Pharmacology Multiple Choice Questions Quiz NEET
1. Finasteride is a:
A. 5 alpha reductase inhibitor
B. PDE inhibitor
C. Alpha la blocker
D. Androgen receptor blocker
Answer: A
2. A sensitivity 47-year-old woman presents with complaints of nervousness and increased to hot weather. She is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and prescribed propylthiouracil. What is the principal mechanism by which this drug acts?
A. Decreasing the efficacy of TSH binding to the thyroid TSH receptor
B. Decreasing the rate of proteolysis of thyroglobulin
C. Increasing the amount of 3,3′,5′-triiodothyronine (reverse T3; rT3)
D. Inhibiting deiodination of thyroxine (T4)
Answer: D
2. Spironolactone should NOT be given with the following pharmacological agent:
A. Chlorothiazide
B. b-blocker
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Amlodipine
Answer: C
4. Maximum plasma protein bound drug is ?
A. NTG
B. Verapamil
C. Aspirin
D. GTN
Answer: B
5. Mechanism of action of quinolones is?
A. DNA gyrase inhibitors
B. Bind to 30 s unit
C. Bind to bacterial cell membrane
D. Bind to tetrahydofolate reductase
Answer: D
6. Drug NOT used in pulmonary hypertension ‑
A. Calcium channel blocker
B. Endothelin receptor antagonist
C. Alpha blocker
D. Prostacyclin
Answer: C
7. Regarding efficacy and potency of a drug, all are true, EXCEPT:
A. In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency
B. In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy
C. ED50 of the drug corresponds to efficacy
D. Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of efficacy
Answer: C
8. Zero-order kinetics is otherwise known as saturation kinetics. It is independent of:
A. Plasma concentration
B. Clearance
C. Volume of distribution
D. Half life
Answer: A
9. Filgrastim is used in treatment of:
A. Anemia
B. Neutropenia
C. Malaria
D. Filarial
Answer: B
10. Guanethidine is used in the treatment of which of the following condition?
A. Thyrotoxic ophthalmopathy
B. Ptosis
C. Bell’s palsy
D. Horner’s syndrome
Answer: A
11. CYP3A inhibitors is/are
A. Ritonavir
B. Amiodarone
C. Verapamil
D. a and c
Answer: D
12. In the metabolism of alcohol, high doses of aspirin & phenytoin, mechanism is ?
A. First pass kinetics
B. First order kinetics
C. Zero order kinetics
D. Second order kinetics
Answer: C
13. Type B adverse drug reaction
A. Augmented effect of drug
B. Unpredictable Bizzare reaction
C. Effect seen on chronic use of drug
D. Delayed effect of drug
Answer: B
14. Urinary bladder spasmolytic having local anaesthetic property
A. Tamsulosin
B. Terazosin
C. Oxybutynin
D. Yohimbine
Answer: C
15. Dopamine all of the following is true Except?
A. Causes increase in GI Isehemia
B. Positive ionotropic
C. Improves renal perfusion
D. Causes Vasoconstriction
Answer: A
16. All are alpha-blocker except?
A. Atenolol
B. Prazosin
C. Indoramine
D. Idazoxan
Answer: A
17. The side effects of digitalis are all except ?
A. Ventricular tachycardia
B. Vasodilatation
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Ventricular Bigemini
Answer: B
18. Which of the following potassium sparing diuretic alters cardiac mortality
A. Spironolactone
B. Amiloride
C. Triamterene
D. Epleronone
Answer: A
19. Anti androgen used in heart failure ?
A. Carvedilol
B. Sampatrilat
C. Spironolactone
D. Abiraterone
Answer: C
20. Iodine content in amiodarone
A. 10 – 20%
B. 20 – 40%
C. 40 – 60%
D. 60 – 80%
Answer: B
21. Which is true about calcium channel blockers
A. Verapamil causes reflex tachycardia
B. Diltiazam causes reflex tachycardia
C. Nifedipine causes reflex tachycardia
D. Nifedipine has longer t1/2 than felodipine
Answer: C
22. Centrally acting antihypertensive drug is ?
A. Phenoxybenzamine
B. Methy ldopa
C. Propanolol
D. Prazosin
Answer: B
23. Wrong about clonidine is
A. Alpha 2 receptor agonist
B. First line for AMID
C. Sudden withdrawal causes rebound hypertension
D. Controls loose motions due to diabetic neuropathy
Answer: B
24. Which of the following causes increased rennin on prolonged use ?
A. Clonidine
B. Enalapril
C. Methyldopa
D. Blocker
Answer: B
25. Side effect of thiazide diuretics are all except ?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Erectile dysfunction
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: A
26. Desmopressin is preferred over vasopressin because desmopressin
A. More potent
B. More selective for Vireceptor
C. Has little vasoconstrictor activity
D. a and c
Answer: D
27. In diabetes insipidus, diuretic showing paradoxical antiduretic activity
A. Thiazide
B. Triamterene
C. Spironolactone
D. Furosemide
Answer: A
28. True regarding Conivaptan is
A. Vasopressin Antagonist
B. V2 selective action
C. Given orally
D. All
Answer: A
29. 5 HT 1 agonists used as ?
A. Anti anxiety drugs
B. Antipsychotic drugs
C. GERD
D. Chemotherapy induced vomiting
Answer: A
30. PGE2 cause all except
A. Water retention
B. Uterine contraction
C. Flushing
D. None
Answer: A
31. All are the following are the functions of PGEl except
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Erectile dysfunction
C. Induction of puberty
D. PDA
Answer: C
32. Dinoprost is
A. PG El
B. PGE2
C. PGF2 alpha
D. PGI2
Answer: C
33. Which enzyme is irreversibly inhibited by aspirin?
A. Lipooxygenase
B. Cyclooxygenase
C. Thromboxane synthase
D. Phospholipase
Answer: B
34. Which drug doesn’t include DMARD:
A. Chloroquine
B. Vincristine
C. Azathioprine
D. Leflunomide
Answer: B
35. Which of the following drugs is useful in acute attack of gout ?
A. Furosemide
B. Sulfinpyrazone
C. Allopurinol
D. Piroxicam
Answer: D
36. Efficacy of salmeterol is increased if it is given along with
A. Theophylline
B. Corticosteroid
C. Ipratropium
D. Sodium cromoglycate
Answer: B
37. Which is an intermediate acting insulin?
A. Insulin lispro
B. Regular insuin
C. NPH insulin
D. Insulin glargine
Answer: C
38. HbA1C is decreased most by?
A. Biguanides
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Thiazolidinediones
D. Acarbosc
Answer: B
39. Which antidiabetic drug is used both for type I & II DM
A. Sulphonylureas
B. Metformin
C. Acarbose
D. Pramlintide
Answer: D
40. Least glucocorticoid action is seen with ?
A. Fludrocortisone
B. Cortisone
C. Dexamethasone
D. Betamethasone
Answer: B
41. Steroid ingested for long time leads to all of the following except
A. Avascular necrosis of head of femur
B. Cataract
C. Glaucoma
D. Growth retardation
Answer: C
42. Which of the following is a synthetic estrogen ?
A. Estrone
B. Estriol
C. Estradiol
D. Diethylstibestrol
Answer: D
43. Which of the following is an aromatase inhibitor?
A. Tamoxifen
B. Letrozole
C. Danazol
D. Taxane
Answer: B
44. Which of the following is a selective progesterone receptor modulator
A. Onapristone
B. Ulipristal
C. Nomegestrol
D. Toremifene
Answer: B
45. Side effect of oxytocin is all except ?
A. Placental abruption
B. Fetal distress
C. Peripheral vascular disease
D. Water intoxication
Answer: C
46. Short acting non delpolarizing blocker ?
A. Rocurorium
B. Suxamethonium
C. Mivacurium
D. Pancuronium
Answer: C
47. Drug of choice in lignocaine toxicity
A. Bretylium
B. Amiodarone
C. Isoprenaline
D. Diazepan
Answer: D
48. Cardiotoxicity of bupivacaine
A. Depressed pacemaker activity
B. Toxic compound damaging myocardial cells
C. Depressed neural control on heart
D. Vascular thrombosis and Myocardial ischemia
Answer: A
49. Local anaesthetic injected directly into the tissue ?
A. Infiltration anaesthesia
B. Nerve block
C. Field block
D. Bier’s block
Answer: A
50. Which one of the following agents sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines
A. Isoflurane
B. Ether
C. Halothane
D. Propofol
Answer: C
51. Trilene when used with Sodalime causes ?
A. Renal damage
B. ARDS
C. Myocardial depression
D. Hepatitis
Answer: B
52. Dissociative anaesthesia is produced by
A. Ketamine
B. Etomidate
C. Propofol
D. Thiopentone
Answer: A
53. The drug for OPD analgesia is
A. Morphine
B. Pethidine
C. Fentanyl
D. Alfentanil
Answer: D
54. Inducing agent of choice in shock ?
A. Isoflurane
B. Desflurane
C. Ketamine
D. Thiopentone
Answer: C
55. Fosphenytoin different from phenytoin in which of the following
A. Can be used in absence seizures
B. Can be mixed with saline
C. Can be given orally
D. It is the drug of choice for myoclonic seizures
Answer: B
56. Toxic dose of lithium
A. 0.6
B. 12
C. 2.6
D. <0.6
Answer: C
57. Lithium causes all except
A. Polyuria
B. Nephropathy
C. Ebstein’s anomaly
D. Hyperthyroidism
Answer: D
58. Which of the following is a selective serotonin & nor epinephrine reuptake inhibitor ?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Venlafaxine
