Prasutitantra and Striroga Multiple Choice Questions
1. Harita classified the age of female as baalaa up to…….
A. 8 years
B. 6 years
C. 5 years
D. 11 years
Answer: C 5 years
2. According to Sushruta injury should be avoided to how many mama-during surgery?
A. Six
B. Eight
C. Two
D. Three
Answer: B Eight
3. How many peshi are extra in women?
A. 10
B. 05
C. 20
D. 30
Answer: C 20
4. Balyavastha lasts for …….
A. 18 years
B. 16 years
C. 14 yaers
D. 9 years
Answer: B 16 years
5. According to Charaka & Vagbhata age limit of maQyamaavasqaa
A. Up to 50 years
B. Up to 55 years
C. Up to 60 years
D. Up to 70 years
Answer: C Up to 60 years
6. According Harita Yuvavastha remains up to…….
A. 25
B. 16
C. 30
D. 18
Answer: A 25
7. How many peshi are present in apatyapatha ?
A. 10
B. 02
C. 05
D. 04
Answer: D 04
8. The vulva includes
A. mons veneris, labia majora
B. labia minora, clitoris,
C. vestibule and conventionally the perineum
D. mons veneris, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, vestibule and conventionally the perineum
Answer: D mons veneris, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, vestibule and conventionally the perineum
9. Labia minora are
A. triangular space bounded anteriorly by the clitoris,
B. small cylindrical erectile body, measuring about 2.5 cm
C. two thick folds of skin, devoid of fat, on either side just within the labia majora
D. the pad of subcutaneous adipose connective tissue
Answer: C two thick folds of skin, devoid of fat, on either side just within the labia majora
10. The Bartholin’s glands are situated
A. in the posterior end of the vestibule
B. in the superficial perineal pouch, close to the posterior end of the vestibular bulb.
C. in the midline, just in front of the vaginal orifice
D. on either side just within the labia majora.
Answer: B in the superficial perineal pouch, close to the posterior end of the vestibular bulb.
11. Clitoris is an analogue
A. To the testis in the male
B. To the urethra in the male
C. To the scrotum in the male
D. to the penis in the male,
Answer: D to the penis in the male,
12. The internal genital organs in female include
A. vagina, uterus, fallopian tubes, and the ovaries
B. vagina, uterus,
C. fallopian tubes, and the ovaries
D. uterus, fallopian tubes, and the ovaries
Answer: A vagina, uterus, fallopian tubes, and the ovaries
13. The vagina is
A. a fibromusculomembranous sheath
B. a fibromusculomembranous sheath communicating the uterine cavity
C. a fibromusculomembranous sheath communicating with the exterior at the vulva
D. a fibromusculomembranous sheath communicating the uterine cavity with the exterior at the vulva
Answer: D a fibromusculomembranous sheath communicating the uterine cavity with the exterior at the vulva
14. The fornices are
A. the clefts formed at the top of ovary
B. the clefts formed at the top of uterus
C. the clefts formed at the top of vagina (vault) due to the projection of the uterine cervix through the anterior vaginal wall, where it is blended inseparably with its wall.
D. the clefts formed at the top of fallopian tube
Answer: C the clefts formed at the top of vagina (vault) due to the projection of the uterine cervix through the anterior vaginal wall, where it is blended inseparably with its wall.
15. What is the pH of vagina during reproductive period?
A. 1-2
B. 3-4
C. > 7
D. 4-5
Answer: D 4-5
16. The normal position of the uterus is one of the
A. anteversion
B. anteversion and anteflexion.
C. anteflexion
D. retroversion
Answer: B anteversion and anteflexion.
17. Layers of the uterus wall are
A. Perimetrium
B. Endometrium , myometrium
C. Perimetrium , endometrium , myometrium
D. Myometrium , perimetrium
Answer: C Perimetrium , endometrium , myometrium
18. Female urethra measures about
A. 4 cm and has a diameter of about 3 mm.
B. 4 cm and has a diameter of about 5 mm.
C. 3 cm and has a diameter of about 6 mm.
D. 4 cm and has a diameter of about 6 mm.
Answer: D 4 cm and has a diameter of about 6 mm.
19. Pelvic ureter measures about
A. 13 cm in length and has a diameter of 5 mm.
B. 10 cm in length and has a diameter of 5 mm.
C. 15 cm in length and has a diameter of 2 mm.
D. 13 cm in length and has a diameter of 2 mm.
Answer: A 13 cm in length and has a diameter of 5 mm.
20. Pelvic floor consists of three sets of muscles on either side ( levator ani )
A. pubococcygeus, iliococcygeus
B. iliococcygeus and ischiococcygeus
C. pubococcygeus, iliococcygeus and ischiococcygeus
D. Pubococcygeus
Answer: C pubococcygeus, iliococcygeus and ischiococcygeus
21. The obstetrical perineum is
A. The pyramidal-shaped tissue where the pelvic floor and the perineal muscles and fascia meet in between the vaginal and the anal canal
B. the pelvic floor
C. The pyramidal-shaped tissue of the perineal muscles
D. The vaginal and the anal canal
Answer: A The pyramidal-shaped tissue where the pelvic floor and the perineal muscles and fascia meet in between the vaginal and the anal canal
22. Morphological changes during puberty are (according to Tanner and Marshall)
A. growth in height, and menstruation.
B. breast, pubic and axillary hair growth,
C. breast, pubic and axillary hair growth, and menstruation.
D. breast, pubic and axillary hair growth, growth in height, and menstruation.
Answer: D breast, pubic and axillary hair growth, growth in height, and menstruation.
23. The age of rjaaodSa-na according to Sushrutacahrya
A. 12
B. 14
C. 10
D. 16
Answer: A 12
24. What is the amount of Raja according to Ashtangasangraha
A. 4 anjali
B. 6 anjali
C. 3 anjali
D. 1 anjali
Answer: A 4 anjali
25. What is the duration of Rutukala according to Sushruta
A. 16 days
B. 12 days
C. 14 days
D. 21 days
Answer: B 12 days
26. Anterior colporrhaphy is done to correct
A. Cystocele
B. Urethrocele
C. Cystocele & Urethrocele
D. Rectocele
Answer: C Cystocele & Urethrocele
27. Kegel exercise is an attempt to
A. Strengthen body muscle
B. Strengthen hand muscle
C. Strengthen pelvic muscle
D. Strengthen uterine muscle
Answer: C Strengthen pelvic muscle
28. In third degree prolapse
A. The uterine cervix descends to lie outside the introitus.
B. The uterine cervix and body descends to lie outside the introitus.
C. The rectum descends to lie outside.
D. No descends of pelvic organ
Answer: B The uterine cervix and body descends to lie outside the introitus.
29. Sevani is …………..in stree.
A. Marma
B. Peshi
C. Asthi
D. Sandhi
Answer: A Marma
30. According to Sharagdhar, Raj is the updhatu of …………….
A. Rakta
B. Mansa
C. Shukra
D. Rasa
Answer: A Rakta
31. According to Sushrut ‘Raj’ is the updhatu of …………… dhatu
A. Rakta
B. Mansa
C. Rasa
D. Shukra
Answer: C Rasa
32. The uterine artery is the branch of …………………
A. Internal iliac artery
B. Aorta
C. External iliac artery
D. Iliac
Answer: A Internal iliac artery
33. Meckendrot’s ligament is also known as the.
A. Cardinal ligament
B. Pubocervical AvAf ligament
C. Vasico cervical ligament
D. Uterosacral ligament
Answer: A Cardinal ligament
34. Proliferative phase is under influence of …………………..harmone.
A. L.H
B. Progesteron
C. F.S.H
D. Oesrogen
Answer: D Oesrogen
35. The cavity diameter of normal pelvic measures…….cm.
A. 13 cm
B. 11 cm
C. 11.5 cm
D. 12 cm
Answer: D 12 cm
36. The widest &longest portion of the fallopian tube is ………………….
A. Ampulla
B. Interstitial
C. Infundabullum
D. Isthums
Answer: A Ampulla
37. The measurements of ovary is ………………….
A. 4*3*1 cm
B. 3*2 *1cm
C. 5*4*2cm
D. 2*1.5*1cm
Answer: B 3*2 *1cm
38. navarja is get accumulated in the phase of………
A. Rutuvyatitkal
B. Rajkal
C. Rutukal
D. Garbhakala
Answer: C Rutukal
39. ……….dosha is responsible for the discharge of menstruation according to Ashtangsangraha.
A. Kapha
B. Pitta
C. Vata
D. Rakta
Answer: B Pitta
40. Rutukal is the ……………..dominant phase.
A. Kaphadosha
B. Vatadosha
C. Raktadosha
D. Pittadosha
Answer: A Kaphadosha
41. In a twenty-eight days cycle ovulation usually occurs on the :
A. 12th day
B. 14th day
C. 11th day
D. 15th day
Answer: B 14th day
42. The chief source of progesterone is:
A. Corpus luteum
B. Granulosa cells
C. Renal cortex
D. Theca cells
Answer: A Corpus luteum
43. Basal body temperature increase in the …………………. phase.
A. Follicular
B. Proliferative
C. Secretory
D. Ovulatory
Answer: C Secretory
44. What is the long form of D and C
A. Dilatation and cutting
B. Dilatation and curttage
C. Dilation and crush
D. Dilatation and Culture.
Answer: B Dilatation and curttage
45. What are the types of D & C?
A. Diagnostic
B. Therapeutic
C. Diagnostic, Therapeutic & combined
D. Combined
Answer: C Diagnostic, Therapeutic & combined
46. Only cervical dilatation is done in
A. Pyometra
B. Abdominal pain
C. Vaginal stenosis
D. Bartholin cyst
Answer: A Pyometra
47. Uterine perforation is the complication
A. Anterior calporrhaphy
B. D & C
C. Cervical encirclage
D. Genital prolapse repair
Answer: B D & C
48. Diagnostic D & C is done in
A. Infertility
B. DUB
C. Endometrial polyp
D. Infertility & DUB
Answer: D Infertility & DUB
49. Lithotomy position is required in
A. D & C
B. Abdominal Hysterectomy
C. Abdominal tubectomy
D. Cu T insertion & D & C
Answer: D Cu T insertion & D & C
50. Cervical incompetence is a
A. Immediate complication
B. Remote complication
C. Emergency complication
D. Both A & B
Answer: B Remote complication
51. Uterine sound is introduced before D & C
A. To confirm position of uterus
B. To note the length of uterocervical canal
C. To note the vaginal length
D. To note both A & B
Answer: D To note both A & B
52. Injury to the lip of cervix during D & C is due to
A. Vulsellum
B. Sim’s speculum
C. Uterine sound
D. Cusco’s speculum
Answer: A Vulsellum
53. To confirm the attempt of perforation during D & C
A. Try to find out perforation by sound
B. Try to find out perforation by dilators
C. Watch BP, Pulse
D. Watch BP , Pulse & vaginal bleeding
Answer: D Watch BP , Pulse & vaginal bleeding
54. Cervical cauterization is done in
A. Cervical carcinoma
B. Cervical bleeding
C. Cervical discharge
D. Cervical prolapse
Answer: C Cervical discharge
55. Destruction of eroded area of cervix is called as
A. Cervical dilatation
B. Cervical evacuation
C. Cervical cauterization
D. Cervical biopsy
Answer: C Cervical cauterization
56. In cervical cauterization linear radical strokes should be of
A. 2 mm deep at distance of 1 cm
B. 5 mm deep at distance of 1 cm
C. 2 mm deep at distance of 3 cm
D. 3 mm deep at distance of 3 cm
Answer: A 2 mm deep at distance of 1 cm
57. Complete epitheliasation of cervix takes
A. 8-10 weeks
B. 1-2 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 6-8 weeks
Answer: D 6-8 weeks
58. Superficial cauterization can be done
A. Under local anesthesia
B. Without anesthesia
C. Under general anesthesia
D. Under spinal anesthesia
Answer: B Without anesthesia
59. For cervical cauterization dilatation of cervical canal is done by
A. 1 or 2 small dilators
B. 5 or 6 dilators
C. 3 or 4 small dilators
D. 6 or 7 small dilators
Answer: A 1 or 2 small dilators
60. The term precocious puberty is reserved for girls
A. who exhibit any secondary sex characteristics before the age of 8 or menstruate before the age of 7.
B. who exhibit any secondary sex characteristics before the age of 6 or menstruate before the age of 10.
C. who exhibit any secondary sex characteristics before the age of 6 or menstruate before the age of 8.
D. who exhibit any secondary sex characteristics before the age of 8 or menstruate before the age of 10.
Answer: D who exhibit any secondary sex characteristics before the age of 8 or menstruate before the age of 10.
61. The levels of gonadal steroids and gonadotropins are
A. low until the age of 3–4 years.
B. low until the age of 6–8 years.
C. low until the age of 4–5 years.
D. low until the age of 1–2 years.
Answer: B low until the age of 6–8 years.
62. The onset of first menstruation in life is called
A. menopause
B. Climatic
C. menarche.
D. Menorrhagea
Answer: C menarche.
63. Menarche may occur anywhere years
A. between 9 and 12 years, the peak time being 13
B. between 10 and 16 years, the peak time being 13
C. between 10 and 16 years, the peak time being 9
D. between 10 and 12 years, the peak time being 13
Answer: B between 10 and 16 years, the peak time being 13
64. The uterine body and the cervix ratio is ………… when menarche occurs.
A. 2:3
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 1
D. 2 : 2
Answer: C 1 : 1
65. Surgical management of prolapse is required if prolapse is
A. Symptomatic
B. Non symptomatic
C. First degree
D. Non of the above
Answer: A Symptomatic
66. Perinorrhaphy is
A. Repair of prolapse of anterior vaginal wall
B. Repair of prolapse of posterior perineum
C. Repair of prolapse of posterior vaginal wall
D. Repair of prolapse of urethra
Answer: C Repair of prolapse of posterior vaginal wall
67. Enterocele is repaired
A. Transvaginally & abdominally
B. Abdominally
C. Per rectal
D. Laproscopically
Answer: A Transvaginally & abdominally
68. Fothergill’s operation is done for
A. Urethral repair
B. Uterine descend associated with cystocele and rectocele where preservation of uterus is desirable.
C. Pelvic floor repair
D. Pile repair
Answer: B Uterine descend associated with cystocele and rectocele where preservation of uterus is desirable.
69. Vault prolapse occurs
A. Post caeserian
B. Post hystrotomy
C. Post tubectomy
D. Post hysterectomy
Answer: D Post hysterectomy
70. The length of fallopian tube is
A. 5cm
B. 10 cm
C. 6cm
D. 8 cm
Answer: B 10 cm
71. Cervix is
A. 2.5cm
B. 4 cm
C. 1.5 cm
D. 5 cm
Answer: A 2.5cm
72. Endometrium is
A. Outer most layer
B. Middle layer
C. Inner most layer
D. Uppermost layer
Answer: C Inner most layer
73. Cervix is insensitive to
A. Touch
B. Heat
C. Touch, heat, grasp
D. Catch
Answer: C Touch, heat, grasp
74. Female urethra measures about
A. 2 cm & has diameter of about 6mm
B. 4 cm & has diameter of about 6mm
C. 4 cm & has diameter of about 10 mm
D. 1 cm & has diameter of about 2 mm
Answer: B 4 cm & has diameter of about 6mm
75. maaisa maaisa rja: s~aINaaM rsajaM s~avaita ~yahM is quotation from
A. Ashtang hrudaya
B. Charak samhita
C. Vagbhat samhita
D. Kashyapa samhita
Answer: A Ashtang hrudaya
76. Travarta yoni has
A. Three avarta
B. Three and half avarta
C. Two avarta
D. one avarta
Answer: A Three avarta
77. Obstetric conjugate is
A. 6 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 5 cm
D. 14 cm
Answer: B 10 cm
78. Obstetrical outlet is
A. cannot be precisely measured as the points lie over the soft tissues covering the sacrosciatic notches and obturator foramina.
