250+ TOP MCQs on Ocean Thermal Energy – 1 and Answers

Ocean Energy Multiple Choice Questions on “Ocean Thermal Energy – 1”.

1. What is ocean thermal energy conversion?
a) Harnessing the temperature differences between surface waters and deep ocean waters
b) Harnessing the temperature differences between the coastal waters and deep ocean waters
c) Harnessing the heat energy from the underwater volcanoes
d) Harnessing the heat energy between surface water vapour and atmospheric gases

Answer: a
Clarification: The process of generating energy by using temperature difference (or gradient) varying with depth of seawater is called Ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC). A temperature gradient exists between the surface waters and deep sea waters due to various physical phenomenon.

2. What is the temperature difference used in ocean thermal energy conversion? Note that F denotes Fahrenheit
a) 10 degree F
b) A minimum of 77 degree F
c) Between 50 and 60 degree F
d) A minimum of 100 degree F

Answer: b
Clarification: The temperature difference is at least 77 degree F (or 25 degree C). Ocean thermal energy conversion systems use this temperature difference between the surface and the bed (or deep sea waters) to generate electricity.

3. What is thermohaline circulation?
a) Circulation of halogens throughout the ocean
b) Circulation of halogens due to temperature differences throughout the ocean
c) Large scale ocean circulation driven by global density gradients
d) Large scale halogens circulation due to global density gradients

Answer: c
Clarification: Thermohaline circulation is a constituent of large scale ocean water movement and circulation caused due to global density gradients. The cause for this gradient is heat of the surface and freshwater fluxes. Halogens are group 17 elements in the periodic table and are not related to thermohaline circulation.

4. What is the maximum estimated potential of ocean thermal energy conversion per year?
a) 80 GWh
b) 900 MWh
c) 10000 TWh
d) 88000 TWh

Answer: d
Clarification: Ocean thermal energy conversion is one of the continuously available renewable energy resource. The maximum estimated potential is 880000 TWh per year. In fact, it is strongly believed that this resource could contribute to base-load power supply.

5. How does the cold and denser water masses sink to the depths of ocean?
a) Thermohaline circulation
b) Temperature gradient
c) Density gradient
d) Freshwater fluxes

Answer: a
Clarification: The cold and denser water masses formed by surface water sink to the depths of the ocean by thermohaline circulation. It is circulation of ocean water due to density gradient.

6. Why is ocean thermal energy conversion a renewable resource?
a) Because the temperature gradient lasts for a short period of time
b) Because the upwelling of cold water from the deep ocean is replaced by downwelling of surface waters
c) Because ocean water is available in plenty
d) Because of sun’s heat

Answer: b
Clarification: Ocean thermal energy conversion is a renewable resource because the temperature gradient is continuously restored. This occurs because the upwelling of cold water from the deep ocean is replaced by downwelling of surface waters.

7. Which of the following are types of systems used in ocean thermal energy conversion?
a) Horizontal and vertical
b) Vertical and open cycle
c) Open cycle and closed cycle
d) Horizontal and closed cycle

Answer: c
Clarification: The types of systems used in ocean thermal energy conversion are closed cycle and open cycle systems. Horizontal and vertical are related to turbines used in harnessing tidal and wind energy.

8. Which of the following is used as working fluid in closed cycle oceanic thermal energy conversion systems?
a) Thermohaline circulation
b) Temperature gradient
c) Greenhouse gases
d) Refrigerants

Answer: d
Clarification: Closed cycle oceanic thermal energy conversion systems use refrigerants like ammonia as working fluids. These fluids have low boiling points and are suitable to power the generator thereby producing electricity.

9. Rankine Cycle is the most commonly used heat cycle for ocean thermal energy conversion.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Rankine Cycle is the most commonly used heat cycle for ocean thermal energy conversion. It is a model used to predict the performance of a steam turbine and was also used to study reciprocating steam engines.

10. _______ turbine is used in closed cycle ocean thermal energy conversion.
a) Horizontal
b) Low-pressure
c) High-pressure
d) Vertical

Answer: b
Clarification: Low-pressure turbines are used in closed cycle ocean thermal energy conversion. These systems use the Rankine heat cycle to generate electricity.