C. Sertaline
D. Arnoxipine
Answer: B
59. All of the following are CNS stimulants except?
A. Amphetamines
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Cocaine
D. Methylphenidate
Answer: B
60. All of the following have interaction with warfarin except
A. Barbiturate
B. Oral contraceptive
C. Cephalosporins
D. Benzodiazepens
Answer: D
61. Which prevents plasminogen activators?
A. Streptokinase
B. Aminocaproic acid
C. Reteplase
D. Clopidogrel
Answer: B
62. Clopidogrel mechanism of action
A. Thromboxane A2 inhibition
B. Inhibit ADP mediated cAMP activation
C. GP IIb/Ina inhibitors
D. None
Answer: B
63. Most potent statin
A. Simvastatin
B. Pravastatin
C. Rosuvastatin
D. Simvastatin
Answer: C
64. Antilipidemic drugs that prevent hypercholesterolemia by inhibiting absorption
A. Ezetimibe
B. Orlistat
C. Cholestyramine
D. Statins
Answer: A
65. Which is not a S/E of Cimetidine ?
A. Impotence
B. Gynaecomastia
C. Atrophic gastritis
D. Galactorrhea
Answer: C
66. The commonest side-effect of Cisapride is
A. Abdominal cramps
B. Diarrhea
C. Headache
D. Convulsions
Answer: B
67. Drug inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis are all except
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Clindamycin
D. Sulfonamides
Answer: D
68. Multiple drug resistance is transferred through
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Mutation
Answer: C
69. Longest acting sulphonamide is
A. Sulfadiazine
B. Sulphadoxine
C. Sulfamethoxazole
D. Sulfamethiazole
Answer: B
70. Sulphonamide injection causes decrease in folic acid by?
A. Competitive inhibition
B. Non competitive inhibition
C. Uncompetitive inhibition
D. Allosteric inhibition
Answer: A
71. All are true about ciprofloxacin except ?
A. C/I in pregnancy
B. DNA inhibition
C. Most potent 1st generation fluoroquinolone
D. More active at acidic pH
Answer: D
72. Which of the following is not mechanism for resistance to MRSA
A. Resistance is chromosomally mediated
B. Produced mainly by alteration in PBPs
C. MRSA resistance is absolutely beta-lactamase independent
D. Intrinsic resistance is known
Answer: C
73. Bleeding is seen with the use of
A. Cefaloridine
B. Cefazolin
C. Moxalactum
D. Ceftazidime
Answer: C
74. Widest spectrum aminoglycoside is
A. Streptomycin
B. Amikacin
C. Framycetin
D. Netilmicin
Answer: B
75. Red man syndrome is due to
A. Vancomycin
B. Polymyxin
C. Rifampicin
D. Teicoplanin
Answer: A
76. Not true about clofazamine ?
A. Used in DLE
B. Causes ichthyosis and hyperpigmentation
C. Interferes DNA synthesis
D. Used in lepra reaction
Answer: A
77. Drug used in hepatitis B infection is
A. Entecavir
B. Astacavir
C. Zanamivir
D. Abacavir
Answer: A
78. Which of the following antimalarial is a slow acting schizonticide
A. Artemether
B. Mefloquine
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Quinine
Answer: C
79. Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis
A. Ivermectin
B. DEC
C. Praziquantel
D. Albendazole
Answer: C
80. Drug that can cause hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is?
A. Tertacyclin
B. Erythromycin
C. Ampicillin
D. Rifampicin
Answer: B
81. Resistance to Methotrexate develops due to?
A. Rapid Cancer cell multiplication
B. Deficiency of thymidylate kinase
C. Deficiency of thymidylate synthetase
D. Increased production of dihydrofolate reductase
Answer: D
82. Which one of the following statements is false regarding vincristine
A. It is an alkaloid
B. Its use is associated with neurotoxicity
C. It does not cause alopecia
D. It is a useful drug for induction of remission in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Answer: C
83. About vinca alkaloids true is ?
A. Inhibits mitotic spindle
B. Enhances polymerization of tubulin
C. Inhibits topoisomerase I
D. Inhibits topoisomerase II
Answer: A
84. All are true regarding Sunitinib except
A. It inhibits tyrosine kinase receptors
B. It is used for renal cell carcinoma
C. It is used for the treatment of GIST
D. It is excreted primarily in urine
Answer: D
85. Which of the following Anti neoplastic drugs SHOULD NOT be given by rapid IV infusion?
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Cisplatin
C. Bleomycin
D. Cytosine arabinoside
Answer: B
86. Mode of action of azathioprine ?
A. ↑ IL-2
B. T-cell blockade
C. Decreased lymphophagocytic activity
D. Wide-spread antitumor activity
Answer: B
87. Intracranial pressure may be increased by all of the following drugs except
A. Hypervitaminosis
B. Corticosteroids
C. Quinolones
D. Aminoglycosides
Answer: D
88. Which of the following drug causes hirsutism?
A. Phenytoin
B. Valproate
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenobarbitone
Answer: A
89. Extrapyramidal syndrome like side effects are seen in
A. Haloperidol
B. Clozapine
C. Tetracycline
D. Ketoconazole
Answer: A
90. Which of the following drugs is associated with untoward side effect of renal tubular damage
A. Cisplatin
B. Streptozotocin
C. Methysergide
D. Cyclophosphamide
Answer: A
91. All of the following are known adverse effects of thalidomide, except:
A. Diarrhoea
B. Teratogenicity
C. DVT
D. Neuropathy
Answer: A
92. First order kinetics is:
A. Absorption of the drug is independent of the serum concentration
B. Elimination of the drug is independent of the serum concentration.
C. Elimination of the drug is proportional to the serum concentration
D. Absorption of the drug is proportional to the serum concentration
Answer: C
93. Which of the following drug is not given in acute mania:
A. Lithium
B. Lamotrigine
C. Valproate
D. Olanzapine
Answer: B
94. Statin having longest half life:
A. Rosuvastatin
B. Pravastatin
C. Simvastatin
D. Lovastatin
Answer: A
95. Low molecular weight heparin mainly inhibits which factor:
A. Factor Ilia
B. Factor VIIIa
C. Factor Xa
D. Factor XIIa
Answer: C
96. Drug of choice for plasmodium vivax is:
A. Mefloquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Artesunate
D. Quinine
Answer: B
97. Which of the following is teratogenic:
A. Folate
B. Cyanocobalamin
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin C
Answer: C
98. Half life of albumin is:
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 20 days
D. 40 days
Answer: C
99. Which of the following is an ionic channel ?
A. α -1 receptors
B. β – 1 receptors
C. Nicotinic cholinergic receptors
D. Muscarinic cholinergic receptors
Answer: C
100. Dose-response curve in Hormesis ?
A. Straight line
B. Sigmoid
C. Inverted U or J shaped
D. Hyperbola
Answer: C
101. Most effective agent to prevent motion sickness is?
A. Ephedrine
B. Nedocromil
C. Cyproheptadine
D. Hyoscine
Answer: D
102. Agent used for treatment of heparin induced thrombocytopenia ?
A. Lepirudin
B. Abciximab
C. Warfarin
D. Alteplase
Answer: A
103. Most commonly used cholinesterase regenerator at NM junction is ?
A. Pralidoxime
B. Obidxime
C. Diacetyl monoxime
D. Edrophonium
Answer: A
104. Maximum sterilising action is shown by which anti TB drug ?
A. Rifampicin
B. INH
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin
Answer: A
105. Cyclic peptide chain is present in ?
A. Gramicidin A
B. Gramicidin B
C. Gramicidin D
D. Gramicidin S
Answer: D
106. Neuropsychiatry symptoms are seen with which anti TB drug ?
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin
Answer: A
107. Maintenance dose is calculated by using value of?
A. Clearance
B. Volume of distribution
C. Oral bioavailability
D. Daily dosage
Answer: A
108. Anticancer drug with disulfuram like action
A. Procarbazine
B. Nitrosurea
C. 5 FU
D. Methotrexate
Answer: A
109. CB 1 antagonist used in smoking cessation is ?
A. Naloxona
B. Rimonabant
C. Vareniloline
D. Bupripion
Answer: B
110. IV diazepam has which of the following effect which is not seen by other routes ?
A. Analgesia
B. Sedation
C. Hypotension
D. Coronary dilatation
Answer: D
111. Bromocriptine is used in following clinical situations except ?
A. Type II DM
B. Hepatic Coma
C. Cyclical mastalgia
D. Hyperprolactinemia
Answer: D
112. Following is true about GnRH agonists except ?
A. Used in cases of precocious puberty
B. They have action similar to gonadotropin releasing hormone
C. Long acting preparations can be used as nasal spray
D. Ganirelix is the most potent agent
Answer: D
113. Female on carbimazole therapy presents with sudden fever, rigors and sore throat. Which is the investigation of choice for this patient?
A. Check blood counts
B. Check C reactive protein
C. Take throat Swab
D. Treat for malaria
Answer: A
114. Selective beta 2 blocker is ?
A. Butoxamine
B. Betoxolol
C. Esmolol
D. Bisoprolol
Answer: A
115. Beta blocker with membrane stabilizing property are all except ?
A. Acebutolol
B. Betaxolol
C. Carvedilol
D. Bevantolol
Answer: D
116. Longest acting beta blokeris ?
A. Nodalol
B. Esmolol
C. Carvedilol
D. Acebnolol
Answer: A
117. Bevacizumab is used in ?
A. Carcinoma colon
B. Liver carcinoma
C. Renal cell carcinoma
D. Pancreatic carcinoma
Answer: A
118. Cabergoline is used in
A. Acromegaly
B. Hyper prolactinoma
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Answer: C
119. Flu like symptoms is side effect of which anti TB drug ?
A. NH
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrzinamide
D. Streptomycin
Answer: B
120. Which of the following SSRI is a prodrug?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Paroxetine
C. Citalopram
D. Fluvoxamine
Answer: A
121. Tamoxifen ?
A. SSRI
B. SERM
C. SNRI
D. DNRI
Answer: B
122. Letrozole belongs to which group?
A. SERM
B. SERD
C. LHRH analogues
D. Aromatse inhibitors
Answer: D
123. TADALAFIL false is ?
A. It is longest acting phosphodiesterase inhibitor
B. It cannot be used for the treatment of PAH
C. It is used in erectile dysfunction
D. Its half life is 17-5 hours
Answer: B
124. Amphetamine causes which of the following ?
A. IUGR
B. Cardiac anamoly
C. Cleft lip
D. All the above
Answer: D
125. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in liver dysfunction?
A. Pefloxacin
B. Vancomycin
C. Amikacin
D. Hydralazine
Answer: A
126. Bevacizumab is ?
A. Anti VEGF antibody
B. Histone decyclase inhibitor
C. Proteasome inhibitor
D. Her2 neu inhibitor
Answer: A
127. Irreversible hearing loss caused by ?
A. Gentamycin
B. Clarithromycin
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: A
128. Mechanism of action of colchicine is ?
A. Inhibits gouty inflammation
B. Inhbits the release of chemotactic factors
C. Inhibits granulocyte migration
D. All the above
Answer: D
129. Drug used in treatment of migraine ?
A. 5HT1 agonist
B. 5HT1 antagonist
C. Dl agonist
D. D1 antagonist
Answer: A
130. Drug of choice for MRSA infection ?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Oxacillin
C. Vancomycin
D. Clindamycin
Answer: C
131. Hypolipidemic drugs act on all except ?
A. HMG Co A reductase
B. Lipoprotein lipase
C. Acyl CoA, cholesterol acyl transferase 1
D. Peripheral decarboxylase
Answer: D
132. Following are the side effects of fenfluramine except ?
A. Pulmonary hypertension
B. Valvular defects
C. Sudden deaths
D. Dizziness
Answer: D
133. Cholinergic drug which acts on heart by decrease in levels of cAMP and due to opening of K+ channels is?
A. Methacholine
B. Oxotremorine
C. Bethanechol
D. DMPP
Answer: A
134. Pramlintide is ?
A. Synthetic amylin analogue
B. Inhibitor of DPP 4
C. GLP 1 analogue
D. PPAR gamma
Answer: A
135. Mannitol is not useful for ?
A. Glaucoma
B. Raised ICT
C. Impending renal failure
D. Pulmonary edema
Answer: D
136. Which anti TB drug is avoided in HIV patient ?
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin
Answer: B
137. Vit K is available as all except ?
A. Menoquinone
B. Menadione
C. Phytonadione
D. Phyto quinone
Answer: D
138. Which of the following anticancer drugs are competitive inhibitors of tyrosine kinase ?
A. Imatinib and sunitinib
B. Letrozole
C. Bicalutamide
D. Fulvestrant
Answer: A
139. Thalidomide is used in ?
A. Mutilple myeloma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Masopharyngeal carcinoma
Answer: A
140. Which drug prevent peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
A. Propylthiouracil
B. Propranolol
C. Iodides
D. a and b both
Answer: D
141. Daclizumab acts through ?
A. cGMP activation
B. Adenyl cyclase inhibition
C. IL 2 receptor blocker
D. IL10 receptor blocker
Answer: C
142. 1, 25 dihydrocholecalciferol acts on ?
A. Surface receptors
B. Cytosolic receptors
C. Intranuclear receptors
D. None of the above
Answer: C
143. Following is false about aripiprazole except ?
A. Only antipsychotic with D1 agonistic activity
B. It has 5HT1A antagonistic action
C. It has maximum sedating potential
D. It is the drug of choice in treatment of acute mania
Answer: D
144. Mechanism of action of actinomycin D is ?
A. Inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis
B. Activates DNA dependent RNA synthesis
C. Inhibits RNA dependent DNA synthesis
D. Activates RNA dependent DNA synthesis
Answer: A
145. Neostigmine is used in the following except ?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Cobra bite
C. Atony of bladder
D. Glaucoma
Answer: D
146. Xenobiotics are metabolized to ?
A. Increase water solubility
B. Increase lipid solubility
C. Make them nonpolar
D. None of the above
Answer: A
147. Dose of centchroman is ?
A. 30 mg
B. 60 mg
C. 120 mg
D. 240 mg
Answer: A
148. Pharmacoviglance is used for ?
A. To monitor drug toxicity
B. To monitor unauthorized drug manufacture
C. Monitoring of students
D. Check costs
Answer: A
149. Branch that deals with medicinal drugs obtained from plants and other natural resources
A. Pharmacognosy
B. Pharmacogenetics
C. Pharmacogenomics
D. Pharmacopia
Answer: A
150. Drugs causing peptic ulcer are all except ?
A. Clopidogrel
B. NSAID
C. Mycophenolate mofetil
D. Propylthiouracil
Answer: D
151. Which is the antidepressant with no anticholinergic effects?
A. Imipramine
B. Mianserine
C. Fluoxamine
D. Amitryptiline
Answer: C
152. Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Flumazenil
C. Beta carboline
D. Gabapentin
Answer: C
153. Dantrolene acts on ?
A. Raynodine receptor
B. Cannabinoid receptor
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: A
154. Colistin is obtained from ?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Actinmycetes
D. Herbs
Answer: A
155. Drug not acting on P2y12 receptor is ?
A. Ticlopidine
B. Clopidrogel
C. Dipyridamole
D. Prasugrel
Answer: C
156. All release histamine except ?
A. Pancuronium
B. D- TC
C. Succinylcholine
D. Mivacurium
Answer: A
157. False regarding Cytochrome P 450 is ?
A. They are essential for the production of cholesterols, steroids, prostacyclins and thromboxane A2
B. They absorb light with 45nm wavelength
C. They occur predominantly in liver
D. They are non heme proteins
Answer: D
158. Omalizumab is ?
A. Anti IgM antibody
B. AntilgG antibody
C. Anti IgE antibody
D. Anti IgD antibody
Answer: C
159. Nicotinic acid ?
A. Increases HDL
B. Increased triglyceride synthesis
C. Type II hyperlipoproteinemia
D. Decreased hydrolysis of VLDL
Answer: A
160. HIV integrase inhibitor is ?
A. Elvitegravir
B. Abacavir
C. Maraviroc
D. Tenofovir
Answer: A
161. Platelet adhesion is inhibited by ?
A. Nitric oxide
B. Substance P
C. Thrombin
D. IL 2
Answer: A
162. Which of the following is the longest acting oral anticoagulant ?
A. Bishydroxycoumarin
B. Warfarin
C. Acenocoumarol
D. Phenindione
Answer: A
163. Function of M2 receptor in heart ?
A. SA node hyperpolarisation
B. AV node increased velocity of conduction
C. Increased contractility of ventricles
D. Increased Ach release from cholinergic nerve endings
Answer: A
164. Methysergide is banned as it causes ?
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Pleural effusion
C. Syncope
D. Myocarditis
Answer: A
165. Dopamine at 1-2 Microgram/ Kg/ min produces?
A. Renal vasodilatation
B. Positive ionotropic effect
C. Mesenteric vasoconstriction
D. Generalised vasoconstriction
Answer: A
166. Which of the following is a univalent direct thrombin inhibitor?
A. Argatroban
B. Hirudin
C. Bivalirudin
D. Lepirudin
Answer: A
167. Treatment agent for scarlet fever is
A. Penicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Erythromycin
D. Chloramphenicol
Answer: A
168. Atomoxetine is used for ?
A. Nocturnal enuresis
B. ADHD
C. Temper tantrums
D. Patent ductus arteriosus
Answer: B
169. Which of the following can prolong QT interval?
A. Nalidixic acid
B. Ofloxacin
C. Gatifloxacin
D. Pefloxacin
Answer: C
170. Streptokinase causes increase in ?
A. Plasmin
B. Thrombin
C. Kallikrein
D. Angiotensin II
Answer: A
171. Beta blocker with d isomer responsible for beta blocker action is ?
A. Nebivolol
B. Timolol
C. Esmolol
D. Propranolol
Answer: A
172. Tocilizumab is antibody against ?
A. IL 2
B. IL 4
C. IL 6
D. IL 8
Answer: C
173. Fomepizole acts as antidote for ?
A. Methanol poisoning
B. Cannabis poisoning
C. Lead poisoning
D. Cadmium Poisoning
Answer: A
174. About rectal route true is ?
A. Used for irritant and unpleasant drugs
B. Cannot be used in unconscious patient
C. There is predictable absorption of drug
D. Diazepam cannot be given via rectal route of administration
Answer: A
175. Transdermal patch is not used for following drug?
A. GTN
B. Fentanyl
C. Nicotine
D. Naloxone
Answer: D
176. Buprenorphine partial agonist at which opioid receptor?
A. Mu
B. Kappa
C. Delta
D. Lambda
Answer: A
177. Treatment for impetigo ?
A. Dicloxacillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Gentamycin
D. Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
Answer: A
178. Following are the side effects of thiazides except?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hepatic coma
D. Impotence
Answer: B
179. Weight gain is seen with all of the following antipsychiatric medications except ?
A. Quetiapine
B. Risperidone
C. Clozapine
D. Molindone
Answer: D
180. Loading dose depends on ?
A. Volume of distribution
B. Elimination rate
C. Half life
D. Plasma volume
Answer: A
181. Which of the following drugs has both antihelminth and antiprotozoal activity ?
A. Nitazoxanide
B. Emetine
C. Chloroquine
D. Diloxanide furoate
Answer: A
182. Reason for hepatic involvement in oral contraceptives is ?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen +Progesterone
D. Mixed trace elements
Answer: A
183. A = ACE inhibitor, B = beta blocker, C = calcium channel blocker, D= diuretics. For elderly with hypertension antihypertensive drug of choice is ?
