Category: Pulp & Paper Objective Questions

Pulp and Paper MCQs on “Tensile Strength”.

1. _________ is a measure of the amount of material present in an object, that is, the quantity of matter. It is not influenced by gravitational fields, and an object’s mass is constant whether on the earth’s surface or in outer space.
a) Weight
b) Tensile strength
c) Stress
d) Mass
Answer: d
Clarification: Mass is a measure of the amount of material present in an object, that is, the quantity of matter. It isn’t influenced by gravitational fields, and an object’s mass is constant whether on the earth’s surface or in outer space.

2. Force is that which changes the _________of an object.
a) Mass
b) Momentum
c) Shape
d) Order
Answer: b
Clarification: Force is that which changes the motion (that is, the momentum) of an object. (Pressure or stress is force per unit area,) A force may act on a body without changes in motion if an equal force in the opposite direction is also acting.

3. Air is a _________ fluid, it exerts force on a moving object, and when a person in free fall reaches a speed of about 180 ft/s (120 nules per hour), the air resistance force is equal to the force of gravity, and one stops accelerating. This is known as terminal velocity.
a) Non viscous
b) Viscous
c) Constant
d) Gravity free
Answer: b
Clarification: Air is a viscous fluid, it exerts force on a moving object, and when a person in free fall reaches a speed of about 180 ft/s (120 nules per hour), the air resistance force is equal to the force of gravity, and one stops accelerating. This is known as terminal velocity.

4. The _________ of an object depends on its mass, shape, and surface area; the _________of a feather of low mass and high surface area might be substantially less than 1 ft/s.
a) Viscosity
b) Magnitude
c) Density
d) Terminal velocity
Answer: d
Clarification: The terminal velocity of an object depends on its mass, shape, and surface area; the terminal velocity of a feather of low mass and high surface area might be substantially less than 1 ft/s.

5. _________ the measure of the force a gravitational field exerts on an object.
a) Mass
b) Density
c) Stress
d) Weight
Answer: d
Clarification: Weight is the measure of the force a gravitational field exerts on an object. The relationship is: weight = m.g ; that’s, weight equals mass times according of gravity.

6. The tensile strength of black willow is about 15,800 psi parallel to the grain. It has a specific gravity of 0.41. What is its breaking length?
a) 27.1
b) 20.9
c) 16.5
d) 11.2
Answer: a
Clarification: L=15800/0.41×1422=27.1

7. What is the name of the hidden part?
x = __________________ x 981 N. cm^-2 . km^-1
a) Gravity
b) Specific gravity
c) Stress
d) Strain
Answer: b
Clarification: Specific gravity’s the ratio of the density of a substance / density of a reference substance; equivalently, it’s the ratio of the mass of a substance / mass of a reference substance for the same given volume

8. What is the name of the hidden term?
L_km = (________) / (specific gravity x 981 N . cm^-2 km^-1)
a) Tensile strength in psi
b) Tensile strength in MPa
c) Tensile strength in N cm^-2
d) Tensile strength in N m^-2
Answer: c
Clarification: Breaking length’s a way of measuring the strength of a material; it’s the maximum length of a column of a material that can support its own weight if it’s anchored only at the top.

9. What is the name of the hidden part?
L_km = (_________) / (specific gravity x 9.81 MPa . km^-1)
a) Tensile strength in psi
b) Tensile strength in MPa
c) Tensile strength in N cm^-2
d) Tensile strength in N m^-2
Answer: b
Clarification: Self-support length is a way of measuring the strength of a material; it’s the maximum length of a column of a material that could support its own weight if it’s anchored only at the top. For example, the breaking length.

10. What is the name of the hidden part?
L_km = (________) / (specific gravity x 1422 psi . km^-1)
a) Tensile strength in psi
b) Tensile strength in MPa
c) Tensile strength in N cm^-2
d) Tensile strength in N m^-2
Answer: a
Clarification: Breaking length’s a way of measuring the strength of a material; it’s the maximum length of a column of a material that can support its own weight if it’s anchored only at the top.

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Pulp and Paper Multiple Choice Questions on “Colloidal Chemistry”.

