OPHTHALMOLOGY Multiple Choice Questions MCQs:-
1. Which of the following condition is associated with the development of posterior staphyloma?
A. Pathological myopia
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Acid injury
D. Sympathetic ophthalmia
Answer: A
2.A 30 year old man presents to the clinic with pain in the eye, watering, redness and photophobia. Examination of his eyes shows circumcorneal congestion and keratic precipitates.
Assertion: KPs are proteinaceous deposits occurring in a triangular fashion in the inferior part of cornea.
Reason: Mutton fat KPs are seen in granulomatous iridocyclitis and is composed of epithelioid cells and macrophages.
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion
C. Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D. Assertion is false but reason is true
Answer: B
3. Transport of Ascorbic acid to lens is done by which of the following?
A. Myoinositol
B. Choline
C. Taurine
D. Na-K ATPase
Answer: D
4. Fundus fluorescein angiography done in a patient following cataract surgery shows a flower petal pattern. What is he MOST likely suffering from?
A. Macular hole
B. Cystoid macular edema
C. Central serous retinopathy
D. None of the above
Answer: B
5. Transducin is a protein found in:
A. Glomerulus
B. Retina
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Adrenal medulla
Answer: B
6. Treatment of mooren’s ulcer is?
A. Corneal graft
B. Immunosuppressives
C. Topical steroids
D. All of the above
Answer: D
7. The percentage of atropine present in atropine drops as cycloplegic is:
A. 0.5%
B. 1%
C. 4%
D. 2%
Answer: B
8. All of the following are true about Keratoconus, except:
A. Increased curvature of corneaAstigmatism
B. Astigmatism
C. K.F ring cornea
D. Thick cornea
Answer: D
9. Painful eye movement is a feature of :
A. Iridocyclitis
B. Papilledema
C. Corneal ulcer
D. Vernal catarrh
Answer: A
10. Kayser Fleischer ring is found in which layer of cornea?
A. Bowman’s Capsule
B. Substantia propria
C. Descemet’s membrane
D. Endothelium
Answer: C
11. Placido disc is used for diagnosing which of the following condition?
A. Uveitis
B. Keratoconus
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Retinal detachment
Answer: B
12. Macular sparing is associated with lesions in:
A. Optic nerve
B. Lateral geniculate body
C. Occipital cortex
D. Optic chiasma
Answer: C
13. All statements are true about trachoma except
A. Trachoma is caused by bedsonian organism of psittacosis lymphogranuloma – trachoma (PLT) group.
B. Strains mainly responsible are A, B, Ba and C
C. Marked papillary hyperplasia with limbal follicles are seen in stage III
D. Corneal ulcerstion is a complication
Answer: C
14. Satellite nodules are seen in
A. Fungal corneal ulcer
B. Tuberculosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Viral ulcer
Answer: A
15. Herpetic keratitis is treated by
A. Analgesics
B. Atropine
C. Steroids
D. Idoxuridine
Answer: D
16. Interstitial keratitis is seen in all except:
A. Syphilis
B. Acanthamoeba
C. HSV ChlamydiaTrachomatis
D. HZV
Answer: B
17. An elderly male with heart disease presents with sudden loss of vision in one eye; examination reveals cherry red spot; diagnosis is:
A. Central retinal vein occlusion
B. Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Amaurosis fugax
D. Acute ischemic optic neuritis
Answer: B
18. Primary aim of retinal detachment surgery
A. Removal of vitreous
B. Drainage of subretinal fluid
C. Vitrectomy
D. Encirclage
D i.e. Encirclage
Answer: D
19. Which of the following antiglaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?
A. Latanoprost
B. Timolol
C. Brimonidine
D. Dorzolamide
Answer: C
20. All are true regarding optic neuritis except:
A. Decreased visual acuity
B. Decreased pupillary reflex
C. Abnormal electroretinogram
D. Abnormal visual evoked response retinogram
Answer: C
21. Vossius ring occurs in
A. Lens dislocation
B. Concussion injury
C. Penetrating injury
D. Extra capsular extraction
Answer: B
22. In which of the following conditions Berlin’s edema is
A. Open angle glaucoma
B. After cataract surgery
C. After concussional trauma
D. Diabetic retinopathy
Answer: C
23. Mucin layer tear flilm deficiency occurs in:
A. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
B. Lacrimal gland removal
C. Canalicular block
D. Herpetic keratitis
Answer: A
24. The nerve which has the longest intracranial course is:
A. Fourth cranial nerve
B. Third cranial nerve
C. Sixth cranial nerve
D. Fifth cranial nerve
Answer: A
25. Corneal sensations are decreased in all of the following conditions except:
A. Recurrent corneal erosion syndrome
B. Herpetic keratitis
C. Neuroparalytic keratitis
D. Leprosy
Answer: A
26. Snellen’s chart is used to test:
A. Vision
B. Refraction
C. Presbyopia
D. Colour blindness
Answer: A
27. A wave in ERG is due to activity of:
A. Pigmented epithelium
B. Rods and cones
C. Ganglion cell
D. Bipolar cell
Answer: B
28. Sturm’s conoid refers to configuration of the rays refracted through:
A. Concave spherical surface
B. Convex spherical surface
C. Toric surface
D. Irregular surface
Answer: C
29. Soft contact lenses are made of:
A. Polymethyl methacrylate
B. Hydroxymethyl methacrylate
C. Glass
D. Silicone
Answer: B
30. Astigmatism is considered to be:
A. Spherical abberation
B. Curvatural ametropia
C. Axial ametropia
D. Index ametropia
Answer: A
31. Visual axis is
A. Center of cornea to retina
B. Object to fovea
C. Center of lens to cornea
D. None
Answer: B
32. Foster’s fusch’s spots are seen in
A. Hypermetropiea
B. Myopia
C. Astigmatism
D. None
Answer: B
33. Swimming pool conjunctivitis is caused by
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Adenovirus type 8
C. Adenovirus type 8
D. Gonococcus
Answer: A
34. Goldenhar syndrome is associated with which prominent ocular manifestation:
A. Microcornea
B. Megalocornea
C. Sclerocornea
D. Epibulbar dermoids
Answer: D
35. Complication of vernal kerato conjunctivitis:
A. Cataract
B. Keratoconus
C. Retinal detachment
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
Answer: B
36. Treatment of vernal keratoconjunctivitis includes all except:
A. Steroids
B. Chromoglycate
C. Olopatadine
D. Antibiotics
Answer: D
37. Features of vernal conjunctivitis are:
A. Shield ulcer
B. Horner-Tranta’s spots
C. Papillary hypertrophy
D. All
Answer: D
38. Pterygium all are true except:
A. Arise from any part of conjunctiva
B. Can cause astigmatism
C. Surgery is treatment of choice
D. UV exposure is risk factor
Answer: A
39. Neonatal conjunctivitis is caused by all except:
A. Gonococcus
B. Chlamydia
C. Aspergillus
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: C
40. In photophthalmia site of lesions is:
A. Cornea
B. Retina
C. Optic nerve
D. All of the above
Answer: A
41. Elschnig’s pearls are a sign of:
A. Chronic uveitis
B. Secondary cataract
C. Cystoid macular oedema
D. All of the above
Answer: B
42. Rosette cataract is seen due to:
A. Trauma
B. Copper foreign body
C. Diabetes
D. Hyperparathyroidism
Answer: A
43. A child has got a congenital cataract involving the visual axis which was detected by the parents right at birth. This child should be operated:
