300 Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions MCQs

Software Engineering MCQs and Answers

1. What are the characteristics of software?

A. Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classical sense.
B. Software doesn’t “ wear out ”.
C. Software can be custom built or custom builD.
D. All mentioned above

Answer: All mentioned above

2. Compilers, Editors software come under which type of software?

A. System software
B. Application software
C. Scientific software
D. None of the above.

Answer: System software

3. Software Engineering is defined as systematic, disciplined and quantifiable approach for the development, operation and maintenance of software.

A. True
B. False

Answer: True

4. RAD Software process model stands for _____ .

A. Rapid Application Development.
B. Relative Application Development.
C. Rapid Application Design.
D. Recent Application Development.

Answer: Rapid Application Development.

5. Software project management comprises of a number of activities, which contains _________.

A. Project planning
B. Scope management
C. Project estimation
D. All mentioned above

Answer: All mentioned above

6. COCOMO stands for ______ .

A. COnsumed COst MOdel
B. COnstructive COst MOdel
C. COmmon COntrol MOdel
D. COmposition COst MOdel

Answer: COnstructive COst MOdel

7. Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement Specification (SRS. document?

A. Functional Requirement.
B. Nonfunctional Requirement.
C. Goals of implementation.
D. Algorithm for software implementation.

Answer: Algorithm for software implementation.

8. What is the simplest model of software development paradigm?

A. Spiral model
B. Big Bang model
C. V-model
D. Waterfall model

Answer: Waterfall model

9. Which of the following is the understanding of software product limitations, learning system related problems or changes to be done in existing systems beforehand, identifying and addressing the impact of project on organization and personnel etc?

A. Software Design
B. Feasibility Study
C. Requirement Gathering
D. System Analysis

Answer: System Analysis

10. Which design identifies the software as a system with many components interacting with each other?

A. Architectural design
B. High-level design
C. Detailed design
D. Both B & C

Answer: Architectural design

 

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING Multiple Choice Questions
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING Multiple Choice Questions

11. Software consists of ______ .

A. Set of instructions + operating procedures
B. Programs + documentation + operating procedures
C. Programs + hardware manuals
D. Set of programs

Answer: Programs + documentation + operating procedures

12. Which is the most important feature of spiral model?

A. Quality management
B. Risk management
C. Performance management
D. Efficiency management

Answer: Risk management

13. If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS. has only one interpretation, SRS is said to be correct _____ .

A. Unambiguous
B. Consistent
C. Verifiable
D. None of the above

Answer: Unambiguous

14. Which is not a step of Requirement Engineering?

A. Requirements elicitation
B. Requirements analysis
C. Requirements design
D. Requirements documentation

Answer: Requirements design

15. FAST stands for ________ .

A. Functional Application Specification Technique
B. Fast Application Specification Technique
C. Facilitated Application Specification Technique
D. None of the above

Answer: Facilitated Application Specification Technique

16. The level at which the software uses scarce resources is ______ .

A. Reliability
B. Efficiency
C. Portability
D. All of the above

Answer: Efficiency

17. Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing environment is called __________ .

A. Adaptive maintenance
B. Corrective maintenance
C. Perfective maintenance
D. Preventive maintenance

Answer: Adaptive maintenance

18. If every requirement can be checked by a cost-effective process, then the SRS is _________ .

A. Verifiable
B. Traceable
C. Modifiable
D. Complete

Answer: Verifiable

19. Aggregation represents ______ .

A. is_a relationship
B. part_of relationship
C. composed_of relationship
D. none of above

Answer: composed_of relationship

20. If P is risk probability, L is loss, then Risk Exposure (RE. is computed as_____ .

A. RE = P/L
B. RE = P + L
C. RE = P*L
D. RE = 2* P *L

Answer: RE = P*L

21. Number of clauses used in ISO 9001 to specify quality system requirements are _____ .

A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 28

Answer: 20

22. ER model shows the _______ .

A. Static view
B. Functional view
C. Dynamic view
D. All the above

Answer: Static view

23. IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for _______ .

A. Software Requirement Specification
B. Software design
C. Testing
D. Both (A. and (B)

Answer: Software Requirement Specification

24. One of the fault base testing techniques is ______ .

A. Unit Testing
B. Beta Testing
C. Stress Testing
D. Mutation Testing

Answer: Mutation Testing

25. If the objects focus on the problem domain, then we are concerned with ______.

A. Object Oriented Analysis
B. Object Oriented Design
C. Object Oriented Analysis and Design
D. None of the above

Answer: Object Oriented Analysis

26. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to:

i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project

A. ii is True; i, iii, iv and v are False
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
C. ii and iii are True; i, iv are False
D. ii, iii and iv are True; i is false

Answer: i,ii,iii are true and iv is false

27. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase?