1. A colloid is a stable combination of particles of one substance that are dissolved or suspended in a second substance
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The particles have at least one of the principal dimensions (somewhat arbitrarily) from about 1 nm to 1 µm. Colloids include gels, sols, and emulsions.

2. The dispersion medium for the formation of colloids forms a non-continuous phase.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: A colloid may be considered to include the gas, liquid, or solid in which the particles are dispersed in addition to the particles themselves. The dispersion medium forms a continuous phase.

3. An _________ is a sol with the continuous phase a gas. Fog is an _________ of water droplets.
a) Aerosol
b) Emulsion
c) Agglomerate
d) Electrophoresis
Answer: a
Clarification: It’s a colloid of fine solid particles or liquid droplets, in air or another gas. These could be natural or artificial. Fog is an aerosol of water droplets; smoke is an aerosol of solid particles.

4. An _________ is a sol in which the suspended particles are liquid droplets and the continuous phase is also a liquid. The 2 phases are immiscible, otherwise a solution would form.
a) Aerosol
b) Emulsion
c) Agglomerate
d) Electrophoresis
Answer: b
Clarification: It’s a mixture of 2 or more liquids that are normally immiscible. These are the parts of a more general class of two-phase systems of matter named as colloids.

5. A _________ is a sol of solid particles scattered in a liquid. Foam is a colloidal system in which gas bubbles dispersed in a liquid or solid.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Streaming potential
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis
Answer: a
Clarification: A mixture in which mini particles of a substance are dispersed throughout the whole gas or liquid. If a suspension’s left undisturbed, the particles are possible to settle to the bottom.

6. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.
a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) Surface
d) Size
Answer: c
Clarification: The surface—to—volume ratio of a given particle shape is inversely proportional to the length of the principal axis. The surfaces of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.

7. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles abruptly collected into spherical structures called _________
a) Ball
b) Sphere of ions
c) Micelles
d) Dirt particle
Answer: c
Clarification: Micelles are groups of about 20 to several hundred molecules with the non-polar (hydrophobic) hydrocarbon tail toward the centre and the polar (hydrophilic) head toward the surface in contact with water.

8. _________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H₂O in the stationary liquid induced by an external field.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis
Answer: d
Explanation It’s a technique utilized in laboratories in order to separate macro molecules based on size. The technique applies a (–ve) charge so proteins move towards a (+ve).

9. _________ is the charged field generated by charged particles moving in a stationary liquid.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis
Answer: c
Clarification: It happens when scattered particles move under the affects of either gravity or centrifugation in a medium. This motion distorts the stable equilibrium symmetry of the particle’s double layer.

10. _________ is the generation of an electric field by locomotion of the liquid along stationary charged surfaces.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Streaming potential
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis
Answer: b
Clarification: A streaming current and streaming potential are 2 interrelated electro-kinetic phenomena studied in the areas of surface chemistry and electrochemistry. They are the potential which originates when an electrolyte is driven by a pressure gradient through a channel or porous plug with the charged walls.

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Pulp and Paper Multiple Choice Questions on “Bindery Operations”.

1. __________ include anything that must be done before printing in order to complete the printing job.
a) Signatures
b) Scoring
c) Binding operation
d) Saddle
Answer: c
Clarification: Binding and finishing are those activities performed on printed material after printing. It involves the fastening of individual sheets together, while finishing involves additional decorative actions, such as die-stamping, embossing, etc.

2. __________ is the formation of a crease by folding paper around a rounded edge before the actual fold.
a) Signatures
b) Scoring
c) Binding operations
d) Saddle
Answer: b
Clarification: If you are scoring and folding in a single inline operation you need not worry about this. You get instant feedback on the quality and position of the crease. It’s carried out when accuracy folding is required, when folding stock thicker than 5 mil, or when folding coated stock.

3. __________ of straight edges in one direction can be accomplished off press utilizing a knife that alternates with sections of sharp edges and blunt portions.
a) Saddle
b) Drawing
c) Binding operations
d) Perforation
Answer: d
Clarification: The process of creating perforations involves puncturing the work piece with a tool. Many complicated perforations are carried out on the press.

4. __________ are groups of pages that are printed together on a single, flat sheet; they are assembled together for binding.
a) Signatures
b) Scoring
c) Binding operations
d) Saddle
Answer: a
Clarification: A printed sheet with multiple pages on it that is folded so that the pages are in their proper numbered sequence, as in a book. The signature is formed by cutting, folding, and trimming operations.