A. Immediately
B. At 2 months of age
C. At 1 year of age when the globe becomes normal sized
D. After 4 years when entire ocular and orbital growth becomes
normal
Answer: A
44. Which of the following is the most important factor in the prevention of the endophthalmitis in cataract surgery?
A. Preoperative preparation with povidone iodine
B. One week antibiotic therapy prior to surgery
C. Trimming of eyelashes
D. Use of intravitreal antibiotics
Answer: A
45. Schwalbe’s ring corresponds to:
A. Corneal endothelium
B. Descemet’s membrane
C. Schlemm’s canal
D. Ciliary body
Answer: B
46. Vitrectomy should be considered if the vitreous haemorrhage is not absorbed within:
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 2 months
Answer: B
47. Eales disease is:
A. Recurrent optic neuritis
B. Recurrent pappilloedema
C. Recurrent periphelbitis retinae
D. None
Answer: C
48. All of the following are true for retinopathy of prematurity except:
A. Occurs in premature infants due to late crying
B. Due to hypoxia there occurs neovascularization followed by fibroproliferation
C. End result is bilateral blindness
D. Blindness can be prevented by early diagnosis and ablation of vascular premature retina with cryotherapy or photocoagulation
Answer: A
49. All of the following are the causes of exudative retinal detachment except:
A. Retinopathy of toxaemia of pregnancy
B. Retinopathy of prematurity
C. Exudative retinopathy of Coats
D. Sympathetic ophthalmia
Answer: B
50. The earliest change noticed in hypertensive retinopathy is:
A. Soft exudate
B. Arteriolar spasm
C. Venospasm
D. Hard exudate
Answer: B
51. Strabismic amblyopia is more common in patients with:
A. Intermittent squint
B. Alternate squint
C. Constant squint
D. Latent squint
Answer: C
Ans. Constant squint
52. Onset of stereopsis occurs at the age of:
A. 3 to 5 months
B. 1 to 2 years
C. 5 years
D. 7 years
Answer: A
53. Elevators of eye:
A. SR and 10
B. I0 and SO
C. IR and S
D. SO SR
Answer: A
54. Dalrymple’s sign of ocular Graves’ disease refers to:
A. Retraction of the upper lid
B. Lid lag
C. Proptosis
D. All of the above combinedly
Answer: A
55. Best method of detection of retained glass intraocular foreign body is:
A. CT scan
B. Radiography
C. Ultrasonography
D. Tonography
Answer: A
56. In primary open-angle glaucoma pilocarpine eye drops lowers the intraocular pressure by its direct action on the:
A. Trabecular meshwork
B. Ciliary epithelium
C. Longitudinal fibres of the ciliary muscle
D. All of the above
Answer: D
57. Isolated painful third nerve palsy is a feature of aneurysms of:
A. Posterior communicating artery
B. Anterior communicating artery
C. Vertebrobasillary artery
D. Ophthalmic artery
Answer: A
58. All of the following are given global prominence in the VISION 2020 goal, expect:
A. Refractive errors
B. Cataract
C. Trachoma
D. Glaucoma
Answer: D
59. Axial length of eye ball is:[March 2005]
A. 16 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 24 mm
D. 28 mm
Answer: C
60. Eye structure with maximum refractive power:[March 2007]
A. Anterior surface of lens
B. Posterior surface of lens
C. Anterior surface of cornea
D. Posterior surface of cornea
Answer: C
61. Pilocarpine is used in all of the following except:[September 2006]
A. Primary, Open Angle Glaucoma
B. Malignant Glaucoma
C. Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma
D. Chronic Synechial Angle Closure Glaucoma
Answer: B
62. Most common etiolopathogenetic cause of glaucoma is:[March 2012]
A. Raised pressure in episcleritic veins
B. Decreased outflow
C. Increased formation of aqueous humour
D. Increased scleral outflow
Answer: B
63. Posterior staphyloma is seen in:[September 2005]
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Astigmatism
D. Presbyopia
Answer: A
64. All of the following are true for sympathetic ophthalmitis except:[September 2005]
A. Affects the injured eye
B. Mostly results from a penetrating wound
C. Autoimmune etiology
D. Dalen Fuch’s nodules may be seen
Answer: A
65. Snowflake cataract is associated with:[September 2008]
A. Hypertension
B. Adult diabetes
C. Trauma
D. Juvenile diabetes
Answer: D
66. Diabetic cataract is due to accumulation of:[March 2009]
A. Fructose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Sorbitol
Answer: D
67. Scleritis is most commonly associated with:[March 2005]
A. Diabetes
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Hypertension
Answer: C
68. Laser used to manage after cataract:[March 2005, September 2009]
A. Excimer laser
B. Argon green laser
C. Diode laser
D. Nd:YAG laser
Answer: D
69. Which of the following is not a cause of hypermetropia:[September 2009]
A. Short axial length of the eyeball
B. Flat cornea
C. Increased refractive index of the cortex of lens
D. Anterior dislocation of the lens
Answer: D
70. Type of collagen present in cornea ?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: A
71. Which of the following is present in cornea ?
A. Hyaluronic acid
B. Chondroitin sulfate
C. Dermatan sulfate
D. Heparan sulfate
Answer: B
72. A person with defective blue color appreciation is called ?
A. Deuteranomalous
B. Deuteranopia
C. Tritanopia
D. Tritanomalous
Answer: D
73. What is the immediate management of vitreous hemorrhage in eye ?
A. No treatment
B. Steroids
C. Antibiotics
D. Vitrectomy
Answer: A
74. Keratitis is caused by ?
A. Bacteria
B. Atopy
C. Protozoa
D. All
Answer: D
75. Subconjunctival cyst is seen in?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Cysticercosis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Chaga’s disease
Answer: B
76. Pars planitis is ?
A. Anterior uveitis
B. Intermediate uveitis
C. Posterior uveitis
D. Pan uveitis
Answer: B
77. Brushfield spot in iris is seen in A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Down syndrome
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Toxoplasmosis
Answer: B
78. Most common orbital cyst in children
A. Neuroenteric cyst
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Lymphoma
D. Clobomatous cyst
Answer: B
79. Disscociated vertical deviation seen in ?
A. AV dissociation
B. Infantile esotropia
C. Congenital esotropia
D. Superior oblique palsy
Answer: C
80. Koeppe’s nodules are type of ?
A. Granulomatous uveitis
B. Non granulomatous uveitis
C. Coroiditis
D. Pars planitis
Answer: A
81. Cause of blindness in pterygium ?
A. Astigmatism
B. Loss of visual axis
C. Cataract
D. Limitation of ocular movements
Answer: A
82. Cause of blindness in trachoma ?
A. Scarring
B. Pannus
C. Chronic dacrocystitis
D. Entropion
Answer: A
83. Fundus in retinitis Pigmentosa is ?
A. White spots with red disc
B. Jet- black spots with pale-waxy disc
C. No pigmentation
D. Dilatation of arterioles
Answer: B
84. Retinoblastoma can occur bilaterally in how many percentage of the cases?
A. 10 – 15%
B. 15 – 20%
C. 20 – 25%
D. 25 – 30%
Answer: D
85. Kayser flescher ring is seen in ?
A. Siderosis
B. Chalcosis
C. Open angle glaucoma
D. Chemical injuries
Answer: B
86. Gaze fixation takes place at which age ?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
Answer: B
87. Phacoemulsification incision is at ?
A. Sclero-corneal junction
B. Cornea
C. Sclera
D. None of the above
Answer: A
88. Gland of Moll opens in/on the ?
A. Skin
B. Hair follicle
C. Tarsal plate
D. Ducts of Meibomian glands
Answer: B
89. Cherry red spot is seen in ?
A. Niemann – Pick’s disease
B. Tay Sach’s disease
C. Central retinal artery occlusion
D. All of the above
Answer: D
90. Most common malignant intraorbital tumor in adult is ?
A. Lymphoma
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Sarcoma
Answer: A
91. Which antiglaucoma drug decreases aqueous formation ?
A. Prostaglandins
B. Beta – blockers
C. Mannitol
D. Pilocarpine
Answer: B
92. Selective alpha 2 agoinst used in glaucoma ?
A. Tirriolol
B. Epinephrine
C. Dipivefrine
D. Brimonidine
Answer: D
93. Bilateral inferior dislocation of lens is seen in ?
A. Marfans syndrome
B. Homocystinuria
C. Weil Marchesani syndrome
D. Trauma
Answer: B
94. All are true about Bullous keratopathy except ?
A. Seen in Macular dystrophy
B. Treatment is lamellar kertoplasty
C. Lenses can be prescribed for such patients
D. Seen in Fuch’s dystrophy
Answer: A
95. Most common primary intraocular neoplasm in a child is ?
A. Metastasis
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
Answer: B
96. Following are the side effects of apraclonidine except ?
A. Lid dermatitis
B. Follicular conjunctivitis
C. Eye lid retraction
D. Watering of mouth
Answer: D
97. Treatment of presbyopia is by use of which lens?
A. Convex
B. Concave
C. Biconcave
D. Concavoconvex
Answer: A
98. Steroid is contraindicated in ?
A. Herpetic keratitis
B. Atopic dermatitis
C. Fungal corneal ulcer
D. Exposure keratitis
Answer: C
99. Vitreous hemorrhage produces ?
A. Sudden painless loss of vision
B. Sudden painful loss of vision
C. Gradual painless loss of vision
D. Gradual painful loss of vision
Answer: A
100. Tubular vision seen in
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Presbyopia
D. Optic neuritis
Answer: A
101. Treatment of dacryocystitis in three months old child ?
A. Daily probing
B. Weekly probing
C. Massaging
D. Syringing
Answer: C
102. Methanol attacks ?
A. Cones
B. Rods
C. Ganglion cells of retina
D. Germinal cell layer
Answer: C
103. Retinal tears seen most commonly seen in ?
A. Primary retinal detachment
B. Secondary retinal detachment
C. Tractional retinal detachment
D. Exudative retinal detachment
Answer: A
104. Following are the clinical features of Leber optic neuropathy except
A. Seen in the 2nd or 3rd decade of life
B. It is a example of gradual painless visual loss
C. Males can transmit the disease
D. No leak of dye is observed in fluorescein angiography
Answer: C
105. Following is feature of Fusch’s hetero chromic iridocyclitis ?
A. Heterochromia of iris
B. Keratic precipitates
C. Posterior subcapsular cataract
D. All the above
Answer: D
106. BSGT stands for ?
A. Bagolini striated glasses test
B. Bagolini smooth glasses test
C. Bagolini shiny glasses test
D. Bagolini second glue test
Answer: A
107. Melanocytes in conjunctiva are derived from ?
A. Neural ectoderm
B. Surface ectoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Neural crest
Answer: D
108. Bitemporal hemianopia is characteristic of ?
A. Glaucoma
B. Optic neuritis
C. Pituitary tumor
D. Retinal detachment
Answer: C
109. For congenital obstruction of nasolacrimal duct, probing is done at what age ?
A. 2 months
B. 6 months
C. 10 months
D. 14 months
Answer: B
110. Right esotropia is evident with ?
A. Left lateral rectus paralysis
B. Right lateral rectus paralysis
C. Left medial rectus paralysis
D. Right medial rectus paralysis
Answer: A
111. Diabetic ischemic maculopathy is characterized by all except ?
A. It occurs due to microvascular blockage
B. Mild visual loss
C. Areas of non perfusion are evident on fluorescein angiography
D. Microaneurysms and hemorrhages are seen
Answer: B
112. Treatment for mild ptosis is ?
A. Fasanella servat operation
B. Levator resection
C. Frontalis sling operation
D. Everbusch’s operation
Answer: A
113. Cataract is cases of diabetes mellitus is due to accumulation of ?
A. Glycated crytallins
B. Calcified crystallins
C. Glycated fibrillins
D. Calcified fibrillins
Answer: A
114. Density of cells in adult corneal endothelium ?
A. 2000 cells/mm2
B. 3000 cells/mm2
C. 4000 cells/mm2
D. 5000 cells/mm2
Answer: B
115. Axial proptosis is produced by tumors lying in ?
A. Retrobulbar space
B. Subperiosteal space
C. Tenon space
D. Peripheral space
Answer: A
116. In xerophthalmia classification X 2 stage is ?
A. Bitots spots
B. Corneal xerosis
C. Corneal ulceration
D. Corneal scar
Answer: B
117. All of the following has HLAB27 associated with uveitis except ?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Reiters syndrome