B. measures from the midpoint on the posterior surface of the symphysis pubis to the junction of second and third sacral vertebrae
C. is a mid-perpendicular line drawn to the plane of the inlet
D. the segment of the pelvis bounded above by the plane of least pelvic dimensions and below by the anatomical outlet
Answer: D the segment of the pelvis bounded above by the plane of least pelvic dimensions and below by the anatomical outlet
79. Harita says
A. Female also discharge shukra during coitus
B. Female also discharge shukra during menses
C. Female also discharge shukra during rutukala
D. Female also discharge shukra during rutavyatit kala
Answer: A Female also discharge shukra during coitus
80. How many peshi are present at shukra pravesh ?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 10
Answer: C 3
81. According to Charakacharya , Madhyamavastha remains upto
A. 60 years
B. 50 years
C. 55 years
D. 70 years
Answer: A 60 years
82. Yauvana remains upto 30 years as quoted by
A. Sushruta
B. Vagbhat & Sushruta
C. Kashyapa
D. Charaka
Answer: B Vagbhat & Sushruta
83. Anatomical pelvic axis is formed by
A. joining the axes of inlet & cavity
B. joining the axes of inlet, cavity and outlet.
C. joining the axes of inlet and outlet.
D. joining the axes of cavity and outlet.
Answer: B joining the axes of inlet, cavity and outlet.
84. Obstetrical pelvic axis is
A. The axis through which the fetus negotiates the pelvis.
B. Uniformly curved
C. The axis through which the fetus negotiates the pelvis & not uniformly curv
Answer: C The axis through which the fetus negotiates the pelvis & not uniformly curv
85. Puberty is said to be delayed
A. when the menarche appears as late as 16 years
B. when the breast tissue and/or pubic hair have not appeared by 13–14 years
C. when the menarche appears as late as 20 years
D. when the breast tissue and/or pubic hair have not appeared by 13–14 years or menarche appears as late as 16 years
Answer: D when the breast tissue and/or pubic hair have not appeared by 13–14 years or menarche appears as late as 16 years
86. Midpelvis is the segment of the pelvis
A. bounded above by the plane of greatest pelvic dimensions and below by a plane known as midpelvic plane.
B. bounded by he brim of the pelvis, the circumference of the inlet
C. forms the canal through which the fetus has to pass
D. formed by the iliac portions of the innominate bones and is limited above by the iliac crests
Answer: A bounded above by the plane of greatest pelvic dimensions and below by a plane known as midpelvic plane.
87. How many stanya vaha dhamani present in Women?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 2
D. 10
Answer: C 2
88. How many Marmas are present in breasts?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 10
D. 8
Answer: A 4
89. Injury to Phalastrotas causes
A. Anaata-va
B. Anaata-va vaMQyatva
C. vaMQyatva
D. Vaodnaa
Answer: B Anaata-va vaMQyatva
90. The menstrual cycle is regulated by
A. luteinizing hormone, folliclestimulating hormone, estrogen and progesterone.
B. luteinizing hormone, folliclestimulating hormone
C. luteinizing hormone, estrogen and progesterone.
D. estrogen and progesterone.
Answer: A luteinizing hormone, folliclestimulating hormone, estrogen and progesterone.
91. Rajakala is dominated by
A. Vata
B. Kapha
C. Rakta
D. Pitta
Answer: A Vata
92. Sushruta says , Injury to Basti & Guda Marma leads to
A. Painful micturation
B. Death
C. Painful defecation
D. Painful bleeding
Answer: B Death
93. Shukra Aartvasanyog occurs in ——–kal
A. Rutu
B. Rutuvyatit
C. c)Raj
D. Rajnivruti
Answer: A Rutu
94. New raja is accumulated in garbhashaya in———–kala.
A. Prathama Rajopravritti
B. Rutukala
C. Raja kala
D. Rutuvyatitkala
Answer: B Rutukala
95. Garbha formation take place at——- .
A. Garbhashaymukha
B. Prathamavarta
C. Dimbgranthi
D. Kukshi
Answer: D Kukshi
96. Shaddhatvatmakgarbha means union of chetana&——–.
A. Panchamahabhut
B. Panchdnynendriy
C. Panchtanmatra
D. Pancharas
Answer: A Panchamahabhut
97. Age for garbhadhanvidhi in female is—-.
A. 21yrs
B. 16yrs
C. 18yrs
D. 20yrs
Answer: B 16yrs
98. ————is the garbhajabhav.
A. Matrujbhav
B. Rutu
C. Kshetra
D. Beej
Answer: A Matrujbhav
99. ——-is the garbhasambhavhetu.
A. Pitrujbhav
B. Matrujbhav
C. Ambu
D. Satvaj
Answer: C Ambu
100. According to Charakacharya all anga-pratyanga-indriya apparent in ………month
A. Third
B. Fifth
C. Fourth
D. Second
Answer: A Third
101. ______ is the Pruthvimahabhutpradhanindriy.
A. )Rasendriy
B. Sparshendriy
C. Ghranendriy
D. Chakshuindriy
Answer: C Ghranendriy
102. Varn of baby is under the influence of—–mahabhut.
A. Tej
B. Jala
C. Aakash
D. Vayu
Answer: A Tej
103. Aasthidhatu having ——-mahabhutadikya.
A. Jala
B. Agni
C. Pruthvi
D. Ambu
Answer: C Pruthvi
104. Ambu resembles with ———in garbha utpatti samagri .
A. Atmaj bhav
B. Matruj ahar ras
C. Satmyaj bhav
D. Satvaj bhav
Answer: B Matruj ahar ras
105. Kalala or ‘mass of cells’ is formed in ___ month
A. First
B. Third
C. Second
D. Fourth
Answer: A First
106. Formation of compact mass & determination of sex of the fetus is developed in ___ month.
A. First
B. Fourth
C. Second
D. Fifth
Answer: C Second
107. The fetal circulation is established in ___ month.
A. Fourth
B. Third
C. Second
D. Sixth
Answer: A Fourth
108. Progressive development of the fetal ____ is in the 5th month
A. Heart
B. Mind
C. Liver
D. Spleen
Answer: B Mind
109. In the 6th month of pregnancy, the development of _____ is seen.
A. Hruday
B. Mind
C. Hasta-pad
D. Buddhi
Answer: D Buddhi
110. In the____ month of pregnancy, the oja is disturbed and unstable.
A. Eight
B. Nine
C. Sixth
D. Seven
Answer: A Eight
111. The nourishment of the embryo is through____nyaya, before formation of placenta.
A. Upasneha
B. Upasveda
C. Both A &B
D. Kedarkulya
Answer: C Both A &B
112. Any abnormality in the _____may leads to impairment in nutrition of the foetus.
A. Amniotic fluid
B. Uterus
C. Placenta
D. Membranes
Answer: C Placenta
113. After third month of pregnancy garbhaposhan is by_____nyaya
A. Kedarkulya & Upsneh
B. Upswed
C. Khalekapota
D. Upsneh
Answer: A Kedarkulya & Upsneh
114. Vibhajan is the function of ______, after the formation of garbha.
A. Rakta
B. Kapha
C. Vayu
D. Pitta
Answer: C Vayu
115. Pachana is the function of ———–mahabhuta in garbha.
A. Akasha
B. Tej
C. Vayu
D. Aap
Answer: B Tej
116. The pruthvi mahabhut is responsible for_______of the garbha.
A. Complexion
B. Moisture
C. Shape
D. Size
Answer: C Shape
117. Jal mahabhut is responsible for developing __________components in garbha
A. Medha
B. Sparsh
C. Sneh & kled
D. Laghav
Answer: C Sneh & kled
118. ______ body components are derived from Agni mahabhut.
A. Medha & varn
B. Mardav
C. Prerana
D. Shaitya
Answer: A Medha & varn
119. Yakrut & pleeha are derived from _________bhav.
A. Satvaj
B. Aatmaj
C. Matruj
D. Pitruj
Answer: C Matruj
120. Prerana is derived from_____________ bhav
A. Satvaj
B. Aatmaj
C. Matruj
D. Pitruj
Answer: B Aatmaj
121. Strength or energy is derived from __________bhav
A. Satmyaj
B. Rasaj
C. Aatmaj
D. Pitruj
Answer: A Satmyaj
122. Rasaj bhav is responsible for ________of garbha.
A. Beej
B. Vruddhi
C. Asthi
D. Virya
Answer: B Vruddhi
123. Jarayu (placenta) develops from ___________.
A. Garbhodak
B. Sanchit Raja
C. Beej
D. Shukra
Answer: B Sanchit Raja
124. According to Charak Achary in first month of pregnancy garbha becomes____.
A. Kalal
B. Khetbhut
C. Budbudakruti
D. Sarpil
Answer: B Khetbhut
125. In second month of pregnancy if the shape of the embryo is pinda, then the born child may be___________.
A. Male
B. Female
C. Hermaphrodite
D. Girl
Answer: A Male
126. Fetus becomes stable in the ___________month of pregnancy.
A. Six
B. Third
C. Seven
D. Fourth
Answer: D Fourth
127. According to ______,manifestation of heart & consciousness occurs in the fourth month of pregnancy.
A. Sushrut Achary
B. Charaka Achary
C. Vagbhat Achary
D. Bhavmishra Achary
Answer: A Sushrut Achary
128. Sex of the child depends upon relative predominance of______.
A. Shukra
B. Rasa
C. Aartava
D. Shukra & aartava
Answer: D Shukra & aartava
129. _____is the responsible dosha for multiple pregnancy.
A. Pitta
B. Vata
C. Rakta
D. Kapha
Answer: B Vata
130. Abnomality in Beej, Atma, Karma, Ashay & doshas are the causes of__________.
A. Garbhavikruti
B. Garbhinivyadhi
C. Garbhavyapad
D. Yamgarbha
Answer: A Garbhavikruti
131. ___________is due to vata pradhana diet of mother.
A. Shwitra
B. Khalitya
C. Pandurata
D. Kubjata
Answer: D Kubjata
132. ___________is due to kapha pradhana diet of mother.
A. Khalitya
B. Palitya
C. Shwitra
D. Kubjata
Answer: C Shwitra
133. Vitiated pitta produces__________vikruti in garbha.
A. Khanj
B. Paiglya
C. Muk
D. Badhir
Answer: B Paiglya
134. ________is the sadyogruhita garbhalakshan.
A. Chhardi
B. Nishthivika
C. Aruchi
D. Anartav
Answer: B Nishthivika
135. _____________ is the garbhavyakta lakshan.
A. Hrudvyatha
B. Romharsh
C. Trupti
D. Shvayathu
Answer: D Shvayathu
136. ________lakshan seen in fourth month of pregnancy.
A. Glani
B. Gurugatrata
C. Nidra
D. Karsha
Answer: B Gurugatrata
137. _________ lakshan is seen in fifth month of pregnancy.
A. Guruta
B. Karshya
C. Klantata
D. Chhardi
Answer: B Karshya
138. During sixth month of pregnancy garbhini suffers from __________
A. Bala varn hani
B. Guruta
C. Arochak
D. Laghav
Answer: A Bala varn hani
139. According to Ayurveda fetus attains sarvanga sampurnata in ___month.
A. 4th
B. 5th
C. 7th
D. 8th
Answer: C 7th
140. In umbilical cord, oxygenated blood carried by_______from placenta to fetus.
A. Internal iliac vein
B. Internal iliac artery
C. Umbilical veins
D. Umbilical artery
Answer: C Umbilical veins
141. According to Sushrut Acharya heart of the fetus develops in____month of pregnancy.
A. 3th
B. 4th
C. 6th
D. 5th
Answer: B 4th
142. Charak Acharya says that ___ develops after birth.
A. Teeth
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Limbs
Answer: A Teeth
143. In the fetus accumulation of flesh & blood is relatively more in _____month of pregnancy.
A. Third
B. Fourth
C. Fifth
D. Sixth
Answer: C Fifth
144. The normal quantity of amniotic fluid at 38 wks is____________.
A. 400ml
B. 500-600ml
C. 450-500ml
D. 700-1000ml
Answer: D 700-1000ml
145. Use of ___________garments is contraindicated during garbhini avastha.
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Pink
D. White
Answer: A Red
146. Amniotic fluid maintains the body_______of the fetus.
A. Balance
B. Temperature
C. Weight
D. Pulse
Answer: B Temperature
147. Aim of the garbhini paricharya is____________.
A. Anupghatay
B. Paripurntavay
C. Sukha prasavay
D. All of the above
Answer: D All of the above
148. At term placental weighs (approximately) ______.
A. 450gm
B. 500 gm
C. 600gm
D. 700 gm
Answer: B 500 gm
149. In the first three months of pregnancy, Sushruta Acharya advised _________ahar.
A. Tikta,sheet,drava
B. KatuUshan,drava
C. Lavan,sheet
D. Madhur, shita ,drava
Answer: D Madhur, shita ,drava
150. Charak Acharya advised _____in the fourth month of pregnancy.
A. Kshirnavaneet
B. Jangal mansa
C. Ghruta
D. Payas
Answer: A Kshirnavaneet
151. Gokshur sidhda ghrut is advised in the_______month of pregnancy.
A. Third
B. Sixth
C. Fifth
D. Seventh
Answer: B Sixth
152. In the eighth month of pregnancy Asthapan basti is advised by________.
A. Sushrut Achary
B. Charak Achary
C. Kashyap Achary
D. Harita
Answer: A Sushrut Achary
153. Anuvasan basti is advised in _____month of pregnancy.
A. Ninth
B. Seventh
C. Sixth
D. Tenth
Answer: A Ninth
154. Total duration of pregnancy is______.
A. 260days
B. 280 days
C. 240 days
D. 300 days
Answer: B 280 days
155. According to Sharangdhar samhita Mudhgarbha is ________.
A. Garbhopdrav
B. Garbha vyapad
C. Garbhini vyapad
D. Garbhini makkal
Answer: B Garbha vyapad
156. Jarayu dosha garbha-vyapad is described by _________.
A. Charak samhita
B. Sushrut samhita
C. Ashtang hruday
D. Sharangdhar samhita
Answer: D Sharangdhar samhita
157. _________ is not described by Sharangdhar samhita.
A. Lingarbha
B. Nagodar
C. Gudhgarbha
D. Upvishtak
Answer: A Lingarbha
158. Expulsion of fetus upto fourth month of pregnancy is termed as_________.
A. Avashesh garbha
B. Garbhastrav
C. Aamgarbha
D. Garbhapat
Answer: B Garbhastrav
159. Expulsion of fetus after fourth month of pregnancy is termed as_________.
A. Lingarbha
B. Garbhastrav
C. Garbhakshay
D. Garbhapat
Answer: D Garbhapat
160. ________ahar is hetu of garbha strav.
A. Madhur rasatmak
B. Tikta, sheeta
C. Katu, tikshna
D. Lavan
Answer: C Katu, tikshna
161. Asthapan chikitsa is given in_____awastha of garbhastrav.
A. Purvarup
B. Rupa
C. Anavashesh
D. Avashesh
Answer: A Purvarup
162. Shodhan chikitsa is given in________awastha of garbhastrav.
A. Purvarup
B. Rupa
C. Aam
D. Anavashesh
Answer: B Rupa
163. ____is the cause of second trimester abortion.