A. Creating test suites from the test cases
B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
C. Comparing actual results
D. Designing the Tests

Answer: Designing the Tests

28. The Test Cases Derived from use cases _______ .

A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system.
B. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system.
C. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system.
D. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level.

Answer: Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system.

29. What can static analysis NOT find?

A. The use of a variable before it has been defineD.
B. Unreachable (“dead”. code.
C. Memory leaks.
D. Array bound violations.

Answer: Memory leaks.

30. Which plan describes how the skills and experience of the project team members will be developed ?

A. HR Plan
B. Manager Plan
C. Team Plan
D. Staff Development Plan

Answer: Staff Development Plan

31. Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of _______ .

A. Acceptance testing
B. Integration testing
C. System Testing
D. Unit testing

Answer: Acceptance testing

32. The model in which the requirements are implemented by its category is ______ .

A. Evolutionary Development Model
B. Waterfall Model
C. Prototyping
D. Iterative Enhancement Model

Answer: Evolutionary Development Model

33. A COCOMO model is ________ .

A. Common Cost Estimation Model.
B. Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
C. Complete Cost Estimation Model.
D. Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model

Answer: Constructive Cost Estimation Model.

34. SRD stands for _______ .

A. Software Requirements Definition
B. Structured Requirements Definition
C. Software Requirements Diagram
D. Structured Requirements Diagram

Answer: Structured Requirements Definition

35. The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called _______ .

A. CASE Tools
B. CAME tools
C. CAQE tools
D. CARE tools

Answer: CASE Tools

36. Which defect amplification model is used to illustrate the generation and detection of errors during the preliminary steps of a software engineering process?

A. Design
B. Detailed design
C. Coding
D. All mentioned above

Answer: All mentioned above

37. Which method is used for evaluating the expression that passes the function as an argument?

A. Strict evaluation
B. Recursion
C. Calculus
D. Pure functions

Answer: Strict evaluation

38. Which factors affect the probable consequences if a risk occur?

A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk monitoring
C. Risk timing
D. Contingency planning

Answer: Risk timing

39. Staff turnover, poor communication with the customer are risks that are extrapolated from past experience are called _____ .

A. Business risks
B. Predictable risks
C. Project risks
D. Technical risks

Answer: Predictable risks

40. Organization can have in-house inspection, direct involvement of users and release of beta version are few of them and it also includes usability, compatibility, user acceptance etC. is called ______ .

A. Task analysis
B. GUI requirement gathering
C. GUI design & implementation
D. Testing

Answer: Testing

41. Which project is undertaken as a consequence of a specific customer request?

A. Concept development projects
B. Application enhancement projects
C. New application development projects
D. Application maintenance projects

Answer: New application development projects

42. Requirement engineering process includes which of these steps?

A. Feasibility study
B. Requirement Gathering
C. Software Requirement specification & Validation
D. All mentioned above

Answer: All mentioned above

43. Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that may cause an entire system to fall.

A. True
B. False

Answer: True

44. Give the disadvantages of modularization.

A. Smaller components are easier to maintain
B. Program can be divided based on functional aspects
C. Desired level of abstraction can be brought in the program
D. None of the above

Answer: None of the above

45. Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s. What are those four P’s?

A. People, performance, payment, product
B. People, product, process, project
C. People, product, performance, project
D. All of the above.

