Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Multiple Choice Questions
1. High Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis (HAGMA) is caused by
A. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
B. Salicylate poisoning
C. Uretero-sigmoidostomy
D. Renal tubular acidosis
Answer: B
2. Vitamin E deficiency manifests as all, except
A. Ataxia
B. Ptosis
C. Scoliosis
D. Thrombocytopenia
Answer: D
3. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is characterized by all except
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Internalisation of muscle nuclei
C. Muscle fibres show size variations
D. Shows muscle degeneration
Answer: A
4. If a pregnant woman needs treatment with a glucocorticoids, among the following which one will you prefer
A. Prednisolone
B. Betamethasone
C. Dexamethasone
D. None of the above
Answer: A
5. A patient in the neurology unit at your hospital develops status epilepticus. Which of the following is the best first IV drug to give ?
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Lorazepam
C. Phenytoin
D. Carbamazepine
Answer: B
6. Intermittent clean catheterisation was introduced by
A. Krusen and Frankel
B. Guttman and Frankel
C. Frankel and Osler
D. Ashworth and Dennis
Answer: B
7. Smaller the angle between the propagating ray and the right angle, the less radiation reflected and greater the absorption. This is called
A. Cosine law
B. Inverse square law
C. Law of Grothus – Dreper
D. Arnott-Schultz principle
Answer: A
8. Millard – Gubler syndrome is characterised by all except
A. Ipsilateral facial palsy
B. Contralateral hemiplegia
C. contralateral lateral rectus palsy
D. Corticospinal tract involvement
Answer: C
9. The confused, Inappropriate, Nonagitated response is Ranchos Los Amigos scale is level
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
10. Types of gait seen in stroke
A. Circumduction
B. Vaulting
C. Hip hiking
D. All of the above
Answer: D
11. Treatment of choice for primary dystonia
A. Gabapentin
B. Trihexyphenidyl Hydrochloride
C. Selective dorsal rhizotomy
D. Deep brain stimulation
Answer: D
12. Frankel’s classification is commonly used in
A. Spondylitis
B. Spondylolisthesis
C. Fracture of spine
D. Tuberculosis of spine
Answer: D
13. Autonomic dysreflexia is seen commonly is Spinal cord injuries at or above
A. T2
B. T4
C. T6
D. T12
Answer: C
14. The segment of vertebral column most commonly in Rheumatoid arthritis
A. C1-2
B. C3-4
C. T12-L1
D. L4-5
Answer: A
15. _________ is the Janus Kinase 3 (JAK) inhibitor
A. Rituximab
B. Anakinra
C. Tocilizumab
D. Tofacitinib
Answer: D
16. Prosthetic knee which is called “safety knee” is
A. Weight-activated stance control
B. Manual locking knee
C. Hydraulic knee
D. Microprocessor knee
Answer: A
17. Advantages of Myoelectric prosthesis are all, except
A. Do not require a cable or harness
B. Looks like natural appearing arm
C. Motor strength and coordinated mobility not as important
D. Lighter
Answer: D
18. Complete (complex) decongestive therapy is used in
A. Head and Neck cancer
B. Carcinoma urinary bladder
C. Lymphedema
D. Brain tumors
Answer: C
19. All are characteristics of Para-Neoplastic syndromes, except
A. Produce refractory neurological deficit
B. Occurs less than 1% of all patients with cancer
C. Generally responds well to immunotherapies
D. All of the above
Answer: C
20. Habituation treatment is used commonly in
A. Auditory dysfunction
B. Vestibular dysfunction
C. Diabetic retinopathy
D. Glucoma
Answer: B
21. Which of the following is not a branch of Internal carotid artery ?
A. Ophthalmic artery
B. Anterior Choroidal artery
C. Posterior Communicating artery
D. Posterior Choroidal artery
Answer: D
22. Distal attachment of abductor pollicis longus is to
A. Base of Distal phalanx of thumb
B. Base of proximal phalanx of thumb
C. Base of fist metacarpal
D. Head of first metacarpal
Answer: C
23. Which is the true statement about Post synaptic potentials.
A. Slow EPSP is due to increased 𝑁+ influx
B. EPSP is propagated with decrement
C. An IPSP decreases membrane potential of post synaptic neuron
D. An IPSP is produced by localized decrease in Chloride transport
Answer: B
24. Anatomical dead space is measured using
A. Fowler’s method
B. Helium dilution method
C. Bohr’s method
D. Fick’s method
Answer: A
25. Which is false regarding Physical Activity Ratio (PAR) ?
A. It is a multiple of BMR
B. It is used for calculating Physical Activity Level (PAL)
C. It is also called as Metabolic Equivalent of the Task (MET)
D. It is measurement of the ratio of volume of carbon dioxide produced: volume of oxygen consumed
Answer: D
26. Fastest gait
A. Swing to
B. 3 point gait
C. 4 point gait
D. Swing through
Answer: D
27. Using the involuntary responses to movement of the head and body for purpose of modifying muscle tone or eliciting movements is seen in