11. Open cycle ocean thermal energy conversion systems use _____ as the working fluid.
a) vapour from rivers
b) water from rivers
c) vapour from seawater
d) seawater

Answer: c
Clarification: Open cycle ocean thermal energy conversion systems use vapour from seawater as the working fluid. Unlike the closed cycle ocean thermal conversion systems, the working fluids are not thought as refrigerants.

12. What is the byproduct of an ocean thermal energy conversion system?
a) Electricity
b) Clean water
c) Water vapour
d) Cold water

Answer: d
Clarification: Ocean thermal energy conversion systems supply cold water as their by-product. These can be used for air conditioning and refrigeration. Electricity is the primary product.

13. Where is the world’s only operating ocean thermal energy conversion plant located?
a) Japan
b) United States
c) China
d) Korea

Answer: a
Clarification: Ocean thermal energy conversion was first developed in the 1880s. The world’s only operating ocean thermal energy conversion plant is located in Japan. The plant is overseen by Saga University.

14. Which of the following best describes the working of an ocean thermal energy conversion plant?
a) Oceanic water → evaporator → turbine/generator → electricity
b) Warm surface oceanic water → evaporator containing working fluid → turbine/generator → electricity
c) Cold surface oceanic water → electricity → evaporator containing working fluid → turbine/generator
d) Cold deep oceanic water → electricity → evaporator containing working fluid → turbine/generator

Answer: b
Clarification: Warm surface oceanic water is passed through an evaporator containing the working fluid. The vapourized fluid drives the turbine/generator thereby generating electricity. Deep oceanic water is not used as it’s cold.

15. The vapourized fluid in an ocean thermal energy conversion system is converted back into working liquid.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: The vapourized fluid in an ocean thermal energy conversion system is converted back into working liquid by passing it through a condenser. By using the deep oceanic cold water, the temperature of the condenser is maintained so as to cool the vapourized fluid.

250+ TOP MCQs on World Energy Status -1 and Answers

Renewable Energy Multiple Choice Questions on “World Energy Status -1”.

1. Which of the following best describes world energy consumption?
a) Total energy produced and used by humanity
b) Total energy consumed by humanity
c) Total energy consumed by humans in the biological pyramid
d) Total energy produced by humans in the biological pyramid
Answer: a
Clarification: World energy consumption is the total energy produced and used by humanity. It includes all energy harnessed from every source.

2. Which of the following is NOT included in world energy consumption?
a) Solar energy
b) Energy from food
c) Energy from wind
d) Energy from fossil fuels
Answer: b
Clarification: Energy from food is not included in world energy consumption. Since the energy consumption from biomass is difficult to calculate, it has not been well-documented.

3. World energy consumption is measured _______
a) quarterly
b) half-yearly
c) yearly
d) every decade
Answer: c
Clarification: World energy consumption is generally measured year. It involves all energy harnessed from every possible energy source towards humanity’s endeavors.

4. Which of the following energy sources is majorly used?
a) Wind energy
b) Nuclear energy
c) Hydrogen energy
d) Fossil fuels
Answer: d
Clarification: Burning fossil fuels supplies more than 80 percent of world’s energy. It is the major cause of some of the world’s pressing problems like global warming and climate change.

5. Which of the following is perceived to contribute towards world population growth?
a) Uganda
b) USA
c) UK
d) Germany
Answer: a
Clarification: Developing countries like Uganda, Botswana, India, China, etc. are perceived to contribute towards immense growth of world population. This is because of poverty and high infant mortality rate.

6. Why is there a demand for renewable sources of energy?
a) Because they emit greenhouse gases
b) Because of low or zero carbon footprint
c) Because of the decreasing global temperatures
d) Because they are more efficient
Answer: b
Clarification: Renewable energy sources are required because they have zero or extremely low carbon footprint. Thus, greenhouse gas emissions from such sources are negligible as compared to fossil fuels.

7. As the population grows, the demand for energy ________
a) decreases
b) remains the same
c) increases
d) becomes volatile
Answer: c
Clarification: As world population increases, the demand for energy increases. This is because energy demand and consumption per capita increases.