A. Cervical polyp
B. Cervical erosion
C. Cervicitis
D. Cervical incompitance
Answer: D Cervical incompitance
164. Charak samhita has mentioned ____as lakshan of garbhastrav.
A. {drSaula
B. kTISaula
C. pauYpama paSyaota
D. gaBa_st~Masa
Answer: C pauYpama paSyaota
165. After expulsion of all products of conception in garbhapat, __________should be given for complete evacuation of uterus & relief of pain.
A. Mand
B. Madyapan
C. Vilepi
D. Peya
Answer: B Madyapan
166. Conditions in which miscarriage has started but continuation of pregnancy is possible, is termed as____abortion.
A. Incomplete
B. Threatened
C. Missed
D. Inevitable
Answer: B Threatened
167. Abortion where the changes have progressed to a state from where continuation of pregnancy is impossible is called as————abortion.
A. Missed
B. Complete
C. Incomplete
D. Inevitable
Answer: D Inevitable
168. When the fetus is _______& retain inside the uterus for a variable period, it is called as missed abortion.
A. Live
B. Obstructed
C. Dead
D. Infected
Answer: C Dead
169. Growth of fetus remains as it is in ______ garbha-vyapad.
A. Nagodar
B. Upvishtak
C. Garbhkshaya
D. Jarayudosha
Answer: B Upvishtak
170. Upvishtak occurs at _________ awastha of garbha.
A. Sanjatsar
B. Aam
C. Asanjatsar
D. Asar
Answer: A Sanjatsar
171. Growth of fetus is decreased in ____ garbhavyapad.
A. Garbhakshay
B. Nagodar
C. Lingarbha
D. Upvishtak
Answer: B Nagodar
172. According to Ashtang Sangrah cause of nagodar is__________.
A. Excessive bleeding either daily or monthly
B. Leucorrhoea
C. Purulent vaginal discharge
D. Foul smelling discharge
Answer: A Excessive bleeding either daily or monthly
173. ____________dravyas are used for the growth of fetus in Nagodar & Upvishtak.
A. Bruhaniy
B. Jeevaniy
C. Adhibhoutik
D. All of above
Answer: D All of above
174. Garbha hrudspandan is absent in_________.
A. Mrutagarbh
B. Upvishak
C. Garbhakshay
D. Garbhavrudhdi
Answer: A Mrutagarbh
175. Udarsparsh is ___________ in Mrutagarbha
A. Khar
B. Kathin & sheeta
C. Shethil
D. Ushan
Answer: B Kathin & sheeta
176. In Upavishtak & nagodar, when fetus does not attain growth __________drugs are used for abortion.
A. Madhur
B. Sheet
C. Tikshan
D. Guru
Answer: C Tikshan
177. For expulsion of Mrutagarbha ________chikitsa is advised.
A. Mudhgarbha
B. Jaraudosha
C. Garbhastrav
D. Jarayupatan
Answer: D Jarayupatan
178. Due to absence of __________,Raktagulma does not develop in young girls.
A. Dauhruda
B. Raja
C. Stana
D. Romraji
Answer: B Raja
179. In Raktagulm, raja gets accumulated in ________.
A. Gud
B. Basti
C. Udar
D. Garbhashay
Answer: D Garbhashay
180. Raktagulma develops only in ______.
A. Rajaswala
B. Adhirudha
C. Vrudhha
D. Bala
Answer: A Rajaswala
181. ______is the cardinal symptom of Raktagulm.
A. Sanvrutta garbhashay mukh
B. Artava avrodha
C. Mutrasanga
D. Mutra daha
Answer: B Artava avrodha
182. Raktagulma shall be treated after__________month of its onset.
A. 9th
B. 12th
C. 8th
D. 10th
Answer: D 10th
183. Kashyap Samhita advised,use of________yantra in the treatment of Raktagulm.
A. Nadi
B. Ghatika
C. Swastik
D. Tal
Answer: B Ghatika
184. Serum B-hCG is increases more than normal in_______condition.
A. I.U.D
B. Vesicular mole
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. I.U.G.R
Answer: B Vesicular mole
185. Chances of development of__________is high in vesicular mole.
A. CaCX
B. Carcinoma of vagina
C. Choriocarcinoma
D. Ca.ovary
Answer: C Choriocarcinoma
186. _______is benign neoplasm of the chorionic villi.
A. Chorionic cleavage
B. Hydatiform mole
C. Chorionic membranes
D. Blighted ovum
Answer: B Hydatiform mole
187. Yama garbha develops due to vitiated _________dosha.
A. Vata
B. Kaph
C. Pitta
D. Vat-kaph
Answer: A Vata
188. Cause of yamagarbha is_______.
A. Adharma
B. Purvakarm
C. Dwesha
D. Irsha
Answer: A Adharma
189. Death of yamagarbha is seen in ____________.
A. Jatharini
B. Vadvamukhi
C. Revati
D. Indravadva
Answer: B Vadvamukhi
190. Death of one fetus is seen in_________.
A. Indravadva
B. Revati
C. Jatharini
D. Vadvamukhi
Answer: A Indravadva
191. Division of _______is done by vata dosha in yamagarbha.
A. Rakta
B. Aartva
C. Streebeej
D. Falit beej
Answer: D Falit beej
192. Dizygotic twins develop from fertilization of ___ ova.
A. Four
B. Two
C. Three
D. One
Answer: B Two
193. Monozygotic twins develop from fertilization of _________ova.
A. Two
B. Three
C. Single
D. Four
Answer: C Single
194. Sex of fetus are differs in____________twins.
A. Monozygotic
B. Diamniotic
C. Dichorionic
D. Dizygotic
Answer: D Dizygotic
195. 97% of ectopic pregnancy occurs at _______site.
A. Tubal
B. Ovarian
C. Cervical
D. Angular
Answer: A Tubal
196. Termination of ectopic pregnancy occurs within _______in isthmus part.
A. 10 wks
B. 2 to 3 wks
C. 12 wks
D. 6 to 8 wks
Answer: D 6 to 8 wks
197. Confirmed diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy could be done by____.
A. Abdominal examination
B. Ultrasonography
C. Blood investigations
D. P.V. Examination
Answer: B Ultrasonography
198. Ectopic pregnancy defined as, fertilized ovum implanted & developed outside the_____ cavity.
A. Abdominal
B. Cervical
C. Bladder
D. Uterine
Answer: D Uterine
199. Causes of ectopic pregnancy are______.
A. P.I.D
B. Tuboplasty
C. Tubal spasm
D. All of these
Answer: D All of these
200. _____________is positive in 95% of ectopic pregnancy.
A. HBsAg
B. COVID-19
C. HIV
D. UPT
Answer: D UPT
201. ____________presentation may lead to locking of Twins.
A. Both vertex
B. First vertex & second breach
C. Both breach
D. First breach & second vertex
Answer: D First breach & second vertex
202. “{r]stana{drvalaIivaSaoYaroKaa…..” in sagarbhawastha is called as ____.
A. Kikkisa
B. Vaivarna
C. Pidaka
D. Pitika
Answer: A Kikkisa
203. Sneha pichu is advised during_______month, in garbhini paricharya.
A. 10th
B. 8th
C. 9th
D. 7th
Answer: C 9th
204. “Pruthakparnyadi siddha ghrita is advised during________ month, in garbhini paricharya.
A. Sixth
B. Second
C. Eighth
D. Seventh
Answer: D Seventh
205. Upshushak garbha is also called as________garbha.
A. Mrut
B. Lina
C. Upvishtak
D. Nagodar
Answer: D Nagodar
206. According to Madhukosha tika, expulsion of garbha till________month of pregnancy is called as Garbhastrav.
A. Fourth
B. Third
C. Fifth
D. Sixth
Answer: B Third
207. One of the following is not the type of abdominal hysterectomy.
A. Total
B. Pan
C. Lower segment
D. Subtotal
Answer: C Lower segment
208. What could be the synonym for vandhytvikaran shastrakarma in modern science?
A. Appendisectomy
B. Vasectomy
C. Hysterectomy
D. Tubectomy
Answer: D Tubectomy
209. Types of Tubectomy are____________.
A. Laparoscopy
B. Laparotomy
C. Vaginal
D. All of the above
Answer: D All of the above
210. ___________is the indication of vaginal hysterectomy.
A. Fibroid uterus
B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
C. Uterine Prolapse
D. Carcinoma of Cervix
Answer: C Uterine Prolapse
211. The surgery performed to remove uterus via abdomen is______
A. Hysterectomy
B. Hysteroscopy
C. Hysterotomy
D. None of the above
Answer: A Hysterectomy
212. Cervical polyp can be removed________.
A. Per Rectum
B. Abdominally
C. Through Pouch of Duglas
D. Vaginally
Answer: D Vaginally
213. ______is the benign type of Polyp.
A. Wart
B. Dermoid
C. Mucous
D. Cervicitis
Answer: C Mucous
214. ______is the indication of Abdominal hysterectomy.
A. Large uterine fibroid
B. Cystocele
C. Prolapse of uterus
D. Rectocele
Answer: A Large uterine fibroid
215. ———–method is the modified method for female sterilization.
A. Uchida
B. Madlener’s
C. Pomeroy’s
D. Irving’s
Answer: C Pomeroy’s
216. Tubectomy is done through small abdominal incision called as__________.
A. Mini lap
B. Pomeroy
C. Uchida
D. Irving
Answer: A Mini lap
217. Harita described _ _ _ _ _ Garbhasya Upadrava.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: D 8
218. —— is advised for Garbhini Chardi in Harita Samhita.
A. Bhunimba kalka with Sharkara
B. Kutaki
C. Shantavari
D. Ashvagandha
Answer: A Bhunimba kalka with Sharkara
219. Bilva majja with Lajambu is given for Garbhini Chardi is quoted by _ _ _ _ _.
A. Charaka
B. Yoga Ratnakar
C. Sushruta
D. Vagbhata
Answer: B Yoga Ratnakar
220. According to Yoga Ratnakar, Decoction (Quatha) of Shunti & Bilva with Yava sattu is given for Garbhini _—–.
A. Kasa
B. Shwasa
C. Chardi & Atisara
D. Arbuda
Answer: C Chardi & Atisara
221. In Garbhini Chardi, Kustumbari Kalka with Tandulodaka & sharkara is mentioned by _ _ _ _ _.
A. Charaka
B. Sushruta
C. Vagbhata
D. Yoga Ratnakar
Answer: D Yoga Ratnakar
222. According to Kashyapa samhita, Matulunga Rasa, Laja, Kola Majja, Anjana, Dadima Sara with Sharkara & Kshaudra is given in _ _ _ _ _ chardi in Garbhini.
A. Vataja
B. Pittaja
C. Kaphaja
D. Sannipatika
Answer: A Vataja
223. According to Kashyapa Samhita, amla-Dadima Rasa with Mahisha Mansa Rasa without Lavana is given in _ _ _ _ _ chardi in Garbhini.
A. Vataja
B. Pittaja
C. Kaphaja
D. Sannipatika
Answer: A Vataja
224. According to Kashyapa Samhita Madhu & Chaturjata Kalka with Tandulodaka is given in _ _ _ _ _ chardi in Garbhini.
A. Vataja
B. Pittaja
C. Kaphaja
D. Sannipatika
Answer: B Pittaja
225. According to Kashyapa Samhita, Decoction of Aamra & Jambu with madhu is given in _ _ _ _ _ chardi in Garbhini.
A. Vataja
B. Pittaja
C. Kaphaja
D. Sannipatika
Answer: C Kaphaja
226. According to Kashyapa Samhita, Decoction of root of Punaranava & Bhadradaru mixed with honey should be given in _ _ _ _ _ Garbhini chardi.
A. Vataja
B. Pittaja
C. Kaphaja
D. Krimija
Answer: D Krimija
227. According to _ _ _ _ _ Aacharya, Bhunimba kalka with Madhu is given for Garbhini Hritkleda.
A. Harita
B. Charaka
C. Sushruta
D. Vagbhata
Answer: A Harita
228. According to Kashyapacharya, _ _ _ _ _ is most troublesome in Garbhini.
A. Atisara
B. Jwara
C. Chardi
D. Kasa
Answer: B Jwara
229. According to _ _ _ _ _ Acharya, excessive hunger, exertion, massage, dryness, heat, retention of feces are the causative factors of Garbhini Jwara.
A. Charaka
B. Sushruta
C. Kashyapa
D. Vagabhata
Answer: C Kashyapa
230. One day fast followed by peya without sneha & lavana is advised in Garbhini———.
A. Kasa
B. Shwasa
C. Shotha
D. Jwara
Answer: D Jwara
231. Lone Yavagu, is advised for Garbhini jwara in _ _ _ _ _samhita.
A. Kashyapa
B. Charaka
C. Sushruta
D. Vagabhata
Answer: A Kashyapa
232. Medicine shall not be given in Garbhini———-before 4th month of pregnancy.
A. Kasa
B. Jwara
C. Shwasa
D. Shotha
Answer: B Jwara
233. Abhyanga is contraindicated in taruna jwara is mentioned in ——-.
A. Charaka
B. Sushruta
C. Kashyapa
D. Vagbhata
Answer: C Kashyapa
234. According to Yoga Ratnakar, _ _ _ _ _ kwath is given for Garbhini Atisara,
A. Kutaki
B. Shatavari
C. Ashwagandha
D. Hriberadi.
Answer: D Hriberadi.
235. The treatment of Garbhini Jwaratisara, Aamatisara & Raktatisara is————–.
A. Samanga, Madhuka Lodhra, Phanita with sharkara
B. Samanga, with sharkara
C. Madhuka Lodhra, with sharkara
D. Lodhra, Phanita with sharkara
Answer: A Samanga, Madhuka Lodhra, Phanita with sharkara
236. The treatment of Garbhini _ _ _ _ _ is cold milk medicated with Madhurasa & mixed with honey.
A. Atisara
B. Parikartika
C. Pravahika
D. Grahani
Answer: B Parikartika
237. Daruna Virechana is contraindicated in Garbhini ———–.
A. Pandu
B. Chardi
C. Shopha
D. Kasa
Answer: C Shopha
238. Chandana, Madhuka, Ushira, Nagapushpa etc. is described by —– Acharya as Shophahara Lep in Garbhini.
A. Charaka
B. Sushruta
C. Vagbhata
D. Yoga Ratnakar
Answer: D Yoga Ratnakar
239. The massage of powdered Shrungabera, Katuka, & Keshara (saffron) of ‘Matulunga over teeth (gums) & tongue, followed by retention of mouthful hot water in Garbhini- ——.
A. Aruchi
B. Kasa
C. Shwasa
D. Shopha
Answer: A Aruchi
240. Cooled decoction of ‘Triphala, mixed with Haritaki, Nagara, & Guda is advised in Garbhini —————-.
A. Pandu
B. Vibandha
C. Shopha
D. Kasa
Answer: B Vibandha
241. Quadrilateral area of the foetal head, bounded anteriorly by the anterior fontanelle & coronal sutures, posteriorly by posterior fontanelle & lambdoidal suture, & Laterally by arbitrary lines through the parietal eminences, is called as _ _ _ _ _.
A. Vertex
B. Brow
C. Face
D. Bregma
Answer: A Vertex
242. The area from the junction of the chin or floor of the mouth & neck to the root of the nose & supraorbital ridges, is called as _ _ _ _ _.
A. Vertex
B. Brow
C. Face
D. Bregma
Answer: C Face
243. The area from the root of the nose & supra orbital ridges to the anterior fontanelle & coronal sutures, is called as _ _ _ _ _.
A. Vertex
B. Brow
C. Face
D. Bregma
Answer: B Brow
244. _ _ _ _ _ suture lies between two halves of the frontal bones.