A. Bobath method
B. Brunnstrom method
C. PNF technique
D. Rood approach
Answer: A
28. Most wheel chairs do not have camber more than
A. 8 degrees
B. 12 degrees
C. 16 degrees
D. 20 degrees
Answer: A
29. While doing motor nerve conduction studies, the reference electrode is placed
A. Close to motor point
B. Close to tendon
C. Close to origin of muscle
D. Close to ground electrode
Answer: B
30. Inching technique is most commonly used for the diagnosis of lesion of
A. Sural nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Median nerve
Answer: C
31. Supra-maximal stimulation is used for detecting
A. F wave
B. H reflex
C. Axon reflex
D. All of the above
Answer: A
32. Saw tooth appearance in EMG suggests
A. Fibrillation potentials
B. Positive sharp waves
C. Complex repetitive discharges
D. Fasciculation’s
Answer: B
33. Polyphasic potentials have more than _______ phases.
A. Three
B. Four
C. Six
D. Seven
Answer: B
34. Characteristics RNS findings in myasthenia Gravis all, except
A. Normal CMAP
B. Decremental response at low rate RNS
C. Incremental response at low rate RNS
D. Post exercise exhaustion
Answer: C
35. Characteristic ‘Dive bomber” sound is heard in EMG of
A. Myopathy
B. Myotonia
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Peripheral nerve injuries
Answer: B
36. Govt. of India published the latest guidelines for assessing the extend of disability in the Gazette of India, dated
A. January 5, 2015
B. January 5, 2016
C. January 5, 2017
D. January 5, 2018
Answer: D
37. As per latest guidelines, the percentage of permanent disability for a Moderate Ataxia is
A. Less than 25%
B. Between 25-40%
C. Between 40-60%
D. Between 60-70%
Answer: C
38. Thumb disarticulation through Metacarpophalangeal joint has a Permanent disability of
A. 30%
B. 25%
C. 20%
D. 15%
Answer: B
39. In Charcot’s joint, if the MRS score is 3, then the percentage of permanent disability is
A. Less than 40%
B. 40-50%
C. 51-60%
D. 61-80%
Answer: C
40. ‘Speed play’ means
A. Interval training
B. Fartlek training
C. Maximum aerobic speed training
D. Cross training
Answer: B
41. The ratio of Mineral oil and Paraffin used in Wax Bath is
A. 1 : 4
B. 1 : 5
C. 1 : 6
D. 1 : 7
Answer: D
42. Most intense heating takes place during Ultrasound therapy at
A. Skin
B. Fat
C. Tissue interface
D. Muscle
Answer: C
43. Most frequently used short wave diathermy has a frequency of _______ MHz.
A. 40.68
B. 27.12
C. 13.56
D. 15.21
Answer: B
44. ‘Pain gate’ theory is postulated by
A. Wall and Kriek
B. Wall and Melzack
C. Melzack and Watson
D. Watson and Nathan
Answer: B
45. The term “Physiatrist” was coined by
A. Howard Rusk
B. Frank Krusen
C. Earl Elkins
D. Basmajain
Answer: B
46. Most commonly used coupling gel in Ultrasound is
A. Distilled water
B. Glycerol
C. Aquasonic gel
D. Liquid paraffin
Answer: C
47. Bowel management in UMN bowel usually includes all, except
A. High fibre diet
B. Suppositories
C. Minienema
D. Digital evacuation
Answer: D
48. Ballistic is a type of
A. Massage
B. Manipulation
C. Stretching
D. Traction
Answer: C
49. In gait cycle, the distance covered by the body in unit time is called
A. Cadence
B. Stride
C. Stride
D. Velocity
Answer: D
50. Second rocker in normal gait is at
A. Heel strike
B. Foot flat
C. Heel off
D. Toe off
Answer: B
51. Advantages of open chain exercises are all, except
A. Increased joint compression
B. Able to exercise through increased ROM
C. Able to isolate individual muscles
D. Can exercise in non-weight bearing positions
Answer: A
52. Kohler’s disease affects
A. Calcaneum
B. Navicular bone
C. Talus
D. Cuboid bone
Answer: B
53. Components of “Female Athlete Triad” includes all, except
A. Obesity
B. Disordered eating
C. Amenorrhoea
D. Osteoporosis
Answer: A
54. Most common type of Diabetic neuropathy is
A. Distal symmetrical sensorimotor polyneuropathy
B. Diabetic amyotrophy
C. Distal asymmetrical sensorimotor polyneuropathy
D. Focal neuropathies
Answer: A
55. Scott – Craig orthosis is used in patients with paraplegia of
A. L1 or higher
B. L3 or higher
C. L4 or higher
D. L5 or higher
Answer: A
56. Knuckle bender splint is used in patients with lesion of
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Both of the above
D. Radial nerve
Answer: C
57. Pollicization means
A. Web space is deepened between the digits
B. Moving a finger with its nerve an blood supply to site of amputated thumb