C. Behcets syndrome
D. None of the above
Answer: C
118. Marcus gunn jaw winking phenomenon due to relation between which cranial nerves
A. VII + VIII
B. III + V
C. V + VII
D. III + VI
Answer: B
119. Increased intraocular tension can be diagnosed by ?
A. Tonometer
B. Pachymeter
C. Placido’s disc
D. Keratometer
Answer: A
120. Wernicke’s hemianopic pupillary reponse is seen in lesions at ?
A. Optic tract
B. Optic chiasma
C. Optic radiation
D. Lateral geniculate body
Answer: A
121. `Ischemic necrosis’ in alkali burn is ?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
Answer: A
122. Ganglionic cells are, neurons ?
A. First order
B. Second order
C. Third order
D. None
Answer: B
123. No movement of Red reflex in retinoscopy
A. No refractive error
B. Myopia of 3D
C. Myopia of ID
D. Hypermetropia
Answer: C
124. Maximum refractive index ?
A. Cornea
B. Air
C. Lens
D. Vitreous
Answer: C
125. Primary action of inferior oblique ?
A. Abduction
B. Adduction
C. Extorsion
D. Elevation
Answer: C
126. What is the most common problem following surgical treatment of pterygium?
A. Recurrence
B. Corneal ulceration
C. Astigmatism
D. Scleral scarring
Answer: A
127. Refsum’s syndrome is associated with ?
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Xerophthalmia
C. Chalcosis
D. Diabetes retinopathy
Answer: A
128. Following is a feature of concomitant squint ?
A. Constant amount of deviation in all directions of gaze
B. Associated limitation of ocular movements
C. Different amount of deviation in different directions of gaze
D. Develops in the patients at 15 – 20 years of age.
Answer: A
129. Diplopia is usually seen in ?
A. Paralytic squint
B. Non-paralytic squint
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: A
130. Following is true about behcet’s disease except ?
A. It shows presence of aphthous ulceration, genital ulceration and uveitis
B. Uveitis is bilateral, acute recurrent iridocyclitis with hypopyon
C. It has good visual prognosis
D. Chlorambucil can be used to control the disease
Answer: C
131. Imbert-Fick law is associate with ?
A. Schiotz tonometry
B. Applanation tonometry
C. Pachymetry
D. Keratometry
Answer: B
132. Recurrent non-granulomatous uveitis is seen in?
A. Vogt koyanagi-Harada syndrome
B. Posner-Schlossman syndrome
C. Tuberculosis
D. Sarcoidosis
Answer: B
133. Bett’s classification deals with ?
A. Ocular trauma
B. Ocular foreign body
C. Squint
D. Maculopathy
Answer: A
134. How many incisions are used in the divided system approach of pars planavitrectomy?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
135. Munson’s sign is a feature of ?
A. Keratoconus
B. Corneal ulcer
C. Pterygium
D. Posterior staphyloma
Answer: A
136. Newborn eye is ?
A. Myopic
B. Hypermetropic
C. Presbyopic
D. None of the above
Answer: B
137. Homonymous hemianopia type of visual field defect is seen in all except ?
A. Lateral geniculate body
B. Total optic radiation
C. Optic tract
D. Optic chaisma
Answer: D
138. Following is true about oculocardiac reflex except ?
A. It is also called aschner phenomenon
B. It is mediated by occulomotor and vagus nerve
C. It is characterized by bradycardia following traction on extraocular muscles
D. Reflex is more sensitive in neonates
Answer: B
139. Corneal endothelial cell count is measured by ?
A. Specular microscope
B. Ophthalmoscope
C. Synoptophore
D. Amsler’s grid
Answer: A
140. Drug kept as a last resort in the management of primary open angle glaucoma is ?
A. Latanoprost
B. Topical beta blocker
C. Brimonidine
D. Oral acetazolamide
Answer: D
141. Amsler’s grid is used to evaluate ?
A. Central 10 degress of vision
B. Central 20 degrees of vision
C. Peripheral vision
D. Lens opacity
Answer: A
142. Stye is suppurative inflammation of glands of ?
A. Zeis
B. Meibonian
C. Wolfring
D. All the above
Answer: A
143. Objective methods for checking the refractive error are all except
A. Ophthalmoscopy
B. Retinoscopy
C. Refractometry
D. Keratometry
Answer: A
144. Lens dislocation in marfans syndrome is
A. Superotemporal
B. Inferonasal
C. Forward
D. Backward
Answer: A
145. Safe size of corneal graft with less chances of failure is ?
A. 7.5 mm
B. 6.5 mm
C. 5.5 mm
D. 4.5 mm
Answer: A
146. Angular conjunctivitis is caused mainly by
A. Moraxella axenfeld
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pneumonae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer: A
147. Anterior uveitis earliest lesion ?
A. Aqueous flare
B. Keratic precipitates
C. Circumcorneal congestion
D. Blurring of vision
Answer: A
148. Main MOA brimonidine in glaucoma ?
A. Decreased aqueous secretion
B. Increased trabecular outflow
C. Increased uveoscleral outflow
D. Reduce vitreous volume
Answer: A
149. Meibomian glands secrete which component of sweat?
A. Water (aqueous)
B. Mucin
C. Protein
D. Lipid
Answer: D
150. Quantification of corneal sensation is done by ?
A. Pachymeter
B. Keratometer
C. Aesthesiometer
D. Tonometer
Answer: C
151. Subconjunctival hemorrhages are evident in the following cases except ?
A. Whooping cough
B. Scurvy
C. Purpura
D. Pellagra
Answer: D
152. Pleomorphic adenoma of the lacrimal gland moves the eyeball ?
A. Downwards and outwards
B. Downwards and inwards
C. Upwards and outwards
D. Upwards and inwards
Answer: A
153.Optic canal is a part of ?
A. Lesser wing of sphenoid
B. Greater wing of sphenoid
C. Ethmoid
D. Pterygoid
Answer: A
154. Floaters are seen in following except ?
A. Vitreous hemorrhage
B. Retinal detachment
C. Uveitis
D. Acute congestive glaucoma
Answer: D
155. Illuminated frenzel glasses are used in detecting?
A. Nystagmus
B. Heterophoria
C. Esotropia
D. Astigmatism
Answer: A
156. Following is a cause of secondary angle closure glaucoma ?
A. Pseudophakia
B. Corticosteroid induced
C. Angle recession glaucoma
D. Congenital glaucoma
Answer: A
157. Which gas is most commonly used with pneumatic retinopathy ?
A. SF6
B. C3F8
C. CO2
D. N3
Answer: A
158. Latanoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily acts by?
A. Decreasing aqueous humor formation
B. Increasing uveoscleral outflow
C. Releasing pupillary block
D. Increasing trabecular outflow
Answer: B
159. 2nd Purkinje image is ?