A. A or D
B. A or B
C. A or C
D. C or D
Answer: D
184. Which drug is used in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
A. Riluzole
B. Glatirame
C. Tacrine
D. Olanzapine
Answer: A
185. Rotigotine is ?
A. Dopamine agonist
B. Dopamine antagonist
C. GABA agonist
D. GABA antagonist
Answer: A
186. Counterfeit drug is ?
A. Fake medicine
B. Contains the wrong ingredient
C. They have active ingredient in wrong dose
D. All the above
Answer: D
187. Most common receptor for typical antipsychotics is ?
A. D1
B. D2
C. D3
D. D4
Answer: B
188. Incretin like function is seen in ?
A. Exenatide
B. Miglital
C. Poiglitazone
D. Repaglinide
Answer: A
189. Patient on treatment on carbidopa + levodopa for 10 yrs now has weaning off effect. What should be added to restore
action ?
A. Tolcapone
B. Amantadine
C. Rasagiline
D. Benzhexol
Answer: A
190. Which of these is not used for the treatment of typhoid ?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Cefixime
Answer: D
191. LT antagonists are used in asthma for ?
A. Along with beta agonists to reduce steroids
B. In place of beta blockers as sole therapy
C. Prophylactic therapy for mild to moderate asthma
D. Definitive therapy in acute attack of asthma
Answer: C
192. Which is a long acting insulin?
A. Lispro
B. Aspart
C. Glargine
D. Glulicine
Answer: C
193. Steroid with max mineralocorticoid activity ?
A. Fludrocortisone
B. DOCA
C. Prednisolone
D. Triamsinolone
Answer: A
194. Young child weighing 20 kg was given a drug in the dose 100mg/kg body weight. The plasma concentration of the drug is 2mg/ dl and the clearance is 200 ml/hr. What is the time required to reach steady state plasma concentration
A. 10 hrs
B. 20hrs
C. 30hrs
D. 40hrs
Answer: B
195. Patient on verapamil should not be given beta blocker as ?
A. Conduction block
B. Bronchospasm
C. Neurogenic shock
D. Anaphylaxis
Answer: A
196. Drug that decreases LpA in blood ?
A. Statin
B. Nicotinic acid
C. Ezetimibe
D. CETP inhibitors
Answer: B
197. Glucuronidation takes place in ?
A. Liver
B. RBC
C. Pancreas
D. Thyroid
Answer: A
198. Digitalis produces which of the following changes in ECG ?
A. Tall T waves
B. ST segment elevation
C. Prolonged QT interval
D. Prolonged PR interval
Answer: D
199. Antifungal which can be used orally but not iv is?
A. Voriconazole
B. Amphoterecin B
C. Terbinafine
D. None of the above
Answer: C
200. Mechanism of action tacrolimus is ?
A. Inhibition of calcineurin
B. Antimetabolite
C. mTOR inhibitor
D. Inhibition of DNA synthesis
Answer: A
201. Long acting corticosteroid is ?
A. Triamcinolone
B. Betamethasone
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Prednisolone
Answer: B
202. Plasma protein bound drug distributed in which compartment ?
A. Extracellular
B. Intravascular
C. Interstitial
D. Extravascular
Answer: B
203. Adrenocortical suppression causing drugs are all except ?
A. Prednisone
B. Ketoconazole
C. Mitotane
D. Spironolactone
Answer: D
204. Following are the advantages of sustained release preparation over the conventional preparations except ?
A. Decreased frequency of administration
B. Improved compliance
C. Less incidence of high peak side effects
D. Drugs with half life > 4 hours are suitable
Answer: D
205. Which antiepileptic drug is least secreted in breast milk ?
A. Ethosuximide
B. Clonazepam
C. Gabapentin
D. Carbamazepine
Answer: B
206. Drug which decreases efficacy of testosterone
A. Isoniazid
B. Ketoconazole
C. Rifampicin
D. None
Answer: B
207. Fluoroquinolone with minimum bioavailability ?
A. Levofloxacin
B. Moxifloxacin
C. Norfloxacin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Answer: C
208. Danazol has which of the following actions ?
A. Weak androgenic
B. Progestational
C. Anabolic
D. All the above
Answer: D
209. Agonist antagonist combination acting on the same receptor is ?
A. Isoprenaline and propranolol
B. Adrenaline and histamine
C. Salbutamol and leukotriene
D. Estrogen and tamoxifen
Answer: A
210. Not a drug recommended for P. falciparum is ?
A. Quinine
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Artemether
D. Doxycycline
Answer: B
211. Following is true about iron dextran except ?
A. It is parenteral iron preparation
B. It can be given either iv or im
C. It binds to transferrin
D. It is not excreted
Answer: C
212. Compared to high molecular weight heparin following is true about low molecular weight heparin ?
A. Monitoring is not needed for low molecular weight heparin
B. Daily two subcutaneous doses are essential
C. They are easily filtered at the glomerulus
D. They do not interact with plasma proteins
Answer: B
213. Most variable absorption is seen with which route?
A. Oral
B. Intramscular
C. Intravenous
D. Per rectal
Answer: A
214. Cephalosporin causing thrombocytopenia is ?
A. Cefixime
B. Ceftazidime
C. Cefoperazone
D. Cefdinir
Answer: B
215. Varenicline acts by ?
A. Partial nicotine receptor agonist
B. Nicotine receptor antagonist
C. Both agonist and antagonist at nicotine receptor
D. None of the above
Answer: A
216. Anti-inflammatory dose of aspirin ?
A. 500 mg/d
B. 1 – 2 g/d
C. 3 – 6 g/d
D. 6 – 12 g/d
Answer: C
217. Which of the following drug substrate combinations do not match ?
A. CYP 3A4/5 – simvastatin
B. CYP 2D6 – SSRI
C. CYP 2C8/9 – mifepristone
D. CYP 2C19 – propranolol
Answer: C
218. Drugs which potentiate effect of NMDA at NMDA receptors are all except ?
A. Ketamine
B. Aspartic acid
C. D alanine
D. Homocysteic acid
Answer: A
219. Most common renal sequel of lithium toxicity is ?
A. Nephrogenic DM
B. Renal tubular acidosis
C. Glycosuria
D. MPGN
Answer: A
220. Mechanism of action of timolol is ?
A. Nonselective beta blocker
B. Nonselective alpha blocker
C. Selective beta 1 blocker
D. Selective beta 2 blocker
Answer: A
221. Mechanism of action of levosimenden is ?
A. Inoconstrictor
B. Potassium channel opener
C. Sodium channel opener
D. Beta blocker
Answer: B
222. Which of the following is not an anti histaminic drug of the ethanolamine group?
A. Clemastine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Dimenhydrinate
D. Chlorpheniramine
Answer: D
223. All of the following can precipitate porphyria except ?
A. Steroids
B. Griesiofulvin
C. Penicillin
D. Estrogen
Answer: C
224. A drug having 40% absorption and hepatic extraction ratio of 0.6. What is the bioavailability of that drug?
A. 16%
B. 24%
C. 20%
D. 28%
Answer: A
225. XDR TB is resistance to ?
A. Isoniazid
B. Isoniazid + Rifampicin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol
D. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Kanamycin
Answer: D
226. Most serious side effect of valproate is
A. Fulminant hepatits
B. Spina bifida
C. Weight gain
D. Thrombocytopenia
Answer: A
227. Hydroxyurea mechanism of action in cancer is by inhibiting the enzyme ?
A. Ribonucleotide diphosphate reductase
B. Ribonucleotide oxidase
C. DNA lyase
D. DNA synthetase
Answer: A
228. Nitrosoureas used in the treatment of cancer are?
A. Carmustine
B. 5FU
C. Methotrexate
D. Cisplatin
Answer: A
229. Gemcitabine is used mainly in which cancer ?
A. Colorectal
B. Breast
C. Pancreatic
D. Cranipharyngioma
Answer: C
230. Oxcarbazepine true is all except ?
A. Metabolises itself
B. Less chances of hyponatremia than carbazepine
C. It is less enzyme inducer than carbamazepine
D. Less chances of hepatotoxicity than carbamazepine
Answer: B
231. Heparin activates following factors except ?
A. IIa
B. VIIa
C. IXa
D. Xa
Answer: B
232. Maximum liver toxicity is seen with which anti -TB drug?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin
Answer: C
233. Fastest acting antithyroid drugs ?
A. Iodides of Na/ K
B. Propylthiuracil
C. Methimazole
D. Nitrates
Answer: A
234. Natalizumab is used in treatment of ?
A. Muliple sclerosis
B. Breast carcinoma
C. Psoriasis
D. B cell lymphoma
Answer: A
235. Special feature of glargine insulin is ?
A. It produces a smooth peakless effect
B. It is not suitable for once daily administration
C. It remains souble at pH 7
D. It can control meal time hyperglycemia
Answer: A
236. Mechanism of action Trilostane ?
A. 11 beta hydroxylase inhibitor
B. 1 alpha hydroxylase inhibitor
C. 3 betahydroxysteroiddehydrgenase inhibitor
D. 7 alpha hydrolase inhibitor
Answer: C
237. Treatment of choice for cheese reaction ?
A. Prazocin
B. Pentazocin
C. Phentolamine
D. Phenoxybenzamine
Answer: C
238. Why quinine is unsafe in pregnancy?
A. It causes hemolysis
B. It causes hypokalemia
C. It causes hyponatremia
D. It causes smooth muscle contraction
Answer: A
239. Anti HIV drug used for prevention of vertical transmission ?
A. Nevirapine
B. Lamivudine
C. Efavirez
D. Tenofovir
Answer: A
240. Which does not act by blocking NMDA receptors?
A. Methoxetamine
B. Methadone
C. Ketamine
D. Diltiazem
Answer: D
241. Essential drugs ?
A. Included in national pharmacopoeia
B. Should always be present at PHC
C. Those that satisfy the primary health care needs of the population
D. Life saving medications
Answer: C
242. Most common mitochondrial enzyme for metabolism detoxification reaction is ?
A. CYP 3A4
B. CYP 1A2
C. CYP 2A6
D. CYP 2B6
Answer: A
243. Nonselective beta adrenergic antagonist is
A. Nodalol
B. Atenolol
C. Bisoprolol
D. Esmolol
Answer: A
244. Insulin secretion increasing drug by acting on beta cells of pancreas is
A. Rapaglinide
B. Metformin
C. Poiglitazone
D. Acarbose
Answer: A
245. Antihypertensive which can not be given in pregnancy ?
A. Labetolol
B. Propranolol
C. Esmolol
D. Hydralazine
Answer: B
246. Beta blockers mask all effects of hypoglycaemia except ?
A. Sweating
B. Palpitations
C. Dizziness
D. Tremors
Answer: C
247. Latest oral direct thrombin inhibitor is?
A. Ximelagatran
B. Indraparinux
C. Dabigatran
D. Fondaparinux
Answer: C
248. Adverse effects of phenytoin include all of the following except?
A. Lymphadenopathy
B. Ataxia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hirsutism
Answer: C
249. Post marketing surveillance included in which phase of drug clinical trial?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: D
250. Which of the following is most active against slowly dividing tubercular bacilli ?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin
D. Ethambutol
Answer: B
251. Drug contraindicated in G6PD deficiency?
A. Chloroquine
B. Primaquine
C. Quinine
D. Halofantrine
Answer: A:B:C
252. Cardiac conduction defect seen with Tricyclic anti depressants are due to ?
A. NE & serotonin uptake inhibitor
B. Antimuscarinic action on heart
C. Only NE uptake inhibition
D. Both NE uptake inhibition and antimuscarinic action on heart
Answer: D
253. At mu receptor, buphrenorphine is?
A. Partial agonist
B. Partial antagonist
C. Complete agonist
D. Complete antagonist
Answer: A
254. Remission with SSRI or TCA patient again having relapse. There may be deficiency of ?
A. Pyridoxine
B. Cobalamine
C. Ascorbate
D. Retinol
Answer: B
255. Side effect of salmeterol is ?
A. Tremor
B. Seizure
C. Hypertension
D. Hyperkalaemia
Answer: A
256. Parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor ?
A. Ximelagatran
B. Dabigatran
C. Argatroban
D. Heparin
Answer: C
257. Increased insulin secretion from beta cells is done by ?
A. Metformin
B. Pramlidine
C. Repaglinide
D. Pioglitazone
Answer: C
258. Verapamil is used in all, except ?
A. Angina pectoris
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. None of the above
Answer: C
259. Plasma protein bound drug distributed in which compartment ?
A. Extracellular
B. Intravascular
C. Interstitial
D. Extravascular
Answer: B
260. Most effective agent to prevent motion sickness is?
A. Ephedrine
B. Nedocromil
C. Cyproheptidine
D. Hyoscine
Answer: D
261. True about sitagliptin is all except
A. Used in type II DM
B. Used in combination with other oral hypoglycaemic
C. Cannot be used orally
D. All are true
Answer: C
262. Gynaecomastia is caused by which drug ?
A. Spironolactone
B. Rifampicin
C. Thiazide
D. Propanolol
Answer: A
263. Mechanism of action of transexaminic acid is
A. Decrease vascular permeability
B. Smooth muscle contraction
C. Activates Plasmin formation
D. Prevents fibrinolysis
Answer: D
264. Spasmolytic analgesic is
A. Dicyclomine
B. Physostigmine
C. Tropicamide
D. None
Answer: A
265. Muscarinic cholinergic receptors are seen at all sites, except ?
A. Stomach
B. CNS
C. Neuromuscular junctio
D. Glands
Answer: C
266. Maximum effect of bronchodilatation in asthma is caused by ?
A. Corticosteroids
B. Theophylline
C. Anticholinergic
D. β2-Agonist)
Answer: D
267. Sedative with GABA facilitating action but without anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant properties and no effect on sleep ?