5. It’s imp. that the lift to be help down tightly while it’s cut. Even so, there is some movement, known as __________ which leads to variation of the cut size.
a) To and fro
b) Draw
c) Sprint
d) Spot
Answer: c
Clarification: Cutting of a stack of paper, the lift, is performed by a sharp, guillotine blade that may cut through 3 inches of paper. Sprint Print’s digital paper cutters are engineered to cut with 100% accuracy.

6. A wide variety of bindings are available for attaching sheets or signatures to form the product.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: A wide variety of bindings are available for attaching sheets or signatures to form the product by Beach in 1993. They differ in appearance, durability, equipment requirements, and cost.

7. Case binding may be square back or round back and utilizes a hard cover (hardbound).
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: This is considered to be the most durable and visually pleasing of the binding methods. The paper M.D. should be parallel to the spline for optimal results.

8. Mechanical binding utilizes wire or __________ through a series of small holes to hold pages together as in spiral notebooks.
a) Plastic
b) Steel
c) Copper
d) Aluminium
Answer: a
Clarification: A plastic comb (G.B.C. is a trade name) and double wire (Wire O is a trade name) are 2 other examples. They are commonly utilized in technical manual.

9. Adhesive when applied to the edges and this is glued to the binding. The remaining 3 edges are trimmed after the adhesive has set. This method is ____________
a) Hardcover books
b) Magazines
c) Pamphlets
d) Paperback books
Answer: d
Clarification: Gathered signatures can be bound by perfect binding. The spine is trimmed so that the edge of each page is exposed.

10. This method of binding usually utilizes a staple that goes from the top to the bottom of the centre of the open work. It is a quick and inexpensive binding commonly utilized for small magazines, catalogs, brochures, and pamphlets. What is the name of the method?
a) Saddle
b) Drawing
c) Binding operations
d) Perforation
Answer: a
Clarification: Saddle—stitch binding utilizes a book binding method in which folded sheets are gathered together one inside the other and then stapled through the fold line with wire staples. The staples pass through the folded crease from the outside and are clinched b/w the centre most pages.

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Pulp and Paper Multiple Choice Questions on “Mechanical Sensors”.

1. __________ sensors are utilised to measure variables such as point, velocity, acceleration, force, press, levels and flow.
a) Humidity
b) Optical
c) Thermal
d) Mechanical
Answer: d
Clarification: Mechanical sensor is an object whose function is to detect changes in its environment, and then provide a corresponding output. It’s a type of transducer; sensors might provide various types of output, but typically utilize electrical or optical signals.

2. __________ sensors rely on a change of capacitance, resistance, inductance, or reluctance.
a) Point
b) Humidity
c) Proximity
d) Thermal
Answer: a
Clarification: A point sensor is any device that permits point measurement. It could either be an absolute point sensor or a relative one (displacement sensor). Point sensors could be linear, angular, or multi-axis.

3. A potentiometric displacement sensor utilizes a wire of high resistance with a wiper in electrical contact with the wire.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: As the object moves across the wire, the resistance of the circuit changes. By measuring the resistance, the point of the object along the wire is known.

4. Variable inductance is achieved by the utilization of __________ core in the shape of a rod which is wraped by a hollow coil of wire.
a) Ferrimagnetic
b) Ferromagnetic
c) Paramagnetic
d) Diamagnetic
Answer: b
Clarification: As the ferromagnetic core enters the coil the inductance of the coil is replaced. With reluctance sensors, the magnetic flux coupling b/w 2 or more coils is varied by a ferromagnetic core. Inductance is a calculation that relates electrical flux to the current.

5. __________ sensors is a type of transformer and are the basis of the prevalent L.V.D.T . The signal is easily conditioned to give out a D.C. voltage that in linearly proportional to point over part of the range of motion of the core.
a) Speed
b) Temperature
c) TIR
d) Reluctance
Answer: d
Clarification: It’s a type of sensor that are the basis of the prevalent L.V.D.T. linear variable differential transformer. The sensitivity could be on the order of 0.001 mm movement.