A. Erect and moves in same direction
B. Inverted and moves in same direction
C. Erect and moves in opposite direction
D. Inverted and moves in opposite direction
Answer: A
160. Axial length of eye ball is measured by ?
A. A mode Ultrasonography
B. B mode Ultrasonography
C. M mode Ultrasonography
D. Both a and b
Answer: A
161. Enophthalmos is seen in ?
A. Blow out fracture of orbit wall
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Radiation Injuries
D. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: A
162. Acute angle closure glaucoma first line treatment?
A. Iv mannitol
B. Acetazolamide
C. Pilocarpine
D. Beta blocker eyedrops
Answer: A
163. Occulomotor nerve supplies all extraocular muscles except ?
A. Superior rectus
B. Inferior rectus
C. Lateral rectus
D. Medial rectus
Answer: C
164. Which bacteria penetrates intact cornea ?
A. Corynebacterium
B. Pneumococcus
C. Morexella
D. E. coli
Answer: A
165. Which of the following is not a feature of fungal corneal ulcer?
A. Fixed hypopyon
B. Ulcer with sloughing margins
C. Symptoms are more pronounced than signs
D. Fungal hyphae are seen on KOH mount
Answer: C
166. Congenital dacrocystitis, the block is at?
A. Lacrimal calnaliculi
B. Nasolacrimal duct
C. Punctum
D. None
Answer: B
167. Dacryocystorhinostomy involves?
A. Opening up the terminal blocked end of nasolacrimal duct
B. Connecting the lacrimal sac to nose by breaking the medial wall
C. Complete excision of lacrimal
D. Insertion of drainage tube in the lacrimal sac
Answer: B
168. Copper deposition in cornea leads to?
A. Keratoconus
B. Keratoglobus
C. KF ring
D. Siderosis
Answer: C
169. Habbs striae are seen in ?
A. Buphthalmos
B. Keratoglobus
C. Trachoma
D. Keratoconus
Answer: A
170. Krukenberg spindles A. Involves anterior surface of cornea
B. Involves anterior lens surface
C. Involves posterior surface of cornea
D. Involves posterior surface of lens
Answer: C
171. Eye of a newborn is ?
A. Emmetropic
B. Hypermetropic
C. Myopic
D. Astigmatism
Answer: B
172. Causes of exudative retinal detachment are all except
A. Toxemia of pregnancy
B. Scleritis
C. High myopia
D. Central serous retinopathy
Answer: C
173.Commotio retinae affects which part of retina
A. Posterior pole
B. Peripheral retina
C. Inferior-nasal part
D. Superior-nasal part
Answer: A
174. Standard in perimetry ?
A. Goldman type I
B. Goldman type II
C. Goldman type III
D. Goldman type IV
Answer: C
175. Treatment of congenital ptosis with poor elevation is
A. Levator resection
B. Frontalis sling
C. FS operation
D. None of the
Answer: B
176. Dacryocystorhinostomy, where the duct is opened?
A. Superior meatus
B. Inferior meatus
C. Middle meatus
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess
Answer: C
177. Blow out fracture of orbit leads to fracture in
A. Floor
B. Posterior Medial wall
C. Lateral wall
D. Roof of the orbit
Answer: B
178. Most common symptom in buphthalmos ?
A. Lacrimation
B. Pain
C. Photophobia
D. Itching
Answer: A
179. Normal vision with absence of direct & consensual light reflex, which nerve is involved ?
A. Optic
B. Oculomotor
C. Trigeminal
D. Abducens
Answer: B
180. The most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults is
A. Retinal hole
B. Trauma
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes
Answer: D
181. Slit lamp examination helps in examination of?
A. Anterior 2/3rd of choroid
B. Anterior 1/3rd of choroid
C. Posterior 1/3rd of choroid
D. Posterior capsule
Answer: D
182. Retinal detachment occurs between
A. Layers of neurosensory retina
B. Neurosensory retina and pigment epithelium
C. Pigment epithelium and choroid
D. None of the above
Answer: B
183. Ocular bobbing?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Cortex
Answer: B
184. Bilateral inferior lens subluxation is seen in?
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Homocysteinuria
C. Ocular trauma
D. None of the above
Answer: B
185. Retinitis pigmentosa is characterized by ?
A. Central scotoma
B. Centrocaecal scotoma
C. Tubular vision
D. Isopteric contraction
Answer: C
186. Scissor reflex is seen in ?
A. Open angle glaucoma
B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
C. Keratoconus
D. Interstitial keratitis
Answer: C
187. Which are first order neuron in optic pathway?
A. Bipolar cells
B. Ganglionic cells
C. Cells of lateral geniculate body
D. Astrocytes
Answer: A
188. True about electroretinogram ?
A. a’ wave is positive wave
B. ‘a’ wave arises from pigmented epithelium
C. b’ wave arises from rods and cones
D. ‘c’ wave is positive wave
Answer: D
189. Specific for albinism
A. Red reflex
B. Decreased visual activity
C. Photophobia
D. Nystagmus
Answer: A
190. All are parts of anterior segment of eye except?
A. Lens
B. Cornea
C. Vitreous
D. None
Answer: C
191. Attachement of Vitreous is Srongest at
A. Foveal region
B. Back of lens
C. Across ora serrata
D. Margin of optic disc
Answer: C
192. Umbrella configration on fluorescein angiogrphyis seen in ?
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Rheugmatous retinal detachment
