Political Theory Multiple Choice Questions
1. The Union List consists of
A. 97 subjects
B. 61 subjects
C. 47 subjects
D. 73 subjects
Answer: A. 97 subjects
2. An interpretation of the Constitution of India is based on the spirit of
A. Fundamental Duties
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Preamble
D. Federal System
Answer: C. Preamble
3. The Constituent Assembly was set according to the proposals of
A. The Cripps Mission
B. the Cabinet Mission
C. Mountbatten Plan
D. Rajagopalachari Plan
Answer: B. the Cabinet Mission
4. The Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India were adopted from
A. Canadian Constitution
B. Russian Constitution
C. American Constitution
D. French Constitution
Answer: B. Russian Constitution
5. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the Fundamental Duties
A. Article 32
B. Article 50
C. Article51
D. Article 51 A
Answer: D. Article 51 A
6. In India Right to Property is a
A. Moral Right
B. Legal Right
C. Fundamental Right
D. Personal Right
Answer: B. Legal Right
7. Which article is referred to as ‘the jewel of the Constitution’
A. Article 352
B. Article 123
C. Article 32
D. Article 31
Answer: C. Article 32
8. Which writ give the meaning ‘we command’ in letters
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Prohibition
C. Quo Warranto
D. Mandamus
Answer: D. Mandamus
9. Which of the following is not included in the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India?
A. Right to adequate means of livelihood
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right against Exploitation
D. Right to Equality
Answer: A. Right to adequate means of livelihood
10. The Directive Principles of State Policy have been adopted from
A. US Constitution
B. Irish Constitution
C. French Constitution
D. Canadian Constitution
Answer: B. Irish Constitution
11. Keshavananda Bharati case was associated with
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. State right
D. Armed rebellion
Answer: A. Fundamental Rights
12. The word ‘socialist’ was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which amendment
A. 44th
B. 27th
C. 21st
D. 42nd
Answer: D. 42nd
13. The Constitution of India is
A. Rigid
B. flexible
C. Combination of rigidity and flexibility
D. Neither rigid nor flexible
Answer: C. Combination of rigidity and flexibility
14. Right to Freedom is guaranteed in which article
A. 17
B. 19
C. 18
D. 20
Answer: B. 19
15. Directive Principles of State Policy is
A. Justifiable
B. non-justifiable
C. mandatory
D. None of these
Answer: B. non-justifiable
16. The word ‘secularism’ was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which amendment
A. 40th
B. 42nd
C. 44th
D. 46th
Answer: B. 42nd
17. Right to Property is included in Article
A. 32
B. 19
C. 31
D. 14
Answer: C. 31
18. Right to Property was removed from Fundamental Rights by which amendment
A. 29th
B. 25th
C. 44th
D. 42nd
Answer: D. 42nd
19. Part IV A of the Indian Constitution deal with
A. Fundamental Duties
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Directive Principles of state Policy
D. Citizenship
Answer: A. Fundamental Duties
20. The procedure for amending the Constitution of India is
A. Rigid
B. flexible
C. partly rigid and flexible
D. None of these
Answer: C. partly rigid and flexible
21. Elections to the local government bodies are made mandatory by which amendment
A. 72nd
B. 73rd
C. 64th
D. 63rd
Answer: B. 73rd
22. Panchayath Raj is included in the
A. Union list
B. Concurrent list
C. State list
D. Residuary power
Answer: C. State list
23. Village Panchayath is organized under which article of the Constitution of India
A. Article 37
B. Article 38
C. Article 39
D. Article 40
Answer: D. Article 40
24. Among the following which agency conducts election to the local bodies
A. National Election Commission
B. State Election Commission
C. Local bodies themselves
D. the Government
Answer: B. State Election Commission
25. The chairman of the National Development Council is the
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Vice President
D. Governor
Answer: A. Prime Minister
26. Who appoints the chairman of the Finance Commission
A. The President
B. Prime Minister
C. Council of Ministers
D. Vice President
Answer: A. The President
27. The members of the Council of states in India is elected for a period of
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. life term
Answer: C. 6 years
28. The President can’t ——————— Lok Sabha
A. Dissolve
B. adjourn
C. prorogue
D. summon
Answer: B. adjourn
29. The duration of an ordinance issued by the President of India is