6. __________ could be utilized as a point sensor by measuring a time pulse of __________ takes to echo back to the transmitter. It is similar in principle to a radar.
a) Radiation
b) Reflection
c) X- ray
d) Ultrasound
Answer: d
Clarification: Ultrasounds are sound waves with frequencies which are greater than the upper audible limit of human hearing. Ultrasound is no different from ‘normal’ (audible) sound in its physical properties, except in that humans couldn’t hear it. Ultrasound devices operate with frequencies from 20 kHz up to several gigahertz.

7. The __________ factor is the relative change in resistance divided by relative change in length i.e., the definition of strain.
a) Screw
b) Gauge
c) Pit
d) Kraft
Answer: b
Clarification: Strain gauge is the ratio of relative change in electrical resistance R, to the mechanical strain ε. Metal strain gauges have a gauge factor of about 2; thus a strain of 0.1% would cautilise a 0.24 Ω change in a 120 Ω strain gauge.

8. If a fluid is at rest, one refers to static _________ If a fluid is in motion, one refers to dynamic _________ which is a function of the motion of the fluid.
a) Pressure
b) Gravitational force
c) Viscosity
d) Density
Answer: a
Clarification: The force applied perpendicular to the surface of an object per unit area over which that force is distributed. Gauge pressure is the pressure relative to the ambient pressure

9. Strain ___________ could be mounted on diaphragms to measure pressure; this method has been miniaturized onto integrated circuits.
a) Sensors
b) Lobes
c) Gauges
d) Gears
Answer: c
Clarification: The most common type of strain gauge consists of an insulating flexible backing which supports a metallic foil pattern. The gauge is attached to the object by a suitable adhesive, such as cyanoacrylate.

10. The temperature of a heated metal filament depends on the gas pressure since the gas molecules could conduct heat from the filament.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Very less pressure i.e., very high vacuums, which signifies a gas phase, requiring specialized techniques. Pressure below 10_-3 could be measured with ionization gauges.

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Pulp and Paper Multiple Choice Questions on “Wood Chip Measurement”.

1. Which is the ideal definition in bulk density?
a) Natural-dry weight of pulp
b) Oven-dry weight of chips
c) Natural-dry weight of chips
d) Oven-dry weight of pulp
Answer: b
Clarification: The bulk density is the oven-dry weight of chips (or sawdust, or other wood residue) contained in a given volume of space.

2. Bulk density of the chips depend on the specific gravity of wood source.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The bulk density is the oven-dry weight of chips (or sawdust, or other wood residue) contained in a given volume of space.

3. Bulk density of the chips depends on the chip geometry.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The bulk density is the oven-dry weight of chips (or sawdust, or other wood residue) contained in a given volume of space.

4. Bulk density of the chips depends on the chip size distribution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The bulk density is the oven-dry weight of chips (or sawdust, or other wood residue) contained in a given volume of space.

5. According to the rule of thumb what is the value of chips yielded by the wood of 1 cubic meters?
a) 3.5 cubic meters
b) 2.6 cubic meters
c) 0.2 cubic meters
d) 6.8 cubic meters
Answer: b
Clarification: Rules of thumb are derived in order to identify an operating window that minimizes the volatilization of metals during thermochemical conversion of CCA in treated wood, while ensuring a good quality of charcoal product.

6. How much a bone dry unit is equal to in sawdust?
a) 3600 lb
b) 12000 lb
c) 2400 lb
d) 8000 lb
Answer: c
Clarification: A bone dry unit is the equal to 2400lb of sawdust.

7. How many units does a bone density unit of packed Douglas chips contain?
a) 400
b) 600
c) 800
d) 200
Answer: d
Clarification: A Bone density unit, B.D.U. of packed Douglas chips occupies approximately 200 cubic feet

8. A Kraft unit is 200 cubic. feet. of wood chips, sawdust, or other wood particles.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: A unit is considered as a mixture of wood chips, sawdust, or other wood particles. It all weighs to 200 cubic feet.

9. One unit of Doughlas-fir or western hemlock sawdust is about __.
a) 10 cubic feet of solid wood
b) 300 cubic feet of solid wood
c) 1000 cubic feet of solid wood
d) 80 cubic feet of solid wood
Answer: d
Clarification: One unit of Douglas-fir or western hemlock sawdust is about 80 cubic feet of solid wood.

