Category: Pulp & Paper Objective Questions

Pulp and Paper Multiple Choice Questions on “Soda Pulping”.

1. Soda pulping was invented in which country?
a) France
b) England
c) U.S.A
d) Vietnam
Answer: b
Clarification: Soda pulping was invented in England by Burgess and Watts in 1851, uses sodium hydroxide as cooking chemical.

2. Soda pulping uses sodium hydroxide as cooking chemical.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Soda pulping’s a chemical process for making wood pulp with NaOH as the cooking chemical. In the Soda-AQ process, anthraquinone (AQ) may be used as a pulping additive to decrement the carbohydrate degradation.

3. The soda process has limited use for easily pulped materials and for major process.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The soda process has limited use for easily pulped materials like straws and some hardwoods, and for major process.

4. What is used as a pulping additive to decrease carbohydrate de-gradation?
a) Anthraquinone
b) Metaquinone
c) Quadraquinone
d) Doublaquinone
Answer: anthraquinone, also called anthracenedione or dioxoanthracene, is an organic compound with formula C ₁₄H ₈O ₂.

5. What is the recent development in the field of soda pulping?
a) Use of N
b) Use of CO₂
c) Use of Cl
d) Use of oxygen
Answer: d
Clarification: This invention relates to the manufacture of wood pulp and particularly to a two-stage soda pulping process in which the second stage is carried out in the presence of oxygen.

6. The Soda-AQ process, anthraquinone (AQ) might be utilized as a pulping additive to __________ the carbohydrate degradation.
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Maintain
d) Stop
Answer: b
Clarification: The Soda-AQ process, anthraquinone (AQ) are utilized as pulping additive to decrement in the carbohydrate depletion.

7. Around __________ of paper production around whole world is produced from agricultural crops.
a) 5 – 10%
b) 20 – 25%
c) 35 – 45%
d) 55 – 65%
Answers: a
Clarification: Around 5%-10% of paper production in the whole world is produced by agricultural crops which has valued agricultural paper production between $5 billion and $10 billion.

8. Valuing agriculture paper production at between ___________ billion.
a) 5 – 10
b) 15 – 20
c) 25 – 30
d) 45 -50
Answers: a
Clarification: Around 5%-10% of paper production worldwide is produced from agricultural crops, valuing agricultural paper production at between $5 billion and $10 billion.

9. Due to the ease with which bagasse can be chemically pulped, bagasse requires _____________ bleaching chemicals than wood pulp.
a) More
b) Less
c) No
d) 80%
Answers: b
Clarification: Due to the ease with which bagasse can be chemically pulped, it requires less bleaching chemicals than the wood pulp.

10. Moderate amounts of __________ can be controlled with purging lime mud or lime kiln ash.
a) Carbonate
b) Silicate
c) Aluminate
d) Carbonsulfate
Answer: b
Clarification: Silicates’ moderate amount can be controlled with purging lime mud or lime kiln ash.

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Pulp and Paper Assessment Questions and Answers on “Basic Paper Properties”.

1. Measuring strength properties C.D. refers to the test force applied in the machine direction.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: When measuring strength properties C.D. is the test force applied in the cross machine direction.

2. Measuring strength properties M.D. refers to the test force applied in the cross machine direction.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: When measuring strength properties M.D. refers to the test force applied in the machine direction.

3. The paper properties must be measured under standard conditions of temperature and relative humidity since these affect the __________
a) MD
b) CD
c) EMC
d) EHM
Answer: c
Clarification: The moisture content of paper has crucial effect on paper quality; i.e. paper properties must be measured under standard conditions of temperature and relative humidity since these affect the equilibrium moisture content (E.M.C.).

4. Paper should be stored in a hot, dry room before placement in the standard room so that the ___________ of paper approaches its __________ by adsorbing water from the atmosphere.
a) Moisture content and EMC
b) Rate of forward reaction and rate of backward reaction
c) Moisture content and triple point
d) Fusion and fusion point
Answer: a
Clarification: Paper should be stored in a hot, dry room before placement in the standard room so as the moisture content of paper approaches its E.M.C by adsorbing water from the atmosphere.

5. Due to __________ effect, a slightly higher E.M.C. would result if paper approached the E.M.C. for a given relative humidity and temperature, by releasing water.
a) Tyndall effect
b) Hysteresis effect
c) Intermolecular effect
d) Van der waal effect
Answer: b
Clarification: Due to hysteresis effect, a slightly higher E.M.C. would result if paper approached the E.M.C. for a given relative humidity and temperature, by releasing water.