A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Coronal
D. Lambdoidal
Answer: B Frontal
245. _ _ _ _ _ suture lies across the vault of the skull in the midline between the parietal bones.
A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Coronal
D. Lambdoidal
Answer: A Sagittal
246. _ _ _ _ _ suture separates the frontal bone from the parietal bones on either side.
A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Coronal
D. Lambdoidal
Answer: C Coronal
247. _ _ _ _ _ sutures separate the parietal bones from the occipital bone on either side.
A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Coronal
D. Lambdoidal
Answer: D Lambdoidal
248. According to Ashtanga Sangraha ————-is advised in the 8th month, for Garbhini Udavarta.
A. Vaman
B. Virechana
C. Anuvasan Basti
D. Nasya
Answer: C Anuvasan Basti
249. The paste of Chandan & Mrinala is applied in————.
A. Kikkisa
B. Pandu
C. Kushta
D. Vaivarnya
Answer: A Kikkisa
250. ——————are the Lakshana of Garbhini Kikkisa.
A. Kandu & Vidaha
B. Hrullasa, Jwara
C. Aruchi , Sweda
D. Vibandha, Atisar
Answer: A Kandu & Vidaha
251. Kartanvata Shula is the characteristic of Garbhini _ _ _ _ _.
A. Atisara
B. Pravahika
C. Parikartika
D. Grahani
Answer: C Parikartika
252. According to Sushruts Aacharya, Prakruta Prasava Kala varies from _ _ _ _ _ masa.
A. 5th to 6th
B. 8th to 9th
C. 7th to 8th
D. 9th to 12th
Answer: D 9th to 12th
253. The door of Sutikagara shall face towards _ _ _ _ _ as quoted in Charaka.
A. Purva or Uttara
B. Pashchima
C. Dakshina
D. Pashchima/Dakshina
Answer: A Purva or Uttara
254. Colour of Sutikagar Bhumi for Brahman is _ _ _ _as per Sushruta Aacharya.
A. Shweta
B. Rakta
C. Pita
D. Krushna
Answer: A Shweta
255. Colour of Sutikagar Bhumi for Kshatriya is _ _ _ _as per Sushruta Aacharya.
A. Shweta
B. Rakta
C. Pita
D. Krushna
Answer: B Rakta
256. Colour of Sutikagar Bhumi for vaishya is _ _ _ _as per Sushruta Aacharya.
A. Shweta
B. Rakta
C. Pita
D. Krushna
Answer: C Pita
257. Colour of Sutikagar Bhumi for shudra is _ _ _ _as per Sushruta Aacharya.
A. Shweta
B. Rakta
C. Pita
D. Krushna
Answer: D Krushna
258. The door of Sutikagara shall face towards _ _ _ _ as quoted in Sushruta.
A. Purva/Dakshin
B. Pashchim
C. Uttar
D. Pashchim/Uttar
Answer: A Purva/Dakshin
259. Dimensions of sutikagar are _ _ _ _ _hasta.
A. 8 × 4
B. 7 × 5
C. 9 × 6
D. 10 × 7
Answer: A 8 × 4
260. Entry of garbhini in Sutikagara is advised during _ _ _ _ _ masa.
A. 7th
B. 8th
C. 9th
D. 10th
Answer: C 9th
261. ——– is responsible for Garbha Nishkramana.
A. Prana
B. Prasut maruta
C. Udana
D. Vyana
Answer: B Prasut maruta
262. ———strava presents at ‘Putra Janmani’.
A. Tantri varna
B. Kinshukodaka
C. Nimbodaka
D. Sharkarodaka
Answer: A Tantri varna
263. ———strava presents at ‘Putrika Janmani’.
A. Tantri varna
B. Kinshukodaka
C. Nimbodaka
D. Sharkarodaka
Answer: B Kinshukodaka
264. _ _ _ _ _ churna inhalation is indicated for shighra prasava.
A. Vacha, Langli
B. Shatavari
C. Ashwagandha
D. Sharkara
Answer: A Vacha, Langli
265. Drinking of ———is advised in Prajanayishyamana Aavastha.
A. Jal
B. Ghruta yukta Yavagu.
C. Narikel jal
D. Dugdha
Answer: B Ghruta yukta Yavagu.
266. Yonidhupan of——– is advised in Prajanayishyamana Aavastha for shigra prasava.
A. Bhurjapatra, Shinshipa
B. Ajamoda
C. Nimbapatra
D. Sarshap
Answer: A Bhurjapatra, Shinshipa
267. ————-is a multisystem disorder of unknown etiology characterized by development of hypertension to the extent of 140/90 mm Hg or more with proteinuria after the 20th week in a previously normotensive and nonproteinuric woman.
A. Jaundice
B. Preeclampsia
C. APH
D. PPH
Answer: B Preeclampsia
268. An absolute rise of blood pressure of at least ———mm of Hg. if the previous blood pressure is not known or a rise in systolic pressure of at least 30 mm Hg, or a rise in diastolic pressure of at least 15 mm Hg over the previously known blood pressure is called pregnancy-induced hypertension.
A. 120/ 80
B. 130/70
C. 140/90
D. 100/70
Answer: C 140/90
269. In Severe PIH, A persistent systolic blood pressure above or equal to
A. 160 mm Hg or diastolic pressure above 90 mm Hg.
B. 140 mm Hg or diastolic pressure above 110 mm Hg.
C. 100 mm Hg or diastolic pressure above 90 mm Hg.
D. 160 mm Hg or diastolic pressure above 110 mm Hg.
Answer: D 160 mm Hg or diastolic pressure above 110 mm Hg.
270. Pre-eclamptic state in pregnancy complicated with _ _ _ _ _ is called as eclamsia.
A. convulsion
B. Jaundice
C. Cough
D. Breathlessness
Answer: A convulsion
271. Haemorrhage from the genital tract occurring after 28 weeks of pregnancy but before birth of the baby is called as _ _ _ _ _.
A. Abortion
B. APH
C. PPH
D. Vesicular Mole
Answer: B APH
272. Placenta is implanted partially or completely on the lower Uterine segment is called as _ _ _ _ _.
A. Abruptio Placenta
B. Battledore Placenta
C. Placenta Praevia
D. Placenta succenturiata
Answer: C Placenta Praevia
273. In Placenta praevia, only the lower margin of the placenta covers the upper part of the lower uterine segment, but the rest lies at the upper uterine segment, in _ _ _ _ _ degree.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
Answer: A 1st
274. In Placenta Praevia, the edge of the Placenta reaches the margin of the internal OS, but Placenta does not cover it, in _ _ _ _ _ Degree.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
Answer: B 2nd
275. In Placenta Praevia, the Placenta covers the internal OS, when it is closed, but partially covers it, when fully dilated in _ _ _ _ _ Degree.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
Answer: C 3rd
276. In Placenta Praevia, the placenta completely covers the internal OS, even after it is fully dilated, in _ _ _ _ _ Degree.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
Answer: D 4th
277. Vaginal bleeding is revealed, bright red, painless & recurrent in _ _ _ _ _
A. Placenta Praevia
B. Abruptio Placentae
C. Vomiting in pregnancy
D. Jaundice in pregnancy
Answer: A Placenta Praevia
278. Vaginal bleeding is either concealed or revealed but dark red, painful & continuous in _ _ _ _ _.
A. Placenta Praevia
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Vomiting in pregnancy
D. Jaundice in pregnancy
Answer: B Abruptio placentae
279. Pain in abdomen is absent in _ _ _ _ _.
A. Placenta Praevia
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Vomiting in pregnancy
D. HIV in pregnancy
Answer: A Placenta Praevia
280. Pain in abdomen is present in _ _ _ _ _.
A. Placenta Praevia
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Vomiting in pregnancy
D. Diabetes in pregnancy
Answer: B Abruptio placentae
281. The mechanisms of spontaneous control of bleeding are:
A. Thrombosis of the open sinuses, Mechanical pressure by the presenting part, Placental infarction.
B. Thrombosis of the open sinuses,
C. Thrombosis of the open sinuses, Placental infarction.
D. Mechanical pressure by the presenting part, Placental infarction.
Answer: A Thrombosis of the open sinuses, Mechanical pressure by the presenting part, Placental infarction.
282. Foetus felt with difficulty & absence of foetal heart sound is in _ _ _ _ _.
A. Vaginal bleeding
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Intrauterine growth retardation
Answer: B Abruptio placentae
283. Pregnancy at & above the age of _ _ _ _ _ years is called as High Risk Pregnancy
A. 20
B. 25
C. 27
D. 35
Answer: D 35
284. Pregnancy at & below the age of _ _ _ _ _ years, is termed as High Risk Pregnancy.
A. 19
B. 25
C. 30
D. 32
Answer: A 19
285. Grand multipara if more than _ _ _ _ _ pregnancies is called as High Risk Pregnancy
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D 4
286. All gravidae with height less than _ _ _ _ _ cm is called as High Risk Pregnancy.
A. 145
B. 150
C. 155
D. 160
Answer: A 145
287. The process of expulsion, per vagina of mature foetus, presented by vertex, followed by that of after births, where parturition is uncomplicated, spontaneous & not delayed, is called as _ _ _ _ .
A. Abnormal Labour
B. Normal Labour
C. Abnormal Puerperium
D. Normal Puerperium
Answer: B Normal Labour
288. A woman who is pregnant for the ——– time is primigravida.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
Answer: A 1st
289. The basic elements involved in the uterine contractile systems are: [a] actin, [b] myosin, [c] adenosine triphosphate (ATP), [d] the enzyme myosin light chain kinase (MLCK), and (e) Ca++.
A. [a] actin, [b] myosin,
B. [a] actin, [b] myosin, [c] adenosine triphosphate (ATP), [d] the enzyme myosin light chain kinase (MLCK), and (e) Ca++.
C. [a] actin, [b] myosin, [c] adenosine triphosphate (ATP), [d] the enzyme myosin light chain kinase (MLCK), and
D. [a] actin, [b] myosin, [c] adenosine triphosphate (ATP),
Answer: B [a] actin, [b] myosin, [c] adenosine triphosphate (ATP), [d] the enzyme myosin light chain kinase (MLCK), and (e) Ca++.
290. The Labour becomes easy when the woman passes through the 1st Labour between the age of _ _ _ _ _ years.
A. 19- 23
B. 25- 30
C. 30- 35
D. 35- 40
Answer: A 19- 23
291. The labour becomes more difficult in primigravida over _ _ _ _ _ years of age.
A. 20
B. 25
C. 28
D. 30
Answer: D 30
292. The labour becomes more difficult in multipara over _ _ _ _ _ years of age.
A. 35
B. 30
C. 25
D. 20
Answer: A 35
293. Risk of labour increases with the _ _ _ _ _ labour onwards.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 5th
Answer: D 5th
294. From the onset of labour to the full dilatation of the cervix, is called as _ _ _ _ _ stage of labour.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
Answer: A 1st
295. The duration of 1st stage of labour is about _ _ _ _ _ hours, in primigravida.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: B 10
296. The duration of 1st stage of labour is about _ _ _ _ _ hours, in multigravida.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: C 5
297. The stage from the full dilatation of the cervix, to the expulsion of the baby, is called as _ _ _ _ _ stage of labour.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
Answer: B 2nd
298. The duration of 2nd stage of labour is about _ _ _ _ _ hours, in primigravids.
A. ½
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: B 1
299. The duration of 2nd stage of labour is about _ _ _ _ _ hours, in multigravida.
A. ½
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A ½
300. The stage from the birth of the baby to the expulsion of the placenta, umbilical cord & membranes is called as _ _ _ _ _ stage of labour.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
Answer: C 3rd
301. After separation of placenta it takes about —— minutes in conventional management for the placenta to separate.
A. 5
B. 30
C. 35
D. 38
Answer: A 5
302. Total duration of normal labour in primigravida is about _ _ _ _ _ hours.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 18
Answer: B 12
303. Total duration of normal labour in multigravida is about _ _ _ _ _ hours.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 10
Answer: C 6
304. With the onset of labor pain,
A. The cervical canal begins to dilate more in the upper part than in the lower, the former being accompanied by corresponding stretching of the lower uterine segment.
B. The cervical canal begins to dilate more in the upper part than in the lower.
C. The cervical canal begins to dilate by corresponding stretching of the lower uterine segment.
D. The cervical canal begins to dilate in the lower.
Answer: A The cervical canal begins to dilate more in the upper part than in the lower, the former being accompanied by corresponding stretching of the lower uterine segment.
305. Full dilatation of the cervix means the diameter of the cervical canal at external OS is _ _ _ _ _ cm.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
Answer: C 10
306. In _ _ _ _ _ cm, dilatation of the OS, cervical lip cannot be felt & the cervix becomes almost continuous with vaginal wall.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: B 10
307. Vis-a-tergo means
A. Cervical dilatation
B. Uterine rupture
C. Lower segment formation
D. The final phase of dilatation and retraction of the cervix is achieved by downward thrust of the presenting part of the fetus and upward pull of the cervix over the lower segment.
Answer: D The final phase of dilatation and retraction of the cervix is achieved by downward thrust of the presenting part of the fetus and upward pull of the cervix over the lower segment.
308. The process of Lower uterine segment formation is
A. The wall of the upper segment becomes progressively thickened with progressive thinning of the lower segment.
B. The wall of the upper segment becomes progressively thin
C. The wall of the upper segment becomes progressively thickened
D. Progressive thickening of the lower segment.
Answer: A The wall of the upper segment becomes progressively thickened with progressive thinning of the lower segment.
309. Entire cervical canal merging with lower segment during labour is called as _ _ _ _ _ % effacement.
A. 30
B. 50
C. 80
D. 100
Answer: D 100
310. ——— pain is defined as “During second stage of labour woman ‘Urges to Push’ during each painful contraction”
A. Bearing Down
B. Abdominal
C. Vaginal
D. Anal
Answer: A Bearing Down
311. Gradual shortening of cervical canal with thinning of cervix is called as _ _ _ _ _.
A. Dilatation
B. Effacement
C. Contraction
D. Retraction
Answer: B Effacement
312. The series of movements, adopted by foetus, in its birth passage, during expulsion in normal Labour, called as _ _ _ _ _ of labour.
A. Causes
B. Symptoms
C. Mechanism
D. Signs
Answer: C Mechanism
313. In normal Labour _ _ _ _ _ is the presenting part which is either on LOA or ROA position.
A. Breech
B. Brow
C. Face
D. Vertex
Answer: D Vertex
314. In ROA engagement of Vertex, occurs in the _ _ _ _ _ diameter of pelvis with occiput lying at right anterior quadrant.
A. Right Oblique
B. Left Oblique
C. Right transverse
D. Left transverse
Answer: B Left Oblique
315. After birth of foetal head in LOA position occiput rotates ⅛th of a circle, on the left side, to undo the twist in the neck, called as _ _ _ _ _.