8. Which of the following countries will experience a major increment in energy demand?
a) USA
b) France
c) UK
d) China
Answer: d
Clarification: China will experience a major increment in energy demand. China is the most populated country in the world and its population is expected to increase. Moreover, China is a developing country. Though the Chinese government have taken steps to curb the growth, catering to the demands of the existing population is extremely challenging.

9. Despite significant investments in renewable sector, why are fossil fuels still used?
a) Because of logistic, structural and operational issues
b) Because people do not trust the renewable sector
c) Because fossil fuels are cheap
d) Because global warming is a hoax
Answer: a
Clarification: Despite significant investments in renewable energy sector, fossil fuels still dominate and supply 80% of world’s energy. This is mainly because of logistic, structural and operational issues. For instance, it is a financial challenge to replace the existing machinery.

10. Which of the following institutions publish energy data?
a) NASA
b) International Energy Agency (IEA)
c) ISRO
d) Microsoft
Answer: b
Clarification: Institutions such as the International Energy Agency (IEA), the U.S. Energy Information Administration (EIA) and the European Environment Agency (EEA) publish energy data. NASA and ISRO are space agencies. Microsoft is a for-profit software solution company.

11. What is total primary energy supply?
a) Total energy produced and used by humanity
b) Total energy consumed by humanity
c) Sum of energy production minus storage changes
d) Sum of energy production including storage changes
Answer: c
Clarification: Total primary energy supply (TPES) is the sum of energy production minus storage changes. TPES can be used as an estimator for energy consumption as yearly changes in energy storage are negligible.

12. What is the unit of total primary energy supply?
a) Watts
b) Joules
c) Newtons
d) Watt-hours
Answer: d
Clarification: Total primary energy supply (TPES) is measured in watt-hours (Wh). In 2013, IEA estimated that TPES was 157.5 petawatt hours. Watts is the unit of power. Joules is the unit of energy. Newtons is the unit of force.

13. What was the growth in energy demand in the year 2018 as stated by IEA?
a) 2.3%
b) 1.3%
c) 1%
d) 0.5%
Answer: a
Clarification: In 2018, the growth in energy demand was 2.3%. This was remarkable because until then the average annual growth rate was 1.3%. Emissions also increase as the demand for energy increases.

14. World energy consumption is a power source metric of civilization.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: World energy consumption is a power source metric of civilization. It has deep implications for humanity in terms of policy making and political decisions.

15. It estimated that the world energy consumption will grow by 50% between 2018 and 2050.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: It is estimated that the world energy consumption will grow by 50% between 2018 and 2050. Many renowned energy organizations like IEA and EIA agree with this estimate. This is to cater to the demands of growing population.

250+ TOP MCQs on Solar Collectors – 1 and Answers

Solar Energy Multiple Choice Questions on “Solar Collectors – 1”.

1. What is a solar collector?
a) A system to collect heat by absorbing sunlight
b) A system to collect rainwater using sunlight
c) A system to collect electricity by using sunlight
d) A device to reflect sunlight back
Answer: a
Clarification: A solar collector is a system to collect heat by absorbing sunlight and use it for various applications. It is neither a system to collect rainwater nor electricity. However, it could be used to perform such processes.

2. What is aperture area in a solar collector?
a) Area of the system
b) Area in the receiver that receives the solar radiation
c) Area occupied by the system after installation
d) Cross-sectional area of the receiver
Answer: b
Clarification: Aperture area of a receiver is that area which receives the solar radiation. It need not be same as the entire size of the receiver. It is not same as the area occupied by the system after installation.

3. Aperture area of a solar collector is roughly equal to _______
a) Coolant area
b) Generator area
c) Absorber area
d) System area
Answer: c
Clarification: In a solar collector, the aperture area is approximately equal to absorber area. This enables absorption of (almost) all the sunlight that is incident on the aperture area.