A. 6 weeks
B. 1 year
C. 6 months
D. 6 weeks from the date of assembly of the Parliament
Answer: D. 6 weeks from the date of assembly of the Parliament
30. All speeches made in the House of People are addressed to
A. The Prime Minister
B. The Speaker
C. Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
D. Respective Ministers
Answer: B. The Speaker
31. Who promulgates ordinance in states
A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
C. President
D. Chief Justice
Answer: A. Governor
32. Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament
A. President
B. Vice President
C. Speaker
D. Chief Justice
Answer: C. Speaker
33. The amending power of the Constitution of India is described in Article
A. 352
B. 368
C. 360
D. 395
Answer: B. 368
34. The ex-officio chairman of the Council of states is
A. Speaker
B. Vice President
C. Deputy Speaker
D. Deputy Chairman
Answer: B. Vice President
35. In India the Council of state is responsible to
A. The people
B. the state
C. local government
D. None of these
Answer: B. the state
36. The number of the Anglo Indians nominated to the House of People is
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: C. 2
37. The number of nominated members to the council of states is
A. 18
B. 12
C. 20
D. 16
Answer: B. 12
38. The number of elected members to the House of the People
A. 540
B. 542
C. 543
D. 545
Answer: C. 543
39. Who is the person authorized to conduct the election of the speaker in a newly elected House of the People in India
A. Prime Minister
B. Speaker
C. Proterm speaker
D. Deputy Speaker
Answer: C. Proterm speaker
40. Who was the chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru
B. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
C. Dr Rajendra Prasad
D. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
Answer: B. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
41. How many methods are there to amend the Constitution of India
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Answer: C. 3
42. Quo warranto is
A. Writ
B. statute
C. Treaty
D. Act
Answer: A. Writ
43. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deal with
A. centre-state relations
B. Supreme Court
C. state emergency
D. national emergency
Answer: D. national emergency
44. Which Right was remarked by Dr B.R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul of the Constitution”
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to Education
D. Right to Constitutional remedies
Answer: D. Right to Constitutional remedies
45. The Indian constitution guarantees how many categories of Fundamental Rights
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: B. 6
46. Which Constitutional amendment incorporated the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?
A. 40th
B. 44th
C. 42nd
D. 50th
Answer: C. 42nd
47. Right to property was deleted by which amendment
A. 71st
B. 44th
C. 42nd
D. 68th
Answer: A. 71st
48. Who said “the Preamble is the key to the Constitution”
A. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
B. Dr Rajendra Prasad
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. C. Rajagopalachari
Answer: A. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
49. Article 19 of the Constitution of India contains
A. 9 Fundamental Freedoms
B. 8 Fundamental Freedoms
C. 7 Fundamental Freedoms
D. 6 Fundamental Freedoms
Answer: D. 6 Fundamental Freedoms
50. The Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission is appointed by
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Vice President
D. Council of Ministers
Answer: B. President
51. Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Property
C. Right to Freedom
D. Right against exploitation
Answer: B. Right to Property
52. Rights given in the Constitution are called Fundamental Right because
A. They are natural rights
B. They can’t be suspended
C. They are a part of the Constitution
D. They can be enforced and safeguarded by the courts
Answer: D. They can be enforced and safeguarded by the courts
53. Article 32 stands suspended during an emergency under Article
A. 352
B. 356
C. 360
D. 362
Answer: A. 352
54. Right to privacy is contained in
A. Article 22
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 22
Answer: C. Article 21
55. Freedom of expression is included in the article
A. 15
B. 19
C. 21
D. 22
Answer: B. 19
56. The emergency provisions of the Constitution of India have been borrowed from
A. German Constitution
B. American Constitution
C. French Constitution
D. Irish Constitution
Answer: A. German Constitution