A. Diazepam
B. Zolpidem
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Buspirone
Answer: B
268. Advantages of amoxicillin over ampicillin are all except ?
A. Better bioavailability & faster action
B. Spectrum includes H. influenzae & Shigella
C. Incidence of diarrhea is lower
D. Food does not interfere with its absorption
Answer: B
269. Visual field monitoring is important before starting?
A. Vigabatrin
B. Topiramate
C. Valproic acid
D. Carbamazepine
Answer: A
270. Lithium directly affects which ion ?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Calcium
Answer: A
271. Abatacept is ?
A. TNF alpha inhibitor
B. Inhibitor of co-stimulation of T cells
C. IL-1 receptor antagonist
D. Monoclonal antibody against IL-6 receptor
Answer: B
272. All of the following are therapeutic uses of penicillin G, except
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Rickettsial infection
C. Syphilis
D. Anthrax
Answer: B
273. Which of the following is associated with haemorrhagic stroke ?
A. Phenylpropanolamine
B. Terfenadine
C. Quinidine
D. Fenfluramine
Answer: A
274. Aminophylline inhibits which enzyme ?
A. MAO
B. Alcohol dehydrogenase
C. Phosphodieseterase
D. Cytochrome P450
Answer: C
275. All are side effects of Clozapine, except ?
A. Granulocytopenia
B. Seizures
C. Sedation
D. Extrapyramidal side effects
Answer: D
276. Most common side effect of haloperidol ?
A. Hypotension
B. Akathasia
C. Dryness of mouth
D. Tic disorder
Answer: B
277. Maximum tachycardia is seen with
A. Nifedipine
B. Verapamil
C. Propanolol
D. Amlodipine
Answer: A
278. Elimination after 4 half lives in first order Kinetics is
A. 84%
B. 93%
C. 80.5%
D. 4.75%
Answer: B
279. Not true about hypolipidemic drugs
A. Cholesterol reducing drugs are contraindicated in child less than 8 years
B. Gemfibrozil causes myopathy
C. Gemfibrozil can increase myopathy caused by statins
D. Lovastatin can cause hepatic dysfunction
Answer: A
280. Mechanism of action of aminoglycosides is ?
A. Inhibition of protein synthesis
B. Image to cell membrane
C. Coagulation of proteins
D. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Answer: A
281. Botulinum toxin acts on
A. Synapse
B. Smooth muscle of intestine
C. Central nervous system
D. Sensory nerves
Answer: A
282. Botulinum toxin type B is used in which disease ?
A. Glabellar lines
B. Strabismus
C. Cervical dystonia
D. Blepharospasm
Answer: C
283. All are used for carcinoma head & neck except ?
A. 5FU
B. Busulfan
C. Cisplatin
D. Methotrexate
Answer: B
284. Alcohol mainly increases
A. TG
B. LDL
C. VLDL
D. HDL
Answer: D
285. First generation cephalosporins are active against?
A. Gram negative bacteria
B. Gram positive bacteria
C. Anaerobes
D. Dermatophytes
Answer: B
286. All are true about nitrous oxide except ?
A. Laughing gas
B. Causes megaloblastic anemia
C. Causes diffusion hypoxia
D. Good muscle relaxant
Answer: D
287. Which of the following is given orally
A. Argatraban
B. Alteplase
C. Rivaroxaban
D. Fondaparinux
Answer: C
288. The best drug for control of esophageal bleeding is?
A. Vasopressin
B. Octreotide
C. GnRH
D. Propranolol
Answer: A
289. Short acting glucocorticoid is ?
A. Fludrocortisones
B. Dexamethasone
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Aldostrone
Answer: C
290. The best agent for increasing HDL cholesterol is ?
A. Statin
B. Nicotinic acid
C. Gugulipids
D. Fibrates
Answer: B
291. All of the following are adverse effects of nicotinic acid except ?
A. Vasodilation
B. Pancreatitis
C. Liver dysfunction
D. Hyperpigmentation
Answer: B
292. Not a hepatotoxic drug ?
A. Chlorpropamide
B. Allopurinol
C. Streptomycin
D. Halothane
Answer: C
293. Which drug can be given subdermally ?
A. Nicotine
B. Fentanyl
C. GTN
D. Progesterone
Answer: D
294. Botulinum toxin mimics
A. Cholinergics
B. Anticholinergics
C. Adrenergics
D. Antiadrenergic
Answer: B
295. Dopamine receptor with inhibitory action ?
A. D5
B. Di
C. D2
D. None
Answer: C
296. Thiazolidinedione is associated with increased risk of?
A. Heart failure
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Myocarditis
D. renal dysfunction
Answer: A
297. Mechanism of Action of clofibrate ?
A. They increase lipoprotein lipase activity through PPAR alpha and cause increased lipolysis of triglycerides
B. Inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue
C. Inhibits HMG CoA reductase
D. Bind bile acids and bile salts in small intestine
Answer: A
298. Which of the following is a mineralocorticoid antagonist ?
A. Spironolactone
B. Inamrinone
C. Nicorandil
D. Ketorolac
Answer: A
299. Beta 2 agonist used in rescue therapy in acute respiratory conditions are all except
A. Terbutaline
B. Salbutamol
C. Bambuterol
D. Ketotifen
Answer: D
300. Beta 1 antagonist used in congestive cardiac failure ?
A. Atenolol
B. Metoprolol
C. Salbutamol
D. Terbutaline
Answer: B
301. NSAIDS cause gastric ulcer because ?
A. They inhibit COX – 2 enzyme
B. They inhibit mucus production
C. They increase HCI production
D. They delay gastric emptying
Answer: B
302. Anandamide is ?
A. Opioid
B. CK 1 antagonist
C. D2 blocker
D. Cannabinoid neurotransmitter
Answer: D
303. Metformin is used in treatment & control of ?
A. Diabetes
B. PCOD
C. Pregnancy induced hypertension
D. Both a and b
Answer: D
304. Hydroxyethyl starch is a ?
A. Vasodilator
B. Inotrope
C. Plasma expander
D. Diuretic
Answer: C
305. Drug that binds bile acids in the intestine and prevents their return to liver via the enterohepatic circulation is?
A. Niacin
B. Fenofibrate
C. Cholestyramine
D. Gugulipid
Answer: C
306. Sublingual nitro-glycerine for treatment of acute chest pain can cause ?
A. Hypertension
B. Headache
C. Bradycardia
D. Sexual dysfunction
Answer: B
307. Raltegravir can cause ?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: C
308. Type II paralysis in organophosphorus poisoning treatment is ?
A. Atropine
B. Oximes
C. Symptomatic treatment
D. No treatment
Answer: C
309. Which anticancer drug prevents spindle formation?
A. Busulfan
B. Vinca alkaloids
C. 5 – FU
D. Methotrexate
Answer: B
310. Which is a GABA transaminase inhibitor ?
A. TCA
B. Sertaline
C. Valproate
D. Gabpentin
Answer: C
311. Which of the following is an antipsychotic drug ?
A. Flupenthixol
B. Rasagiline
C. Clobazam
D. Divalproex
Answer: A
312. Which of the following is a TCA ?
A. Amoxapin
B. Citalopram
C. Venlafaxine
D. Bupropion
Answer: A
313. All have high first pass metabolism except ?
A. Lidocaine
B. Propranolol
C. Theophylline
D. Morphine
Answer: C
314. Drug used for sympathectomy in experimental animals is ?
A. Guanethidine
B. Atropine
C. Diazoxide
D. Thebaine
Answer: A
315. Gp2b3A inhibitors are all except ?
A. Abciximab
B. Eptifibatide
C. Tirofiban
D. Prasugrel
Answer: D
316. Mode of excretion of cyclophosphamide is ?
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Skin
Answer: C
317. Which of the following is not a cardio selective beta blocker ?
A. Nebivolol
B. Atenolol
C. Betaxolol
D. Oxprenolol
Answer: D
318. Erlotinib is used in ?
A. Colon cancer
B. Pancreatic cancer
C. Gall bladder cancer
D. GIST
Answer: B
319. True about lamotrigene ?
A. Decreased efficacy in depression
B. First choice in absence seizure
C. t1/2 is 24 hrs
D. Not metabolised in liver
Answer: C
320. Warfarin acts by
A. Inhibition of Vitamin K epoxide reductase
B. Inhibition of gamma glutamyl carboxylase
C. Activation of Vitamin K epoxide reductase
D. Activation of gamma glutamyl carboxylase
Answer: A
321. Side effect of topiramate is ?
A. Weight loss
B. Visual impairment
C. Insomnia
D. Hemolysis
Answer: A
322. Prodrug of cetrizine is
A. Foxefenadone
B. Terfenadine
C. Hydroxyzine
D. Azelastine
Answer: C
323. Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant?
A. Vanalafexine
B. Fluoxetine
C. Doxepine
D. Citalopram
Answer: C
324. Tetracycline injection causes palsy of which nerve?
A. Ulnar
B. Median
C. Radial
D. Superficial Radial Nerve injury
Answer: C
325. Drug of choice for reversal of muscle relaxant after anaesthesia
A. Pralidoxine
B. Neostigmine
C. Atropine
D. None
Answer: B
326. Drug of choice for classical angina attack ?
A. CCBs
B. β-blocker
C. GTN
D. Prazocin
Answer: C
327. Beta2-agonist cause all except
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Tremer
D. Palpitaion
Answer: A
328. Mechanism of action of propylthiouracil ?
A. Prevents synthesis of thyroglobulin
B. Prevents iodine trapping
C. Prevents release of T4 & T3
D. Inhibits coupling
Answer: D
329. Not true about aztreonam ?
A. f3-lactarn
B. Monobactarn
C. Active against pseudomonas
D. Shows cross reactivity with other penicillins
Answer: D
330. Clinical effect of vitamin D is reduced by ?
A. Simultaneous ingestion of phytates
B. Simultaneous ingestion of lactose
C. Acidic environment
D. None
Answer: A
331. All are produced by la receptors except
A. Euphoria
B. Sedation
C. Dysphoria
D. Constipation
Answer: C
332. Antitussive opioid is ?
A. Ethylmorphin
B. Pethidine
C. Methadone
D. Buprenorphine
Answer: A
333. Sugamadex is used for ?
A. Organophosphate poisoning
B. Reversal of NM blockers
C. Treatment of local anaesthetic poisoning
D. Treatment of central anticholinergic syndrome
Answer: B
334. Shortest acting calcium channel blocker ?
A. Verapami I
B. Amlodipine
C. Nimodipinc
D. Diltiazam
Answer: C
335. Benzylisoquinoline muscle relaxant is ?
A. Vecuronium
B. Rocuronium
C. Doxacurium
D. Pancuronium
Answer: C
336. Acidic drugs bind to ?
A. Globulin
B. a-I glycoprotein
C. Albumin
D. None
Answer: C
337. The most potent topical corticosteroid is
A. Betamethasone valerate
B. Triamcinolone acetonide
C. Hydrocortisone acetate
D. Clobetasol propionate
Answer: D
338. Orally active hormone is ?
A. TSH
B. Thyroxine
C. GH
D. Prolacin
Answer: B
339. Drug of choice for bleeding oesophageal varices is?
A. Ethanolamine oleate
B. Octreotide
C. Propanolol
D. Phytonadione
Answer: B
340. Maximum first pass metaboilsm is seen by which route ?
A. Intravenous
B. Interaarterial
C. Rectal
D. Oral
Answer: D
341. Duration of action depends on
A. Clearance
B. Rate of elimination
C. Bioavailability
D. All
Answer: D
342. Thiazides act on ?
A. PCT
B. DCT
C. Glomerulus
D. Descending limb of loop of Henle
Answer: C
343. Due to which side effect felbamate can be discontiuned?
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Renal impairment
C. Gastrointestinal disorder
D. Seizures
Answer: A
344. Drug used in post prandial sugar control is?
A. Alfa glucosidase
B. Biguinides
C. Sulfonylurea
D. Repaglinide
Answer: D
345. Hofmann elimination is ?
A. Inactivation of drug by metabolizing enzyme
B. Unchanged excretion by kidney
C. Excretion in feces
D. Inactivation by molecular rearrangement
Answer: D
346. Peripheral neuropathy as a side effect is caused by which of the following anti cancer drugs ?
A. Vincristine
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Etoposide
D. Irinotecan
Answer: A
347. Drug useful in breast cancer is ?
A. Tamoxifen
B. Cyproterone
C. Testosterone
D. Chlorambucil
Answer: A
348. Which of the following drug can casue thyroid dysfunction?
A. Amiodarone
B. Ampicillin
C. Ibutilide
D. Acyclovir
Answer: A
349. All drugs have recently been withdrawn from India except ?
A. Gatifloxacin
B. Rafecoxib
C. Cotrimoxazole
D. Phenformin
Answer: C
350. Ranibizomab is monoclonal antibody against ?
A. IL-6
B. CD-20
C. VEGF
D. EGFR
Answer: C
351. All antiretroviral drugs produce peripheral neuropathy except ?
A. Stavudine
B. Zalcitabine
C. Didanosine
D. lndinavir
Answer: D
352. Drug of choice for familial hypercholesterolemia ?
A. Gemfibrogil
B. Nicotinic acid
C. Lovastatin
D. Ceholestgramin
Answer: C
353. When two different chemical act on two different receptors and their responses is opposite to each other on the same cell is called as ?