A. Internal Rotation
B. Extension
C. Restitution
D. External Rotation
Answer: C Restitution
316. Shoulders & trunk of foetus are born by _ _ _ _ _ movement.
A. Extension
B. Lateral Flexion
C. Restitution
D. External Rotation
Answer: B Lateral Flexion
317. When cervix slowly dilates from 2 cm. to 3 cm. is called as _ _ _ _ _.
A. Latent phase
B. Active phase
C. Acceleration
D. Deceleration
Answer: A Latent phase
318. The discharge of blood stained cervical mucus, during Labour is called as _ _ _ _ _.
A. Abortion
B. APH
C. PPH
D. Show
Answer: D Show
319. During the time of Labour, Episiotomy of taken just before _ _ _ _ _.
A. Stage of crowing
B. Extenion
C. Restitution
D. Lateral Flexion
Answer: A Stage of crowing
320. After expulsion of anterior shoulder, injection _ _ _ _ _ is given.
A. Epidosin
B. Methergin
C. Atropine
D. Compose
Answer: B Methergin
321. Normal Foetal Heart Rate is _ _ _ _ _.
A. 80-90/min
B. 90-100/min
C. 160/170/min
D. 120-160/min
Answer: D 120-160/min
322. Decrease of Haemologin below 11 gm% is called as _ _ _ _ _ in pregnancy
A. Anaemia
B. Jaundice
C. Heart Disease
D. Diabetes Mellitus
Answer: A Anaemia
323. Severe vomiting of pregnancy, causing effect on mother’s health, is called as _ _ _ _
A. Pyrexia
B. Jaundice
C. Hyper Emesis Gravidarum
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Answer: C Hyper Emesis Gravidarum
324. In Eclampsia, the head may be drawn to one side & there are twitching of the hands & face with rolling of the eyes, the patient lies unconscious, in _ _ _ _ _ stage.
A. Tonic
B. Pre Monitory
C. Clonic
D. Coma
Answer: B Pre Monitory
325. In Eclampsia, the entire body lies in a state of spasm & rigidity with clenching of the hands, the respiration ceases, the tongue protrudes between the teeth, the patient becomes cyanosed in _ _ _ _ _ stage.
A. Pre Monitory
B. Tonic
C. Clonic
D. Coma
Answer: B Tonic
326. In Eclampsia, convulsions occurs, the muscles of the body spasmodically contract & relax the biting of tongue occurs, blood-stained secretion come out of the mouth & nose, light respiratory movements occurs & cyanosis passes off in _ _ _ _ _ stage.
A. Clonic
B. Pre monitory
C. Tonic
D. Coma
Answer: A Clonic
327. The term eclampsia is derived from a Greek word, meaning
A. “like a flash of cloud”.
B. “like a flash of thunder”.
C. “like a flash of lightening”.
D. “like a flash of rainbow”.
Answer: C “like a flash of lightening”.
328. In pregnancy retinal changes may be seen in _ _ _ _ _.
A. Placenta Praevia
B. Abruption Placenta
C. Anemia
D. Pre Eclampsia
Answer: D Pre Eclampsia
329. Cervical biopsy is done to exclude cervical _ _ _ _ _.
A. Carcinoma
B. Fibroid
C. Endometriosis
D. Ovarian Cyst
Answer: A Carcinoma
330. Endometrial biopsy is done to detect _ _ _ _ _.
A. Ovarian cyst
B. HEELP syndrom
C. Hormonal status, Endometrial carcinoma, Endometrial Tuberculosis
D. Sub mucous Fibroid
Answer: C Hormonal status, Endometrial carcinoma, Endometrial Tuberculosis
331. _ _ _ _ _ is used for early detection of cervical malignancy.
A. PAP smear, cervical biopsy, colposcopy
B. HSG
C. USG
D. CT Scan
Answer: A PAP smear, cervical biopsy, colposcopy
332. Marsupilisation operation is done for _ _ _ _ _ cyst.
A. Ovarian
B. Bartholin
C. Broad ligament
D. Pancreatic
Answer: B Bartholin
333. In the Mechanism of normal labour, in internal rotation, the occiput rotates through _ _ _ _ _ of a circle, to lie under the pubic arch.
A. ½
B. ¼
C. 1/6
D. ⅛
Answer: D ⅛
334. The presenting part lies at the level of ischial spine, is called as _ _ _ _ _ station in normal labour.
A. Zero
B. -1
C. -2
D. +1
Answer: A Zero
335. According to Harit Samhita………. is the cause of ‘Akal-Prasav’
A. Dosh bala
B. Garbhopadrav
C. Garbhavriddhi
D. Garbhapat
Answer: A Dosh bala
336. Expulsion of foetus before Prakrut-prasavkal is termed as………..
A. Kalatit prasav
B. Akal prasav
C. Vikrut prasav
D. Vilambit prasav
Answer: B Akal prasav
337. Aggravated Vayu located in Shukra is the cause of ……….
A. Vilambit prasav
B. Akal prasav
C. Kalatit prasav
D. Post maturity
Answer: B Akal prasav
338. According to Yogratnakar and Bhavmishra…….. is the cause of Kalatit prasav
A. Kaphadosha
B. Mrutgarbha
C. Mudhgarbha
D. Prasav-marg sankoch
Answer: D Prasav-marg sankoch
339. According to Charak Samhita intrauterine stay of foetus after tenth month is
A. Normal
B. Abnormal
C. Common
D. Rare
Answer: B Abnormal
340. —–is the cause of Vilambit prasav.
A. Grahishool
B. Vyan vayu
C. Vilambit Aavi
D. Apan vayu
Answer: C Vilambit Aavi
341. ——– is mentioned in dhupan chikitsa for the treatment of Garbhsang.
A. Nimb churn
B. Ashok churn
C. Slough of black snake
D. Sarshap
Answer: C Slough of black snake
342. ——is tied over arms or legs for easy delivery.
A. Balamool
B. Pippali mool
C. Hiranyapushpi mool
D. Shatavari
Answer: C Hiranyapushpi mool
343. An ointment of Krishna and vacha pestled with water and mixed with castor oil is for – ——-
A. Vedanaharyoga
B. Shothahar lepa
C. Sukhprasav yoga
D. Pachanyoga
Answer: C Sukhprasav yoga
344. ———– is one of the important causes of Mudhagarbha
A. Pittaprakop
B. Dushta Kapha
C. Vigun Apan
D. Aavi
Answer: C Vigun Apan
345. The etiology of abortions and Mritagarbha should be considered as causative factor for ……….
A. Mudhagarbha
B. Garbhapat
C. Aparsang
D. Prasav
Answer: A Mudhagarbha
346. ——— is also the cause of Garbhasang.
A. Yoni samvaran
B. Yonivivrutata
C. Yonikandu
D. Yonidaha
Answer: A Yoni samvaran
347. — has been enlisted under clinical features of bad prognosis of Mudhagarbha.
A. Yoniarsha
B. Yoni bhransha
C. Yonidaha
D. Yonikandu
Answer: B Yoni bhransha
348. The foetus getting obstructed in its passage and having absence of further progress is known as ……………
A. Garbhastrav
B. Garbhapat
C. Mudhagarbha
D. Aparsang
Answer: C Mudhagarbha
349. Vagbhatachary has described only ————-in relation to treatment of Mudhagarbha.
A. Different positions
B. Different gatis
C. Different factors
D. Apan vayu
Answer: B Different gatis
350. Mudhagarbha are of —————categories according to Sushrutacharya.
A. Four
B. Six
C. Three
D. Eight
Answer: A Four
351. As per doshabheda, Harita describes —————types of Mudhagarbha.
A. Two
B. Four
C. Seven
D. Eight
Answer: C Seven
352. Harita describes seven types of Mudhagarbha on ———— basis.
A. Position
B. Gati
C. Dosha pradhanya
D. Kal
Answer: C Dosha pradhanya
353. Different gatis are explained in relation to treatment of Mudhagarbha by——–
A. Harit
B. Bhel
C. Charak
D. Vagbhata
Answer: D Vagbhata
354. Madhavnidan also described Mudhagarbha in ———– categories.
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Six
Answer: C Four
355. The foetus obstructs like a wedge having both hands, feet and head upwards is….. .
A. Pratikhur
B. Keel
C. Bijak
D. Parigha
Answer: B Keel
356. Foetus gets obstructed by body presenting with head, hands and feet all together is ……. .
A. Keel
B. Pratikhur
C. Prijak
D. Parigha
Answer: B Pratikhur
357. Foetus gets obstructed head along with one hand is ……. .
A. Keel
B. Pratikhur
C. Bijak
D. Parigha
Answer: C Bijak
358. In this position the foetus obstructs the passage just like rod or beam used for shutting the doors is…… .
A. Keel
B. Pratikhur
C. Bijak
D. Parigha
Answer: D Parigha
359. Bastishul, Aadhman are found in ———-type of Mudhagarbha
A. Vatik
B. Paitik
C. Shlaishmik
D. Raktaj
Answer: A Vatik
360. Jwar, Daha, Trishna are observed in———– type of Mudhagarbha.
A. Vatik
B. Paitik
C. Shlaishmik
D. Raktaj
Answer: B Paitik
361. Aalasya, Tandra are observed in ——type of Mudhagarbha
A. Vatik
B. Paitik
C. Shlaishmik
D. Raktaj
Answer: C Shlaishmik
362. How many “gaita” of maUZgaBa-are explained by Sushrut.
A. Two
B. Three
C. Five
D. Four
Answer: B Three
363. ———-, Makkal and Yonisamvaran are incurable characteristics of Mudhagarbha.
A. Garbhakosh parasanga
B. Vilambitaavi
C. Shul
D. Daha
Answer: A Garbhakosh parasanga
364. ——–is mentioned as asadhya Mudhagarbha by Vagbhatachary.
A. Keel
B. Pratikhur
C. Bijak
D. Vishkambha
Answer: D Vishkambha
365. Vishkambha is mentioned as asadhya Mudhgarbha by—————
A. Sushrut
B. Harit
C. Vagbhata
D. Charak
Answer: C Vagbhata
366. According to Indutika ——– is required in surgical treatment of Mudhgarbha.
A. Consent
B. Money
C. Medicines
D. Guardian
Answer: A Consent
367. Consent of guardian before surgical intervention in the treatment of Mudhagarbha is advised by.—————————-
A. Indutika
B. Yogratnakar
C. Charak
D. Kashyap
Answer: A Indutika
368. Parigha Mudhgarbha can be correlated with ……. malpresentation according to modern science.
A. Longitudinal lie
B. Transverse lie
C. Vertex
D. Breech
Answer: B Transverse lie
369. Keel Mudhagarbha is also termed as ……..according to Madhavnidan.
A. Sankilak
B. Pratikhur
C. Bijak
D. Parigh
Answer: A Sankilak
370. ———– type of Mudhgarbha can be correlated with compound presentation of foetus according to modern science.
A. Pratikhur
B. Parigha
C. Sankilak
D. Paitik
Answer: A Pratikhur
371. ‘असम्यक् आगिम्अपत्यपिम्……’ is the characteristic of ……..
A. Leengarbha
B. Mritgarbha
C. Mudhgarbha
D. Nagodara
Answer: C Mudhgarbha
372. ‘ऊर्धवबव ाहुशशरोपादो…..’ means type of Mudhagarbha
A. Keel
B. Parigh
C. Pratikhur
D. Bijak
Answer: A Keel
373. According to Kashyapa samhita, in sutikavastha, ———sneha is used for snehpana specially after the birth of male baby.
A. Ghrit
B. Tail
C. Vasa
D. Majja
Answer: B Tail
374. ——— is one of the hetus of sutikaroga according to Yogratnakar.
A. Apatarpan
B. Yonigat raktastrav
C. Mithyopchar
D. Snehan
Answer: C Mithyopchar
375. According to Kashyap samhita sutikarogas are——– in number.
A. 10
B. 25
C. 64
D. 4
Answer: C 64
376. 64 sutikarogas are mentioned in ——– samhita.
A. Ashtang sangrah
B. Kashyap
C. Sushrut
D. Bhavmishra
Answer: B Kashyap
377. In sutika, stanyaj jwar appears on ——— day after prasav.
A. 5th & 2nd
B. 3rd & 4th
C. 8th & 9th
D. 15th
Answer: B 3rd & 4th
378. In ————desh, Snehpan is contraindicated in sutikavastha.
A. Sadharan desh
B. Jangal
C. Anup
D. Marupradesh
Answer: C Anup
379. In Sutikamakkal———– of the following is responsible.
A. Pitta
B. Kapha
C. Vata and Rakta
D. Pitta and Kapha
Answer: C Vata and Rakta
380. The normal puerperium period is ——————–
A. 2 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 10 weeks
Answer: B 6 weeks
381. Lochia is of ————- types.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A 3
382. When involution of uterus is impaired or retreated, it is called ——-
A. Sub involution
B. Hyper involution
C. Retraction
D. Contraction
Answer: A Sub involution
383. ———–is the most common site of puerperal infection.
A. Breast
B. Uterus
C. Chest
D. Brain
Answer: B Uterus
384. Stanyadushti is of ———- types.
A. 8
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A 8
385. ———-type of Kshirdoshas are described in Harit samhita
A. Four
B. Three
C. Five
D. Two
Answer: C Five
386. Phenyl type of stanya is observed in ————- stanyadushti.
A. Vataj
B. Pittaj
C. Kaphaj
D. Raktaj
Answer: A Vataj
387. Picchil stanya is observed in——— type of stanyadushti.
A. Vataj
B. Pittaj
C. Kaphaj
D. Raktaj
Answer: C Kaphaj
388. Stanya is of ———— varna in stanyasampat.
A. Dugdha
B. Madhu
C. Shankha
D. Haridra
Answer: C Shankha
389. Shankha varna of stanya is mentioned in —————–
A. Stanyasampat
B. Stanyadushti
C. Stanyavikruti
D. Stanyavaivarnya
Answer: A Stanyasampat
390. Doyen’s retractor is used specially to retract —————-in LSCS.
A. Abdominal wall
B. Vaginal wall
C. Bladder
D. Cervix
Answer: C Bladder
391. Swab/Sponge holder is ————–type of yantra according to Ayurveda.
A. Swastik
B. Nadi
C. Tal
D. Sadansha
Answer: A Swastik
392. Yonivranekshan yantra is mentioned by.————
A. Charak
B. Vagbhat
C. Bhel
D. Bhavmishra
Answer: B Vagbhat
393. According to Kashyap Samhita, sutika-kal is of———————
A. 6 months
B. 2 months
C. 1 months
D. 12 months
Answer: A 6 months
394. According to Kashyap Samhita, ———snehpan is advised after the birth of female baby.
A. Tail
B. Ghrit
C. Vasa
D. Majja
Answer: B Ghrit
395. According to Ashtang sangrah sutika-snan is advised on——– day.
A. 4th& 5th
B. 10th & 12th
C. 7th& 8th
D. 1st & 2nd
Answer: B 10th & 12th
396. Sutikarogas are considered as———– according to Madhavnidan.
A. Sadhya
B. Sahaj sadhya
C. Darun
D. Asadhya
Answer: C Darun
397. The puerperal woman suffers from——– types of jwaras classified under Nija and Agantuja groups.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
Answer: B 6
398. As per Kashyap Samhita, stanya pravartan in sutika is on————- day.
A. 3rd& 4th
B. 10th& 12th
C. 2nd
D. 9th
Answer: A 3rd& 4th
399. In sutikajwar, Grahaj jwar is of—————- type.
A. Nija
B. Agantuja
C. Doshaj
D. Stanyaj
Answer: B Agantuja
400. Initiation of uterine contractions after the period of viability by any methods (medical/surgical/combined), for the purpose of vaginal delivery is ———-
A. Normal labour
B. Abnormal labour
C. Induction of labour
D. Augmentation of labour
Answer: C Induction of labour
401. The process of stimulation of uterine contractions that are already present but found to be inadequate is known as.—————-
A. Normal labour
B. Abnormal labour
C. Induction of labour
D. Augmentation of labour
Answer: D Augmentation of labour
402. ————is the clear contraindication for induction of labour.
A. CPD
B. Multipara
C. Primigravida
D. Postdated patient
Answer: A CPD
403. ————-is used for induction and augmentation of labour.
A. Oxytocin
B. Methergin
C. Salbutamol
D. Isoxsuprine
Answer: A Oxytocin
404. ————–is the surgical method for augmentation of labour.