57. Concurrent list was adopted from
A. Russian Constitution
B. American Constitution
C. Swiss constitution
D. French Constitution
Answer: C. Swiss constitution
58. Equality before law and Equal protection of law have been modelled on the Constitution of
A. Britain
B. America
C. Russian
D. Switzerland
Answer: A. Britain
59. Which article of the constitution of India empower the President to take over the administration of a state on the basis of failure of constitutional machinery
A. 365
B. 352
C. 356
D. 360
Answer: C. 356
60. In India the power of ‘amnesty’ has been given to the
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Chief of the army
D. Parliament
Answer: A. President
61. The President’s rule in a state can be continued at a stretch for a maximum period of
A. 4years
B. 2years
C. 3 years
D. one year
Answer: D. one year
62. The Council of state in India has how many elected members
A. 250
B. 238
C. 245
D. 230
Answer: B. 238
63. The executive power in India is actually exercised by
A. Speaker
B. President
C. Council of Ministers
D. Parliament
Answer: C. Council of Ministers
64. 42nd amendment Act was adopted by the Parliament in
A. 1967
B. 1968
C. 1976
D. 1977
Answer: C. 1976
65. The supreme commander of the armed forces in India is
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Defence Minister
D. None of these
Answer: A. President
66. Public Undertaking Committee is a
A. Cabinet Committee
B. Parliamentary Committee
C. Committee of a political party
D. None of these
Answer: B. Parliamentary Committee
67. What is the maximum gap permissible between two sessions of the Parliament?
A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
Answer: C. 6 months
68. The Governor of a state is a
A. Constitutional head
B. real head
C. Hereditary head
D. nominated head
Answer: A. Constitutional head
69. Who elects the Vice President of India
A. House of the People
B. Both Houses of Parliament
C. Council of States
D. Both Houses of Parliament and state legislatures
Answer: B. Both Houses of Parliament
70. In consequence of the death or incapacity of the President, vice President can become the President for
A. 6 months
B. 12months
C. 1 month
D. 5 months
Answer: D. 5 months
71. Grass root democracy is related to
A. Panchayath system
B. Interstate council
C. Lok Pal
D. Regionalism
Answer: A. Panchayath system
72. The Parliament of India consists of
A. President, House of the People and Council of state
B. House of the People and Council of states
C. Vice President, House of People and Council of states
D. President, Vice President, House of the People and Council of States
Answer: C. Vice President, House of People and Council of states
73. The President of India is elected by
A. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
B. Members of both Houses of Parliament
C. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
D. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and both Houses of the state legislatures
Answer: D. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and both Houses of the state legislatures
74. A vote taken unexpectedly without voters having been briefed in advance
A. Snap poll
B. by-election
C. opinion poll
D. exit poll
Answer: A. Snap poll
75. The President of India can ———————- the House
A. Sine die
B. prorogue
C. adjourn
D. None of these
Answer: B. prorogue
76. Recess means
A. The interval between the prorogation of Parliament and its reassembly
B. The Parliament in session
C. Adjournment of the House
D. Dissolution of the House
Answer: A. The interval between the prorogation of Parliament and its reassembly
77. The Speaker use the ‘casting vote’
A. to maintain status quo
B. to challenge the opposition
C. to defeat the government
D. in the absence of the Prime Minister
Answer: A. to maintain status quo
78. Council of states in India can delay a money bill for
A. indefinite period
B. 6 months
C. 1 month
D. 14 days
Answer: D. 14 days
79. Starred questions requires
A. Oral answer
B. unwritten answer
C. supplementary question
D. None of these
Answer: A. Oral answer
80. Consolidated Fund is
A. votable
B. non votable
C. non plan
D. None of these
Answer: B. non votable
81. Council of States in India can create an All India Service by
A. Simple majority
B. ¾ majority
C. 2/3 majority
D. unanimously
Answer: C. 2/3 majority
82. Public Accounts Committee has members from
A. House of the People
B. Council of states only
C. state legislatures
D. Both Houses of Parliament
Answer: D. Both Houses of Parliament
83. Adjournment of the House is the power of the