C. Surgical technique for direct skeletal attachment of the prosthesis
D. Re-routing of unused nerves to functional muscles
Answer: B
58. Tarso-metatarsal amputation is otherwise called
A. Lisfranc amputation
B. Chopart amputation
C. Syme’s amputation
D. Modified Syme’s
Answer: A
59. Polyphasic potentials have more than _____ phases.
A. Three
B. Four
C. Six
D. Seven
Answer: B
60. Functional level three (K3) for Trans-femoral amputees means patient is
A. Limited household walking on level surface
B. Enhanced levels of stance phase stability while allowing great swing phase motion
C. Full community ambulation and can ambulate with variable cadences
D. Have ability to use prosthesis for activities outside of normal activities
Answer: C
61. Gritti-Stokes amputation is amputation
A. At the level of epicondyles
B. Below the level of adductor tubercles
C. At or just above the level of adductor tubercles
D. None of the above
Answer: C
62. Primary controls of a Motor vehicle are all, except
A. Steering wheel
B. Accelerator
C. Brake
D. Head light
Answer: D
63. A child is held in ventral suspension and stimulation of back lateral to spine produces flexion of trunk towards the side of stimulus. This is called
A. Pars reflex
B. Gallant’s reflex
C. Landau reflex
D. Magnet reflex
Answer: B
64. __________ is a Dynamic orthosis.
A. Boston brace
B. Millwaukee brace
C. Spinal jacket
D. All of the above
Answer: B
65. Mincing gait is characterised by
A. Reduced step length and increased cadence
B. Legs are spread apart and individual strides are wide
C. Body bent forward, knees are slightly flexed and steps are slow
D. Exaggeration of swing phase
Answer: A
66. In the Functional Independence Measure (FIM) for eating, if the patient needs supervision and the help of another person to open containers, then the score for eating is
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
Answer: B
67. Example of thermosetting plastic
A. Polypropylene
B. Polyethylene
C. Epoxyresin
D. LTTP
Answer: C
68. A randomized control trial was carried out to assess whether Drug A will prevent future Myocardial Infarction (MI) in patients who already had a previous episode of MI. A total of 1000 patients were randomized equally into intervention (Drug A) and control (placebo) groups and followed up for one year. There were 20 cases of Myocardial Infarctions among the intervention group and 60 cases among the control group. find the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)
A. 8
B. 12.5
C. 14
D. 10.5
Answer: B
69. Birth length of a normal baby doubles at what age
A. one year
B. Two years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
Answer: C
70. A normal infant “Cruises” at what age
A. 6 months
B. 7 months
C. 10 months
D. 15 months
Answer: C
71. All are features of Depressive disorder except
A. Fatigue or loss of energy
B. Bizarre delusions
C. Loss of interest or pleasure
D. Depressed mood
Answer: B
72. A characteristic finding in Major Neurocognitive disorder is
A. Thought echo
B. Passivity Phenomena
C. Executive function disturbance
D. Depersonalization
Answer: C
73. To calculate Duke Treadmill score, which of the following is not required
A. Heart rate
B. ST segment depression
C. Exercise duration
D. Angina index
Answer: A
74. Which scoring system is commonly used to describe the anatomy of mitral valve in Mitral stenosis by 3D echocardiography ?
A. Cormier score
B. Wilkin’s score
C. Anvar score
D. Padial score
Answer: C
75. Which of the following will be least recommended as a VAP prevention strategy in India ?
A. Hand hygeine
B. Continuous aspiration of subglottic secretions
C. Selective decontamination of digestive tract
D. Chlorhexidene based oral care
Answer: C
76. ‘Thumb Sign’ in X-ray soft tissue neck lateral view is seen in
A. Fracture Maxilla
B. Adenoid Hypertrophy
C. Acute Epiglottitis
D. Subglottic Stenosis
Answer: C
77. The gold standard for diagnosing pelvic inflammatory disease is
A. Endometrial biopsy with evidence of endometritis
B. Transvaginal sonography showing thickened tubes
C. Laparoscopic findings consistent with infection
D. Presence of white blood cell in vaginal discharge
Answer: C
78. A 30 year old lady 𝑃2 𝐿2 , presents with mass descending per vaginum. On examination, there is third degree uterine prolapse with no rectocele or cystocele. Which of the following is the surgery of choice ?