A. ARM
B. Oxytocin drip
C. Prostaglandins application
D. Castor oil application
Answer: A ARM
405. The labour is said to be prolonged when the combined duration of 1st and 2nd stage is more than the arbitrary time limit of——– hrs.
A. 24
B. 18
C. 12
D. 10
Answer: B 18
406. ———is one of the causes of prolonged labour.
A. Uterine inertia
B. Proper contractions
C. Correct lie of the foetus
D. Adequate pelvis
Answer: A Uterine inertia
407. ————is the foetal risk factor in prolonged labour.
A. PPH
B. Purperal sepsis
C. Sub involution
D. Hypoxia
Answer: D Hypoxia
408. ————–is the sign of foetal distress.
A. Exhausted mother
B. PPH
C. Meconium stained liquor
D. Cervical tear
Answer: C Meconium stained liquor
409. A surgically planned incision on the perineum and posterior vaginal wall during the 2nd stage of labour is known as.
A. Perineorrhaphy
B. Perineoplasty
C. Episiotomy
D. Vaginoplasty
Answer: C Episiotomy
410. ————is the advantage of episiotomy in maternal perspective.
A. Avoid injuries to rectum and peri urethral region
B. Reduce foetal asphyxia
C. Avoid intracranial injury
D. Reduce strain over foetal head
Answer: A Avoid injuries to rectum and peri urethral region
411. ——–is commonly used type of episiotomy.
A. Median
B. J shaped
C. Lateral
D. Mediolateral
Answer: D Mediolateral
412. Injury to Bartholin’s duct may occur in ——–type of episiotomy.
A. Lateral
B. Median
C. Mediolateral
D. J shaped
Answer: A Lateral
413. ————is the remote complication of episiotomy.
A. Hernia
B. Non healing wound
C. Dyspareunia
D. Dysmenorrhea
Answer: C Dyspareunia
414. ————is the immediate complication of episiotomy.
A. Wound dehiscence
B. Dyspareunia
C. Vaginal stricture
D. Endometriosis
Answer: A Wound dehiscence
415. Application of ———- is the type of assisted labour.
A. Cerviprime
B. Oxytocin
C. NST
D. Ventouse
Answer: D Ventouse
416. ———-is the modification of outlet forceps technique in labour.
A. Ventouse
B. Keijland’s forceps
C. NST
D. Doppler
Answer: A Ventouse
417. Obstetric forceps can be correlated with ———–ayurvedic entity.
A. Garbhopadrav
B. Garbhavyapad
C. Garbhashanku
D. Garbhapida
Answer: C Garbhashanku
418. ———–is one of the causes of Aparasang.
A. Garbhashay shaithilya
B. Prakrut shroni
C. Vitapched
D. Mudhgarbha
Answer: A Garbhashay shaithilya
419. ————–chikitsa is advised in Aparasang.
A. Shaman
B. Snehan
C. Swedan
D. Trasan
Answer: D Trasan
420. Bhurjpatra is used for Yonidhupan in ————-chikitsa.
A. Garbhini shoth
B. Prameha
C. Aparasang
D. Rajovriddhi
Answer: C Aparasang
421. ———-lepa is used over abdomen in the treatment of Aparasang.
A. Langali mul
B. Ashwagandha mul
C. Kumari
D. Atasi mul
Answer: A Langali mul
422. If placenta is not expelled within 30 min after delivery of foetus, it is considered as—————- of placenta.
A. Abruption
B. Retention
C. Previa
D. Separation
Answer: B Retention
423. ————-treatment is advised by modern science for retention of placenta.
A. MRP
B. CRP
C. HSG
D. MTP
Answer: A MRP
424. ————-may be one of the causes for retention of placenta.
A. Morbid adherent placenta
B. Placenta previa
C. Abruptio placentae
D. PIH
Answer: A Morbid adherent placenta
425. ………is defined as‘सुिायाश्चावप ित्रस्याि्अपराचन्े न गविा ……’
A. Garbhini
B. Prasavotsuka
C. Sutika
D. Vandhya
Answer: C Sutika
426. ————- is advised by Kashyap acharya after Aparapatan in sutika paricharya.
A. Patta bandhan
B. Vaman
C. Nasya
D. Virechan
Answer: A Patta bandhan
427. Pattabandh is advised after Aparapatan by……. samhita.
A. Charak
B. Sushrut
C. Kashyap
D. Bhavprakash
Answer: C Kashyap
428. ————-is used as rakshoghna in sutikavastha.
A. Kushtha , guggulu
B. Shatavari , bala
C. Pippali , vacha
D. Chandan, lodhra
Answer: A Kushtha , guggulu
429. Maharshi Kashyap explained sutikopchar according to……….
A. Parity
B. Gravida
C. Prasavkal
D. Desh and kul satmya
Answer: D Desh and kul satmya
430. ————type of Mudhagarbha is daranyogya according to Vagbhatacharya.
A. Vishkambha
B. Keel
C. Pratikhur
D. Parigha
Answer: A Vishkambha
431. ————–is one of the specific hetu for sutikaroga as quoted by Yogaratnakar.
A. Dosh vaigunya
B. Dhatukshay
C. Mithyopchara
D. Vaivarnya
Answer: C Mithyopchara
432. Kashyapacharya explaines sutikaroga in————— adhyaya.
A. Sutika
B. Garbhini
C. Dushprajata
D. Streerog
Answer: C Dushprajata
433. Manipulative procedures to change the abnormal foetal presentation in favourable one, is known as ———————- .
A. Caesarian section
B. Version
C. Restitution
D. Crowning
Answer: B Version
434. External cephalic version is manipulation of foetus to bring it into ————– presentation.
A. Breech
B. Oblique
C. Vertex
D. Legs
Answer: C Vertex
435. Manipulative procedure ,……….. should be done during labour .
A. External cephalic version
B. Internal podalic version
C. Vertex version
D. Transverse version
Answer: B Internal podalic version
436. ————is the contraindication for manipulative procedures of labour.
A. Antepartum haemorrhage
B. Oblique lie
C. Vertex presentation
D. Transverse lie
Answer: A Antepartum haemorrhage
437. ——–is the complication of manipulative procedures of labour.
A. High foetal mortality
B. Uterine rupture
C. Haemorrhage
D. All of the above
Answer: A High foetal mortality
438. —————is the rare complication in third stage of labour in which the uterus is turned inside out.
A. Involution
B. Twisting
C. Version
D. Inversion
Answer: D Inversion
439. In………..inversion, uterus turns inside out & fundus passes through the cervix but lies inside the vagina.
A. First degree
B. Second degree
C. Third degree
D. Fourth degree
Answer: B Second degree
440. ——————is the cause which leads to the inversion of uterus.
A. Pulling the cord
B. Massaging the uterus
C. Extended episiotomy
D. Cervical tear
Answer: A Pulling the cord
441. When placenta is directly anchored to the myometrium, it is termed as —————–
A. Placenta previa
B. Placenta abruptio
C. Placenta accreta
D. Placenta inverta
Answer: C Placenta accreta
442. The classic symptom of———- is, sudden collapse with acute chest pain or air hunger after labour.
A. Haemorrhagic shock
B. Vertigo
C. Hypertension
D. Pulmonary embolism
Answer: D Pulmonary embolism
443. The haemorrhage that occurs within 24 hours following the birth of baby is known as– —–
A. Blood coagulopathy
B. Primary PPH
C. Secondary PPH
D. Mixed
Answer: B Primary PPH
444. ———–is the cause of primary PPH.
A. Trauma to birth canal
B. LSCS
C. Premature labour
D. Postmature labour
Answer: A Trauma to birth canal
445. ————is the cause of primary PPH.
A. LSCS
B. Premature labour
C. Atonicity of uterus
D. Postmature labour
Answer: C Atonicity of uterus
446. Per vaginal profuse bleeding that occurs between ————- day of delivery is termed as secondary PPH.
A. 4th to 5th
B. 2nd to 3rd
C. 8th to 14th
D. 30th to 40th
Answer: C 8th to 14th
447. Varipariksha is advised in —————– parikshan.
A. Stanya
B. Rakta
C. Rasa
D. Sweda
Answer: A Stanya
448. Vagbhat has mentioned to arrange————- for stanyapan.
A. dwau dhatris
B. Ajadugdha
C. Mahishidugdh
D. Godugdha
Answer: A dwau dhatris
449. According to Sushrut Samhita, ‘एवमशक्ये शस्त्रमवचारयेि’ ्is mentioned in ————- chikitsa.
A. Garbhastrav
B. Garbhapat
C. Mudhagarbha
D. Mritgarbha
Answer: C Mudhagarbha
450. Udarpatan purvaka garbha nirharan is done at————————–
A. Janmkale
B. Chaturth mas
C. Pancham mas
D. Shashtam mas
Answer: A Janmkale
451. —————-is given for Koshta shodhan of sutika.
A. Shunthi kwath
B. Pippali churn
C. Erand sneh and Ajmoda
D. Pippali latakaraj
Answer: C Erand sneh and Ajmoda
452. ———–is used for Garbhashay shodhan in sutikavastha.
A. Krishnabol
B. Isabgol
C. Erandsneha
D. Shatavari
Answer: A Krishnabol
453. —————-is used for Garbhashay shodhan in sutikopkram according to Yogratnakar.
A. Shunthi + dugdha
B. Shatavari dugdha
C. Ghrit + hingu
D. Pimpalmul + Takra
Answer: D Pimpalmul + Takra
454. ————-is used as stanya vriddhikar.
A. Methika
B. Pippali
C. Chandrashur
D. Danti
Answer: C Chandrashur
455. ———–is the cause of foetal distress during pregnancy.
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Mild anaemia
C. Twins
D. Proteinuria
Answer: A Abruptio placentae
456. Acording to Charakacharya vataj yonipyavad are…
A. 4
B. 8
C. 11
D. 10
Answer: C 11
457. ‘’Nidana ‘’ of yonivyapad is……..
A. Mithya aahar
B. Mithya vihara
C. A,B & D
D. Daiva
Answer: C A,B & D
458. …………… is the yonidoshahara chikitsa.
A. madhyampanchamula
B. trunapanchamula
C. laghupanchamula
D. brihatpanchamula
Answer: B trunapanchamula
459. ……..dosha is involved in karnini yonivyapad.
A. tridosha
B. Vata,Kapha
C. vatapittaj
D. Vata, kapha & rakta
Answer: D Vata, kapha & rakta
460. ‘’Pain in back, groins and thighs’’ found in ……….yonivyapad
A. Uadavarta
B. Kaphaj
C. Karnini
D. Prakcharna
Answer: D Prakcharna
461. ‘’ Anaata-va’’ is found in ……….. yonivyapad
A. Pittaj
B. Kaphaj
C. Udavarta
D. Shandhi
Answer: D Shandhi
462. ‘’Kashmari and Kutaja kwatha siddha ghrita Uttar Basti’’ is given in……
A. Pittaj
B. Shandhi
C. Arajaska
D. All
Answer: C Arajaska
463. …………..yonivyapada is observed in sagarbhawastha.
A. Paripluta
B. Sannipataj
C. Kaphaj
D. Upapluta
Answer: D Upapluta
464. Which of the following yonivyapad related with “ labQao gaBao-Aipa sa..’’
A. Udavarta
B. Vamini
C. Asruja
D. Mahayoni
Answer: C Asruja
465. Putraghni and Jataghni can be correlated with
A. Ectopic pregrancy
B. Pseudocyst
C. Habitual abortion
D. Missed abortion
Answer: C Habitual abortion
466. Management of Putraghni and Jataghni yonipyavad is
A. Shatavari kalpa
B. Goghruta
C. Kashmari and kutaja kwathsiddha ghrita & Phalaghruta
D. Kantakari Ghruta
Answer: C Kashmari and kutaja kwathsiddha ghrita & Phalaghruta
467. Turner’s Syndrome can be correlated with………………..
A. Shandhi
B. Paripluta
C. Upapluta
D. Suchimukhi
Answer: A Shandhi
468. “ AitasaMvaRta yaaoina’’is found in………………
A. Paripluta
B. Vataj
C. Pittaj
D. Suchimukhi
Answer: D Suchimukhi
469. According to Sushruta classification, number of Kaphaja yonivyapadas are………….
A. 6
B. 10
C. 5
D. 4
Answer: C 5
470. Thick curdy white discharge is observed in ………. Type of vaginitis.
A. Trichomonal
B. Monilial
C. Candida
D. Herpes
Answer: C Candida
471. ‘’Dysmenorrhea’’ can be correlated with
A. Upapluta
B. Paripluta
C. Arajaska
D. Udavarta
Answer: D Udavarta
472. In Udavarta yonivyapad is………….dosha pradhana.
A. Vata
B. Pitta
C. Kapha
D. Vatakapha
Answer: A Vata
473. Infertility can be correlated with…………..
A. Vandhya
B. Uadavarta
C. Paripluta
D. Mahayoni
Answer: A Vandhya
474. ’Prakcharana’’ is not mentioned by …………..acharya
A. Charak
B. Sushrut
C. Vagbhata
D. Kashyap
Answer: B Sushrut
475. ’Vipluta’’ is not mentioned by……………. Acharya chikitsa sthana Adhyaya 30.
A. Sushruta
B. Vagbhata
C. Vriddha vagbhata
D. Charaka
Answer: D Charaka
476. ‘’Amenorrhea’’ is found in………….. yonivyapad
A. Suchimukhi
B. Karnini
C. Arajaska
D. Pittaja
Answer: C Arajaska
477. Vaginal secretion and itching found in …………. yonivyapad
A. Uapapluta
B. Acharana
C. Vipluta
D. All
Answer: D All
478. Dhatakyadi Taila is the management of…………..yonivyapad.
A. Aticharana
B. Acharana
C. Vipluta
D. Mahayoni
Answer: C Vipluta
479. “ vak`yaita AananaM yaaonyaa:” is found in……………
A. Suchimukhi
B. Uadavarta
C. Arajaska
D. Antramukhi
Answer: D Antramukhi
480. Shuddha shukra is quoted in ——–sthana of Charak Samhita
A. Sharir
B. Sutra
C. Nidan
D. Viman
Answer: A Sharir
481. Teratospermia is………………………..
A. Abnormal sperm morphology
B. Abnormal semen
C. Normal sperm morphology
D. Normal semen
Answer: A Abnormal sperm morphology
482. According to Charaka Samhita, pramana of shukra dhatu is…………………..
A. ½ anjali
B. 1 anjali
C. 2 anjali
D. 3 anjali
Answer: A ½ anjali
483. Eight types of Shukra dushti quoted by……………..acharya.
A. Kashyap
B. Bhel
C. Bhavprakash
D. Harit
Answer: A Kashyap
484. Shukla & Retas as synonym of shukra quoted in………… samhita
A. Bhela
B. Kashyap
C. Harit
D. Bhavprakasha
Answer: A Bhela
485. “Azoospermia” is…….
A. Normal sperm count
B. Immotile Sperms
C. Abnormal sperm count
D. Zero sperm count
Answer: D Zero sperm count
486. “Rativardhan yogas” are described in……………..