4. What are the components of a flat plate collector?
a) Flat box, a plate with reflective coating and fluid circulation passageways, an opaque cover, a circulating fluid
b) Flat box, a dark coloured plate with fluid circulation passageways, an opaque, a circulating fluid
c) Flat box, a dark coloured plate with fluid circulation passageways, a transparent cover
d) Flat box, a dark coloured plate fluid circulation passageways, a transparent cover, a circulating fluid
Answer: d
Clarification: A flat plate solar collector consists of various components. Firstly, it consists of a flat box or an enclosure to hold the entire setup. A dark coloured plate is fitted with fluid circulation passageways and transparent cover. Finally, a circulating fluid which flows through the entire setup.

5. Why is a transparent cover used in a flat plate collector?
a) To maximize transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
b) To minimize transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
c) To entirely reflect the incident sunlight back
d) To ensure partial transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
Answer: a
Clarification: A transparent cover is used in a flat plate collector. This is because it maximizes the transmission of the incident sunlight into the box thereby collecting maximum sunlight for thermal energy.

6. Which of the following is generally used as circulating fluid in tropical and sub-tropical climates?
a) A mixture of ethylene glycol and water
b) Water
c) A mixture of propylene glycol and water
d) Glycerol
Answer: b
Clarification: Water is used as circulating fluid in tropical and sub-tropical climates. This is because it has good properties as a coolant. A mixture of water with ethylene glycol or glycerol or propylene glycol is not used as coolant in tropical and sub-tropical climates.

7. Which of the following is generally used as circulating fluid in freezing climates?
a) Liquid carbon dioxide
b) Water
c) A mixture of propylene glycol and water
d) Liquid nitrogen
Answer: c
Clarification: In freezing climates, antifreeze solution like a mixture of water with propylene glycol or ethylene glycol or glycerol is used as coolants. Liquid carbon dioxide, water and liquid nitrogen are not used as coolants in freezing climates.

8. Why are antifreeze solutions (antifreeze agents with water) used as coolants in freezing climates?
a) To increase boiling point of water
b) To decrease boiling point of water
c) To increase freezing point of water
d) To decrease freezing point water
Answer: d
Clarification: Antifreeze solution is used as coolants in freezing climates. This is because they decrease the freezing point of water thereby preventing it from solidifying into ice.

9. Adding antifreeze agents to water _________
a) increases its durability as coolant
b) decreases its durability as coolant
c) turns water into a coolant
d) prevents water from acting as a coolant
Answer: a
Clarification: Adding antifreeze agents to water increases its durability as coolant. This is because it depresses the freezing point of water and prevents it from becoming ice.

10. Which of the following is a circulating fluid in evacuated flat-plate solar collectors?
a) Water
b) Steam
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: b
Clarification: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors are a more recent technology. It uses steam as its circulating fluid. Nitrogen and hydrogen are not used as circulating fluid. Water is mainly used in flat-plat collectors.

11. Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors are a type of _______
a) concentrating collectors
b) photovoltaic technology
c) non-concentrating collectors
d) solar stills
Answer: c
Clarification: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors are a type of non-concentrating collectors. Solar stills and photovoltaic technology are not solar collectors.

12. Which of the following are used as absorbers in evacuated-tube solar collectors?
a) Carbon tubes
b) Wooden or metallic tubes
c) Plastic or glass tubes
d) Metallic or glass tubes
Answer: d
Clarification: Metallic or glass tubes are used as absorbers in evacuated-tube solar collectors. Wood and plastic are thermal insulators and hence, cannot be used to create passageways for the heat carrying circulating fluid.

13. What is a heat pipe?
a) A heat-transfer device
b) A pipe made of heat
c) A pipe that consists of heat
d) A heat pumping device
Answer: a
Clarification: A heat pipe is a heat-transfer device. It combines the principles of thermal conductivity and phase transition to effectively transfer heat between two solid interfaces.

14. For better efficiency, solar collectors do not coat their transparent cover with an anti-reflective coating.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: For better efficiency, solar collectors coat their transparent cover with an anti-reflective coating. The anti-reflective coating reduces the amount of reflection dramatically. Thus, the amount of sunlight collected is increased.