C. Central serous retinopathy
D. Eale’s disease
Answer: C
193. Epithelial xerosis of conjunetiva is caused by ?
A. Trachoma
B. Diphtheria
C. Xerophthalmia
D. Pemphigus
Answer: C
194. Cicatrising trachoma is seen in ?
A. Stage-1
B. Stage-2
C. Stage-3
D. Stage-4
Answer: C
195. Non-sterile hypopyon is seen in ?
A. Pneumococcus infection
B. Pseudomonas infection
C. Fungal infection
D. Gonococcal infection
Answer: C
196. Normal level of visual acuity is attained at which age
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 6 years
Answer: C
197. Duanne syndrome involves?
A. Superior oblique
B. Inferior oblique
C. Lateral rectus
D. Superior rectus
Answer: C
198. Birdshot retinopathy is characterized by all except?
A. Common in females
B. Unilateral
C. HLA-A29 positive
D. Creamy yellow spots
Answer: B
199. Treatment of choice for anisoeikonia ?
A. Orthoptic exercise
B. Spectacles
C. Surgery
D. Contact lens
Answer: D
200. Maximum correction of myopia can be done by ?
A. Radial keratotomy
B. LASIK
C. Photorefractive keratotomy
D. Orthokeratology
Answer: B
OPHTHALMOLOGY Quiz Questions with Answers
201. Marcus Gunn pupil is due to ?
A. Total afferent pupillary defect
B. Relative afferent pupillary defect
C. Efferent pathway defect
D. Cerebral lesion
Answer: B
202. Distance of medial rectus from limbus A. 4.5 mm
B. 5.5 mm
C. 7.0 mm
D. 10 mm
Answer: B
203. All nerve are involved in superior orbital fissure syndrome except ?
A. 1t
B. 3rd
C. 4’h
D. 6th
Answer: A
204. Posterior lenticonus is seen in ?
A. Alport’s syndrome
B. Lowe’s syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Homocystinuria
Answer: B
205. Thickest portion of sclera is ?
A. Anterior to rectus muscle insertion
B. Posterior to rectus muscle insertion
C. Posterior pole
D. Limbus
Answer: C
206. Reis-Buckler dystrophy affects which layer of cornea
A. Epithelium
B. Stroma
C. Bowman’s membrane
D. Endothelium
Answer: C
207. Down-beat nystagmus is seen in lesion of ?
A. Brainstem
B. Cerebellum
C. Basal ganglia
D. Hippocampus
Answer: B
208. Von Herick angle grade ‘3’ of anterior chamber denotes
A. Wide open angle
B. Moderately open angle
C. Moderately narrow angle
D. Closed angle
Answer: B
209. Foldable lens is made up of?
A. PMMA
B. Silicon
C. Hydrogel
D. None
Answer: B
210. Arcuate field defect akin to glaucoma is seen in?
A. Pituitary tumor
B. Occipital lobe infarct
C. Optic nerve lesion
D. None of the above
Answer: C
211. Thinnest portion of sclera ?
A. Anterior to rectus muscle insertion
B. Posterior to rectus muscle insertion
C. Posterior pole
D. Limbus
Answer: B
212. During retinoscopy of a 30 years old male, which cycloplegic is used routinely
A. Atropine 1% ointment
B. Cyclopentolate 1% drop
C. Homatropine 2% drop
D. None of the above
Answer: D
213. In senile nuclear cataract what type of myopia is seen?
A. Curvature myopia
B. Index myopia
C. Axial myopia
D. Positional myopia
Answer: B
214. Panophthalmitis involves ?
A. Inner coat of eyeball
B. Inner and outer coat but sparing tenon’s capsule
C. All structure of eyeball including tenon’s capsule
D. None of the above
Answer: C
215. Cataract is caused by ?
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Cigrate smoking
C. Non-ionizing radiation
D. All of the above
Answer: D
216. Ameboid ulcer is a feature of
A. Parasitic corneal ulcer
B. Mycotic corneal ulcer
C. Herpetic corneal ulcer
D. Bacterial corneal ulcer
Answer: C
217. Most common site of distant metastasis inintraorbital malignant melanoma is?
A. Brain
B. Lung
C. Liver
D. Lymph nodes
Answer: C
218. Shortening of 2 mm of axial length of eye ball causes ?
A. 3D myopia
B. 6D myopia
C. 3D hypermetropia
D. 6D hypermetropia
Answer: D
219. Drug of choice for intermediate uveitis ?
A. Atropine
B. Antibiotics
C. Topical steroids
D. Systemic steroid
Answer: D
220. Inverted image in Purkinje test is formed from ?
A. Anterior surface of cornea
B. Posterior surface of c
C. Anterior surface of lens
D. Posterior surface of lens
Answer: D
221. Forced duction test is to find out?
A. Ocular muscle palsy
B. Ocular muscle spasm
C. Angle of deviation
D. Refractive error
Answer: A
222. Red keratic precipitates are seen in ?
A. Granulomatous uveits
B. Hemorrhagic uveitis
C. Old healed uveitis
D. Acute anterior uveitis
Answer: B
223. Hardoleum internum is ?
A. Acute infection of Zeis gland
B. Acute infection of Moll gland
C. Acute infection Meibomian gland
D. Chronic infection of Zeis gland
Answer: C
224. Snow banking is seen in?
A. White coats disease
B. Eales disease
C. Diabetic nephropathy
D. Intermediate uveitis
Answer: D
225. Retrobulbar injection is given in
A. Inside muscle cone
B. Outside muscle cone
C. Subtenon space
D. Subperiosteum
Answer: A
226. Basal cell carcinoma is seen in most commonlyin which eyelid?
A. Upper medial
B. Upper lateral
C. Lower medial
D. Lower lateral
Answer: C
227. All are ophthalmological emergencies except ?
A. CRAO
B. CRVO
C. Acute congestive glaucoma
D. Endophthalmitis
Answer: B
228. Diagnosis of all is made by fluorescein angiographyexcept?
A. Diabetes retinopathy
B. Hypertensive retinopathy
C. Central serous retinopathy
D. Choroidal neovascularization
Answer: B
229. Lacrimal punctum of upper and lower eyelids are?
A. They are opposed
B. No relation
C. Upper punctum is medial
D. Upper punctum is lateral
Answer: A
230. Down beat nystagmus is seen in?
A. Arnold chiari malformation
B. Brain stem damage
C. Pontine hemorrhage
D. Labyrinthine damage
Answer: A
231. Not true about Fuch’s corneal dystrophy ?
A. Posterior dystrophy
B. Endothelial dystrophy
C. Unilateral condition
D. Occurs in old age
Answer: C
232. Positive forced duction test is seen in ?
A. Extraocular muscle palsy
B. Mechanical restriction of ocular movement
C. Concomitant squint
D. None
Answer: B
233. Immune ring is a feature of ?
A. Interstitial keratitis
B. Fungal corneal ulcer
C. Bacterial corneal ulcer
D. Herpes simplex keratitis
Answer: B
234. In specular microscopy endothelial density is measured by?
A. Optical doubling
B. Fixed frame analysis
C. Optical focusing
D. None
Answer: B
235. Most common type of scleritis ?
A. Non-necrotizing
B. Necrotizing
C. Posterior
D. None
Answer: A
236. Which of the following indicates activity of anterior uveitis?
A. Cells in anterior chamber
B. Circumcorneal congestion
C. Keratic precipitate
D. Corneal edema
Answer: A
237. Normal aqueous production rate
A. 2 ml/min
B. 5 ml/min
C. 2 1/min
D. 5 1/min
Answer: C
238. Drug of choice for open angle glaucoma
A. Acetazolamide
B. Latanoprost
C. Timolol
D. Brimonidine
Answer: C
239. Superficial corneal vascularization is caused by?
A. Contact lens
B. Graft rejection
C. Chemical burn
D. Interstitial keratitis
Answer: A
240. Choroidal vascularization is seen in ?
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Presbyopia
D. Astigmatism
Answer: A
241. Contraindication of LASIK ?
A. >20 years
B. Keratoconus
C. Normal cornea
D. Myopia of – 8D
Answer: B
242. Binocular single vision is tested by ?
A. Amsler grid
B. Synoptophore
C. Maddox rod
D. Cardboard test
Answer: B
243. In aphakia purkinje images absent are ?
A. 1 & 3′
B. 2nd & 4m
C. 2nd & 3rd
D. 3rd & 4th
Answer: C
244. Keratitis in contact lens wearer is caused by all except ?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Pneumococcus
C. Aspergillu
D. Chlamydia
Answer: B
245. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is caused by
A. Chlaymydia
B. Staphylococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Aspergillus
Answer: B
246. All are seen in non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy except ?
A. Microaneurysm
B. Neovascularization
C. Hard exudates
D. Macular edema
Answer: B
247. Surgery of choice for chronic acquired dacryocystitis
A. Dacryocystorhinostomy
B. Dacryocystectomy
C. Conjunctivo-cystorhinostomy
D. None
Answer: A
248. Posner-schlossman syndrome is ?
A. Ipsilateral optic atrophy with contralateral papilloedema
B. Unilateral glaucomatous changes with mild anterior uveitis
C. Granulomatous uveitis with iris heterochromia
D. None of the above
Answer: B
249. Antigaucomatous drug causing spasm of accommodation
A. Timolol
B. Pilocarpine
C. Dorazolamide
D. Latanoprost
Answer: B
250. Besides its properties of decreasing intraocular pressure, timolol is preferred in the treatment of glaucoma because it
A. Produces no miosis
B. Possess membrane stabilizing activity
C. Increases outflow of aqueous humor
D. Is a selective beta-adrenoceptor blocker
Answer: A
251. Rigid gas permeable lens are made of
A. Plymethymethacrylate
B. Hydroxymethylmethacrylate
C. Co polymer of PMMA, Silicon containing monomer & cellulose
acetyl butyrate
D. Cellulose acetae Butyrate
Answer: C
252. What is regular astigmatism?
A. Astigmatism in which the principal meridians are parallel
B. Astigmatism in which the principal meridians are perpendicular
C. Asymptomatic astigmatism
D. Astigmatism as a result of cataract surgery
Answer: B
253. Chemotherapy agents for retinoblastoma:
A. vincristine ,carboplatin and etoposide
B. vinblastine, etoposide and bleomycin
C. vinblastine , vincristine and etoposide
D. vinblastine , vincristine and cisplatin
Answer: A
254. Drug used in acute congestive glaucoma are:
A. Atropine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Acetazolamide
D. Both B & C
Answer: D
255. Which is the Most common ocular finding in myasthenia gravis?
A. Ptosis
B. Lagophthalmos
C. Proptosis
D. Enophthalmos
Answer: A
256. In Retinitis pigmentosa decreased level of?
A. Arachidonic
B. Trielonic
C. Thromboxane
D. Docosa hexanoic acid
Answer: D
257. What is against the rule correction in astigmatism:
A. -1.25 cyl 90
B. -2 spherical 180
C. -3 cyl 180
D. +2 cyl 180
Answer: A😀
258. Morbid fear of darkness known as:
A. Claustrophobia
B. Xenophobia
C. Mysophobia
D. Nyctophobia
Answer: D
259. Which drug causes ocular hypotension with apnea in an infant?
A. Latanoprost
B. Timolol
C. Brimonidine
D. Dorzolamide
Answer: C
260. A child has ptosis and poor levator function. What surgery will you do?
A. Levator muscle resection
B. Mullerectomy
C. Fasanella Servat surgery
D. Frontalis suspension surgery
Answer: D
261. Esotropiais usually associated with:
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Astigmatism
D. Presbyopia
Answer: B
262. Corneal ulcer resembling fungal ulcer is seen in infection with which of the agents?
A. Nocardia asteroides
B. Mycobacterium
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
Answer: A
263. Anisocoria in Horner’s syndrome is due to
A. Oculo sympathetic palsy
B. Oculo parasympathetic palsy
C. Oculomotor nerve palsy
D. Abducens nerve palsy
Answer: A
264. Diopteric power is related
A. Directly to square of focal length
B. Inversely to focal length
C. Directly to focal length
D. Inversely to square of focal length
Answer: B
265. All are seen in CMV retinitis except
A. Immunosuppresion
B. Brush-fire appearance Pattern
C. Crack mud appearance
D. Perivasculitis
Answer: C
266. Optic vesicle is derived from
A. Endoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Neuroectoderm
D. Surface Ectoderm
Answer: C
267. Goblet cells are seen in A. Cornea
B. Conjunctiva
C. Retina
D. Vitreous
Answer: B
268. Neovascularization in uveal tissue [Rubeosis Iridis] is most commonly caused by
A. Diabetic Retinopathy
B. CRVO
C. CRAO
D. Choroidal melanoma
Answer: A
269. All of the following are causes of posterior subcapsular cataract except
A. Myotonic dystrophy
B. Wilson’s Disease
C. Ionizing radiation
D. Congenital cataract
Answer: D
270. Ectopia lentis is/are associated with:
A. Homocystinuria
B. Alport syndrome
C. Lowe syndrome
D. Marfan syndrome
E. Sulphite oxidase deficiency
Answer: A:D:E
271. All are true regarding cornea except:
A. Endothelium help in maintaining dehydrated state
B. Oxygen is mostly derived by epithelium directly from the air through tear film
C. Glucose supply for corneal metabolism is mainly derived from the aqueous
D. Corneal thickness is more at center than periphery
E. Richly vascular
Answer: D:E
272. Feature (s) of Infantile glaucoma is/are except:
A. Aniridia may be associated
B. Treatment includes trabeculotomy
C. Buphthalmos can occur
D. Cornea is thin & clear
E. May be associated with Sturge-weber syndrome
Answer: D
273. In Snellen’s chart, eye subtends an angle of how many minutes with letters on Snellen’s chart?
A. 1 min of arc
B. 5 min of arc
C. 10 min of arc
D. 15 min of arc
Answer: B
274. Listers perimeter is used for
A. Kinetic Visual field testing
B. Static Visual field testing
C. Both kinetic and static visual testing
D. None of these
Answer: A
275. What is the type of Goldman tonometry?
A. Applanation Tonometry
B. Dynamic countour tonometry
C. Rebound tonometry
D. Impression tonometry
Answer: A
276. Spasm of accommodation mimics
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Amblyopia
D. Presbiopia
Answer: A
277. Subretinal haemorrhage at the macula in myopia is known as?
A. Lacquer cracks
B. Foster Fuchs spot
C. Staphyloma
D. Macular retinoschisis
Answer: B
278. Dispersive prism functions for
A. Splitting light into different wavelengths
B. Reflecting light
C. Polarizing light
D. None
Answer: A
279. Corneal epithelial repair includes all of the following phases except
A. Cell proliferation
B. Cell migration
C. Cell adhesion
D. Cell fusion
Answer: D
280. Conjunctival staining is done by all except
A. Fluoroscein
B. India ink
C. Rose Bengal
D. Lissamine
Answer: B
281. Pseudogerontoxon is seen in
A. Vernal keratopathy
B. Choroidal melanoma
C. Trachoma
D. Retinoblastoma
Answer: A
282. A 50 year old male presents with cicatricial entopion of upper and lower eyelid. On eversion of upper eyelid, linear conjunctival scars – Arlt line are seen. What is the diagnosis?
