg-fuel
D. 20.3 kg-air/kg-fuel

Answer: B

4. “Thermal conversion of organic matter with an oxidant (normally oxygen) to produce primarily carbon dioxide and water”, which term is used for this process?

A. Oxidation
B. Pyrolysis
C. Combustion
D. Gasification

Answer: C

5. ”Thermal conversion (destruction) of organics in the absence of oxygen”, which term is used for this process?
A. Reduction
B. Pyrolysis
C. Combustion
D. Gasification

Answer: B