15. Evacuated tube solar collectors use a glass tube to surround absorber with high vacuum.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Evacuated tube solar collectors use a glass tube to surround absorber with high vacuum. This is used to effectively resist atmospheric pressure and reduce conductive and convective losses.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Nature of Winds and Answers

Wind Energy Multiple Choice Questions & on “Nature of Winds”.

1. What is the definition of wind?
a) Air in net motion
b) Air in motion
c) Gas molecules in random motion
d) Stationary gas molecules

Answer: a
Clarification: Wind is better defined as air in net motion. On a microscopic level, gas molecules are always in a random motion and are not visible to the naked eye. In fact, motion of individual gas molecules cannot be sensed by our senses. Thus, gas molecules are never stationary.

2. Which of the following involves studying the physics of wind flow?
a) Microbial fuel cells
b) Fluid dynamics
c) Combustion
d) Polymer science

Answer: b
Clarification: Fluid dynamics involves the studies of wind motion and its underlying physics. Fluids consists of both, liquids and gases. Hence, wind is also a fluid because it consists of gas molecules.

3. Which of the following best describes the motion of air on earth?
a) A two-dimensional vector
b) A one-dimensional vector
c) A three-dimensional vector
d) A four-dimensional vector

Answer: c
Clarification: The motion of air on earth is best described as a three-dimensional vector. It is also important to note that air motion is typically described and studied relative to earth’s rotation.

4. Which of the following are the three individual components/dimensions best used to describe air motion on earth?
a) A meridional component pointing south-to-north, a zonal component pointing north-to-east, a vertical upward component pointing from ground to sky
b) A zonal component pointing south-to-north, a meridional component pointing west-to-east and downward component pointing from sky to ground
c) A meridional component pointing north-to-south, a zonal component pointing east-to-south, a vertical upward component pointing from ground to sky
d) A meridional component pointing south-to-north, a zonal component pointing west-to-east, a vertical upward component pointing from ground to sky

Answer: d
Clarification: The three individual components that correspond to the three dimensions are – a meridional component pointing south-to-north, a zonal component pointing west-to-east and a vertical upward component pointing from ground to sky.

5. Which of the following devices indicate wind direction?
a) Weather vanes, windsocks
b) Multimeter, oscilloscope
c) Accelerometer
d) Wind’s direction cannot be measured

Answer: a
Clarification: The direction of wind is generally indicated by weather vanes, windsocks and balloons. Multimeters and oscilloscopes are electronic instruments used to measure voltage and current. Accelerometer is a device that measures a body’s acceleration.

6. What is geostrophic wind?
a) Wind generated due to disbalance between wind forces and Coriolis force
b) Wind generated due to balance between pressure gradient force and Coriolis force
c) A special wind generated from geothermal energy
d) Wind flowing in stratosphere

Answer: b
Clarification: Geostrophic wind is the wind generated due to balance between pressure gradient force and Coriolis force. It occurs above the atmospheric boundary layer (ABL).

7. What are eddies in wind?
a) Areas where the global wind blows opposite to that of the net direction of wind-motion
b) Areas where the local wind blows in the same direction as the net direction of wind-motion
c) Areas where the local wind blows opposite to that of the net direction of wind-motion
d) Areas where the local wind blows randomly to that of the net direction of wind-motion

Answer: c
Clarification: Eddies are small areas where the local wind blows opposite to that of the net direction of wind-motion for a short period of time. Eddies are always local in nature and do not occur globally.

8. The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in Northern Hemisphere until ______
a) equilibrium of forces is not achieved
b) gas molecules stop moving
c) water vapour evaporates
d) equilibrium of forces is achieved

Answer: d
Clarification: The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in Northern Hemisphere until an equilibrium is achieved. The equilibrium is between the pressure gradient of the wind and the Coriolis force.

9. Wind speed is measure by ______
a) anemometers
b) odometers
c) ammeter
d) weather vanes

Answer: a
Clarification: Anemometers are used to measure wind speeds. They are commonly used in weather stations. Odometers measure distance of a wheeled vehicle. Ammeters measure current and weather vanes are used to indicate the direction of wind.