A. Trachoma
B. Spring catarrah
C. Ligneous conjunctivitis
D. Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome
Answer: A
283. Pain is out of proportion to signs in which corneal ulcer?
A. Herpes simplex keratits
B. Acanthamoeba keratitis
C. Fungal keratitis
D. Pneumococcal keratitis
Answer: B
284. Oblate ellipsoid appearance of cornea is seen in which of the following conditions?
A. Post myopic LASIK surgery
B. With the rule astigmatism
C. Bi-oblique astigmatism
D. Oblique astigmatism
Answer: A
285. Which of the following Glycosaminoglycans are not present in cornea
A. Keratin sulfate
B. Chondroitin sulfate
C. Chondroitin
D. Heparin sulfate
Answer: D
286. Iron deposition line at edge of pterygium on corneal epithelium is known as?
A. Stocker’s line
B. KF Ring
C. Fleischer ring
D. Ferrys line
Answer: A
287. Which order neuron is optic nerve in the visual pathway?
A. First order
B. Second order
C. Third order
D. None of these
Answer: B
288. Purkinje image test is used in
A. Keratomoter
B. Retinoscopy
C. Optical coherence tomography
D. Pachymeter
Answer: D
289.Which of the following is not a part of uveal
A. Iris
B. Ciliary body
C. Choroid
D. Retina
Answer: D
290. All except one are true for Scleromalacia perforans
A. It is non inflammatory scleritis
B. It affects only males
C. Perforation of the globe is extremely rare
D. Vision is unaffected
Answer: B
291. Blue dot cataract is caused by
A. Diabetes
B. Wilson’s disease
C. Atopic dermatitis
D. Chalcosis
Answer: C
292. Which of the following is complication of prolonged use of corticosteroid eye drops?
A. Posterior Subcapsular cataract
B. Nuclear cataract
C. Capsular cataract
D. Cortical cataract
Answer: A
293. False about treatment of cataract in children is
A. ECCE is the treatment of choice
B. In case of bilateral cataract imparing vision surgery must be
done by 4-6 weeks of age
C. Lensectomy is not one of the methods of extracapsular
extraction
D. Intraocular lens implantation must be done only after 2 years of
age
Answer: C
294. What is the new advance in cataract surgery?
A. Femtosecond Laser
B. Neodymium Laser
C. Nanosecond Laser
D. Picosecond Laser
Answer: A
295. Which of the following step is not done during phacoemulsification surgery for cataract?
A. Irrigation and drainage of cortex
B. Continuous curvilinear capsulorrhexis
C. Foldable IOL implantation
D. Sclerocorneal tunnel
Answer: D
296. Phacoemulsification uses
A. High frequency sound waves
B. Infrared waves
C. Ultraviolet rays
D. None of these
Answer: A
297. Post operative complications of cataract are all except?
A. After cataract
B. Endophthalmitis
C. Glaucoma
D. Scleritis
Answer: D
298. Hemeralopia is seen in
A. Retinal detachment
B. Retinitis pigmentosa
C. Optic neuritis
D. Subcapsular cataract
Answer: D
299. Which of the following is a good dye is used for lens in cataract surgery?
A. Trypan Blue
B. Fluoroscein
C. India ink
D. None
Answer: A
300. Which of the following is a layer between choroid and retina?
A. Bruch’s membrane
B. Descemet’s membrane
C. Photoreceptors
D. Ganglion cell layer
Answer: A
301. 100 day glaucoma is caused by
A. CRVO
B. CRAO
C. Buphthalmos
D. Age related macular degeneration
Answer: A
302. Keeth Wagner classification is for
A. Hypertensive retinopathy
B. Diabetic maculpathy
C. CRVO
D. CRAO
Answer: A
303. In which of the following, intraocular pressure is very high and inflammation is minimum?
A. Glaucomatocyclic crisis
B. Acute iridocyclitis
C. Hypetensive uveitis
D. Angle closure glaucoma
Answer: A
304. Cell bodies of Muller’s Cells are present in which layer of retina?
A. Inner limiting membrane
B. Outer nuclear layer
C. Retinal pigment epithelium
D. Ganglion cell layer
Answer: A
305. Which of the following is true about signs of angle in closure glaucoma except
A. Vertical semi dialted puil
B. Edematous cornea
C. Multiple iris nodules
D. Edematous and hyperemic optic disc
Answer: C
306. Which of the following is false statement about vitreous?
A. Anatomically, vitreous is present in anterior segment
B. Vitreous largely contain water and hyaluronic acid
C. Strongest attachment of vitreous base is at ora serrata
D. Vitreous is attached anteriorly to the lens
Answer: A
307. Phacodonesis is seen in all except
A. Traumatic injury to the eye
B. Hypermature cataract
C. Pseudoexfoliation
D. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: D
308. Which of the following is true about divergent squint
A. It is also called exotropia
B. It is more common than convergent squint
C. It is a feature of 6th nerve palsy
D. All of the following
Answer: A
309. Crossed eye fixation is positive in
A. Esotropia
B. Exotropia
C. Hypertropia
D. Hypotropia
Answer: A
310. Partial ptosis is oculomotor nerve injury is due to intact
A. Supply from opposite oculomotor nerve
B. Sympathetic innervation
C. Parasympathetic innervation
D. Action of orbicularis oculi
Answer: B
311. Retinoblastomas show all of the following except
A. Small round cells
B. Necrosis
C. Pseudorosettes and Fleurettes
D. None
Answer: D
312. Which of the following is most common visual defect in papilloedema
A. Amourosis fugax
B. Homonymous hemianopia
C. Homonymous quadrantopia
D. Glare
Answer: A
313. What is the treatment of meibomianitis ?
A. Cleansing the lid edges
B. Application of moist heat
C. Local antibiotics
D. All of the above
Answer: D
314. Most common site of basal cell carcinoma of the eye is
A. Eyelid
B. Conjunctiva
C. Cornea
D. Lacrimal apparatus
Answer: A
315. Ankyloblepheron is defined as
A. Adhesion of the lid to the eyeballs
B. Adhesion of the lid margins to each other
C. Inturned eyelash
D. Inflammation of the lid margin
Answer: B
316. The globe is displaced to which side in lacrimal gland tumour?
A. Inferotemporal
B. Inferonasal
C. Superotemoral
D. Nasal
Answer: B
317. ‘D’ shaped pupil is seen in
A. Glaucoma
B. Dislocation of lens
C. Iridodialysis
D. Iridocyclitis
Answer: C
318. Investigation of choice for optic neuritis is ?
A. MRI Brain and orbit
B. Ct scan Brain and orbit
C. Vitreous biopsy
D. Electooculogram
Answer: A
319. Ocular findings in diabetes are all except
A. Retinopathy
B. Early senile cataract
C. Neovascular glaucoma
D. Blepharophimosis
Answer: D
320. Which of the following is a long term side effect of phakic 10Ls
A. Chronic glaucoma
B. Retinal detachment
C. Optic neuritis
D. None
Answer: A
321. Most common protozoan causing keratitis is
A. Plasmodium
B. Acanthamoeba
C. Toxoplasma
D. W. bancrofti
Answer: B
322. Most common protozoan causing keratitis is
A. Plasmodium
B. Acanthamoeba
C. Toxoplasma
D. W. bancrofti
Answer: B
323. Treatment of acute dacrocystitis in stage of cellulitis is ?
A. Antibiotics
B. Abscess drainage
C. DCT
D. DCR
Answer: A
324. What is the correct sequence of xerophthalmia
A. Nightblindness 4 Conjunctival xerosis → corneal xerosis corneal ulcer
B. Conjunctival xerosis → corneal xerosis → corneal
ulcer → Nightblindness
C. Corneal xerosis → corneal ulcer 4 Nightblindness → Conjunctival xerosis
D. Corneal ulcer → Nightblindness → Conjunctival xerosis -3 corneal xerosis
Answer: A
325. Which eye muscle has radial, longitudinal and circular fibres?
A. Sphinctor Pupillae
B. Dilator Pupillae
C. Levator palpebrae Superioris
D. Ciliary muscle
Answer: D
326. Required for IOL power calculation ?
A. Corneal topography
B. Gonioscopy
C. Indirect Ophthalmoscopy
D. Keratometry
Answer: D
327.Immediate treatment of acute dacryocystitis is?
A. Antibiotics and drainage of abscesss if present
B. Dacryocystorhinostomy
C. Dacryocystectomy
D. Nasal decongestants
Answer: A
328. True about imaging spectrometry is ?
A. Allows simultaneous measurements of reflectance spectra along a line
B. Is useful in diagnosing against the rule astigmatism
C. Spectrometry is an essential investigation before trabeculectomy
D. It is based on the principle of Sturm’s Conoid
Answer: A
329. The principle of total internal reflection is used by?
A. Gonioscope
B. Pachymeter
C. Ophthalmoscope
D. Lensometer
Answer: A
330. Refractory error measured by all except ?
A. Keratometry
B. Retinoscopy
C. Refractometry
D. Spectrometry
Answer: D
331. Ansiokonia is ?
A. Projection of different coloured images into visual cortex
B. Projection of different shaped images into visual cortex of two retinae
C. Change in the velocity of perceived objects
D. Partial intermittent visual loss
Answer: B
332. Parasitosis of extraocular eye muscles is seen in?
A. Trichinosis
B. Cysticercosis
C. Amoebiasis
D. Ascariasis
Answer: A
333. Most powerful refractory surface of eye is
A. Conjunctiva
B. Cornea
C. Vitreous
D. Lens
Answer: B
334. Astigmatism is defined as ?
A. Refractory error wherein refraction varies along different meridians
B. Refractory error due to long AP length of eye ball
C. Varying refractory error in both eyes
D. Varying Shape perception by both eyes
Answer: A
335. CHARGE syndrome includes all except ?
A. Eye Coloboma
B. Congenital heart disease
C. Urinary tract defects
D. Esophageal Atresia
Answer: D
336. Anteroposterior change in length of eye is called ?
A. Anisokonia
B. Curvatural anisotropia
C. Axial Ametropia
D. Emmetropia
Answer: C
337. Features of Usher’s Syndrome include all except ?
A. Night Blindness
B. Visual Impairment
C. Multiple Neurofibromas
D. Hearing deficit
Answer: C
338. In a case of myopia, LASIK will provide correction upto ?
A. 20D
B. 12D
C. 6D
D. 4D
Answer: B
339. What is the most common eye lesion in HIV?
A. Kaposi Sarcoma of Lid
B. CMV Retinitis
C. Cotton wool spots
D. Choroiditis
Answer: C
340. What is reverse hypopyon?
A. Collection of pus in the vireous
B. Collection of emulsified silicon oil in anterior chamber
C. Abscess in the orbit
D. Seen in corneal ulcer close to being ruptured
Answer: B
341. Silk retina is seen in ?
A. Hypermetropia
B. Myopia
C. Astigmatism
D. Presbyopia
Answer: A
342. All of the following drugs increase the risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting after squint surgery in children except ?
A. Halothane
B. Opiods
C. Propofol
D. Nitrous Oxide
Answer: C
343. All of the following are complications of traumatic hyphema except?
A. Rebleeding
B. Pupillary Block
C. Corneal Ulcer
D. Posterior synechiae
Answer: C
344. Pseudopapilitis with silk shot appearance is seen in?
A. Hypermetropia
B. Myopia
C. Astigmatism
D. Presbyopia
Answer: A
345. 1mm change axial length of the eyeball would change the refracting power of the eye by ?
A. 1D
B. 2D
C. 3D
D. 4D
Answer: C
346. D Shaped pupil is seen in ?
A. Iridodialysis
B. Iridodonesis
C. Anterior Uveitis
D. Anterior synechiae
Answer: A
347. Lensometer detects ?
A. Correct power of a pair of glasses
B. Corneal topography
C. Biochemical constitution of lens
D. Power of IOL
Answer: A
348. Sixth cranial nerve palsy causes of left eye causes?
A. Accomodation paresis in left gaze
B. Ptosis of left eye
C. Adduction weakness of left eye
D. Diplopia in left gaze
Answer: D
349. All of the following are treatments of myopia except?
A. LASIK
B. Phakic intraocular lens
C. Radial Keratotomy
D. Holmium laser thermoplasty
Answer: D
350.Pupillary reflex pathway- All of the following are a part except ?
A. Edinger Westphal nucleus
B. Pretectal nudes
C. Medial geniculate body
D. Retinal ganglion cell
Answer: C
351. Index myopia is seen in ?
A. Nuclear cataracts
B. Chorioretinitis
C. Choroidal melanoma
D. Posterior uveitis
Answer: A
352. Sudden painless loss of vision- All are causes except?
A. CRAO
B. CSR
C. Acute congestive glaucoma
D. Vitereous Hemorrhage
Answer: C
353.The most common type of strabismus seen in myopes is?