A. Physiological antagonism
B. Chemical antagonism
C. Reversible antagonism
D. Competitive antagonism
Answer: A
354. Which of the following drugs used to treat type-II diabetes mellitus causes weight loss
A. Metformin
B. Glimepiride
C. Repaglinide
D. Gliclazide
Answer: A
355. Which of the following is not used in acute attack of severe pain due to gout ?
A. Indomethacine
B. Colchicine
C. Febuxostat
D. Corticosteroids
Answer: C
356. Which of the following develop first during dependence of a substance ?
A. Tolerance
B. Physical dependence
C. Psychological dependence
D. Withdrawal symptoms
Answer: C
357. Which of the antithyroid drug inhibit iodine trapping?
A. Radioactive iodine
B. Iodides
C. Methimozole
D. Thiocyanades
Answer: D
358. Longest acting glucocorticoids is ?
A. Prednisone
B. Prednisolone
C. Cortisone
D. Dexamethasone
Answer: D
359. Study state plasma concentration is achieved after?
A. 2 t1/2
B. 3 t1/2
C. 4 t1/2
D. 5 t1/2
Answer: D
360. Which of the following is a topical sulfonamide ?
A. Sulfadoxine
B. Mafenide
C. Sulfamethopyrazine
D. None
Answer: B
361. Which is not used in status epilepticus?
A. Lorazepam
B. Phenytoin
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Valproate
Answer: D
362. Which second generation antihistaminic does not produce an active metabolite
A. Loratidine
B. Terfenadine
C. Cetrizine
D. None
Answer: C
363. Nesiritide cause vasodilatation through ?
A. cAMP
B. cGMP
C. ATP
D. K’ ions
Answer: B
364. Which of the following is renin inhibitor ?
A. Losartan
B. Benazepril
C. Remikiren
D. Imidapril
Answer: C
365. Which of the following is used for prostatic carcinoma?
A. Danazole
B. Clomiphene
C. Finasteride
D. None
Answer: C
366. Which anaesthetic agent has maximum MAC ?
A. Ether
B. Methoxyflurane
C. N20
D. Halothane
Answer: C
367. Treatment of choice for prinzmetal’s angina
A. Nitroglycerine
B. CCBs
C. P-blockers
D. Prazosin
Answer: A
368. Drug of choice for pheochromocytoma ?
A. Propranolol
B. Phenoxybenzamine
C. Prazosin
D. Nitroprosside
Answer: B
369. Which of the following is second generation 3 blocker?
A. Propronolol
B. Timolol
C. Nodalol
D. Atenolol
Answer: D
370. Which of the following reduces the efficacy of oral contraceptives ?
A. Erythromycin
B. Griseofulvin
C. Cimetidine
D. Disulfiram
Answer: B
371. Uses of alpha-2-agonist are all except?
A. Sedation
B. Glaucoma
C. Benign Hyperplasia of prostate
D. Hypertension
Answer: C
372. Fluoroquinolones with maximum bioavailability is?
A. Moxifloxacin.
B. Gatifloxacin.
C. Levofloxacin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Answer: C
373. Mechanism of action of buspirone is?
A. 5 HT1A partial agonism.
B. 5 HT1B antagonism.
C. 5 HT1B partial agonism.
D. 5 HT2C antagonism.
Answer: A
374. Which statement best describes mechanism of action of azole?
A. Synthesis of ergosterol
B. Thymidylate synthase
C. Targeting Beta-1,3 – glucan
D. Disruption of cell wall.
Answer: A
375. Which is the following is orally active direct Xa inhibitor?
A. Rivaroxaban
B. Agrataban
C. Dabigatran
D. Bilverudin
Answer: A
376. Which among the following is most probable reason for preference of Cisatracurium over atracurium?
A. Decreased histamine release
B. Increased histamine release
C. Due to elimination by Hofmann elimination
D. Increased CNS toxicity
Answer: A
377. Which of the following drug is used in SIADH?
A. Tolvapatan
B. Desmopressin
C. Vwb factor
D. Terlipressin
Answer: A
378. Drug acting on K+ channels include which of the following?
A. Spironolacton
B. Amiloride.
C. Nicorandil
D. Methyldopa
Answer: C
379. Imipenem, a newer antibiotic with a broad antibacterial spectrum, is co administered with cilastatin. Which of the following is the best reason for the same?
A. Combination of antibiotics is synergistic against Pseudomonas specie
B. Cilastatin aids gastrointestinal absorption of active moiety, imipenem
C. Cilastatin inhibits beta=lactamase enzyme destroying imipenem
D. Cilastatin inhibits an enzyme in kidney destroying imipenem
Answer: D
380. DOC for smoking cessation?
A. Acamprosate
B. Varenicline
C. Thalidomide
D. Tryptophan
Answer: B
381. DOC for Cyclosporiasis?
A. Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole combination
B. Paromomycin
C. Metronidazole
D. Cyclosporin
Answer: A
382. Mechanism of action of curare like drugs?
A. Blocks ACh synthesis
B. Blocks ACh receptors
C. Persistent depolarization
D. Agonistic with Ach receptors
Answer: B
383. A drug with high plasma binding protein property has which of the following properties?
A. Less GFR
B. Less drug interaction
C. Higher volume of distribution
D. Less tubular secretion
Answer: A
384. Mechanism of action of Oseltamivir?
A. Protein synthesis inhibitor
B. Thymidylate synthetase inhibitor
C. Neuraminidase inhibitor
D. Pyrimidine analogs.
Answer: C
385. True about colchicines is/are?
A. Acts by neutrophil recruitment
B. Causes metaphase arrest
C. Useful in urate-lowering therapy
D. All of the above
Answer: D
386. Which of the following drug is alpha 2 agonist?
A. Apraclonidine
B. Timolol
C. PG analogues
D. Verampamil
Answer: A
387. Drug to differentiate Myasthenia gravis from cholinergic crisis?
A. Pyridostgmine
B. Edrophonium
C. Methacholine
D. Clonidine
Answer: B
388. Conversion of Norepinephrine to epinephrine is mainly by?
A. S-adenosyl methionine
B. Arginine
C. Phenylalanine
D. Dehydrogenease
Answer: A
389. DOC for diphtheria carrier state is?
A. Penicillin
B. Antitoxin
C. Penicillin Or erythromycin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Answer: C
390. MOA of Teduglutide in short bowel syndrome?
A. GLP-2 inhibitor
B. HT1a inhibitor
C. GLP-1 analogs
D. C-peptide analogs
Answer: A
391. DOC for chemotherapy induced vomiting is?
A. Graneseteron
B. Prazosin
C. Clonidine
D. Dimenhydrinate
Answer: A
392. What is the advantage of fixed dose combination of drugs.
A. Increases efficacy of drug
B. Decreases adverse effects
C. Patient compliance improved
D. All of the above
Answer: D
393. DOC for digitalis is induced centro-chilar tachycardia?
A. Lidocaine
B. Reducing dosage of digoxin itself, reverses the condition
C. Verapamil
D. Beta blockers
Answer: A
394. Antiretroviral therapy is to be given in HIV infected patients irrespective of presence of symptoms if CD4 count is less than?
A. 100
B. 150
C. 200
D. 350
Answer: C
395. Carbapenem which has tendency to cause maximum seizures?
A. Imipenem
B. Ertapenem
C. Doripenem
D. Meropenem
Answer: A
396. True about treatment of early breast carcinoma?
A. Aromatase inhibitors are replacing tamoxifen in premenopausal women
B. Post mastectomy radiation therapy is given when 4 or more lymph nodes are positive
C. Tamoxifen is not useful in post-menopausal women
D. In premenopausal women, multidrug chemotherapy is given in selected patients
Answer: B
397. A patient of RA is taking methotrexate, steroids and NSAIDs since 4 months but activity of disease progression is same. What should be the next probable step?
A. Start monotherapy with anti TNF alpha drugs
B. Continue methotrexate and steroids
C. Stop oral methotrexate and start parenteral methotrexate
D. Add sulfasalazine
Answer: D
398. IV Mannitol is used for treatment of
A. Acute congestive glaucoma
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Acute renal failure
D. CHF
Answer: A
399. Variation in sensitivity of response to different doses of a drug in different individual is obtained from?
A. Dose response curve
B. Therapeutic index
C. Bioavailability
D. Phase 1 clinical trials
Answer: A
400. Which one of following is functions of PGI2?
A. Inhibits platelet aggregation
B. Is a vasodilator
C. Is pyrogenic like PGE2
D. All of the above
Answer: D
401. Mechanism by which Ach decreases heart rate is by:
A. Delayed diastolic depolarization
B. Increase in plateau
C. Decrease preload
D. Increase afterload
Answer: A
402. Which of the following act through G protein coupled receptors?
A. Ach Muscarinic receptors
B. Insulin receptors
C. Ach Nicotinic receptors
D. GABA-A receptors
Answer: A
403. True about drug metabolism ?
A. Glucuronidation is phase I reaction
B. Most common enzyme involved is Cyp 3A4/5
C. Reduction is most common reaction
D. Cytochrome p450 is involved phase-II reaction
Answer: B
404. Benzodiazepine binding ste on GABA receptors is on ?
A. y-subunit
B. a-subunit
C. β-subunit
D. δ-subunit
Answer: B
405. Dexmedetomidine acts on which receptor for its analgesic action ?
A. 5HT2A
B. D2
C. α2A
D. D5
Answer: C
406. Neuropathy caused by INH increases in all except?
A. Uremia
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Poor nutrition
Answer: B
407. Drugs which are used in acute asthma include?
A. Budesonide
B. Terbutaline
C. Salbutamole
D. Theophylline
E. Sodium cromoglycate
Answer: B:C:D
408. Peripheral neuropathy is/are caused by:
A. Vincristine
B. Sulfonamide
C. Amiodarone
D. Paclitaxel
E. None
Answer: A:C:D
409. Which of the following drugs is not an inhibitor of P – glycoprotein?
A. Quinidine
B. Erythromycin
C. Verapamil
D. Phenobarbitone
Answer: D
410. Liposome drug delivery system is used for all except ?
A. Vincristine
B. Amphotericin B
C. Hyoscine
D. Amikacin
Answer: C
411. Tachyphylaxis is seen with which of the following drugs?
A. Pethidine
B. Ephedrine
C. Phenoxybenzamine
D. Phentolamine
Answer: B
412. Synergestic action is shown by the following drug combinations except?
A. Glibenclamide and metformin
B. Enalapril and hydrochlorothiazide
C. Levodopa and carbidopa
D. Hydrochlorothiazide and triamterene
Answer: D
413. Oxidation in biotransformation is ?
A. Functionalization reaction
B. Conjugation reaction
C. Synthetic reaction
D. Felson reaction
Answer: A
414. Oxybutynin acts by ?
A. Adrenergic receptor antagonist
B. Muscarinic rece8ptor antagonist
C. Histaminic antagonist
D. Serotonergic antagonist
Answer: B
415. Which of the following drug crosses BBB?
A. Glycopyrrolate
B. Neostigmine
C. Physostigmine
D. All of the above
Answer: C
416. Which of the following is not true about the action of anticholinergic drugs?
A. Atropine is a CNS depressant
B. Atropine causes mydriasis, abolition of light reflex and cycloplegia
C. Atropine causes bronchoconstriction
D. Atropine can increase the chances of hyperthermia in children
Answer: A:C
417. Advantage of glycopyrrolate over atropine is ?
A. It is a natural alkaloid
B. It lacks CNS penetration
C. Can be used in OPC poisoning
D. Is more potent
Answer: B
418. Oximes are ineffective in which of the following poisoning ?
A. Organophosphate poisoning
B. Amanita phylloides poisoning
C. Carbamate poisoning
D. Dhatura poisoning
Answer: C
419. Which of the following is an example of irreversible carbamate?
A. Ambenonium
B. Galantamine
C. Propoxur
D. Rivastigmine
Answer: C
420. 38 yr old patient with high risk of coronary artery disease risk has hypertention, which of the following antihypertensive drugs will be suitable as a first line treatment for this patient?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Beta adrenergic blockers
D. Diuretics
Answer: A
421. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of amiodarone?
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Corneal microdeposits
C. Photosensitivity
D. Tachycardia
Answer: D
422. A side effect of loop diuretics is used in ?
A. Post – surgery care
B. Chronic anemia
C. Blood transfusion
D. Oncology/cancer
Answer: D
423. Why adenosine has a short half life?
A. Spontaneous hydrolysis
B. Uptake in subcutaneous tissue
C. Uptake in RBC and endothelial cells
D. Renal excretion
Answer: C
424. Mechanism of action of nicorandil is ?
A. K* channel blocker
B. I(‘ channel opener
C. Na’ channel blocker
D. Cl- channel blocker
Answer: B
425. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs can develop Long QT syndrome?