6. It’s crucial to know the rate of __________ gain or loss of paper to achieve equilibrium in order to understand how long it takes to condition samples.
a) Lignin
b) Pulp
c) Moisture
d) Poison
Answer: c
Clarification: It is crucial to know the rate of moisture gain or loss of paper to achieve equilibrium in order to understand how long it takes to condition samples.

7. Paper should be placed in a hot, dry room (20-40°C or 68-105 °F, at 10-35% relative humidity) before placement in the __________
a) Pumping extractor room
b) Radiation room
c) Standard room
d) Recycle room
Answer: c
Clarification: It’s placed in the standard room, so that the moisture content of paper approaches its E.M.C. by adsorbing water from the atmosphere. E.M.C. stands for Equilibrium Moisture Content. Due to the hysteresis effect, a slightly higher E.M.C. will be observed if paper approached the E.M.C. for a given relative humidity and temperature, by giving off H₂O.

8. __________ installed several of his early air conditioning units in textile and printing shops at the turn of this century because of controlling the relative humidity at the time of paper and textile processing.
a) Willis Carrier
b) John Carter
c) William Defoe
d) Willis Defoe
Answer: a
Clarification: Willis Carrier installed many of his early air conditioning units in textile and printing shops at the turn of this century for this exact same reason.

9. The __________ of today, manufactured from bleached kraft pulp, probably behaves somewhere in between kraft wrapping and sulfite derived __________
a) Fine papers
b) Bond papers
c) Greaseproof papers
d) Linerboard
Answer: b
Clarification: The bond paper of today, made from bleached kraft pulp, probably behaves somewhere in between kraft wrapping and sulfite derived bond paper. There’s no such thing as an average paper when it comes to moisture content and the changes in properties as a function of moisture content.

10. This paper uses concoated chemicals on the backside of one sheet that react with a chemical on the front of the adjacent sheet to give color. What is the type of paper?
a) Sulfurless paper
b) Carbonless paper
c) Hydrogenless paper
d) Oxygenless paper
Answer: b
Clarification: Carbonless paper was developed by the 3M company in the 1950s.

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Pulp and Paper Multiple Choice Questions on “Post Dryer Operations”.

1. What is the name of the size press configuration?

a) Vertical size press
b) Horizontal size press
c) Gate roll size press
d) Inclined size press
Answer: a
Clarification: The vertical size press is so called because the rolls are aligned vertically.
The bottom roll picks up size from the tray and deposits it on the underside of the sheet.
The problem with this design is that only one side of the sheet can be sized.

2. What is the name of the size press configuration?

a) Vertical size press
b) Horizontal size press
c) Gate roll size press
d) Inclined size press
Answer: b
Clarification: The horizontal size press is so called because the rolls are aligned horizontally. In this design size can now be applied to both sides of the sheet. The problem with this design is the two right angled turns which damage the sheet structure.

3. What is the name of the size press configuration?

a) Vertical size press
b) Horizontal size press
c) Gate roll size press
d) Inclined size press
Answer: d
Clarification: The inclined size press is so called because the rolls are inclined at an angle of about 45 degrees. In this design size can still be applied to both sides of the sheet. The structural problems of the horizontal size press have been overcome.

4. What is the name of the size press configuration?

a) Vertical size press
b) Horizontal size press
c) Gate roll size press
d) Inclined size press
Answer: c
Clarification: In size press processes, chemicals and coatings are applied to the surface of dried paper. As a check before papermaking, Prescale film L.L.W. is passed through the press without any size liquid applied to check for the presence of wear.

5. The _________ is a series of solid rolls, usually steel or cast iron, mounted horizontally and stacked vertically.
a) Supercalender
b) Calendar stack
c) Reels
d) Surface sizing
Answer: b
Clarification: The calendar stack is a series of solid rolls, usually steel or cast iron, mounted horizontally and stacked vertically. At the time of machine calendaring, the dry paper passes b/w the rolls under pressure, thereby improving the surface smoothness for example, from imperfections caused by felt marks, cockle, lumps, fibrils, etc. and gloss and making the calliper more uniform, if isn’t decrement the calliper and porosity.

6. The bottom roll’s named the_________ It’s usually bigger in diameter than the other rolls and crowned to permit even pressure when loaded on the ends.
a) Lower roll
b) Last roll
c) Queen roll
d) King roll
Answer: d
Clarification: The bottom roll’s known as the king roll. It’s generally bigger in diameter than the other rolls and crowned. It has a larger diameter in the centre to permit even pressure when loaded on the ends.