10. What is wind speed?
a) Net molecular flux along the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number density
b) Molecular flux along the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number density
c) Net molecular flux along the wind axis divided by molecular number density
d) Molecular flux opposite the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number density

Answer: a
Clarification: Wind speed is defined as the net molecular flux along the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number density. Flux is the number of molecules crossing a unit area (square meter) in a unit time (second). Mean molecular number density is the number of molecules per cubic meter.

250+ TOP MCQs on Usable Forms of Biomass, their Composition and Fuel Properties – 2 and Answers

Biomass Energy Questions on “Usable Forms of Biomass, their Composition and Fuel Properties – 1″.

1. What is cellulose made up of?
a) Polysaccharide
b) Steel
c) Carbon nano fibre
d) Silicon

Answer: a
Clarification: Cellulose is a complex polymer, or polysaccharide. Polysaccharide is made up of glucose, a six carbon sugar. Steel is used in industries to manufacture various things like automobile bodies, etc. Silicon is used in manufacturing glass and in semiconductor industry.

2. Why is cellulose resistant to hydrolysis?
a) Because it consists of polysaccharides
b) Because it has a crystalline structure
c) Because it is hydrophobic
d) Because it is a polymer

Answer: b
Clarification: Cellulose is resistant to hydrolysis because of its crystalline made up of polysaccharide. Hydrolysis the chemical reaction that releases simple, fermentable sugars from polysaccharide.

3. Hemicellulose is a source of biomass accounting from 20% to 40% by ________
a) volume
b) moles
c) weight
d) molarity

Answer: c
Clarification: Hemicellulose is another major source of biomass. It accounts from 20 – 40% by weight and is the next best source after cellulose. It is a complex polysaccharide made from 5 to 6 carbon sugars.

4. Why does burning biomass not add to greenhouse gas emissions?
a) Because it is a clean source
b) Because it absorbs greenhouse gases to burn
c) Because it releases the same amount of greenhouses gas as burning fossil fuel does
d) Because it releases greenhouse gas that was captured and converted into other forms during its growth

Answer: d
Clarification: Burning biomass does not add to greenhouse gas emissions because it does not release any additional amount. Instead, it released the same amount of gas that was captured and converted to other forms during its growth.

5. What are the two types of moisture content in biomass?
a) Intrinsic and extrinsic
b) Higher heating value and lower heating value
c) Lower heating value and extrinsic
d) Higher heating value and intrinsic

Answer: a
Clarification: Moisture content is one of the main properties of biomass. The two types of moisture content are intrinsic moisture content and extrinsic moisture content. Heating value talks about the total amount of energy available in the fuel.

6. What is intrinsic moisture content in biomass?
a) Moisture content of the material with the moisture content in atmosphere
b) Moisture content of the material without the influence of weather effects
c) Moisture content of the material with the influence of weather effects
d) Moisture content of the material without the moisture content in atmosphere

Answer: b
Clarification: Intrinsic moisture content is the moisture content in biomass without the influence of weather effects. It does not depend on the amount of moisture content present in the atmosphere.

7. What is extrinsic moisture content?
a) Moisture content of the material with the moisture content in atmosphere
b) Moisture content of the material without the influence of weather effects
c) Moisture content of the material with the influence of weather effects
d) Moisture content evaporated to the atmosphere

Answer: c
Clarification: Extrinsic moisture content of biomass is the moisture content due to influence of weather conditions. It is essentially the amount of moisture absorbed from the atmosphere due to changes in weather.

8. Which of the following is a problem for using biomass as a source of energy?
a) Less moisture content in the atmosphere during time of harvesting
b) Low calorific value
c) Low intrinsic silica content
d) High moisture content in the surroundings

Answer: d
Clarification: High moisture content or an increase in moisture content is a problem for biomass combustion. This is because, the amount of energy that can be used for applications is significantly reduced due to absorption of moisture. The heat used to burn the fuel will first be used to evaporate the water vapour thereby leading to excess use of resources.