A. Bhavaprakash
B. Charak
C. Kashyap
D. Bhel
Answer: A Bhavaprakash
487. —- dhatu is compared as androgen
A. Rasa
B. Majja
C. Shukra
D. Meda
Answer: C Shukra
488. Normal sperm count is…………..million/ml
A. 20
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: A 20
489. ………………..is the 7th kala
A. Mamasadhara
B. Shukradhara
C. Purishdhara
D. Medodhara
Answer: B Shukradhara
490. According to …………….acharya shukra is present in whole body
A. Charak
B. Sushruta
C. Both A & B
D. Kashyapa
Answer: C Both A & B
491. Pramana of Shukra according to Bhel is ………
A. 1 anjali
B. 2 anjali
C. 3 anjali
D. 4 anjali
Answer: A 1 anjali
492. According to Sharangdhar, which of the following is an upadhatu of shukra
A. oja
B. Kesha
C. loma
D. Asthi
Answer: A oja
493. ……………acharya quoted, shukra is devoid of mala
A. Charaka
B. Sushrut
C. Both
D. Bhavaprakash
Answer: C Both
494. Oligospermia is………………………
A. Low sperm count
B. More sperm count
C. Low sperm motility
D. More sperm motility
Answer: A Low sperm count
495. ……………… is normal colour of semen
A. Whitish
B. Grey
C. Both
D. Red
Answer: C Both
496. Normal pH of “semen” is…………..
A. 7.2 – 7.8
B. 6.2 – 6.8
C. 8
D. 9
Answer: A 7.2 – 7.8
497. ………..is not used in “Punsawan”
A. Dhanyamash
B. Mudgayush
C. Sarshap
D. Nyagrodha shrung
Answer: B Mudgayush
498. ……………..is advised in shukra dushti chikitsa
A. Vaman
B. Raktamokshan
C. Virechan
D. Basti
Answer: D Basti
499. According to Vagbhatacharya,……… is the “varna” of baby if the shukra is “madhusaman”
A. Awadat
B. Shyam
C. Krushna
D. Gaurshyam
Answer: B Shyam
500. If shukra falls on …..nadi, the sex of fetus born is male.
A. Chandramasi
B. Gauri
C. Samiran
D. None
Answer: B Gauri
501. According to Charakacharya………….is the“beejdoshaj” yonivyapada.
A. Vamini
B. Shandhi
C. Upapluta
D. Acharna
Answer: B Shandhi
502. According to Charakachaya in………….. shukra dusthi“Abhaya-amalaki rasayan” is used
A. Vataj
B. Pittaj
C. Kaphaj
D. None
Answer: B Pittaj
503. …………………..dhatu is formed from kapha & shukra (a/c to Harita Samhita )
A. Rasa
B. Meda
C. Asthi
D. Majja
Answer: B Meda
504. According to Bhavprakash, if shukra falls on…………nadi it becomes nishphala .
A. Samirana
B. Chandramasi
C. Gauri
D. None
Answer: A Samirana
505. According to Sushrutacharya, “samatvaagatavaIya-o occurs at———age in purush.
A. 12
B. 16
C. 25
D. 20
Answer: C 25
506. According to ……………… Aacharya streeshukra is a dhatu.
A. Sushrut
B. Vabghat
C. Sharangdhar
D. Bhavprakash
Answer: D Bhavprakash
507. Amount of Aartava according to Vagbhatacharya is…………..anjali.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 4
Answer: D 4
508. …………….doshadushti is observed in “XaINaata-va” .
A. Vatapitta
B. Pittarakta
C. Kaphapitta
D. Sannipataj
Answer: A Vatapitta
509. ……….of the following is the content of “rajapravartini vati” :
A. Trikatu
B. Tankan
C. Ela
D. Hingu
Answer: A Trikatu
510. Spasmodic dysmenorrhea is seen most prominently in…………… age group
A. 15-35 yr
B. 30-45 yr
C. 45 – 50 yr
D. Any age group
Answer: A 15-35 yr
511. According to Ashtangsangraha……………kashaya is used for yoniprakshalana in kaphaja aartavadushti.
A. Mudgaparni
B. Sarala
C. Madhuka
D. Lodhra-tinduka
Answer: D Lodhra-tinduka
512. According to Vrudha Vagbhat in ………type of rajodusthi “gaOirkairYT kYaaya” is used for yoniprakshalan .
A. Vataj
B. Pittaj
C. Kaphaj
D. Kunipagandhi
Answer: B Pittaj
513. “Vistrut varnan” of “Pradar” is descrtibed by………Acharya.
A. Charak
B. Sushrut
C. Vagbhat
D. Kashyap
Answer: A Charak
514. ………………..is the chikitsa of Artavkshay.
A. Vamana
B. Sheeta dravya
C. Sanshodhana & agneya dravya
D. Lekhana
Answer: C Sanshodhana & agneya dravya
515. According to Sushrutacharya, ……….are the types of rajodushti
A. 7
B. 5
C. 8
D. 2
Answer: C 8
516. …………….. are the lakshanas of aratvavriddhi.
A. Angamarda
B. Atipravritti
C. Daurgandhya
D. All of the above.
Answer: D All of the above.
517. …………is the chikitsa of kunap rajodushti.
A. Triphala kalka dharan
B. Lodhratinduka
C. Gairika
D. None
Answer: A Triphala kalka dharan
518. Mutrapurishagandhi aartava is the lakshana of ………..aartavadushti.
A. Sannipataja
B. Vataja
C. Pittaja
D. Kaphaja
Answer: A Sannipataja
519. Moolasthan of aartvavahastrotas….
A. Aantaphala
B. Tryavarta yoni
C. Garbhashaya & aartavavahini
D. Apatyapatha
Answer: C Garbhashaya & aartavavahini
520. Atyartava can be correlated with….
A. Menorrhagia
B. Dysmenorrhoea
C. Amenorrhea
D. Dyspareunia
Answer: A Menorrhagia
521. Oligomenorrhoea means …..
A. Infrequent menstruation
B. Frequent menstruation
C. Delayed menstruation
D. Excessive menstruation
Answer: A Infrequent menstruation
522. The result of prolactinoma is ………….
A. Oligomenorrhea
B. Amenorrhea
C. Menorrhoea
D. menopause
Answer: A Oligomenorrhea
523. In PCOS ……………..secretions are excessive.
A. Androgen
B. LH
C. TSH
D. Progesterone
Answer: A Androgen
524. ……………. is not the type of Pradar..
A. Vataj
B. Pittaj
C. Raktaj
D. Sannipataj
Answer: C Raktaj
525. Treatment for rajakshinata is….
A. Swayonivardhan dravya
B. Shukrajanan dravya
C. Pittahar dravya
D. Vatahar dravya
Answer: A Swayonivardhan dravya
526. Pariman of aartva (stree beej) is…
A. 8 bindu
B. 6 bindu
C. 4 bindu
D. 2 bindu
Answer: D 2 bindu
527. Menorrhagia is defined in relation to blood loss…
A. > 50ml
B. >40ml
C. >60ml
D. > 80ml
Answer: D > 80ml
528. Raktapradar are of…………types.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C 4
529. …………….. dosh is involved in aaratavavriddhi
A. Pitta
B. Vata
C. Vatapitta
D. Kaphapitta
Answer: A Pitta
530. Line of treatment is similar in raktarsha, raktatisra & …………
A. Asruja yonivyapada
B. Shwetapradara
C. Raktagulma
D. Raktapradara
Answer: D Raktapradara
531. According to Sushrutacharya,………….doshas are involved in putipuya aartavadushti.
A. Vata rakta
B. Kapha vata
C. Vata kapha
D. Pitta kapha
Answer: D Pitta kapha
532. Hysteroscopy means visualization of…………….
A. Genital tract
B. Fallopian tube
C. Uterine cavity
D. cervix
Answer: C Uterine cavity
533. ………….is used for achievement of uterine distension in hysteroscopy.
A. Distilled water
B. Air
C. Glycine
D. Nitrogen
Answer: C Glycine
534. Hysteroscopy can diagnose all, except……………
A. Asherman’s syndrome
B. Septate uterus
C. Adenomyosis
D. TB endometritis
Answer: C Adenomyosis
535. Hysteroscopy is used in all except………….
A. Uterine syneachia
B. Abnormal vaginal bleeding
C. Infertility
D. Recurrent still birth
Answer: D Recurrent still birth
536. Best gas used for creating pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopy is……………….
A. N2
B. O2
C. CO2
D. N2O
Answer: C CO2
537. Laparoscopy should be avoided in patients with………….
A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes
C. Obesity
D. COPD
Answer: D COPD
538. Laparoscopy is contraindicated in……………
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. PID
C. Endometriosis
D. Peritonitis
Answer: D Peritonitis
539. Young lady comes with mild erosion of cervix and pap smear shows dysplasia, next step is………….
A. Antibiotics
B. Colposcopy
C. Cryosurgery
D. USG
Answer: B Colposcopy
540. Uterine perforation is the complication of———–
A. Pap smear
B. Cervical Cauterization
C. Hysteroscopy
D. Cone biopsy
Answer: C Hysteroscopy
541. …………………is a procedure that allows the direct visualization inside the uterus.
A. Hysteroscopy
B. Laparoscopy
C. Colposcopy
D. Culdoscopy
Answer: A Hysteroscopy
542. ……………..procedure is done for direct visualization of endometriosis.
A. Laparoscopy
B. USG
C. X ray pelvis
D. CT scan
Answer: A Laparoscopy
543. Submucosal fibroid is detected by except :
A. Hysteroscopy
B. Hysterosalpingography
C. USG (transabdominal
D. Laparoscopy
Answer: D Laparoscopy
544. NT scan done at :
A. 11-13 week
B. 20 week
C. 5 week
D. 25 week
Answer: A 11-13 week
545. Signs of anencephaly on ultrasonography :
A. Frog eye sign
B. Mickey mouse sign
C. Both A & B
D. Spalding’s sign
Answer: C Both A & B
546. Signs of IUD on Xray :
A. Robert sign
B. Spalding sign
C. Both A & B
D. Mickey mouse sign
Answer: C Both A & B
547. 1st sign of pregnancy on ultrasonography :
A. Gestational sac
B. Yolk sac
C. Cardiac activity
D. All of the above
Answer: D All of the above
548. Instrument used to open up the vaginal canal for HSG is ……….
A. Spillage
B. Speculum
C. Uterine sound
D. Tenaculum
Answer: B Speculum
549. Fallopian tube patency is checked by…………….
A. Hysterosalpingography
B. Colposcopy
C. X ray
D. USG
Answer: A Hysterosalpingography
550. To diagnose uterus didelphys, procedure of choice is:………………….
A. Laparoscopy
B. IVP
C. HSG
D. USG
Answer: D USG
551. X ray’s radiation maximum danger to fetus in…………. trimester
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. All of the above
Answer: A 1st
552. The cervical length is accurately measured by—————–
A. TAS
B. TVS
C. Per speculum examination
D. Per vaginal examination
Answer: B TVS
553. Abdominal circumference of fetus is measured at the level of …….in ultrasonography .
A. Fetal liver
B. Fetal umbilicus
C. Fetal chest
D. Fetal head
Answer: A Fetal liver
554. Amniocentesis is performed under……………guidance .
A. HSG
B. USG
C. Colposcopy
D. ALL
Answer: B USG
555. HSG is contraindicated in ……….
A. PID
B. Uterine bleeding
C. Recent curettage
D. All of the above
Answer: D All of the above
556. Verres needle use in……………..
A. Hysteroscopy
B. HSG
C. Laparoscopy
D. Colposcopy
Answer: C Laparoscopy
557. Fetal 2D ECHO is performed at ……….…..of pregnancy.
A. 24 week
B. 16 week
C. 18 week
D. 20 week
Answer: A 24 week
558. Diagnostic hysteroscopy is performed in………..period.
A. Ovulatory
B. Pre menstrual
C. Menstrual
D. Post menstrual
Answer: D Post menstrual
559. Mass in pelvis detected clinically, following investigations should be done except :
A. CT
B. Laparoscopy
C. Pap smear
D. USG
Answer: B Laparoscopy
560. Colposcope is focused on external os at a distance of
A. 20 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 5 cm
D. 30 cm
Answer: A 20 cm
561. Which of the following sound frequencies would include obgyn ultrasound?
A. 10 hz
B. 10khz
C. 100khz
D. 10mhz
Answer: A 10 hz
562. The fundamental operating principle of medical ultrasound transducers is
A. Snell’s law
B. ALARA principle
C. Piezoelectric effect
D. Impedance effect
Answer: C Piezoelectric effect
563. Anomaly scan done at ………….of pregnancy
A. 26week
B. 30 week
C. 18 week
D. 10 week
Answer: C 18 week
564. Upanaha Sweda is contraindicated for………………….
A. Padashotha
B. Stana Vidradhi
C. Vidradhi
D. None of these
Answer: B Stana Vidradhi
565. Yoni pichu is kept in vagina for period of ——–
A. During two mutravega
B. Overnight
C. Before malavega
D. 8 hours
Answer: A During two mutravega
566. ———is the action of senha pichu on Prathamavarta.
A. Kharatva
B. Rukshtva
C. Chalatva
D. Snehana
Answer: D Snehana
567. ——- Drugs are used for stambhan.
A. Vacha
B. Kutaki, Trikatu
C. Lodhra, Nagkeshar
D. Avipattikar churna
Answer: C Lodhra, Nagkeshar
568. Uttarbasti can be administered by—————
A. Yoni & Basti marg
B. Guda & Mukha marga
C. Mukha & Yoni marga
D. Yoni & Guda marga
Answer: A Yoni & Basti marg
569. Gudvarti is used to treat —————-.
A. Malavashthambha
B. Unmad
C. Apasmar
D. Chardi
Answer: A Malavashthambha
570. The purpose of the lekhan karma is ———
A. Bruhana
B. Langhan
C. Vrushya
D. Shodhan
Answer: D Shodhan
571. In Stana roga, Yogaratnakara mentioned ———–lepa as Shoolaghna.
A. Vandhyakarkotaki moola
B. Vidanga moola
C. Ushira kalka
D. Langali moola
Answer: A Vandhyakarkotaki moola
572. National Family Welfare Programme launched in ————-year in India
A. 1993
B. 1990
C. 1962
D. 1952
Answer: D 1952
573. ———–instrument is used for dilatation of cervix.
A. Sim’s speculum
B. Babcock’s forcep
C. Hegar’s dilator
D. Doyen’s retractor
Answer: C Hegar’s dilator
574. Infertility is failure to conceive within——————–of regular unprotected coitus.
A. 8 months
B. One or more years
C. 6 months
D. 9 months
Answer: B One or more years
575. Kshara karma is indicated in———-
A. Karnini yoni
B. Bahya yoni arsha
C. Prathamavarta arsha
D. All of the above
Answer: D All of the above
576. Primary infertility means patient ————-conceived.
A. Never
B. Once
C. Twice
D. Thrice
Answer: A Never
577. Sim’s speculum is used to retract————-
A. Cervix
B. Bladder
C. Urethra
D. Posterior vaginal wall
Answer: D Posterior vaginal wall
578. Foley’s catheter is ————–
A. Non retaining
B. Bladder guiding
C. Self retaining
D. Dilating bladder
Answer: C Self retaining
579. Parts of the uttarbasti yantra are ———
A. Basti putaka
B. Basti putaka & basti netra
C. Basti netra
D. Eshani
Answer: B Basti putaka & basti netra
580. Yogaratnakara mentioned ——– kalka for garbhanirodhana.
A. Dhatoora mula churna
B. Chandana churna
C. Madanaphala churna
D. Pancha valkala
Answer: A Dhatoora mula churna
581. According to Charak Acharya, ———– is the matra of uttarbasti
A. 1/2 pala sneha
B. 1 pala sneha
C. 3/4thpala sneha
D. 2 pala sneha
Answer: A 1/2 pala sneha
582. According to Charakacharya ——– Varti is used in Kaphaja yonivyapad?
A. Phala Varti
B. Dhooma Varti
C. Pippalyadi Varti
D. Vrana Varti
Answer: C Pippalyadi Varti
583. According Charakacharya ,in Aticharana Yonivyapada- ———-yonidhavana is advised.
A. Guduchi, Triphala, Danti kwatha
B. Gomutra
C. Panchavalkala kwatha
D. Triphala kwatha
Answer: A Guduchi, Triphala, Danti kwatha
584. Uttarbasti is given after—————, as per Charakacharya.
A. 3 aasthapana basti
B. Aasthapana and niruha basti
C. Niruha basti
D. Yoga basti
Answer: A 3 aasthapana basti
585. Panchavalkala kalkadharana is advised in————– yonivyapada, according to Ashtang sangraha
A. Vataja
B. Pittaja
C. Kaphaja
D. Mahayoni
Answer: B Pittaja
586. Yoni dhoopana is indicated in…………
A. Garbha sanga
B. Apara sanga
C. Sutika Awastha
D. All of above
Answer: D All of above
587. According to Sushruta quantity of kwatha for uttarbasti in females is………..
A. One Prasruta
B. Two Prasruta
C. Three Prasuta
D. Four Prasruta
Answer: B Two Prasruta
588. Basti Netra is inserted ……… angula in Apatya-patha, according to Charakacharya.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 2
D. 5
Answer: A 4
589. ———- & Kashyapa have not described uttarbasti.