7. A _________ is similar to the calendar but uses alternate hard and soft, heated rolls.
a) Reel
b) Supercalender
c) King roll
d) calendar stack
Answer: b
Clarification: A supercalender is similar to the calender but uses alternate hard and soft, heated rolls. While considered here for the purpose of comparing it to the calender section, it’s usually utilized off-machine such as after paper coating.

8. The reel is the last unit on the paper machine that collects the paper. The paper is wound on a spool that rotates against a _________
a) Reel
b) Drum
c) Roll
d) Stack
Answer: b
Clarification: The reel is the last unit on the paper machine that collects the paper. The paper is wound on a spool that rotates against a drum.

9. The most common ones used are basis weight calculated by a _________ It measures the absorption by paper of electrons emitted by a radioisotope.
a) Js beta ray detector
b) Gk gamma ray detector
c) Lk alfa ray detector
d) Ms beta ray detector
Answer: a
Clarification: There are a no. of on-line paper tests that can be accomplished and the number is increasing. It measures the absorption by paper of electrons emitted by a radioisotope and moisture content by infrared.

10. Cooling air is supplied through a series of controllable jets across one of the rolls for calliper control in the cross machine direction. This arrangement is known as the _________
a) Tackifier
b) Actuators
c) Calendar
d) Reel
Answer: b
Clarification: Cooling air is supplied through a series of controllable jets across one of the rolls for calliper control in the cross machine direction. This arrangement is known as the actuator.

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Pulp and Paper Multiple Choice Questions on “Selected Reactions of Carbohydrates”.

1. Acid hydrolysis becomes important in the pulp and paper industry whenever we process wood fibers below pH 2 or so at elevated temperatures.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Acid hydrolysis becomes important in the pulp and paper industry whenever we process wood fibers below pH 2 or so at elevated temperatures.

2. If one treats _________ with 6 % w/w aqueous sulfuric acid under reflux, glucose is obtained in high yield with little secondary decomposition.
a) Cellulose
b) Fructose
c) Starch
d) Lignin
Answer: a
Clarification: If one treats cellulose (which has been swelled in 72 % w/w sulfuric acid at room temperature) with 6 % w/w aqueous sulfuric acid under reflux, glucose is obtained in high yield with little secondary decomposition.

3. If _________ are treated with strong acid such as 20% sulfuric acid at high temperatures, they are first hydrolyzed to the component _________
a) Polysaccharides, monosaccharides
b) Monosaccharides, polysaccharides
c) Fructose, cellulose
d) Lignin, pulp
Answer: a
Clarification: If polysaccharides are treated with strong acid such as 20% sulfuric acid at high temperatures, they are first hydrolyzed to the component monosaccharides.

4. One can reduce the reducing end of mono- or polysaccharides by using sodium borohydride (NaBH₄) under _________ conditions at room temperature.
a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Alkaline
d) Neutral
Answer: c
Clarification: One can reduce the reducing end of mono- or polysaccharides by using sodium borohydride (NaBH₄) under alkaline conditions at room temperature.

5. Under conditions of dilute alkali (perhaps 0.1 M NaOH at 100°C) _________ will slowly undergo a reaction that causes C-2 epimerization (a change in configuration of the second carbon atom).
a) Polymers
b) Polysaccharides
c) Monosaccharides
d) Fructose
Answer: c
Clarification: Under conditions of dilute alkali (perhaps 0.1 M NaOH at 100°C) monosaccharides (and the reducing group of polysaccharides) will slowly undergo a reaction that causes C-2 epimerization (a change in configuration of the second carbon atom).

6. What is the name of the question mark area?

a) 25% H₂SO₄, Reflux
b) 6% H₂SO₄, Reflux
c) Dilute OH-
d) Maximum Heat
Answer: c
Clarification: Under conditions of dilute alkali (perhaps 0.1 M NaOH at 100°C) monosaccharides (and the reducing group of polysaccharides) will slowly undergo a reaction that causes C-2 epimerization (a change in configuration of the second carbon atom)

7. What is the name of the question mark area?

a) 25% H₂SO₄, Reflux
b) 6% H₂SO₄, Reflux
c) Dilute OH-
d) Maximum Heat
Answer: a
Clarification: The reaction of hexoses, or polymers of hexoses such as cellulose, starch, and glucomannans, produces 5- (hydroxymethyl)-2-fiirfiiral that is not volatile and undergoes decomposition to levulinic acid and numerous other compounds.

8. What is the name of the question mark area?

a) 25% H₂SO₄, Reflux
b) 6% H₂SO₄, Reflux
c) Dilute OH-
d) Maximum Heat
Answer: a
Clarification: The reaction of hexoses, or polymers of hexoses such as cellulose, starch, and glucomannans, produces 5- (hydroxymethyl)-2-fiirfiiral that is not volatile and undergoes decomposition to levulinic acid and numerous other compounds.