A. Intermittent Exotropia
B. Intermittent Esotropia
C. Esotropia hypotropia complex
D. Exoptropia Hypotropia complex
Answer: A
354. Muscae volitantes is seen in ?
A. Vitreous detachment
B. Vitreous Hemorrhage
C. Remains of primitive hyaloid vasculatur
D. Eale’s disease
Answer: C
355. All of the following are causes Crystal keratopathy except?
A. Cystinosis
B. Schnyder’s Dystrophy
C. Bietti’s Dystrophy
D. Diabetes
Answer: D
356. Most common age related change in vitreous ?
A. Anterior vitreous detachment
B. Posterior vitreous detachment
C. Vitreous hemorrhage
D. Vitritis
Answer: B
357. What is true about retinal hemorrhage in new born?
A. More common in instrumented deliveries
B. Resolve in 6 – 8 months
C. Commonly unilateral
D. Associated with intrauterine infection
Answer: A
358. Subhyaloid hemorrhage is ?
A. Boat shaped
B. Crescent shaped
C. Round
D. Flame shaped
Answer: A
359. Prutchners retinopathy in associated with
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Wilson’s disease
C. Head trauma
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: C
360. Snowball appearance is seen in ?
A. Posterior uveitis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Anterior uveitis
D. Vitreous Hemorrhage
Answer: B
361. Unilateral frontal blisters with upper lid edema with conjunctivitis is seen in ?
A. Acanthamoeba Keratits
B. Herpes Simplex
C. Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus
D. Neuroparalytic Keratitis
Answer: C
362. What is false about Eale’s disease amongst the followwing?
A. Retinal detachment may occur
B. AKT is given
C. Optic neuritis
D. Vitreous Hemorrhage
Answer: C
363. A 44 year old woman presents Sudden painless loss of vision with history of previous similar episode fundoscopy shows no glow. What could be the possible diagnosis?
A. Vitreous Hemorrhage
B. Rhegmatogenous Retinal Detachment
C. Acute congestive glaucoma
D. Fungal Keratitis
Answer: A
364. Glaucoma drainage devices ?
A. Drain aqueous humour to the posterior segment
B. Drain aqueous humour to an external device
C. Open the trabeculae mechanically
D. Reduce the aqueous secretion by compressing the ciliary
epithelium
Answer: B
365. What is the cause of glaucoma in retinoblastoma?
A. Blockge of trabecular network
B. Neovascularisation
C. Mass effect of the tumour
D. Lysis of the lens
Answer: B
366. Mioitcs are treatment of choice for ?
A. Angle closure glaucoma
B. Open angle glaucoma
C. Buphthalmos
D. Sympathetic Ophthalmia
Answer: A
367. Which organism can peneterate corneal endothelium?
A. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Staphylococcus Aureus
C. Neisseriae Gonorrhae
D. Hemophilus influenza
Answer: A
368. Earliest sign of primary congenital glaucoma ?
A. Corneal edema with watering
B. Haab’s Striae
C. Blue sclera
D. Myopia
Answer: A
369. The zonules suspending the lens are attached to the?
A. Root of iris
B. Ciliary body
C. Anterior vitreous
D. Limbus
Answer: B
370. Descemet membrane breach is seen in ?
A. Angle closure glaucoma
B. Buphthalmos
C. Acute Iridocyclitis
D. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Answer: B
371. Lens attached to ciliary body via ?
A. Limbus
B. Zonules
C. Vitreous Humour
D. Root of iris
Answer: B
372. What is not true about congenital glaucoma of eye?
A. Photophobia is most common symptom
B. Haab’s Striae maybe seen
C. Thin and blue sclera seen
D. Anterior chamber is shallow
Answer: A
373. The intraocular lens in cataract surgery is placed in ?
A. Surface of iris
B. Capsular bag
C. Over the face of viterous
D. Around the limbus
Answer: B
374. Non foldable lens is made of
A. Silicon
B. Acrylic
C. PMMA
D. Hydrogel
Answer: C
375. What is the type of Galactosemia cataract?
A. Snowflake
B. Oil drop
C. Blue dot
D. Polychromatic lustre
Answer: B
376. In head injury unilateral dilatation of pupil is seen due to ?
A. Occulomotor nerve compression
B. Ophthalmic N. compression
C. Trizeminal N. compression
D. None
Answer: A
377. The junction between Retina & Ciliary body is ??
A. Equator
B. Pars plicata
C. Pars plana
D. Ora serrata
Answer: D
378. “Bread-crumb” appearance is seen in ?
A. Diabetic cataract
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. CMV retinitis
D. Complicated cataract
Answer: D
379. Yoke muscle for left superior rectus is ?
A. Right superior rectus
B. Left inferior rectus
C. Right inferior oblique
D. Right superior oblique
Answer: C
380. Downward and outward moment of eye is effected in injury of?
A. 3rd nerve
B. 4th nerve
C. 5th nerve
D. 6th nerve
Answer: B
381. Irregular pupil is seen in ?
A. Glaucoma
B. Trauma
C. Occulomotor pulsy
D. Retinal detachment
Answer: B
382. Low astigmatism in dim light is due ?
A. Pupil constriction
B. Pupil dilatation
C. Increased curvature of lens
D. Decreased curvature of lens
Answer: B
383. Disciform keratitis is seen ?
A. HSV
B. HIV
C. HBV
D. Rubella
Answer: A
384. Corneal dystrophy, true is
A. Inflammatory
B. Neovascularization
C. Bilateral
D. All
Answer: C
385. Following corneal transplantation, most common infection occur ?
A. Staph epidermidis
B. Streptococcus
C. Klebsiella
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: A
386. 1st sign of anterior uveitis ?
A. Keratic precipitate
B. Aqueous flare
C. Hypopyon
D. Miosis
Answer: B
387. 1st sign of iridocyclitis ?
A. Retrolental flare
B. KP
C. Congestion
D. Trichiasis
Answer: A
388. Most common cause of anterior uveitis ?
A. CMV
B. Ankylosing spondylitis
C. Toxoplasma
D. None
Answer: A
389. Iritis in young patient with joint pain
A. Gout
B. RA
C. AS
D. Toxoplasma
Answer: C
390. Commonest complication of pars planitis ?
A. Glaucoma
B. Cataract
C. Retinal detachment
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
Answer: B
391. Metamorphopsia is seen in ?
A. Anterior uveitis
B. Posterior uveitis
C. Cataract
D. Glaucoma
Answer: B
392. Recurrent anterior uveitis with increased intraocular tension is seen in ?
A. Posner schlossman syndrome
B. Foster kennedy syndrome
C. Vogt-koyanagi-harada syndrome
D. None
Answer: A
393.Congenital cataract commonly associated with visual defect?