A. Ibutilide
B. Dofetilide
C. Sotalol
D. All the above
Answer: D
426. Which of the following is not true about the mechanism of action of digitalis?
A. It binds to the intracellular face of Na’ ATPase enzyme
B. There is rise in intracellular Na’
C. It has positive ionotropic action
D. Digitalis action is independent of cardiac innervation
Answer: A
427. Which drug inhibits both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase?
A. Aspirin
B. Indomethacin
C. Imidazole
D. BW755
Answer: D
428. Drug acting on 5HT4 receptor is ?
A. Loxiglumide
B. Renzapride
C. Atractiloside
D. Metoclopromide
Answer: B
429. Drug of choice for aborting the acute attack of migraine is ?
A. NSAIDs like indomethacin
B. Opioids like morphine
C. Triptans like sumatriptan
D. Glucocorticoids
Answer: C
430. Rasburicase is an analogue of ?
A. Xanthine oxidase
B. IMP dehydrogenase
C. Adenosine Deaminase
D. Urate Oxidase
Answer: D
431. Adverse effect of methysergide is ?
A. Metabolic syndrome
B. Endocardial fibrosis
C. Peyronie’s syndrome
D. Dry mouth
Answer: B
432. Contraindication for the triptans is which of the following?
A. Ischemic heart disease
B. Epilepsy
C. Hepatic failure
D. All of the above
Answer: D
433. Use of PGF 2 a analogues is contraindicated in ?
A. Post partum harmorrhage
B. Glaucoma
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Priapism
Answer: C
434. Advantage of formoterol over salmeterol is ?
A. It can be used for prophylaxis in asthmatics
B. It has got a faster onset of action
C. It is a short acting beta 2 agonist
D. It also has beta 1 agonistic action
Answer: B
435. Mechanism of action of Teriparatide is ?
A. Recombinant PTH [rPTH]
B. Recombinant calcitonin
C. Recombinant insulin
D. Recombinant prolactin
Answer: A
436. Anti-inflammatory actions of corticosteroids are mediated by ?
A. By inhibiting angiogenesis
B. By inhibiting breakdown of phospholipids
C. By increasing vascularity
D. By increasing granulation tissue formation
Answer: B
437. Which of the following is not an inhalational steroids?
A. Beclomethasone
B. Betamethasone
C. Budesonide
D. Fluticasone acetonide
Answer: B
438. Which of the following antithyroid medications had the maximum chances of causing agranulocytosis?
A. Carbimazole
B. Clotrimazole
C. Propylthiouracil
D. Methimazole
Answer: C
439. Mifepristone acts on which receptor?
A. Type A progesterone receptor
B. Estrogen receptor
C. LH receptor
D. Thyroid receptor
Answer: A
440. Pegvisomant is ?
A. Somatostatin antagonist
B. Somatotropin antagonist
C. GH receptor antagonist
D. GH receptor agonist
Answer: C
441. Drug used for medical management of acromegaly due to small pituitary tumours is?
A. Fulvestrant
B. Pegvisomant
C. Vigabatrin
D. Cabergoline
Answer: B
442. Tibolone is a ?
A. Natural steroidal estrogen
B. Natural non-steroidal estrogen
C. Synthetic steroidal estrogen
D. Synthetic non-steroidal estrogen
Answer: C
443. Tibolone is used for ?
A. Fibroids
B. Endometriosis
C. Hormone replacement therapy
D. Anovulatory infertility
Answer: C
444. Danazol acts through ?
A. Increases release of Gn
B. Increases insulin release
C. Inhibition of release of Gn
D. Inhibition of insulin release
Answer: C
445. Mechanism of action of Voglibose is ?
A. p galactosidase inhibitor
B. 3 lactase inhibitor
C. a glucosidase inhibitor
D. 3 glucosidase inhibitor
Answer: C
446. Metyrosine acts by inhibiting ?
A. Phenolethanolamine N methyl Transferase
B. Phenyl alanine Hydroxylase
C. Tyrosine Hydroxylase
D. Tyrosinase
Answer: C
447. Which of the following oral hypoglycaemic drugs has the longest t 1/2 ?
A. Gliclazide
B. Glimepiride
C. Chlorpropamide
D. Tolbutamide
Answer: C
448. All of the following are uses of octreotide except ?
A. Secretory diarrhea
B. Acromegaly
C. Hepatic encephalopathy
D. Bleeding esophageal varices
Answer: C
449. Which of the following pairs is correct?
A. Glibenclamide – Na’ ATP blocker
B. Biguanides – AMP Kinase activation
C. Vildagliptin – SGLT2 inhibitor
D. Voglibose – DPP4 inhibitor
Answer: B
450. Mechanism of action of sulfonylureas is ?
A. Na ATP channel blocker
B. K ATP channel blocker
C. CI ATP channel blocker
D. Ca ATP channel blocker
Answer: B
451. Nasally acting GnRH analogue is ?
A. Goserelin
B. Triptorelin
C. Nafarelin
D. Leuprolide
Answer: C
452. Which of the following is/ are side effect/s of growth hormone administration?
A. Pain at injection site
B. Glucose intolerance
C. Hypothyroidism
D. All the above
Answer: D
453. Which of the following drugs halts macrovascular as well as microvascular effects of DM?
A. Acarbose
B. Biguanides
C. Meglitinide
D. Algaliptin
Answer: B
454. Which of the following are naturally occurring opioid?
A. Di acetyl morphine
B. Ethyl morphine
C. Morphine
D. Pholcodeine
Answer: C
455. Most potent opioid is ?
A. Butorphanol
B. Pentazocine
C. Sulfentanyl
D. Hdrocodone
Answer: C
456. All of the following pairs are correct except ?
A. Peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor – Benserazide
B. MAO – B inhibitor – Clorgyline
C. COMT inhibitor – Entacapone
D. Dopamine facilitation – Amantadine
Answer: B
457. Which of the following is used for the patient on antiparkinsonian medication levodopa + carbidopa, but patient showing marked on – off effect?
A. Bromocriptine
B. Amatidine
C. Selegeline
D. Rimonabant
Answer: C
458. Which of the following is not true about benzodiazepines?
A. Can produce ataxia
B. Has GABA facilitatory but no GABA mimetic action
C. REM, and Stage 3 and 4 sleep is increased
D. Produces muscle relaxation by action on medulla
Answer: C
459. Which of the following is not true about barbiturate?
A. Shows GABA mimetic action
B. Shows GABA facilitatory action
C. It can depress voltage gated Na.- and IC’ channels at high concentrations
D. Limbic system is most sensitive to the depressive action of barbiturates to CNS
Answer: D
460. Which of the following can be used in the management of tardive dyskinesia ?
A. Cessation of antipsychotic medication
B. Baclofen
C. Tetrabenazine
D. All the above
Answer: D
461. Temazepam is superior to diazepam in ?
A. Longer duration of action
B. Safely used in liver failure
C. No active metabolite required.
D. High hepatic metabolism
Answer: B:C
462. Drug contraindicated in absence seizures is
A. Lamotrigine
B. Clonazepam
C. Tiagabine
D. Ethosuximide
Answer: C
463. Mechanism of action of tianeptin is ?
A. Increase 5HT uptake
B. Decrease 5HT uptake
C. Increase DA uptake
D. Decrease DA uptake
Answer: A
464. Venlafaxine is an FDA approved drug for the treatment of ?
A. Major depression
B. Generalised anxiety disorder
C. Panic disorder
D. All the above
Answer: D
465. FDA approved drug for refractory schizophrenia ?
A. Amoxapine
B. Haloperidol
C. Clozapine
D. Penfluridol
Answer: C
466. True about anti – Parkinson drug levodopa is ?
A. Levodopa is an active metabolite of dopamine.
B. About 50% of administered levodopa is peripherally converted to carbidopa.
C. About 2% of the administered levodopa crosses blood brain barrier.
D. Levodopa has no role in hepatic coma.
Answer: C
467. Which of the following is true about ziprasidone?
A. Profound extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Causes weight loss
C. Has anti – depressant properties
D. Safe in cardiac patients.
Answer: C
468. Which of the following nephrotoxic drugs should be completely avoided in renal failure?
A. Doxycycline
B. Talampicillin
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Nalidixic acid
Answer: B:C:D
469. The typical maintence dose of Levetiracetam is?
A. 10 – 20 mg/ Kg/day
B. 20 – 30 mg/ Kg/day
C. 30 – 40 mg/ Kg/day
D. 40 – 50 mg/ Kg/day
Answer: C
470. Botulinum toxin is used in treatment of ?
A. Axillary hyperhidrosis
B. Blepharospasm
C. Cervical dystonia
D. All of the above
Answer: D
471. Which of the following antipsychotics show partial D2 agonist activity?
A. Aripiprazole
B. Clozapine
C. Quetiapine
D. Ziprasidone
Answer: A
472. Which drug is given in the pain due to diabetic neuropathy?
A. Lamotrigine
B. Na valproate
C. Gabapentin
D. Morphine
Answer: C
473. Topical antifungal of choice for aspergillus infection of eye is ?
A. Miconazole
B. Clotrimazole
C. Econazole
D. Fluconazole
Answer: B
474. Which of the following is a topical antifungal agent?
A. Benzyl benzoate
B. Brimetenide
C. Butenafine
D. Posconazole
Answer: C
475. Fastest acting anti malarial drug is ?
A. Chloroquine
B. Quinine
C. Mefloquine
D. Artether
Answer: D
476. Which of the following increases Amphotericin B induced nephrotoxicity?
A. Vancomycin
B. Cyclosporin
C. Acyclovir
D. All the above
Answer: D
477. Erythromycin is used in the treatment of which GIT disorder?
A. Bacillary dysentery
B. Amoebic dysentery
C. Diabetic gastroparesis
D. Ulcerative colitis
Answer: C
478. Which macrolide is active against Mycobacterium leprae?
A. Azithromycin
B. Roxithromycin
C. Clarithromycin
D. Framycetin
Answer: C
479. Ivermectin is the drug of choice for which of the following infections?
A. Trichuriasis
B. Onchocerciasis
C. Loiasis
D. Trichinosis
Answer: B
480. Which of the following causes retinal pigmentation?
A. Quinine
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Atovaquone
Answer: B
481. Mechanism of action of Linezolid is ?
A. Inhibits 30S ribosome subunit of 50S ribosome
B. Inhibits 23S ribosome subunit of 50S ribosome
C. Inhibits 5S ribosome subunit of 50S ribosome
D. Inhibits 5PS. ribosome subunit of 50S ribosome
Answer: B
482. Which of the following is not true about levamisole?
A. It is the levoisomer of tetramisole
B. It has immunomodulator action
C. It can kill strongyloides larvae and adult worms
D. It is used against ascariasis and ancyclostomiasis
Answer: C
483. Which of the following is a side effect of clofazimine?
A. Reddish black skin discoloration
B. Hemolytic anaemia
C. Flu like syndrome
D. Axillary freckling
Answer: A
484. For systemic mycosis fluconazole is preferred over ketoconazole because of
A. Greater efficacy
B. Longer t 1/2
C. Lesser side effects
D. All the above
Answer: D
485. INH hepatotoxicity is due to which compound?
A. INH acetylhydrazine
B. INH sulfhydrazine
C. INH methylhydrazine
D. All of the above
Answer: A
486. Mechanism of action of Niclosamide is ?
A. Inhibition of substrate level phosphorylation
B. Inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation
C. Inhibition of proton efflux pumps
D. Increase production of free radicals
Answer: B
487. What is the effect of co administration of rifampicin and ritonavir in patients suffering from AIDS?
A. Area Under Curve decreased by 15%
B. Area Under Curve decreased by 35%
C. Area Under Curve increased by 15%
D. Area Under Curve increased by 35%
Answer: B
488. Drug of choice for surgical prophylaxis is ?
A. Cefaclor
B. Ceftizoxime
C. Cefazolin
D. Cefoperazone
Answer: C
489. Vapiprost is a ?
A. Thromboxane receptor antagonist
B. Thromboxane synthetase antagonist
C. PGE 1 analogue
D. PGI 2 analogue
Answer: A
490. Treatment of clopidogrel toxicity can be done with ?
A. Whole human blood
B. Platelet transfusion
C. vWf transfusion
D. rFVIIa infusion
Answer: D
491. Why is clopidogrel preferred over ticlopidine?
A. Lower incidence of neutropenia and thrombocytopenia
B. Lower incidence of dyslipidemia
C. Lower incidence of hyperglycemia
D. Lower incidence of postural hypotention
Answer: A
492. Which of the following antilipidemic drug is a sterol absorption inhibitor?
A. Gemfibrozil
B. Simvastatin
C. Nicotinic acid
D. Ezetimibe
Answer: D
493. Mechanism of action of Torcetraprib is ?
A. Bile acid sequestrant
B. Sterol absorption inhibitor
C. Lipoprotein lipase activator
D. CETP inhibitors
Answer: D
494. Most potent H2 antagonist is ?
A. Ranitidine
B. Cimetidine
C. Famotidine
D. Nizatidine
Answer: C
495. Not an adverse effect of cimetidine ?
A. Confusional state, restlessness
B. Gynecomastia
C. Dry mouth
D. Decreased prolactin levels
Answer: D
496. Use of metoclopramide beyond weeks increases the chances of tardive dyskinesia ?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 20