9. What is the name of the question mark area?

a) 25% H₂SO₄, Reflux
b) 6% H₂SO₄, Reflux
c) Dilute OH-
d) Maximum Heat
Answer: b
Clarification: If one treats cellulose (which has been swelled in 72 % w/w sulfuric acid at room temperature) with 6 % w/w aqueous sulfuric acid under reflux, glucose is obtained in high yield with little secondary decomposition.

10. What is the name of the question mark area?

a) 25% H₂SO₄, Reflux
b) 6% H₂SO₄, Reflux
c) Dilute OH-
d) Maximum Heat
Answer: b
Clarification: If one treats cellulose (which has been swelled in 72 % w/w sulfuric acid at room temperature) with 6 % w/w aqueous sulfuric acid under reflux, glucose is obtained in high yield with little secondary decomposition.

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Pulp and Paper Multiple Choice Questions on “Screen Printing and Other Methods”.

1. Screen printing utilizes a ___________ to control the location of the ink.
a) Layer
b) Mask
c) Point
d) Spot
Answer: b
Clarification: Screen printing is a printing method that utilizes a plate (screen mask) that utilizes a screen mesh, which is woven with synthetic fibers or metal fibers. It is a type of stencil printing, which prints on objects by passing ink through the mesh of a screen mask.

2. ___________ is the only commonly utilized stencil printing method utilized. It utilizes a fine mesh screen mounted to a frame.
a) Copper screen printing
b) Zinc screen printing
c) Silk screen printing
d) Linen screen printing
Answer: c
Clarification: It’s is a printing technique whereby a mesh is utilized to transfer ink onto a substrate, except in areas which are made impermeable to the ink by a blocking stencil.

3. The ___________ is held against the surface to be printed, and ink is forced through the ___________ (and supporting screen) with utilize of a squeegee.
a) Pin
b) Stencil
c) Point
d) Impression
Answer: b
Clarification: It’s the process of depositing solder paste on the printed wiring boards (P.W.B.) to establish electrical connections. Then quickly followed by the component placement stage.

4. Mimeographing is the other common method of stencil printing, although it is seldom utilized anymore.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: A thick layer of ink that gives a nice impression on virtually any material is obtained. It’s a low-cost duplicating machine that is put into action by forcing the ink through a stencil onto paper.

5. The ___________ process was introduced by the Xerox company in 1960.
a) Ink jet printer
b) Photocopy
c) Printhead
d) Ribbons
Answer: b
Clarification: An image is produced on a charged drum by means of a light source that scans the surface of the document and, by means of optics, reflects the light to the charged drum.

6. ___________ spray the ink directly through a series of holes onto the surface of paper as the printhead scans back and forth across the paper.
a) Ink jet printer
b) Photocopy
c) Thermal printers
d) Ribbons
Answer: a
Clarification: It’s a type of computer printing that recreates a digital image by propelling droplets of ink onto paper. It’s the most widely utilized printer.

7. ___________ printers utilize a dye from a page size ribbon that vaporizes and condenses on the paper. This method allows a continuous tone of ink intensities to be produced.
a) Dye sublimation
b) Dye freezing
c) Dye evaporation
d) Dye saturation
Answer: a
Clarification: It employs a printing process that utilizes heat to transport dye onto materials such as a plastic, card, paper, or fabric. The sublimation name was first applied because the dye was there to make the transition in the middle of the solid and gas states without going through a liquid stage.

8. ___________ crystals surrounded by ink vibrate, cautilizing a droplet to form and pass through a fine nozzle, a very small electric heater boil the ink to transfer it to the paper.
a) CuSO₄
b) SiO₂
c) Methamphetamine
d) Piezoelectric
Answer: d
Clarification: It’s the ability of certain materials to generate an electric charge in response to applied mechanical stress. Four print heads (or portions of) are utilized for colour printing.

9. ___________ are generally reserved for instrumentation. For example, E.K.G. machines and other “chart recorders,” many FAX receivers, some computer printers, and other devices utilize this method.
a) Ink jet printer
b) Photocopy
c) Thermal printers
d) Ribbons
Answer: c
Clarification: It’s a digital printing process which produces a printed image by selectively heating coated thermochromic paper, when the paper is sent over the thermal print head. The coating turns black in the areas where it’s heated, producing an image.