10. What is the value of after converting B.D.U. to cubic meter of wood chips.
a) 3.55
b) 2.3598
c) 1.06
d) 6.3
Answer: d
Clarification: Approximate conversion factors of wood 0.45 specific gravity in various forms. It is converted by multiplication action.

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Pulp and Paper Multiple Choice Questions on “Recovery Boiler”.

1. The purpose of the recovery boiler is to recover the inorganic chemicals as smelt, burn the organic chemicals so they are not discharge from the mill as pollutants, and recover the heat of combustion in the form of heat.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The purpose of the recovery boiler is to recover the inorganic chemicals as smelt, burn the organic chemicals so they are not discharge from the mill as pollutants, and recover the heat of combustion in the form of heat. Smelt is sodium carbonate and sodium sulfide.

2. There are three zones in recovery boilers; which are as follows in top to bottom order?
a) Oxidation, drying and reducing zone
b) Reducing, drying and oxidation zone
c) Drying, oxidation and reducing zone
d) Drying, reducing and oxidation zone
Answer: a
Clarification: The upper section is the oxidizing zone, the middle section is the drying zone, and the bottom section is the reducing zone where, in a bottom bed of char, the sulphur compounds are converted to Na₂S.

3. What is the full form of ESP in Recovery boiler?
a) Emergency shutdown point
b) Emergency shutdown procedure
c) Emergency start procedure
d) Emergency shared procedure
Answer: b
Clarification: Due to the possible adverse reaction of molten smelt with water, all recovery boilers have an ESP in the event of trouble.

4. The newest recovery boilers may support 2500-3000 tons of pulp production per day.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The recovery boiler is the largest and the most expensive equipment in the Kraft mill costing over 100 million dollars.

5. Which of the following is the chemical react. in the recovery boiler in addition to combustion?
a) 2NaOH + CO₂U → Na₂CO₂+H₂O and Na₂SO₂ +4C ↔ 6Na₂S + 4CO
b) 2NaOH + CO₂ → Na₂CO₂ and Na₂SO₂+4C ↔ 4CO
c) 2NaOH + CO₂ → Na₂CO₂+H₂O₂ and Na₂SO₂+4C ↔ Na₂S +4CO₂
d) 2NaOH + CO₂ → Na₂CO₂+H₂O and Na₂SO₂+4C ↔ Na₂S +4CO
Answer: d
Clarification: The lower zone is deficient in oxygen, so reduction reaction occurs. This allows the sulfur (S) in the smelt to occur as Na₂S₂O₂ or Na₂SO₂, which could be unsuitable for fresh liquor.

6. Which of the following is the reaction which takes place in the Oxidation zone in the Recovery Boiler?
a) CO+1/2O₂ → CO₂
b) Organics →C+CO+H₂
c) C+H₂O → CO+ H₂
d) 2C+ O₂→2CO
Answer: a
Clarification: Oxygen is made to react with the species. Simple oxidation reaction.

7. Which of the following is the reaction which takes place in the Drying zone in the Recovery Boiler?
a) Organics→C+CO+ H₂
b) CO+1/2 O₂→ CO₂
c) C+ H₂O→CO+ H₂
d) 2C+ O₂→2CO
Answer: a
Clarification: This is the part where black liquor is injected to the system.

8. Which of the following is the reaction which takes place in the Reduction zone in the Recovery Boiler?
a) Na₂SO₂+4C→Na₂S+4 CO
b) 2C+ O₂→2CO
c) CO+1/2 O₂→CO₂
d) H₂S+1/2 O₂→SO₂+ H₂O
Answer: a
Clarification: This is the part where sulfur compounds are converted to Na₂S.

9. Fill in the blank.
thermal efficiency =(__________)/total heat input
a) steam to heat
b) heat to steam
c) heat recovery
d) cogeneration
Answer: b
Clarification: Many of the heat loss has occurred as steam in flue gases from water in black liquor.

10. What is cogeneration?
a) Producing electricity from steam
b) Producing steam from electricity
c) Producing light from steam
d) Producing power from steam
Answer: a
Clarification: Cogeneration is the process of producing electricity from steam and utilizing the waste heat as steam in chemical processes.

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