A. President
B. Speaker
C. Prime Minister
D. Council of Ministers
Answer: B. Speaker
84. Committee in Public Undertakings has members from
A. Both Houses of Parliament
B. Lok Sabha only
C. Rajya Sabha only
D. State Legislative Council
Answer: A. Both Houses of Parliament
85. Unstarred questions requires
A. Oral answer
B. Zero Hour
C. supplementary question
D. written answer
Answer: D. written answer
86. Sine Die is associated with the power of the
A. President
B. Speaker
C. Chief Justice
D. Prime Minister
Answer: B. Speaker
87. ‘Who holds the purse holds the power’ who said this
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru
B. Harold Laski
C. Clement Attle
D. James Madison
Answer: D. James Madison
88. Which article of the Constitution of India says “there shall be a council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advice the President”
A. Article 74
B. Article 75
C. Article 79
D. Article 80
Answer: A. Article 74
89. The President of the Indian Republic has
A. Only suspensive veto
B. Absolute veto
C. Pocket veto
D. None of these
Answer: A. Only suspensive veto
90. The members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to
A. Judiciary
B. House of the People
C. Council of States
D. The President
Answer: B. House of the People
91. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a state can resume a Bill for the consideration of the President
A. Article 196
B. Article 200
C. Article 202
D. Article 204
Answer: B. Article 200
92. The term federal is derived from the Latin word ‘foedus’ which means
A. Separation
B. Distribution
C. Covenant
D. None of these
Answer: C. Covenant
93. Which commission has examined the centre- state relations
A. Sarkaria Commission
B. Sri Krishna Commission
C. Rajamannar Commission
D. Kher Commission
Answer: A. Sarkaria Commission
94. In the Indian federal system, residuary powers rest with the
A. Local government
B. State
C. Judiciary
D. Centre
Answer: D. Centre
95. Unequal representation of states in the Council of States in India indicates
A. The Federal nature
B. the unitary features
C. the bicameral features
D. none of these
Answer: B. the unitary features
96. The chairman of the National Development Council is
A. Finance Minister
B. Defence Minister
C. Prime Minister
D. Home Minister
Answer: C. Prime Minister
97. The Indian federal system is largely based on the pattern of
A. US Federal system
B. Australian Federal system
C. Swiss Federal system
D. Canadian Federal system
Answer: D. Canadian Federal system
98. The Constitution of India adopted the federal system from the Act of
A. 1919
B. 1935
C. 1947
D. 1909
Answer: B. 1935
99. National Integration Council reflects the —————– nature of the Indian Federal system
A. Federal nature
B. Unitary nature
C. competitive nature
D. con-federal nature
Answer: B. Unitary nature
100. Madan Mohan Punchi commission was appointed to study
A. Centre-state relations
B. State reorganization
C. Panchayat Raj
D. delimitation of constituencies
Answer: A. Centre-state relations
101. Which article of the Constitution of India provides for co-operation between states
A. Article 32
B. Article 360
C. Article 14
D. Article 263
Answer: D. Article 263
102. The members of the Planning Commission have the status equal to that of
A. Central cabinet ministers
B. state ministers
C. Deputy Ministers
D. Members of Parliament
Answer: A. Central cabinet ministers
103. which among the following is not created by the Constitution
A. Planning Commission
B. Finance Commission
C. Election Commission
D. UPSC
Answer: A. Planning Commission
104. Chairman of the Planning Commission is the
A. President
B. Vice President
C. Prime Minister
D. Speaker
Answer: C. Prime Minister
105. The Constitution of India is parliamentary because
A. There is an elected President
B. there is a bicameral legislature
C. There is a Supreme Court
D. the executive is responsible to the Legislature
Answer: D. the executive is responsible to the Legislature
106. India is a Republic in the sense that
A. it has an elected Head of the state
B. it has an elected Head of the Government
C. it has a bi-cameral legislature
D. it has sovereign power
Answer: A. it has an elected Head of the state
107. Chairman of the Finance Commission is appointed by the
A. Prime Minister
B. Council of Ministers
C. President
D. Vice President
Answer: C. President
108. Planning Commission was formed by Government of India by a resolution in
A. 1950
B. 1947
C. 1944
D. 1946
Answer: A. 1950
109. Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India?