10. Printing occurs by a ____________ that heats appropriately as it scans. This method has the advantage that ink will not clog in equipment that gets intermittent utilize so that the reliability is greatly improved.
a) Print head
b) Thermal head
c) Pressure head
d) Density head
Answer: a
Clarification: There are 3 areas of the printhead that need to be cleaned: plastic ramps on both the sides of the ink nozzles, the edge in the middle of the nozzles, and the electrical contacts.

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Pulp and Paper Multiple Choice Questions on “Centrifugal Pumps”.

1. The ___________ is the piece that rotates inside the casing to effect pumping. The input of the pump is at the eye and the liquid enters perpendicular to the plane of the ________ in the volute or spiral design.
a) Gear
b) Impeller
c) Lobe
d) Tube
Answer: b
Clarification: Impellers are usually short cylinders with an open inlet to accept incoming fluid, vanes to push the fluid radially, and a splined, keyed, or threaded bore to accept a drive-shaft.

2. Another type of dynamic pump, the _________ pump, utilizes an inline input and output inside a tube shaped houtlising.
a) Gear
b) Impeller
c) Lobe
d) Tube
Answer: b
Clarification: These are also known as propeller pump. These pumps develop most of their pressure by the propelling or lifting action of the vanes on the liquid.

3. Centrifugal pump action is characterized by the pump performance curve.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Centrifugal pump action is characterized by the pump performance curve, upper curve of the graph on the right. The maximum pressure that could be achieved is usually sufficiently low such that a pressure relief valve isn’t required.

4. The maximum pressure that could be achieved is usually sufficiently high such that a pressure relief valve is not required.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Centrifugal pump action is characterized by the pump performance curve upper curve of the graph on the right. The maximum pressure that could be achieved is usually sufficiently low such that a pressure relief valve is not required.

5. The _________ is a function of the height to which the liquid is pumped; the frictional resistance of the pipes, valves, and bends; and the velocity head, the energy required to accelerate the fluid.
a) Pump response
b) System response
c) Pump efficiency
d) System efficiency
Answer: b
Clarification: The static head, which is constant with flow rate; the frictional resistance of the pipes, valves, and bends; and the velocity head, the energy required to accelerate the fluid (the kinetic energy is equal to 0.5 mv2).

6. N.P.S.H. requirements could be _________ by utilizing an inducer, a low head, axial flow impeller utilized in front of the impeller of a centrifugal pump.
a) Reduced
b) Enhanced
c) Barely meet
d) Never be meet
Answer: a
Clarification: N.P.S.H. is particularly relevant inside centrifugal pumps and turbines, which are parts of a hydraulic system that are most vulnerable to cavitation. If cavitation occurs, the drag coefficient of the impeller vanes would increase drastically – possibly stopping flow altogether – and prolonged exposure would damage the impeller.

7. In pulp and paper, flow rates are traditionally controlled by utilize of a pump operating at full power and a _________ valve to impede the flow as necessary.
a) Gate
b) Needle
c) Globe
d) Throttling
Answer: d
Clarification: Globe valves are named for their spherical body shape with the two halves of the body being separated by an internal confusion. This has an opening that forms a seat onto which a movable plug could be screwed in to close the valve. The plug is also known as a disc or disk.

8. Variable speed motors especially N.E.M.A. B squirrel cage A.C. induction motors might be operated by __.
a) Variable frequency drive
b) Direct current
c) 2 horsepower
d) 756 horsepower
Answer: a
Clarification: V.F.Ds are utilised in applications ranging from small appliances to the largest of mine mill drives and compressors. However, around 25% of the world’s electrical energy is consumed by electric motors in industrial applications, which are especially conducive for energy savings utilizing V.F.Ds in centrifugal load service, and V.F.Ds’ global market penetration for all applications is still relatively small.

9. The pump _________ is proportional to propeller diameter for a given rotational speed or the square of the peripheral speed.
a) Efficiency
b) Capacity
c) Usage
d) Location
Answer: b
Clarification: The power consumption varies as the cube of the peripheral speed or propeller diameter for a given rotational speed. Hydraulic pump capacity could be calculated as.
q = 0.26 A s / t
where q = pump output capacity (gpm).
A = area of cylinder in square inches.
s = piston stroke in inches.
t = required time for full stroke.
1 gpm =6.30888×10-5 m3/s

10. _________ are sometimes cut or trimmed in size to reduce output or motor overloading.
a) Gear
b) Impeller
c) Lobe
d) Tube
View Answer

Answer: b
Clarification: When impellers are cut, both the vanes and the shroud should be cut to decrease losses from disk losses, which are proportional to the fifth power of the impeller diameter. The diameter should be selected to ensure that the pressure (head) is not excessive, and the power consumed to provide the required coverage for the anticipated flow range, but not excessively high to overload the motor.

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