A. Anterior colporraphy
B. Fothergill procedure
C. Vaginal hysterectomy
D. Abdominal hysterectomy
Answer: B
79. Vitamin 𝐵12 deficiency causes
A. Arcuate Scotoma
B. Altitudinal Scotoma
C. Bjerrum’s Scotoma
D. Centrocaecal Scotoma
Answer: D
80. Causes of Toxic Optic Neuropathy includes all except.
A. Ethambutol
B. Methyl alcohol
C. Rifampicin
D. INH
Answer: C
81. Highest heel for shoes is seen in
A. Oxford heel
B. Military heel
C. Cuban heel
D. Spring heel
Answer: C
82. Disease with low prevalence but high risk for disability
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Emphysema
D. Multiple sclerosis
Answer: D
83. Pain intensity is measured by all
1. Numeric rating scale
2. Visual analogue scale
3. Mc gill pain questionnaire
4. Wong-Baker Faces Pain scale
Codes:
A: 1 & 3
B: 1, 2 & 4
C: 1, 2 & 3
D: 1,2,3 & 4
Correct Answer. Option-D
4. Curvilinear motion means motion in
A. Straight line
B. Fixed axis
C. Three dimensions
D. Two dimensions
Answer: D
85. Action of Brachioradialis muscle as a flexor of elbow is an example of
A. First class lever
B. Second class lever
C. Third class lever
D. Fourth class lever
Answer: B
86. Regarding A-a gradient, which one of the following statements is correct
A. Normal gradient is more than 15 in young people
B. Gradient decreases with age
C. Gradient is increased in hypoventilation
D. Gradient is increased with increase in 𝐹𝑖𝑂2
Answer: D
87. Typical SCF finding in Neurobrucellosis
A. Increase in poly-morphonuclear cells with increase in protein
B. Increase in mononuclear cells with low glucose
C. Increase in polymorphonuclear cells with low glucose
D. Increase in mononuclear cells with normal protein
Answer: B
88. What are the ideal methods of assessment of systemic perfusion in a shocked patient ?
A. Hemoglobin, PCV, urine output
B. Arterial oxygen saturation, level of consciousness, measurement of cardiac output
C. Measurement of base deficit, serum lactate, mixed venous oxygen saturation
D. Blood pressure, urine output, serum lactate
Answer: C
89. After trauma all are increased except
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Catecholamine
C. ACTH
D. Anti diuretic hormone
Answer: A
90. Two radiologists were asked to independently assess the hepatic area of 100 people using ultrasound and classify them into normal and abnormal. Which tests will you apply to assess the agreement between the two radiologists ?
A. Mc Nemer test
B. ANOVA
C. Cohen’s Kappa
D. Correlation
Answer: C
91. Bubble like lucencies or pseudocavitation in a CT thorax image is characteristically seen with
A. Non tuberculous mycobacterial lung infections
B. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma
C. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
D. Lupus pneumonitis
Answer: B
92. In a normal chest PA radiograph the carinal angle is in the range of
A. 900 – 950
B. 450 − 500
C. 600 – 750
D. 100 – 150
Answer: C
93. In a case of pelvic trauma, the classic ‘Molar tooth’ appearance in CT cystography is seen in
A. Intraperitoneal bladder rupture
B. Extraperitoneal bladder rupture
C. Interstitial bladder injury
D. Bladder neck hematoma
Answer: B
94. In traumatic head injury causing blindness, the most vulnerable segment of optic nerve is
A. Intraorbital
B. Intracranial
C. Intracanalicular
D. Intraocular
Answer: C
95. Following are the components of Currarino triad except.
A. Dermal sinus tract
B. Presacral mass
C. Anorectal malformations
D. Scimitar sacrum
Answer: A
96. The initial event in evaluation of development of Boutonniere deformity is
A. Rupture/sublaxation of volar plate of PIP joint
B. Hyper extension of distal interphalangeal joint
C. Loss of continuity of central slip insertion into the base of middle phalanx
D. Lateral and palmar migration of extensor lateral bands
Answer: C
97. The usual sequence of sensory recovery following full-thickness skin grafling is
A. Light touch, temperature, pain
B. Pain, light touch, temperature
C. Temperature, pain, light touch
D. Light touch, pain, temperature
Answer: B
98. Complete spinal cord injury above the sacral spinal cord but below the area of the sympathetic outflow results in all the following except
A. Destrusor overactivity
B. Absent sensation below the level of the lesion
C. Smooth sphincter dyssynergia
D. Striated sphincter dyssynergia
Answer: C
99. Which of the following organisms are always resistant to Nitrofurantoin ?
A. Klebsiella and Proteus
B. Pseudomonas and Proteus
C. Klebsiella and Pseudomonas
D. Pseuodomonas and Staphylococcus
Answer: B
100. Roll-over phenomenon in pure tone audiogram is seen in
A. Cochlear Lesion
B. Retro Cochlear Lesion
C. Chronic Otitis Media
D. Serous Otitis Media
Answer: B