A. It is democratic
B. it is republic
C. it is federal
D. it is Presidential
Answer: D. it is Presidential
110. The word “procedure established by law” in the constitution of India have been borrowed from
A. UK
B. USA
C. French
D. Germany
Answer: B. USA
111. The President of the Constituent Assembly was
A. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
B. Dr Rajendra Prasad
C. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
D. Dr BR Ambedkar
Answer: B. Dr Rajendra Prasad
112. ”India that is Bharat shall be a union of states”. From which Constitution was adopted the words “union of states”?
A. US
B. France
C. Swiss
D. Canada
Answer: D. Canada
113. The list dividing powers between union and states are given in the ————- schedule
A. IV
B. V
C. VI
D. VII
Answer: D. VII
114. The Indian Constitution is an
A. Enacted one
B. evolved one
C. unwritten one
D. None of these
Answer: A. Enacted one
115. Dyarchy was introduced at the Provincial level by the Act of
A. 1892
B. 1919
C. 1935
D. 1909
Answer: B. 1919
116. Dyarchy was introduced at the Centre by the Act of
A. 1909
B. 1919
C. 1935
D. 1947
Answer: C. 1935
117. The Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly was moved by
A. Dr Rajendra Prasad
B. B.R.Ambedkar
C. Jawaharalal Nehru
D. Alladi Krishna swamy Iyer
Answer: C. Jawaharalal Nehru
118. The election to the Constituent Assembly was held in
A. June 1946
B. July 1946
C. August 1946
D. September 1946
Answer: B. July 1946
119. The Montague Chelmsford Reforms is known as
A. Government of India Act 1919
B. Government of India Act 1935
C. Government of India Act 1909
D. Government of India Act 1892
Answer: A. Government of India Act 1919
120. Government of India Act 1909 is known as
A. Montague Chelmsford Reforms
B. Minto Morley Reforms
C. Cabinet Mission Plan
D. Cripps Mission Plan
Answer: B. Minto Morley Reforms
121. The Objective Resolution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly in
A. January 1947
B. July 1947
C. August 1947
D. May 1947
Answer: A. January 1947
122. The Constitution Drafting Committee constituted by the Constituent Assembly consisted of
A. 5 member
B. 6members
C. 7 members
D. 8 members
Answer: C. 7 members
123. The Constitution of India consists of
A. 390 articles
B. 396 articles
C. 395 articles
D. 394 articles
Answer: C. 395 articles
124. The Constitution of India was adopted on
A. 26th January 1950
B. 26th January 1947
C. 26th November 1949
D. 26th June 1948
Answer: A. 26th January 1950
125. Which among the following Acts introduced the principle of election for the first time?
A. Indian Independence Act of 1947
B. Indian Council Act 1909
C. Government of India Act 1935
D. Government of India Act 1919
Answer: B. Indian Council Act 1909
126. Directive Principles of state Policy are included in the Articles
A. 15-24
B. 25-32
C. 36-51
D. 52-60
Answer: C. 36-51
127. The procedure for amending the Constitution is in
A. Article 368
B. Article 360
C. Article 367
D. Article 371
Answer: A. Article 368
128. The Concurrent list in the Constitution of India was adopted from
A. Switzerland
B. Australia
C. Canada
D. Irish
Answer: B. Australia
129. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India was adopted from
A. Irish
B. Canada
C. Germany
D. Australia
Answer: A. Irish
130. The makers of the Constitution of India adopted the concept of Judicial Review from
A. Russia
B. Germany
C. US
D. Australia
Answer: C. US
131. The Indian federal system can be transformed into a unitary system under
A. Article 368
B. Article 356
C. Article 360
D. Article 352
Answer: D. Article 352
132. Fundamental Rights are included in articles
A. 15-24
B. 12-36
C. 36-51
D. 52-62
Answer: B. 12-36