9. What is calorific value (CV) of a material?
a) Amount of energy content or heat value released by the material when burnt in air
b) Amount of energy content or heat value released by the material when burnt in water
c) Amount of energy content or heat value absorbed by the material when burnt in air
d) Amount of energy content or heat value absorbed by the material when burnt in water

Answer: a
Clarification: Calorific value is another important property that indicates how good is the biomass. It is the amount of energy content or heat value released by the material when burnt in air. Burning or combustion is usually not done in water.

10. What is the volatile matter in biomass?
a) The content in biomass that remains after heating
b) The content in biomass that is driven off as gas by heating
c) The biomass that is being heated
d) The moisture content in biomass

Answer: b
Clarification: Volatile matter is that content in biomass which is driven off as gad by heating. It also includes the water vapour. Moisture content present in biomass is not volatile matter by itself. When it turns into water vapour, it can be called as volatile matter.

11. What is fixed carbon content in biomass?
a) The carbon content in biomass
b) The carbon content that is fixed in biomass and cannot be changed
c) The content in biomass that is driven off as gas by heating
d) The mass that remains after the releases of volatile matter on heating the biomass

Answer: d
Clarification: Fixed carbon content is the mass that remains after the releases of volatile matter on heating the biomass. Since it is fixed and not released as gas, it is called fixed carbon content.

12. A biomass feedstock with a high cellulose/hemi-cellulose is needed to produce ethanol.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: For the production of ethanol, a biomass feedstock with a high cellulose/hemi-cellulose content is chosen. This is because it provides a high l/t yield.

13. Ash is the residue content is the solid residue after chemical breakdown of biomass.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: The chemical breakdown either by thermo-chemical or bio-chemical processes of biomass produces a solid residue. When the residue is produced by combustion in air, it is called ash.

14. In a bio-chemical process, the solid residue represents ________ present in biomass.
a) the quantity of biodegradable carbon
b) the quantity of biodegradable potassium
c) the quantity of non-biodegradable carbon
d) the quantity of biodegradable sodium

Answer: c
Clarification: In a bio-chemical process, the solid residue represents the quantity of non-biodegradable carbon present in biomass. It specifically talks about carbon and not any other element.

15. Which of the following is most impacted by the bulk-density of the biomass as-produced?
a) Calorific value
b) Storage of the fuel after processing
c) Heating value
d) Transportation and fuel storage costs

Answer: d
Clarification: Transportation and fuel storage costs are most impacted by the bulk density or volume of the biomass as-produced. These costs are before processing the fuel to produce energy. Calorific and heating value are not affected by bulk density.

250+ TOP MCQs on Ocean Thermal Energy and Answers

Ocean Energy Questions for Exams on “Ocean Thermal Energy”.

1. What type of working fluids do closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) systems use?
a) Low boiling point fluids at atmospheric pressure
b) High boiling point fluids at atmospheric pressure
c) Low boiling point fluids at 100 bar
d) High boiling point fluids at 100 bar

Answer: a
Clarification: Closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion systems use low boiling point fluids at atmospheric pressure. An example of a low boiling point at atmospheric pressure is ammonia with a boiling point around -33 degree Celsius.

2. What is the warm surface seawater pumped through in a closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) system?
a) Heat compressor
b) Heat exchanger
c) Fluid compressor
d) Turbine

Answer: b
Clarification: The warm surface seawater is pumped through a heat exchanger in a closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion system. This is to vapourise the working fluid to run the turbine.

3. How is the vapourised working fluid condensed in a closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion system?
a) Warm surface seawater
b) Fresh warm water
c) Cold water from deep ocean
d) Fresh cold water

Answer: c
Clarification: The vapourised working fluid is condensed using the cold water from deep ocean in a closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion system. The cold water is pumped through a second heat exchanger to perform condensation.

4. Which of the following organisations developed the “mini OTEC”?
a) CERN
b) NASA
c) ISRO
d) Natural Energy Laboratory

Answer: d
Clarification: In 1979, the Natural Energy Laboratory and several private-sector partners developed the “mini OTEC” experiment. They successfully produced electrical power from a closed-cycle OTEC on the Hawaiian coast.