Answer: B
497. The two molecules of Amino salicylate coupled via azo bond form?
A. Mesalazine
B. Olsalazine
C. Balsalazine
D. Sulfasalazine
Answer: B
498. Natural anticancer drug is ?
A. Paclitaxel
B. Methotrexate
C. Cyclophosphomide
D. All of the above
Answer: A
499. Drug acting on ‘S’ phase of cycle ?
A. Chlorambucil
B. Methotrexate
C. Vincristine
D. Paclitaxel
Answer: B
500. Mechanism of action of aprepitant is ?
A. RANK ligand inhibitor
B. MMDA antagonist
C. NK 1 receptor antagonist
D. 5 HT3 antagonist
Answer: C
501. Use of HAART is associated with hepatotoxicity approximately what percentage of patients?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Answer: A
502. Bendamustine is useful for the management of ?
A. Chronic lymphoid leukemia
B. Colon carcinoma
C. Breast carcinoma
D. Renal carcinoma
Answer: A
503. Abraxane is a ?
A. Albumin bound docetaxel
B. Globulin bound docetaxel
C. Albumin bound paclitaxel
D. Globulin bound paclitaxel
Answer: C
504. Abatacept binds to on T cell surface
A. CD I I
B. CD 20
C. CD 22
D. CD 28
Answer: D
505. Cardiotmdcity is the side effect of ?
A. Bleomycin
B. Topotecan
C. Rubidomycin
D. Procarbazine
Answer: C
506. Tocilizumab acts as an antagonist at which reeptor
A. IL I
B. IL 2
C. IL 6
D. TNF
Answer: C
507. Mechanism of action of Basiliximab is ?
A. TNF a inhibitor
B. IL 1 antagonist
C. IL 2 antagonist
D. IL 6 antagonist
Answer: C
508. Estramustine is a combination of ?
A. Estradiol + normustine
B. Estriol + normustine
C. Estriol + mechloroethamine
D. Estriol + cyclophosphamide
Answer: A
509. Pemetrexed is indicated for use in which of the following?
A. Mesoepithelioma
B. Non small cell lung carcinoma
C. Ewings sarcoma
D. Osteosarcoma
Answer: A:B
510. Which of the following is not true about purine antagonists?
A. Azathioprine is used as immunosuppresant
B. Drugs are activated by hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase [HGPRTase]
C. Fludoribine is the drug of choice for CLL
D. Cladarabine is degraded by adenosine deaminase
Answer: D
511. Panitumumab is used for which cancer?
A. Colon cancer
B. Lung cancer
C. Breast cancer
D. Osteoclastoma
Answer: A
512. Cetuximab is used to treat ?
A. Adamantinoma
B. Basal cell Ca
C. Colorectal Ca
D. Crohn’s disease
Answer: C
513. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of cyclophosphamide?
A. Haemorrhagic cystitis
B. Infertility
C. Bone marrow suppression
D. Diabetes insipidus
Answer: D
514. Adverse effect of the imatinib are all except ?
A. Periorbital edema
B. Myalgia
C. Pleural effusion
D. Arthralgia
Answer: D
515. Defect in discriminating blue green vision is due to which drug ?
A. Alprostadil
B. Primaquine
C. Sildenafil
D. Primaquine
Answer: C
516. Racecadotril is used for?
A. Chronic diarrhea
B. Acute secretory diarrhea
C. Chronic constipation
D. Diabetic gastroparesis
Answer: B
517. True about trientene is :
A. It is the drug of first choice in wilsons disease
B. It is more potent curiuretic agent than penicillamine
C. Trientine therapy can cause iron deficiency
D. Trientine cannot be given orally
Answer: C
518. Which of the following drugs is associated with priapism?
A. Hydralazine
B. Prazocin
C. Resperidone
D. All the above
Answer: D
519. Which of the following is a Cl- channel activator?
A. Lubriprostone
B. Nefazodone
C. Varenioline
D. Valethamate
Answer: A
520. Which drug is used in the treatment of Type I tyrosinemia?
A. Nitisinone
B. Alogliptin
C. Pemoline
D. Milrinone
Answer: A
521. Modafinil is a drug used in which of the following conditions?
A. Premature ejaculation
B. Premenstrual syndrome
C. Shift work disorder
D. Erectile dysfunction
Answer: C
522. Acamprostate is used for ?
A. Alcohol abstinence
B. Nicotine abstinence
C. Opioid abstinence
D. Cocaine abstinence
Answer: A
523. Depot preparations are administered by ?
A. Subcutaneous route
B. Intravenous route
C. Intramuscular route
D. Both subcutaneous and intramuscular route
Answer: D
524. If Vmax dec to 80% due to an inhibitor and Km is same as before which is the type of inhibition?
A. Competitive Equilibrium type
B. Non competitive
C. Competitive Non Equilibrium type
D. None of the above
Answer: B
525. Approximate dose of drug in a 5 years old child ?
A. Same as adult dose
B. 1/2 of adult dose
C. 1/3 of adult dose
D. ‘A of adult dose
Answer: C
526. Active substance in Dakins skin dressing agent used in burns is ?
A. Mafenide acetate
B. Silver sulfadiazine
C. Sodium hypochlorite
D. Nystatin
Answer: C
527. Oxidation of drugs is mainly takes place in?
A. Nucleu
B. Smooth ER
C. Rough ER
D. Cytoplasm
Answer: B
528. Alkaline diuresis in acidic drug poisoning is not done in ?
A. Aspirin
B. Methotrexate
C. Morphine
D. Phenobarbitone
Answer: C
529. Permission from DCGI [Drug controller general, India] is needed before which phase of drug trial?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
Answer: A
530. Volume of distribution of a drug is 500 ml and target concentration of drug in blood is 5 g/L. 20% of administered drug is reached to systemic circulation. What will be the loading dose of that drug
A. 1 gm
B. 5 gm
C. 12.5 gm
D. 25 gm
Answer: C
531. IC content of Ringer’s lactate [mmol/L] ?
A. 130
B. 109
C. 4
D. 50
Answer: C
532. Half life of Nicotine in blood ?
A. 15 minutes
B. 2 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 24 hours
Answer: B
533. Volume of distribution depends upon all except ?
A. Drug dose
B. Plasma concentration
C. Extent of absorption
D. Half life of drug
Answer: D
534. Lorcaserin is used as ?
A. Anti-anxiety
B. Anti-smoking
C. Anti-helminthic
D. Anti-obesity
Answer: D
535. Capecitabine belongs to which class of anticancer drug?
A. Antimetabolite
B. Alkylating agent
C. Nitrogen mustards
D. Vinca alkaloids
Answer: C
536. Which antibiotic should not be given after drinking milk?
A. Chloramphenical
B. Tetracycline
C. Erythromycin
D. Sulfonamide
Answer: B
537. Idoxuridine is used for treatment of ?
A. Influenza
B. RSV
C. HSV
D. HIV
Answer: C
538. XDR TB is defined as ?
A. MDR plus resistance to fluoroquinolone
B. MDR plus resistance to fluoroquinolone and streptomycin
C. MDR plus resistance to fluoroquinolone and Amikacin
D. MDR plus resistance to Amikacin
Answer: D
539. Longest acting carbapenems ?
A. Imipenem
B. Meropenem
C. Doripenem
D. Ertapenem
Answer: D
540. High volume of distribution depends on ?
A. High plasma protein binding
B. Lipid solubility
C. Elimination
D. Half life
Answer: B
541. Duration of erythromycin used in treatment of diphtheria is ?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 30 days
Answer: C
542. Drugs used for H. Pylori are all except?
A. Bismuth
B. Amoxicillin
C. Domperidone
D. Clarithromycin
Answer: C
543. Drugs which is not metabolized by acetylation ?
A. Dapsone
B. Metoclopramide
C. Procainamide
D. INH
Answer: B
544. Which is topical way of drug administration ?
A. Inhaled steroid
B. Transdermal patch
C. Sublingual NTG
D. Rectal diazepam
Answer: A
545. Neuropathy with INH therapy is least in patients?
A. Having malnutrition
B. Alcoholics
C. Fast acetylators
D. Vitamin B complex deficiency
Answer: C
546. True about transdermal drug delivery system are all except?
A. Applied to chest, abdomen and back
B. Drug is delivered at a constant rate
C. Good option in emergency situations
D. Fentanyl is used
Answer: C
547. Synergistic action is shown by all except ?
A. Penicillin plus sulfonamide
B. Streptomycin plus tetracycline
C. Rifampicin plus dapsone
D. Penicillin plus tetracycline
Answer: D
548. Physiological antagonists are ?
A. Adrenaline and Isoprenaline
B. Histamine and adrenaline
C. Isoprenaline and propranolal
D. All of the above
Answer: B
549. Receptor level antagonism is shown by ?
A. Adrenaline and Isoprenaline
B. Histamine and adrenaline
C. Isoprenaline and propranolol
D. All of the above
Answer: C
550. Emtricitabine is a/an ?
A. Alkylating agent
B. Antimetabolite
C. Mitotic inhibitor
D. None of the above
Answer: B
551. Fastest receptor mediated action is through ?
A. Cell membrane receptors
B. Intrinsic ion channels
C. Enzyme linked receptors
D. Intracellular receptors
Answer: B
552. Emtricitabine is classified as?
A. Alkylating agent
B. Antimetabolite anticancer
C. NRTI
D. None of the above
Answer: C
553. Which among the following is present only in iv [intravenous] form
A. Vancomycin
B. Meropenem
C. Streptomycin
D. All of the above
Answer: B
554. Side effects of clonidine are all except ?
A. Xerostomia
B. Sedation
C. Impotency
D. Diarrhea
Answer: D
555. Lipid insoluble (3-blokcer is
A. Timolol
B. Carvedilol
C. Pindolol
D. Celiprolol
Answer: D
556. Nonselective a + 1 blocker is ?
A. Carvedilol
B. Timolol
C. Pindolol
D. Acebutolol
Answer: A
557. Quinine acts on which stage of plasmodium life cycle?
A. Exoerythrocytic
B. Pre-erythrocytic
C. Erythrocytic
D. All of the above
Answer: C
558. Non-selective Beta-blocker with sympathomimetic activity ?
A. Pindolol
B. Acebutalol
C. Nodalol
D. Metoprolol
Answer: A
559. Which of the following is non-selective 3rd generation Beta blocker ?
A. Betaxolol
B. Celiprolol
C. Carteolol
D. Nadolol
Answer: C
560. Gametocidal antimalarial drug for all species of plasmodium ?
A. Chloroquine
B. Quinine
C. Primaquine
D. Mefloquine
Answer: C
561. Action of M, cholinergic receptors ?
A. Skeletal muscle contraction
B. Acid secretion in stomach
C. Decreased heart rate
D. Salivation and lacrimation
Answer: C
562. Levamisol is a/an ?
A. Immunomodulator
B. Immunostimulant
C. Antiheliminthic
D. All of the above
Answer: D
563. . Beta-blocker should be used with caution in patient of
A. Hypertension
B. Glaucoma
C. Conduction defect
D. CHF
Answer: C
564. Which of the following is not excreted in kidney ?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Ofloxacin
C. Levofloxacin
D. Moxifloxacin
Answer: D
565. Antimuscarinic drug used in overactive bladder
A. Pirenzepine
B. Trospium
C. Tropicamide
D. Atropine
Answer: B
566. Thymidine is responsible for resistance to which antibiotic ?
A. Erythromycin
B. Sulfonamide
C. Tetracycline
D. Nitroforantoin
Answer: B
567. Anti-cholinesterase with central action ?
A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine
C. Pyridostigmine
D. Edrophonium
Answer: B
568. Antitubercular drug which makes the patient non-infective earliest ?
A. INH
B. Rifampin
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
Answer: A
569. Contraindication of antimuscarinic drug ?
A. Glaucoma
B. Asthma
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Urinary incontinence
Answer: A
570. Maximum cycloplegic action of atropine is seen at ?
A. 30-40 minutes
B. 1-3 hours
C. 8-10 hours
D. 1-2 weeks
Answer: B
571. One of the following is not a side effect of atropine?
A. Blurring of vision
B. Diarrhoea
C. Urinary retention
D. Confusion of elderly
Answer: B
572. Specific feature of simvastatin ?
A. Most potent statin
B. Longest acting statin
C. Lipophilic
D. Not metabolized
Answer: C
573. Longest acting anti-cholinesterase
A. Pyridostigmine
B. Ambenonium
C. Edrophonium
D. Echothiophate
Answer: D
574. Ximelagatran is used as ?
A. Antiplatelet
B. Anticoagulant
C. Fibrinolytic
D. Antifibrinolytic
Answer: B
575. Propranolol is used in ?
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. AV block
C. Cardiac arrest
D. All of the above
Answer: A
576. Atropine plus diphenoxylate combination is used for?
A. Glaucoma
B. Iridocyclitis
C. Diarrhea
D. Motion sickness
Answer: C
577. Maximum potassium loss is caused by which diuretics ?
A. Furosemide
B. Thiazide
C. Acetazolamide
D. Spironolactone
Answer: C
578. . Hyoscine is antagonist at which cholinergic receptor?