133. Untouchability Offence Act 1955 was renamed as “The Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955” in
A. 1972
B. 1977
C. 1976
D. 1955
Answer: C. 1976
134. Right to Property was omitted from Part III of the Constitution by the
A. 42nd amendment
B. 44th amendment
C. 86th amendment
D. 62nd amendment
Answer: B. 44th amendment
135. The watchword of a Parliamentary government is
A. Stability
B. checks and balances
C. Political homogeneity
D. responsibility
Answer: D. responsibility
136. Who presides over the joint session of the Parliament?
A. Speaker
B. Deputy Chairman
C. President
D. Vice President
Answer: C. President
137. The position of the Vice President of India resembles to the position of Vice President of
A. France
B. USA
C. Canada
D. Russia
Answer: B. USA
138. who prepares the agenda in meeting of the Council of Ministers
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Deputy Prime Minister
D. Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Answer: B. Prime Minister
139. The Chairman of Council of States is elected by
A. Elected members of Council of States
B. All members of the Council of States
C. Members of both Houses of Parliament
D. elected members of the Parliament
Answer: C. Members of both Houses of Parliament
140. which of the following is not an objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy
A. To ensure a welfare state
B. to ensure socio-economic justice
C. To establish a religious state
D. to ensure the creation of village Panchayath
Answer: C. To establish a religious state
141. The Head of the government under a Parliamentary government enjoys
A. Real power
B. nominal power
C. limited power
D. no power
Answer: A. Real power
142. The classification of government as unitary and federal is on the basis of
A. Centralization of power
B. division of power
C. delegation of powers
D. separation of powers
Answer: B. division of power
143. Majority provisions of the Constitution of India can be amended by
A. the Parliament
B. The President
C. the State Legislature
D. the Parliament of the consent of states
Answer: A. the Parliament
144. Community Development Program was launched on
A. 2nd October 1951
B. 2nd October 1952
C. 2nd October 1953
D. 2nd October 1954
Answer: B. 2nd October 1952
145. National Extension Service was launched on
A. 2nd October 1953
B. 2nd October 1952
C. 2nd October 1951
D. 2nd October 1950
Answer: A. 2nd October 1953
146. Political homogeneity is a feature of
A. Presidential system
B. Parliamentary system
C. Democratic system
D. Collegiate executive
Answer: B. Parliamentary system
147. To organize village Panchayath as units of self government is an example of
A. Liberal principle
B. Economic principle
C. Gandhian principle
D. None of these
Answer: C. Gandhian principle
148. The age to exercise franchise was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by
A. 42nd amendment
B. 44th amendment
C. 61st amendment
D. 72nd amendment
Answer: C. 61st amendment
149. The President of India can dissolve the House of People on the recommendation of the
A. Vice President
B. Chief Justice
C. Cabinet
D. Council of Ministers
Answer: D. Council of Ministers
150. Motion suggesting that expenditure earmarked for particular ministry should be reduced is known as
A. Adjournment motion
B. Cut motion
C. Privilege motion
D. Call of attention motion
Answer: B. Cut motion
151. A member of the Parliament formally loss his membership if he consecutively abstain himself from ——– ———— sitting of the House
A. 15
B. 30
C. 60
D. 90
Answer: C. 60
152. In India a person can be a member of the Council of Ministers without being a Member of Parliament for a maximum period