A. Punctate Cataract
B. Blue dot cataract
C. Zonular cataract
D. Fusiform cataract
Answer: C
394. Decreased reading ability is seen in ?
A. Fusiform cataract
B. Zonular cataract
C. Blue dot cataract
D. Punctate cataract
Answer: B
395. Lens subluxates in homocystinuria ?
A. Inferotemporal
B. Inferonasal
C. Superonasal
D. Superotemporal
Answer: B
396. Second sight is seen in ?
A. Nuclear cataract
B. Cortical cataract
C. Zonular cataract
D. Punctate cataract
Answer: A
397. Congenital cataract with visual disturbances surgery should be done ?
A. Immediately
B. After 2 months
C. After 4 months
D. After 1 year
Answer: A
398. Most common type of congenital cataract is ?
A. Capsular
B. Zonular
C. Coralliform
D. Blue dot
Answer: D
399. Treatment of traumatic cataract in children ?
A. ECCE + IOL
B. Lensectomy
C. Contact lens
D. Glasses
Answer: A
400. Jack in box scotoma is seen after correction of Aphakia by?
A. IOL
B. Spectacles
C. Contact lens
D. None
Answer: B
401. False about phacolytic glaucoma ?
A. Due to contact of iris to lens
B. Open angle glaucoma
C. Seen in hypermature stage of cataract
D. Lens induced glaucoma
Answer: A
402. Neovascular glaucoma is seen in all except?
A. Diabetes
B. CRVO
C. Eale’s disease
D. Open angle glaucoma
Answer: D
403. Laser iridotomy is done in ?
A. Angle closure glaucoma
B. Open angle glaucoma
C. Pigmentory glaucoma
D. None
Answer: A
404. In acute angle closure glaucoma, primary mechanism of pathogenesis is ?
A. Increased secretion
B. Increased absorption but increased secretion
C. Outflow obstruction
D. None
Answer: C
405. Not a risk factor for angle closure glaucoma ?
A. Small eye
B. Hypermetropia
C. Small cornea
D. Small lens
Answer: D
406. Staphlyoma involvement ?
A. Iris with conjunctiva
B. Conjunctiva with cornea
C. Choroid with retina
D. Iris with cornea
Answer: D
407. Best drug for open angle glaucoma ?
A. Latanoprost
B. Pilocarpine
C. Physostigmine
D. Apraclonidine
Answer: A
408. Corneal tattooing is done by ?
A. Gold chloride
B. Silver chloride
C. Titanium chloride
D. Aluminium chloride
Answer: A
409. Broadest neuroretinal rim is seen in
A. Sup pole
B. Inf pole
C. Nasal pole
D. Temporal lobe
Answer: B
410. Enucleation is indicated in ?
A. Acute congestive glaucoma
B. Panophthalmitis
C. Retinoblastoma
D. None
Answer: C
411. Retinitis pigmentosa is due to defect in which gene
A. Scotopsin
B. Rhodopsin
C. Pigmented epithelium
D. None
Answer: B
412. Iris cloboma is most common in ?
A. Inferotemporal
B. Soperotemporal
C. Inferonasal
D. Soperonasal
Answer: C
413. Eales disease is ?
A. Recurrent optic neuritis
B. Recurrent pappilloedema
C. Recurrent periphelbitis retinae
D. None
Answer: C
414. Shaffer’s sign is seen in ?
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Retinal detachment
C. CRVO
D. CRAO
Answer: B
415. Deposit in retinal macular degeneration ?
A. Iron
B. Drusen
C. Lipochrome
D. Hemosiderine
Answer: B
416. Vitreous hemorrhage in diabetic retinopathy ?
A. Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
B. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
C. Both
D. None
Answer: B
417. Head light in fog appearance is seen in ?
A. Syphilis
B. Toxoplasmoss
C. Toxocara
D. Herpes
Answer: B
418. Coloboma, most common site ?
A. Superotemporal
B. Inferonasal
C. Inferotemporal
D. Superonasal
Answer: B
419. Salt & pepper fundus ?
A. Cong toxoplasmosis
B. Cong histoplasmosis
C. Congenital syphilis
D. None
Answer: C
420. Expulsive hemorrhage in cataract surgery is from?
A. Vortex vein
B. Ciliary artery
C. Choroidal vein
D. None
Answer: B
421. Cattle track appearence ?
A. CRVO
B. CRAO
C. Diabetic retinopathy
D. Syphilitic retinopathy
Answer: B
422. Eale’s disease is ?
A. Retinal hemorrhage
B. Vitreous hemorrhage
C. Conjunctival hemorrhage
D. Choroidal hemorrhage
Answer: B
423. Extra retinal fibrovascular proliferation at ridge is?
A. Normal
B. Stage I ROM
C. Stage II ROM
D. Stage III ROM
Answer: D
424. All are seen in 3′ nerve palsy ?
A. Mydriasis
B. Loss of light reflex
C. Loss of abduction
D. Ptosis
Answer: C
425. Swinging light test is positive in ?
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Glaucoma
C. Retrobulbar neuritis
D. Keratoconus
Answer: C
426. Optic tract lesion causes ?
A. Wernicke’s hemianopic pupil
B. Amauratic pupil
C. Amauratic pupil
D. None
Answer: A
427. Amblyopia is caused by ?
A. Methyl alcohol
B. Penicillin
C. Propranolol
D. None
Answer: A
428. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes ?
A. Centrocaecal scotoma
B. Binasal hemianopia
C. Constriction of peripheral field
D. Bitemporal hemianopia
Answer: A
429. Cause of bilateral optic atrophy ?
A. Trauma to optic nerve
B. Intracranial neoplasma
C. CRAO
D. Optic neuritis
Answer: B
430.Earliest muscle to involve in thyroid ophthalmopathy?
A. MR
B. LR
C. IR
D. SR
Answer: C
431. Which of the following is longest extraocular muscle?
A. SR
B. MR
C. SO
D. IO
Answer: C
432. Treatment of choice for amblyopia is ?
A. Convergent exercises
B. Spectacles
C. Surgery
D. Conventional occlusion
Answer: D
433. Alkali causes ?
A. Symblepharon
B. Papilloedema
C. Optic neuritis
D. Retinal detachment
Answer: A
434. Unilateral lacrimal gland destruction may be caused by?
A. Inferior orbital fissure fracture
B. Fracture of roof of orbit
C. Fracture of lateral wall
D. Fracture of sphenoid
Answer: B
435. After trauma, A person cannot move eye outword beyond mid point. The nerve injured is ?
A. 2nd
B. 3rd
C. 4th
D. 6th
Answer: D
436. Bilateral ptosis is seen in all except ?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Congenital
C. Trauma
D. Myotonic dystrophy
Answer: C
437. Angle of squint is measured by ?
A. Gonioscopy
B. Prism
C. Retinoscopy
D. Keratometry
Answer: B
438. Most common cause of intermittent proptosis ?
A. Orbital varix
B. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Retinoblastoma
Answer: A
439. Most common cause of ophthalmoplegia ?
A. Aneurysm
B. Infection
C. Mysthenia gravis
D. None
Answer: A
440. Massaging of nasolacrimal duct is done in ?
A. Acute dacryocystitis
B. Congenital dacryocystitis
C. Conjunctivitis
D. None
Answer: B
441. Ataxia, nystagmus and ophthalmoplegia is seen in
A. Mysthenia gravis
B. Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia
C. 3rd nerve palsy
D. None
Answer: B
442. Abnormally eccentric placed pupil is called ?
A. Polycoria
B. Corectopia
C. Corectopia
D. Ectopia lentis
Answer: B
443. Child with mild squint. Intrauterine, birth history, developmental history till date all normal. Corneal reflex normal. All other eye parameters normal except exaggerated epicanthal fold. Diagnosis ?
A. Pseudostrabismus
B. Accommodative squint
C. Exophoria
D. Esophoria
Answer: A
444. Madarosis is seen in ?
A. Addison’s disease
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Acromegaly
D. None
Answer: B
445. MC orbital tumor ?
A. Nerve sheath tumor
B. Hemangioma
C. Lymphoma
D. Meningioma
Answer: B
446. Loss of eyelashes is ?
A. Tylosis
B. Madarosis
C. Trichiasis
D. Ectropion
Answer: B
447. Fusion of palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva is
A. Symblepharon
B. Trichiasis
C. Ectropion
D. Tylosis
Answer: A
448.Most common orbital tumor has its origin from?
A. Blood vessels
B. Nerves
C. Muscle
D. Lymph node
Answer: A
449. Retinal astrocytoma is seen in ?
A. Tuberous sclerosis
B. Sturge weber syndrome
C. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
D. None
Answer: A
450. Most common malignant tumour of eyelid is ?
A. Sebaceous gland carcinoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Malignant melanoma
Answer: B
451. Most common carcinoma of conjunctiva ?
A. Squamous cell Ca
B. Basal cell ca
C. Melanoma
D. Lymphoma
Answer: A
452. Astigmatism in emmetropic eye of elderly person contribute to:
A. +1d
B. +2D
C. +3d
D. +4d
Answer: C
453. 100 day Glaucoma seen in which of the following condition:
A. Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)
B. Neovascular glaucoma
C. Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)
D. Steroid induced Glaucoma
Answer: A
454. Q Roth spots is seen in:
A. Uveal melanoma
B. Acute leukaemia
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above
Answer: B
455. Yoke muscle of right lateral rectus:
A. Lt medial rectus
B. Lt superior rectus
C. Lt lateral rectus
D. Lt inferior oblique
Answer: A
456. Severe Conjunctivitis caused by:
A. Neisseria
B. Staphylococcus
C. Streptococcus
D. Haemophilus
Answer: A
457. Which is example of the Simple Myopic Astigmatism among the prescriptions given below:
A. Rx (+) sphere
B. Rx will be plano (-)
C. Rx will be (-) sphere
D. (-)(+) (+)(-) on both 90 and 180 degree axis
Answer: B
458. Blow out fracture of orbit involves:
A. Floor
B. Medial wall
C. Lateral wall
D. Roof
Answer: A
459. A diabetic patient 2 days after post cataract surgery develops develops hypopyon. What will be the management?
A. Intravitreal antibiotics
B. Eye drops
C. Surgery
D. No treatment required
Answer: A
460.What is the Thinnest part of neuro-retinal rim according to ISNT rule?
A. Inferior
B. Superficial
C. Temporal
D. Medial
Answer: C
461. What causes shifting fluid?
A. Exudative Retinal detachment
B. Tractional Retinal Detachment
C. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
D. Retinodialysis
Answer: A
462. Conjunctival injection, pharyngeal injection, polymorphic rash, cervical lymphadenopathy can be seen in
A. Kawasaki syndrome
B. Measles
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Mumps
Answer: A
463. Incongruous Homonymous hemianopia with Wernicke’s hemianopia pupil is seen with the lesion of
A. Optic radiation
B. Lateral geniculate body
C. Optic tract
D. Anterior occipital cortex
Answer: C
464. The patient came with proptosis, restriction of eye movements, and was Euthyroid. What could this be from?
A. Orbital Cellulitis
B. Orbital Lymphoma
C. Orbital pseudotumor
D. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
Answer: C
465. Prerequisite for sympathetic ophthalmitis
A. Penetrating injury to the eye
B. Blunt ocular tumor
C. Chemical injury
D. Urinary tract infection
Answer: A
466. Photostress test to differentiate
A. Lens and cornea
B. The macula and Optic nerve diseases
C. Cataract and glaucoma
D. Retinal and vitreous diseases
Answer: B
467. Which layer of cornea helps in the hydration of stroma of cornea
A. Endothelium
B. Epithelium
C. Descemet membrane
D. Stroma
Answer: A
468. A 65 old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes, presents to the OPD with complaints of diplopia and squint. On examination, the secondary deviation is more than the primary deviation. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis
A. concomitant squint
B. paralytic squint
C. Restrictive squint
D. Pseudo squint
Answer: B
469. Esotropia is common in
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Emmetropia
D. Astigmatism
Answer: B
470. An extra row of cilia posterior to the grey line
A. Distichiasis
B. Tylosis
C. Madarosis
D. Trichiasis
Answer: A
471. The patient came with unilateral Proptosis and bilateral Abducent nerve palsy. This could be from
A. Cavernous sinus
B. Orbital cellulitis
C. Orbital pseudotumor
D. Orbital lymphoma
Answer: A
472. The characteristic finding of fungal ulcers?
A. Satellite lesions
B. Dendritic ulcer
C. Ring abscess
D. White hypopyon
Answer: A
473. A drug used in a patient with increased IOP and optic disc changes, ciliary congestion for decrease IOP acts by increasing uveoscleral outflow is
A. Latanoprost
B. Pilocarpine
C. Dorzolamide
D. Timolol
Answer: A
474. A patient diagnosed with Rheumatoid arthritis was on medications. After 2 years, he developed a blurring vision and was found to have corneal opacity. Which drug is most likely to cause this?
A. Sulfasalazine
B. Chloroquine
C. Methotrexate
D. Leflunomide
Answer: B