A. Muscarinic
B. Nicotinic
C. Both
D. None
Answer: A
579. Fenoldopam is used in the management of ?
A. Hypertensive emergencies
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Migraine prophylaxis
D. Tachyarrhythmias
Answer: A
580. Drug of choice for drug induced peptic ulcer ?
A. Prostaglandin analogues
B. H2-receptor antagonists
C. Proton pump inhibitors
D. Antacids
Answer: C
581. True about cardiac muscle fibers ?
A. Digitalis decreases force of contraction
B. Na+ – Ca+ exchanger requires ATP directly
C. Na+-Ca+ exchanger acts to pump Ca2+ into heart muscle cells
D. All are true
Answer: C
582. Side effects of amiodarone are all except ?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Skin discoloration
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: D
583. Which among the following is renin antagonist?
A. Losartan
B. Benazepril
C. Remikiren
D. Imidapril
Answer: C
584. Which of following is a stool softener ?
A. Bran
B. Senna
C. Phenalphthalein
D. Docusates
Answer: D
585. Rebound increase in gastric acid secretion after stopping proton pump inhibitor therapy is due to?
A. Parietal cell hyperplasia
B. Increased histamine release
C. Hypergastrinemia
D. Hypersensitivity of Ach receptors
Answer: C
586. Which of the following is a PAR antagonist ?
A. Prasugrel
B. Ticlopidine
C. Tirofiban
D. Vorapaxar
Answer: D
587. Mechanism of action of ticgrelor ?
A. Reversible inhibition of ADP action
B. Irreversible inhibition of ADP action
C. Reversible inhibition of GPIIb/IIIa
D. Irreversible inhibition of GPIIb/IIIa
Answer: A
588. Antihypertensive drug causing erectile dysfunction?
A. Calcium channel blocker
B. ACE inhibitors
C. AT 1 receptor antagonists
D. 13-blockers
Answer: D
589. Thiazides cause hypercalcemia by ?
A. Increased Ca” absorption
B. Increased PTH secretion
C. Decreased calcitonin secretion
D. Decreased calcium excretion
Answer: D
590. Drug affecting positive free water clearance without affecting negative free water clearance
A. Loop diuretics
B. Thiazides
C. Acetazolamide
D. Amiloride
Answer: B
591. Mechanism of action of ticagrelor ?
A. Cox inhibition
B. GPIIB/IIIAinhibition
C. Inhibition of thromboxane synthase
D. P2Y12 receptor antagonist
Answer: D
592. Which of the following adverse effect of ACE inhibitors is not due to bradykinin ?
A. Cough
B. Angiodema
C. Hypotension
D. None of the above
Answer: C
593. Which ACE inhibitor in safe in renal failure ?
A. Captopril
B. Enalapril
C. Benazapril
D. None
Answer: C
594. True about heparin induced thrombocytopenia ?
A. Low molecular weight heparin is better alternative
B. Antibodies are formed against platelets
C. Vitamin K is specific antidote
D. Within 12 hours of starting heparin
Answer: B
595. Sympathomimetic drug which causes decrease in heart rate ?
A. Adrenaline
B. Isoprenaline
C. Noradrenaline
D. None
Answer: C
596. True about oral iron preparations ?
A. Most commonly used preparation is ferrous gluconate
B. Ferrous fumarate is most efficient
C. Different preparations have different biovailability
D. Ferric preparations are more effective
Answer: C
597. Na*- K*- 2Cl- is inhibited by
A. Thiazides
B. Acetazolomide
C. Furosemide
D. Amiloride
Answer: C
598. Atypical side effect montelukast ?
A. Good pasture syndrome
B. Churg – Strauss syndrome
C. Membranous glomerulonephritis
D. Bronchial asthma
Answer: B
599. Acetaminophen [Paracetamol] induced liver toxicity is due to ?
A. N-acetyl cystine
B. NAPQ
C. Co-Q
D. Cytochrome ‘C’
Answer: B
600. Triptan taken by nasal route is ?
A. Sumatriptan
B. Rizatriptan
C. Naratriptan
D. Frovatriptan
Answer: A
601. Long acting 13-2 agonist is ?
A. Formoterol
B. Isoprenaline
C. Salbutamol
D. Ephedrine
Answer: A
602. PGE1 analogue is ?
A. Carboprost
B. Alprostadil
C. Epoprostenol
D. Dinoprostone
Answer: B
603. Oral sore due to inhaled steroids are treated by ?
A. Griseofulfin
B. Amphotericin-B
C. Fusidic acid
D. Muprocin ointment
Answer: B
604. Which of the following antidiabetic drug is insulin secretagogue ?
A. Pramlintide
B. Glucomannan
C. Exenatide
D. None
Answer: C
605. Which of the following oral antidiabetic drug is insulin secretagogues?
A. Metformin
B. Pioglitazone
C. Nateglinide
D. Acarbose
Answer: C
606. Which antithyroid drug crosses placenta ?
A. Carbimazole
B. Propylthiouracil
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C
607. Beta blockers used in thyroid storm cause ?
A. Quick relief of symptoms
B. Increased metabolism of thyroxine
C. Blockade of thyroxine receptors
D. Decreased synthesis of thyroxine
Answer: A
608. Which of the following is true?
A. Glucocorticoids upregulate MHC expression
B. Glucocorticoids activate T-helper cells
C. Glucocorticoids activate cytotoxic T cells
D. None of the above
Answer: A
609. For activity of antipsychotic, action is required at which receptor
A. M, muscarinic
B. D1dopaminergic
C. DZdopaminergic
D. 5HT4 serotonergic
Answer: C
610. Mechanism of action of opioids ?
A. Inhibition of cyclooxylgenase
B. Inhibition of opioid receptors at spinal level
C. Inhibition of opioid receptors at supraspinal level
D. Inhibition of opioid receptors at spinal and supraspinal level
Answer: D
611. Zonisamide acts on ?
A. GABA receptors
B. T type Ca2+ channels
C. Na+Channels
D. Cl- channels
Answer: C
612. Opioid [morphine] causes ?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Increased muscle tone
C. Mydriaris
D. Respiratory stimulation
Answer: B
613. Beside depression, other use of SSRIs ?
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Retrograde ejaculation
C. Premature ejaculation
D. Sterility
Answer: A:C
614. Which of the following drugs act directly without sexual stimulation ?
A. Sildenafil
B. Tadalafil
C. Alprostadil
D. Testosterone
Answer: C
615.Healthy Human volunteers part of which clinical trial phase?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 0
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
Answer: A
616. DOC for scorpion sting bite is?
A. EDTA
B. Neostigmine
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. Prazosin
Answer: D
617. Site of action of amphotericin B is:
A. Ribosomes
B. Cell wall
C. Plasma membrane
D. Protein
Answer: B
618. Which antiretroviral drug also has anti hepatitis activity?
A. Abacavir
B. Tenofovir
C. Nevirapine
D. Emtricitabine
Answer: D
619. Drug of choice for resistant rheumatic chorea?
A. Valproate
B. Haloperidol
C. Diazepam
D. Probenecid
Answer: A
620. At pKa=pH
A. Conc. of drug is 50% ionic and 50 % non-ionic
B. Absorption of drug is 50% ionic and 50% ionic
C. Conc of drug is 75% ionic and 25 % non-ionic
D. Conc of drug is 25% ionic and 75 % non-ionic
Answer: A
621. Physiological dose of hydrocortisone (mg/kg/day) is
A. 5 mg/kg/day
B. 10 mg/kg/day
C. 15 mg/kg/day
D. 20 mg/kg/day
Answer: B
622. What is mechanism of action of colchicine in acute gout?
A. Inhibition of purine metabolism
B. Inhibition of uric acid conversion
C. Migration of leukocytes
D. Leukocytes, lymphocytes inhibition & microtubular inhibitor
Answer: D
623. Basiliximab is an
A. IL-1 receptor antagonist
B. Anti-CD3 antibody
C. IL-2 receptor antagonist
D. TNF inhibitor
Answer: C
624. Pirenzapine is used
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Glaucoma
C. Hypertension
D. Congestive cardiac failure
Answer: A
625. Which of the following antipsychotic have increased prolactin secretion
A. Olanzapine
B. Ziprasidone
C. Clozapine
D. Risperidone
Answer: D
626. Which of the following is glucocorticoid synthesis inhibitor?
A. Mifepristone
B. Flutamide
C. Finasteride
D. Metyrapone
Answer: D
627. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t Prasugrel?
A. Not a prodrug
B. P2Y purinergic receptor blocker
C. Has a strong antiplatelet activity
D. Causes intracranial hemorrhage in TIA patients.
Answer: A
628. Q-T elongation is seen in which drug?
A. Quinidine
B. Amiodarone
C. Magnesium Sulfate
D. Lignocaine
Answer: A
629. Sacubitril is,
A. ACE inhibitor
B. Neutral endopeptidase inhibitor
C. Calcium channel inhibitor
D. Beta adrenergic blocker
Answer: B
630. Niacin therapy is contraindicated in diabetes because
A. Increases the blood sugar levels
B. Causes scleroderma
C. Difficult to give injection
D. Increases the metabolism of oral hypoglycemic drugs
Answer: A
631. Endothelin acts through which receptors?
A. cAMP
B. cGMP
C. Na+ receptors
D. Calcium receptos
Answer: A
632. Which is the centrally acting alpha 2 agonist muscle relaxant
A. Diazepam
B. Bromocriptine
C. Tizanidine
D. Methocarbamol
Answer: C
633. Apixaban is
A. Antithrombin inhibitor
B. Direct Xa inhibitor
C. Platelet activator
D. Clotting Factor XII
Answer: B
634. Anaerobes are resistant intrinsically against
A. Beta lactam antibiotics
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Azithromycin
D. Metronidazole
Answer: B
635. Which is not bacteriostatic antibiotic
A. Clindamycin
B. Vancomycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Cephalosporins
Answer: B
636. Which of the following causes melanosis coli?
A. Senna
B. Sorbitol
C. Magnesium Sulphate
D. Bisacodyl
Answer: A
637. Which among the following will the choice of antibiotic for a bedridden patient with catheter related UTI and pneumonia.
A. Amoxicillin
B. Beta Lactam antibiotics with beta lactamase
C. 3rd gen cephalosporins
D. 2nd gen cephalosporins
Answer: B
638. Mycoplasma is resistant to
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Cephalosporins
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Fluoroquinolones
Answer: A
639. Tadalafil should not be given with:
A. Vasodilator
B. Antibiotics
C. Vasoconstrictors
D. Valproate
Answer: A
640. Trilene is degraded by:
A. Enzymatic Degradation
B. Non Enzymatic degradation
C. Chemical Degradation
D. None
Answer: A
641. Mechanism of action colchicine in acute gout
A. Uric acid nephrolithiasis
B. Deficiency of enzyme Xanthine oxidase
C. Increase in serum urate concentration
D. Renal disease involving interstitial tissues
Answer: B
642. Which drug decreases the bone resorption in osteoporosis?
A. Teriparatide
B. Risedronate
C. Cortisone
D. Cimetidine
Answer: B
643. Which of the following is true about vitamin K?
A. Anticoagulant
B. Prolong use of antimicrobial leads to deficiency
C. Dietary allowance is 15-20 mg
D. All of the above
Answer: B
644. Which drugs needs continuous monitoring of prothrombin time?
A. Aspirin
B. Lepirudin
C. Digoxin
D. Coumadin
Answer: D
645. Which is not a prokinetic agent?
A. Dopamine antagonist
B. 5HT4 agonist
C. Macrolides
D. Diphenylmethane
Answer: D
646. Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting DNA replication?
A. 6 Mercaptopurine
B. Actinomycin D
C. Mitomycin C
D. Asparaginase
Answer: A
647. DOC for Onychomycosis?
A. Terbinafine
B. Fluconazole
C. Nystatin
D. Itraconazole
Answer: A
648. Theophylline by what mechanism causes diuresis?
A. PDE3 inhibition
B. PDE4 inhibition
C. Beta 2 agonist action
D. Adenosine A1 receptor antagonism
Answer: D
649. Which of the following antimicrobials should not be given to a chronic asthmatic patient managed on theophylline therapy?
A. Erythromycin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Cefotaxime
D. Cotrimoxazole
Answer: A
650. DOC of prophylaxis for motion sickness?
A. Promethazine
B. Prochlorperazine
C. Metoclopramide
D. Itopride
Answer: A
651. Which of the following antihypertensive drug is avoided in patients with high serum uric acid levels?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Enalapril
C. Prazosin
D. Atenolol
Answer: A
652. Mechanism of resistance to penicillins via beta-lactamase is
A. Altered penicillin-binding proteins
B. Drug efflux
C. Breaks drug structure
D. Alteration in 50S ribosome structure
Answer: C
653. A patient on lithium therapy developed hypertension. He was started on Thiazide for hypertension. After a few days, he developed coarse tremors and other symptoms suggestive of lithium toxicity. What is the probable mechanism of interaction?
A. Thiazide increases the tubular reabsorption of lithium
B. Thiazide inhibits the metabolism of lithium
C. Thiazides act as an add on the drug to lithium
D. All of the above
Answer: A
654. Which drug acts via the tyrosine kinase receptor?
A. Insulin
B. TSH
C. LH
D. MSH
Answer: A
655. Pegloticase is used for the treatment of an Ankylosing spondylosis
A. Reactive Arthritis
B. CPPD
C. Chronic tophaceous gout
D. Refractory Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: C
656. Fluoroquinolone contraindicated in liver disease is
A. Levofloxacin
B. Pefloxacin
C. Ofloxacin
D. Lomefloxacin
Answer: B
657. At a high altitude of 3000 m, a person complains of breathlessness. All of the following can be used for the management of this person except?
A. Intravenous digoxin
B. Oxygen supplementation
C. Immediate descent
D. Acetazolamide
Answer: A
658. A patient with diabetes and COPD developed postoperative urinary retention. Which of the following drugs can be used for short term treatment to relieve the symptoms of this person?
A. Bethanechol
B. Methacholine
C. Terazosin
D. Tamsulosin
Answer: A
659. Drug of choice for invasive aspergillosis is
A. Posaconazole
B. Voriconazole
C. Liposomal AMB
D. Caspofungin
Answer: B
660. Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting the transcription of DNA to RNA?
A. Rifampicin
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Novobiocin
Answer: A
661. A patient was recently started on Fluphenazine. A few weeks later, he developed tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, and excessive salivation. The first line of management for this patient is
A. Selegiline
B. Trihexyphenidyl
C. Pramipexole
D. Amantadine
Answer: B
662. A person was given a muscle relaxant that competitively blocks nicotinic receptors. Which of the following drugs is used for reversal of muscle relaxation after surgery?
A. Neostigmine
B. Carbachol
C. Succinylcholine
D. Physostigmine
Answer: A
663. Which of the following anticancer drugs are competitive inhibitors of tyrosine kinase
A. Imatinib and sunitinib
B. Letrozole
C. Bicalutamide
D. Fulvestrant
Answer: A