A. 1 month
B. 6 month
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
Answer: B. 6 month
153. Who is the Head of the Government in India?
A. The President
B. the Prime Minister
C. the speaker
D. the Deputy Chairman of Rajya sabha
Answer: B. the Prime Minister
154. The Governor of a state can nominate how many members to the Legislative Assembly?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 5
Answer: C. 1
155. Which among the following type of authority is given to the President of India?
A. Political
B. Defacto
C. Dejure
D. Popular
Answer: C. Dejure
156. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to the
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Council of States
D. House of the People
Answer: D. House of the People
157. The revenue estimate of a budget are prepared by
A. Estimates Committee
B. Central Ministry of Finance
C. Union Council of Ministers
D. Respective Ministers
Answer: B. Central Ministry of Finance
158. The committee which examine the ‘extravagance’ of the government
A. Public Accounts Committee
B. Estimates Committee
C. Public Undertaking Committee
D. Ad hoc Committee
Answer: B. Estimates Committee
159. The budget is an instrument of control by
A. the Government
B. the Executive
C. the Legislature
D. the Judiciary
Answer: C. the Legislature
160. Separate electorate for Muslims were introduced by the Act of
A. 1919
B. 1935
C. 1909
D. 1947
Answer: A. 1919
161. The Cabinet Mission was appointed
A. To work out the modalities for the transfer of power
B. to finalise the date for the transfer of power
C. To discuss the Plan of partition
D. to partition of Bengal
Answer: A. To work out the modalities for the transfer of power
162. Provincial autonomy was introduced by the Act of
A. 1935
B. 1919
C. 1909
D. 1947
Answer: A. 1935
163. The interim government proposed under the Cabinet Mission Plan was formed on
A. 15th August 1946
B. 2nd September 1946
C. 26th July 1947
D. 26th January 1950
Answer: B. 2nd September 1946
164. The British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act in
A. July 1947
B. January 1947
C. June 1947
D. August 1947
Answer: C. June 1947
165. Periodic elections to the local bodies are made mandatory by
A. 72nd amendment
B. 73rd amendment
C. 86th amendment
D. 87th amendment
Answer: B. 73rd amendment
166. Balvant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed to review
A. National Extension Service
B. Panchayati Raj
C. Electoral system
D. Community Development Programme
Answer: D. Community Development Programme
167. The Committee appointed in 1977 to study the working of Panchayati Raj institutions was under the chairmanship of
A. Balvant Rai Mehta
B. Ashok Mehta
C. GVK Rao
D. LM Singhvi
Answer: B. Ashok Mehta
168. Mandal Commission recommendations were appointed by
A. Rajiv Gandhi
B. A B Vajpayee
C. P V Narasimha Rao
D. V P Singh
Answer: D. V P Singh
169. Minto Morley Reforms is also known as
A. Government of India Act 1919
B. Government of India Act 1892
C. Government of India Act 1935
D. Government of India Act 1909
Answer: A. Government of India Act 1919
170. How many duties are included in the Constitution as Fundamental Duties?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 9
D. 6
Answer: B. 11
171. From among the following which amendment of the Constitution of India made “education to Children” as a Fundamental Duty?