5. The open-cycle OTEC uses working fluid.
a) False
b) True

Answer: a
Clarification: The open-cycle OTEC does not use a working fluid. It directly uses the warm surface seawater to produce electricity.

6. Which of the following best describes the open-cycle OTEC?
a) Warm surface seawater → heat exchanger → working fluid → turbine
b) Warm surface seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator
c) Deep seawater → heat exchanger → working fluid → turbine
d) Deep seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator

Answer: b
Clarification: In an open-cycle OTEC, the warm surface seawater is first pumped into a low-pressure container. Then this fluid is used to drive the turbine to generate electricity.

7. Why does an open-cycle OTEC use low-pressure container?
a) To solidify the warm surface seawater
b) To evaporate the deep seawater
c) To boil and evaporate the warm surface seawater
d) To solidify the warm surface seawater

Answer: c
Clarification: Open-cycle OTEC uses a low-pressure container to boil the warm surface seawater. Due to decrease in pressure, the seawater boils and expands to form vapour. This vapour is then used to drive the turbines to generate electricity.

8. Which of the following produces desalinized fresh water?
a) Closed-cycle OTEC
b) Fracking
c) Ammonia
d) Open-cycle OTEC

Answer: d
Clarification: Open-cycle OTEC produces desalinized fresh water because it directly uses the warm surface water to drive the turbines. Closed-cycle OTEC does not use the warm surface seawater directly. Ammonia is used as working fluid in closed-cycle OTEC.

9. Why does open-cycle OTEC produce desalinized fresh water?
a) Because the vapourised surface seawater leaves all the salts and contaminants in the low-pressure container
b) Because of the working fluid
c) Because the warm surface seawater is mixed with deep ocean water
d) Because of thermohaline circulation

Answer: a
Clarification: Open-cycle OTECH produces desalinized fresh water because the vapourized surface seawater leaves all the salts and contaminants in the low-pressure container. Since the vapour is pure, it generates desalinized fresh water on condensation.

10. Where is the desalinized fresh water used?
a) Sent back into ocean
b) Used for irrigation and aquaculture
c) Used to generate electricity
d) Used to generate tides

Answer: b
Clarification: Desalinized fresh water has many applications. It is suitable for irrigation and aquaculture. On further processing, it could also be used for drinking purposes. It is not used to generate electricity and tides.

11. Which of the following best describes hybrid ocean thermal energy conversion?
a) Warm surface seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator
b) Deep seawater → vacuum chamber → flash-evaporated → steam vapourises ammonia → turbine
c) Warm surface seawater → vacuum chamber → flash-evaporated → steam vapourises ammonia → turbine
d) Deep seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator

Answer: c
Clarification: In hybrid OTEC, warm surface seawater is pumped into a vacuum chamber. Due to low pressure, the water boils and expands into vapour. This vapour is then used to vapourise the working fluid which runs the turbine.

12. How does hybrid OTEC provide desalinized water?
a) By evaporating the warm surface seawater
b) By solidifying the warm surface seawater
c) By condensing the steam generated from deep seawater
d) By condensing the steam generated from warm surface seawater

Answer: d
Clarification: Hybrid ocean thermal energy conversion systems generate desalinized water by condensing the steam generated from warm surface seawater. Due to low pressure in vacuum chamber, the incoming surface seawater is vapourised to generate steam. This steam does not contain salts and contaminants as it is left behind in the chamber.

13. Which of the following is a good choice for working fluid?
a) CFCs
b) Steam
c) Surface seawater
d) Deep seawater

Answer: a
Clarification: CFCs are a good choice for working fluid. Unlike ammonia, they are not toxic or flammable. However, they contribute to ozone layer depletion.

14. As the vapour pressure of working fluid increases the size of turbine ________
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) first increases then decreases

Answer: b
Clarification: As the vapour pressure of working fluid increases the size of turbine and heat exchanger decreases. The power plant size is dependent upon the vapour pressure of the working fluid.

15. The wall thickness of pipes used to transport the vapour increases as the vapour pressure of working fluid increases.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: The wall thickness of pipes used to transport the vapour increases as the vapour pressure of working fluid increases. This is because these pipes need to support the vapours without breaking apart.