A. Charaka
B. Vagbhata
C. Bhavaprakash
D. Bhela
Answer: D Bhela
590. ________ pinda is used in Mahayoni, according to Charaka Acharya.
A. Veshwara
B. Ghruta
C. Majja
D. Taila
Answer: A Veshwara
591. Sushruta Acharya advised———- lepa for the treatment of Aparasanga.
A. Nimbapatra
B. Palasha patra
C. Langalimoola
D. Chandana kashta
Answer: C Langalimoola
592. According to Ashtanasangraha, ———– varti is used for anulomana in Garbhini Vibandha.
A. Vrana varti
B. Dhoomavarti
C. Yoni varti
D. Phala varti
Answer: D Phala varti
593. ———-is the cause of stanakilaka.
A. Vajra
B. Gandhak
C. Yashad
D. Parada
Answer: A Vajra
594. ———- dushti is observed in stanarog.
A. Mamsa, rakta
B. Majja, rasa
C. Meda, asthi
D. Rasa, meda
Answer: A Mamsa, rakta
595. “va`NaivaQaana{pacaar” are done in———- , according to Ashtang sangraha
A. Stana arbuda
B. Stana keelaka
C. Stana shopha
D. Stana vidradhi
Answer: D Stana vidradhi
596. Panduta, sheetata,alpavedana & stabdhata are observed in———- stana vidradhi.
A. Pittaj-vataja
B. Vataj-kaphaja
C. Kaphaj
D. Raktaj
Answer: C Kaphaj
597. ———— is Vajra.
A. Kasha
B. Nakha, Asthi, kastha
C. Kha-mala
D. Danta
Answer: B Nakha, Asthi, kastha
598. According to Vagbhataacharya stana rogas are not observed in————–
A. Kanya
B. Garbhini
C. Prasuta
D. Prasavotsuka
Answer: A Kanya
599. Sushrutacharya mentioned——— types of stana vidradhi.
A. 2
B. 5
C. 4
D. 9
Answer: B 5
600. ————-should be given in stanakeelaka, according to Kashyapacharya.
A. Majja pana
B. Ghrutapana
C. Vasapana
D. Tailapana
Answer: B Ghrutapana
601. In case of stana roga, the treatment prescribed for ————- should be given
A. Vidradhi
B. Granthi
C. Arbuda
D. Vrana
Answer: A Vidradhi
602. Causes of infertility are—————
A. Tubal factors
B. Uterine factor
C. Ovarian factors
D. All of the above
Answer: D All of the above
603. “Peau D’Orange” sign is seen in which disease?
A. Mastitis
B. Fibroadenoma
C. CA breast
D. Galactocoele
Answer: C CA breast
604. “naanaavaNa_ r]jaa st~MaavaGaatalaaoivaYamaamahna” is seen in———— abscess?
A. Vataj
B. Pittaj
C. Kaphaj
D. Sannipataj
Answer: D Sannipataj
605. Kashyapacharya explained stanakilak in ———–sthana.
A. Sutra
B. Khila
C. Sharir
D. Nidan
Answer: A Sutra
606. . Stanakilak affects———-
A. Childhood
B. Lactating mothers
C. Age more than 45
D. None of the above
Answer: B Lactating mothers
607. Stanagranthi should be treated like ————
A. Satna kilaka
B. Stana vidradhi
C. Shopha
D. Arsha
Answer: C Shopha
608. Mastitis is —————–
A. Inflammation of Muscle
B. Inflammation of Mammary gland
C. Inflammation of Mandible
D. Inflammation of mouth
Answer: B Inflammation of Mammary gland
609. Cause of Breast abscess is—————
A. Bacterial infection
B. Viral infection
C. Bacterial infection & Viral infection
D. Fungal Infection
Answer: A Bacterial infection
610. According to Sharangshar Samhita , stanya is upadhatu of
A. Rakta
B. Rasa & Rakta
C. Rasa
D. Ahar
Answer: C Rasa
611. Pittaja Stanavidradhi resembles like————
A. Pakwa bilwa Phala
B. Pakwa Udumbara Phala
C. Pakwa Jambu Phala
D. Pakwa Badara Phala
Answer: B Pakwa Udumbara Phala
612. Age of menopause according to Sushruta is……………years.
A. 45
B. 50
C. 55
D. 40
Answer: B 50
613. Shape of the Yonikanda resembles with…………. Phala.
A. Amra
B. Pooga
C. Lakucha
D. Bilva.
Answer: C Lakucha
614. ———— is not a type of Yoni Kanda According to Sharangdhara samhita.
A. Vataja
B. Raktaja
C. Pittaja
D. Sannipataja
Answer: B Raktaja
615. Treatment of Bartholin cyst is ———–.
A. Marsupilization
B. Cauterization
C. Medicinal
D. Radiation.
Answer: A Marsupilization
616. Excision of endometrial polyp is done through…………..
A. Laparoscope
B. Hysteroscope
C. Urethroscope
D. Endoscope
Answer: B Hysteroscope
617. ————is the Asadhya granthi According to Sushrutacharya.
A. Vataj
B. Pittaj
C. Kaphaj
D. Siraj.
Answer: D Siraj.
618. Acharya————-described Arbuda in Shotha Sangraha Aadhya.
A. Vagbhat
B. Bhavprakash
C. Charak
D. Sushrut.
Answer: C Charak
619. Pushpaghni jataharini is mentioned in—————samhita.
A. Kashyapa
B. Sushruta
C. Charaka
D. Vagbhata
Answer: A Kashyapa
620. What is HRT?
A. Hormonal Reducing Therapy
B. Hormonal Rising Therapy
C. Hormonal Replacement Therapy
D. Hormonal Resisting Therapy
Answer: C Hormonal Replacement Therapy
621. Growth of fibroid is predominantly an————-dependent tumour.
A. Oxytocin
B. Prostaglandins
C. Prolactin
D. Oestrogen
Answer: D Oestrogen
622. High prevalence of Ca cervix is due to infection of ———–.
A. HIV
B. HSV
C. HPV
D. CMV
Answer: C HPV
623. Screening test for Ca ovary is ——–.
A. ESR
B. CA – 125
C. Haemogram
D. CRP.
Answer: B CA – 125
624. About 75% Prevalence of Ca endometrium is observed in ———period.
A. Reproductive
B. Adolescent
C. Perimenopausal
D. Peripubertal
Answer: C Perimenopausal
625. Treatment for Stage IA1 Ca cervix, where invasion is less than or equal to 3mm is — ——-.
A. Surgery + radiation
B. Radical hysterectomy
C. Cobalt therapy
D. Chemotherapy
Answer: B Radical hysterectomy
626. Risk of Ca cervix is rare in—————.
A. Nullipara
B. Sexually inactive women
C. Primi para
D. Multipara
Answer: B Sexually inactive women
627. According to Sushruta Acharya ——is asadhya arbuda.
A. Vataja arbuda ,Pittaja arbuda
B. Kaphaja arbuda, Vataja arbuda
C. Pittaja arbuda, Kaphaja arbuda
D. Rakta arbuda, Mamsa arbuda
Answer: D Rakta arbuda, Mamsa arbuda
628. Causative factor of Genital Herpes is ———— .
A. HPV
B. HIV
C. HSV
D. HDV.
Answer: C HSV
629. Sexually transmitted infection during pregnancy can cause ——-.
A. Anaemia
B. PIH
C. GDM
D. Still birth.
Answer: D Still birth.
630. Menopause is the result of cessation of ———— function
A. Renal
B. Ovarian
C. Endometrial
D. Thyroid
Answer: B Ovarian
631. There are ———-types of Yonikanda.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: A 4
632. Without ———-dosha dushti Yonirog did not develope.
A. Vataj
B. Pittaj
C. Kaphaj
D. Sannipataj
Answer: A Vataj
633. Yoniarsha treatment is similar to ———–.
A. Raktagulma
B. Upapluta
C. Upadansha
D. Vataja Yonivyapada
Answer: C Upadansha
634. According to Yogaratnakara ———-siddha taila is used to treat yonikanda
A. Mushak mansa
B. Kukkuta mansa
C. Go mansa
D. Aja mansa
Answer: A Mushak mansa
635. Rajonivritti is a change due to——–
A. Agni
B. Desha
C. Bala
D. Vaya
Answer: D Vaya
636. Shashtra, Kashara, Agni, Aushadhi is Chikitsa for ———–
A. Pandu
B. Prameha
C. Kamala
D. Yoni arsha
Answer: D Yoni arsha
637. Harita Mentioned ————- types of vandhytwa.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: D 6
638. Vandhya yoni is included in Vinshati Yonivyapada according to ————— acharya.
A. Sushruta
B. Charaka
C. Kashyapa
D. Vagbhata
Answer: A Sushruta
639. According to Harita ‘Mritvatsa vandhya’ means ……..
A. Secondary infertility
B. Primary infertility
C. Repeated still births or neonatal death
D. Tubal block
Answer: C Repeated still births or neonatal death
640. Patient unable to conceive after giving birth to one child is ——– vandhya.
A. Garbhastravi
B. Kakvandhya
C. Arajaska
D. Mritvatsa
Answer: B Kakvandhya
641. Repeated first trimester abortions means ………. Vandhya.
A. Mritvatsa
B. Kakavandhya
C. Garbhastravi
D. Bala
Answer: C Garbhastravi
642. The incidence of uterine perforation occurs mostly ———–of IUCD.
A. At the time of insertion
B. 15th day after insertion
C. At the time of removal
D. 30th day after insertion
Answer: A At the time of insertion
643. ————-refers to a condition in which woman in her active reproductive age does not conceive after giving birth to one or more children.
A. Garbhastravi
B. Sapraja
C. Mritvatsa
D. Apraja.
Answer: B Sapraja
644. Shukra falling over———- nadi becomes futile.
A. Chandramasi
B. Gauri
C. Rohini
D. Sameerana
Answer: D Sameerana
645. ————– is beneficial for the garbhadharana
A. Rutukala
B. Raja kala
C. Rituvyatitakala
D. All of these
Answer: A Rutukala
646. …. are the major factors for infertility in women?
A. Age, Anaemia
B. Anovulation, Diabetes
C. Weight , Hypertension
D. Age, weight and Anovulation
Answer: D Age, weight and Anovulation
647. Which of the following are the causes of vandhyatva?
A. Kshetra vikruti
B. Ritu vikriti
C. Beeja vikriti
D. All of the above
Answer: D All of the above
648. Types of vandhya according to Charaka?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 2
Answer: D 2
649. ———– ghrita is praja vardhak.
A. Phala
B. Kalyanaka
C. Mahatiktaka
D. Narayana
Answer: A Phala
650. Ovular pain is termed as—————–
A. Mittleschmerz syndrome
B. Asherman’s syndrome
C. Sheren’s syndrome
D. Morri’s syndrome
Answer: A Mittleschmerz syndrome
651. Premenstrual D & C is done to diagnose ———–.
A. Vaginal polyp
B. Cervical erossion
C. Ovulation
D. Tubal patency.
Answer: C Ovulation
652. Stein & Leventhal described —————–
A. IUGR
B. PCOS
C. PIH
D. GDM
Answer: B PCOS
653. ——is the test for Tubal patency .
A. UPT
B. HCG
C. HSG
D. GTT
Answer: C HSG
654. Structurally abnormal sperms in semen are termed as ———.
A. Necrospermia
B. Asthenospermia
C. Oligospermia
D. Teratozoospermia.
Answer: D Teratozoospermia.
655. The female partner is responsible for infertility in about —— % of cases.
A. 40 – 55
B. 20 – 30
C. 60 – 70
D. 80 – 90.
Answer: A 40 – 55
656. The male partner is responsible for infertility in about —— % of cases.
A. 60-70
B. 70-80
C. 80-90
D. 30 – 40.
Answer: D 30 – 40.
657. Tubal Patency is confirmed by——-
A. CT scan
B. MRI
C. Hysterolaparoscopy
D. X-ray
Answer: C Hysterolaparoscopy
658. Necrozoospermia means————
A. Dead spermatozoa
B. Less sperm count
C. No spermaooa
D. Immotile spermatozoa
Answer: A Dead spermatozoa
659. According to Yogaratnakara, garbhanirodhana is achieved by dharana of ————- at Katipradesha .
A. Pippali
B. Dhatura moola
C. Vidanga
D. Nimba kashta
Answer: B Dhatura moola
660. ——————–is used pervaginally as garbhanirodhaka yoga.
A. Shatavari & ashwagandha churna
B. Trikatu churna
C. Tankan with Saindhav
D. Triphala churna
Answer: C Tankan with Saindhav
661. ——— & Norplant are the subdermal contraceptive implants.
A. Lippes loop
B. Mirena
C. DMPA
D. Implanon
Answer: D Implanon
662. ——–is the hormonal IUCD.
A. Multiload Cu-T 250
B. Lippes loop
C. Mirena
D. Multiload 375
Answer: C Mirena
663. Cu-T 200 releases ———-microgram copper per day.
A. 50
B. 20
C. 35
D. 60
Answer: A 50
664. Tubectomy can be performed through ————-route.
A. Vaginal
B. Vaginal & Abdominal
C. Abdominal
D. None of the above.
Answer: B Vaginal & Abdominal
665. Natural contraception includes———
A. Diaphragm
B. IUCD
C. Mirena
D. Coitus interruptus
Answer: D Coitus interruptus
666. ———–is the permanent contraceptive method in males.
A. Tubectomy
B. Vasectomy
C. Mini Lap
D. POP
Answer: B Vasectomy
667. Absence of spermatozoa in the semen is termed as—–.
A. Nerozoospermia
B. Aspermia
C. Azoospermia
D. Oligospermia
Answer: C Azoospermia
668. The method of tubal ligation is————–.
A. Mcdonald’s
B. Pomeroy’s
C. Shirodkar’s
D. Fothergill’s
Answer: B Pomeroy’s
669. Tubectomy is performed minimum after ——– hrs of delivery in puerperium.
A. 8
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48
Answer: D 48
670. Tibolone is used for the treatment of—————–.
A. Menopause
B. Infertility
C. Leucorrhea
D. Cervicitis
Answer: A Menopause
671. Family welfare programme is important for ———-
A. Poverty control
B. Traffic control
C. Population control
D. Pollution control
Answer: C Population control
672. Rhythm method is———– type of contraception
A. Barrier
B. Natural
C. Surgical
D. Hormonal
Answer: B Natural
673. Which of the following is barrier method of contraception?
A. OC Pills
B. Rhythm
C. Condom
D. Calender
Answer: C Condom