A. 86th
B. 85th
C. 42nd
D. 72nd
Answer: A. 86th
172. National Development Council was constituted in
A. 1950
B. 1951
C. 1952
D. 1947
Answer: C. 1952
173. The qualification for the Chairman and the members of the Finance Commission are specified in
A. Finance Act of 1951
B. Finance Act of 1952
C. Finance Act of 1950
D. Finance Act of 1953
Answer: A. Finance Act of 1951
174. Finance Commission is constituted every 5 years by the
A. President
B. Parliament
C. Union Council of Ministers
D. Speaker
Answer: A. President
175. The states enjoy exclusive jurisdiction over subjects of
A. Union list
B. State list
C. Residuary List
D. Concurrent list
Answer: B. State list
176. Which is the list that contains subjects in which both the centre and the states can legislate?
A. Union list
B. State list
C. Residuary list
D. Concurrent list
Answer: D. Concurrent list
177. The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rests with
A. State government
B. Parliament
C. Prime Minister
D. President
Answer: B. Parliament
178. The Union Government gives grants-in-aid to the states on the recommendations of the
A. Planning Commission
B. National Integration Council
C. Finance Commission
D. National Development Council
Answer: C. Finance Commission
179. Which among the following is empowered to constitute Inter State Council?
A. The Parliament
B. The President
C. The National Development Council
D. The Planning Commission
Answer: B. The President
180. The salary of judges during their offices can be reduced by the
A. Article 352
B. Article 356
C. Article 360
D. Article 359
Answer: C. Article 360
181. The unlawful detention of a person is questioned by the writ of
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Certiorari
C. Quo Warranto
D. Mandamus
Answer: A. Habeas Corpus
182. The High Court in India do not possess
A. Original jurisdiction
B. Appellate jurisdiction
C. Advisory jurisdiction
D. Revisory jurisdiction
Answer: C. Advisory jurisdiction
183. Provisions under 9th schedule
A. Can be challenged in a court of law
B. Can’t challenge in a court of law
C. Can seek opinion in a court of law
D. None of these
Answer: B. Can’t challenge in a court of law
184. Under which article of the Constitution the Supreme Court of India has been established
A. 24
B. 124
C. 224
D. 231
Answer: B. 124
185. The High Court has the power to issue writ under article
A. 32
B. 220
C. 226
D. 344
Answer: C. 226
186. The power of the Supreme Court can be enlarged by
A. Cabinet
B. Parliament
C. President
D. Chief Justice
Answer: B. Parliament
187. Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from offices by
A. Executive order
B. Impeachment
C. Judicial order
D. Bureaucracy
Answer: B. Impeachment
188. Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
A. Article 74
B. Article 142
C. Article 143
D. Article 147
Answer: C. Article 143
189. Subjects in the ————– schedule is beyond the scope of Judicial Review
A. 8th
B. 9th
C. 12th
D. 3rd
Answer: B. 9th
190. The Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court was adopted from the Constitution of
A. Germany
B. US
C. Australia
D. Canada
Answer: D. Canada
191. The Union Legislature in India is empowered
A. Not to amend the basic structure of the Constitution
B. to amend the basic structure of the Constitution
C. To abrogate the basic structure
D. None of these
Answer: A. Not to amend the basic structure of the Constitution
192. Preventive Detention is a reasonable restriction on
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 32
Answer: C. Article 21
193. Which of the following is the inevitable outcome of liberalization?
A. Retrace of the state
B. reentry of the state
C. Neutrality of the state
D. None of these
Answer: A. Retrace of the state
194. which of the following is inherent in communalism
A. Peace for all religious sects
B. racial overtone
C. Ethnic rivalry
D. Antagonistic assertion in all spheres of life
Answer: D. Antagonistic assertion in all spheres of life
195. Communalism is opposed to
A. Secular credential
B. ethnic conflict
C. friendship between class
D. All of the above
Answer: A. Secular credential
196. Globalisation gives primacy to unbriddled
A. Welfare means
B. Trade
C. Socialism
D. Consumerism
Answer: D. Consumerism
197. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is contained in
A. Article 131
B. Article 129
C. Article 132
D. Article 136
Answer: A. Article 131
198. The power of the President to consult the Supreme Court is under Article
A. 132
B. 143
C. 136
D. 131
Answer: B. 143
199. The sequence of procedure for passing a Bill in the House is
A. First reading, Committee stage, report stage, second reading, third reading
B. First reading, second reading, committee stage, report stage, third reading
C. First reading, second reading, third reading, Committee stage, report stage
D. First reading, Committee stage, second reading, third reading
Answer: B. First reading, second reading, committee stage, report stage, third reading
200. In a federal system the guardian of the Constitution is
A. the Parliament
B. the Judiciary
C. the council of Ministers
D. the National Security Advisor
Answer: B. the Judiciary