Answer: People, product, process, project

46. Give the Real-world factors affecting maintenance Cost.

A. As technology advances, it becomes costly to maintain old software.
B. The standard age of any software is considered up to 10 to 15 years.
C. Most maintenance engineers are newbie and use trial and error method to rectify problem.
D. All mentioned above

Answer: All mentioned above

47. Mention any two indirect measures of product.

A. Quality
B. Efficiency
C. Accuracy
D. Both A and B
e. Both B and C

Answer: Both A and B

48. Which testing is the re-execution of some subset of tests that have already been conducted to ensure the changes that are not propagated?

A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Integration testing
D. Thread-based testing

Answer: Regression testing

49. State if the following are true for Project Management.

During Project Scope management, it is necessary to –

1. Define the scope
2. Decide its verification and control
3. Divide the project into various smaller parts for ease of management.
4. Verify the scope

A. True
B. False

Answer: True

50. Software Requirement Specification (SRS. is also known as specification of _______.

A. White box testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integrated testing
D. Black box testing

Answer: Black box testing

51. Which of the following is/are considered stakeholder in the software process?

A. Customers
B. End-users
C. Project managers
D. All of the above.

Answer: All of the above.

52. Software components provide interfaces, which can be used to establish communication among different components.

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: Yes

53. Which SDLC activity does the user initiates the request for a desired software product?

A. Requirement gathering
B. Implementation
C. Disposition
D. Communication

Answer: Communication

54. In Risk management process what makes a note of all possible risks, that may occur in the project?

A. Manage
B. Monitor
C. Categorize
D. Identification

Answer: Identification

55. What is a measure of how well a computer system facilities learning?

A. Usability
B. Functionality
C. Reliability
D. None of the above

Answer: Usability

56. The process togather the software requirements from Client, Analyze and Document is known as ______ .

A. Requirement engineering process
B. Requirement elicitation process
C. User interface requirements
D. Software system analyst

Answer: Requirement engineering process

57. Refinement is actually a process of elaboration.

A. True
B. False

Answer: True

58. Who manages the effects of change throughout the software process?

A. Software project tracking and control
B. Software configuration management
C. Measurement
D. Technical reviews

Answer: Software configuration management

59. When elements of module are grouped together that are executed sequentially in order to perform a task, is called ______ .

A. Procedural cohesion
B. Logical cohesion
C. Emporal cohesion
D. Co-incidental cohesion

Answer: Procedural cohesion

60. Which coupling is also known as “Global coupling”?

A. Content coupling
B. Stamp coupling
C. Data coupling
D. Common coupling

Answer: Common coupling

61. What is the detailed sequence of steps that describes the interaction between the user and the application?

A. Scenario scripts
B. Support classes
C. Key classes
D. Subsystems

Answer: Scenario scripts

62. Which risks identify Potential Design, Implementation, Interface, Verification and Maintenance Problems?

A. Project risk
B. Business risk
C. Technical risk
D. Schedule risk

Answer: Technical risk

63. Abbreviate the term BSS.

A. Box Structure Specification
B. Box Statistical Specification
C. Box Statistical System
D. Box Structure Sampling

Answer: Box Structure Specification

64. What is the testing to ensure the WebApp properly interfaces with other applications or databases?

A. Compatibility
B. Interoperability
C. Performance
D. Security

Answer: Interoperability

65. Which Variation control in the context of software engineering involves controlling variation?

A. Process applied
B. Resources expended
C. Product quality attributes
D. All mentioned above

Answer: All mentioned above

66. Which classes represent data stores (e.g., a database. that will persist beyond the execution of the software?

A. Process classes
B. System classes
C. Persistent classes
D. User interface classes

Answer: Persistent classes

67. Abbreviate the term CMMI.

A. Capability Maturity Model Integration
B. Capability Model Maturity Integration
C. Capability Maturity Model Instructions
D. Capability Model Maturity Instructions

Answer: Capability Maturity Model Integration

68. First level of prototype is evaluated by ______ .

A. Developer
B. Tester
C. User
D. System Analyst

Answer: User

69. Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers?

A. Process
B. Manufacturing
C. Methods
D. Tools

Answer: Manufacturing

70. Line of code(LOC. of the product comes under which type of measures?

A. Indirect measures
B. Direct measures
C. Coding
D. None of the above.

Answer: Direct measures

71. What is the main aim of Software engineering?

A. Reliable software
B. Cost effective software
C. Reliable and cost effective software
D. None of the above

Answer: Reliable and cost effective software

72. Choose the correct option according to the given statement.

Statement 1: Software is a physical rather than a logical system element.
Statement 2: Computer software is the product that software engineers design and builD.
Statement 3: Software is a logical rather than a physical system element.
Statement 4: Software is a set of application programs that are built by software engineers.

A. Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
B. Only Statement 2 and 3 are correct.
C. Statement 2 and 3 and 4 are correct.
D. All statements are correct

Answer: Statement 2 and 3 and 4 are correct.

73. You are working in CareerRide as a project manager. What will you do to minimize the risk of software failure?

A. Request a large budget
B. You will increase the team size
C. Track progress
D. None of the above.

Answer: Track progress

74. Constantine suggests four “organizational paradigms” for software engineering teams. The best project team organizational model to use when handling extremely complex problems is ________ .

A. Random paradigm
B. Open paradigm
C. Synchronous paradigm
D. Closed paradigm

Answer: Random paradigm

75. For the best Software model suitable for the project, in which of the phase the developers decide a roadmap for project plan?

A. Software Design
B. System Analysis
C. Coding
D. Testing

Answer: System Analysis

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING Objective Questions with Answers

76. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project?

A. Only performance.
B. Only context.
C. Information objectives, function, performance
D. None of the above.

Answer: Information objectives, function, performance

77. Which level of sub-system is used of an application?

A. Application level
B. Component level
C. Modules level
D. None of the above

Answer: Component level

78. SDLC is not a well-defined, structured sequence of stages in software engineering to develop the intended software product.

A. True
B. False

Answer: False

79. In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W. Boehm?

A. Putnam model
B. COCOMO
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

Answer: COCOMO

80. From the following select the correct option that is used to display the available option for selection.

A. Check-box
B. Text-box
C. Button
D. Radio-Button

Answer: Radio-Button

81. CMM model in Software Engineering is a technique of ______ .

A. Develop the software.
B. Improve the software process.
C. Improve the testing process.
D. All of the above.

Answer: Improve the software process.

82. Transformers is one of the broad category used to classify operations.

A. True
B. False

Answer: False

83. The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called as ______ .

A. CASE Tools
B. CAME tools
C. CAQE tools
D. CARE tools

Answer: CASE Tools

84. Which is not a step of Requirement Engineering?

A. Requirements elicitation
B. Requirements analysis
C. Requirements design
D. Requirements documentation

Answer: Requirements design

85. Which of the level carries out goal, objective, work tasks, work products and other activities of the software process?

A. Performed
B. INCOMPLETE
C. Optimized
D. Quantitatively Managed

Answer: Performed

86. If you have no clue of how to improve the process for the quality software which model is used?

A. A Continuous model
B. A Staged model
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

Answer: A Staged model

87. In Software validation, requirements can be checked against following conditions:

1. If they can be practically implemented
2. If they are valid and as per functionality and domain of software
3. If there are any ambiguities
4. If they are completed

A. True
B. False

Answer: True

88. In OOD, the attributes(data variables. and methods( operation on the datA. are bundled together is called _______ .

A. Classes
B. Objects
C. Encapsulation
D. Inheritance

Answer: Encapsulation

89. Which design defines the logical structure of each module and their interfaces that is used to communicate with other modules?

A. High-level designs
B. Architectural designs
C. Detailed design
D. All mentioned above

Answer: Detailed design

90. Which tools are used in Implementation, Testing and Maintenance?

A. Upper case tools
B. Lower case tools
C. Integrated case tools
D. None of the above

Answer: Lower case tools

91. Which tools are used for project planning, cost, effort estimation, project scheduling and resource planning?

A. Process modeling tools
B. Project management tools
C. Diagram tools
D. Documentation tools

Answer: Project management tools

92. Which design deals with the implementation part in which it shows a system and its sub-systems in the previous two designs?

A. Architectural design
B. High-level design
C. Detailed design
D. Both A & B

Answer: Detailed design

93. Modularization is a technique to divide a software system into multiple discrete and independent modules.

A. True
B. False

Answer: True

94. What is the project and process level that provides the Quality Metric benefit?

A. Defect amplification
B. Defect removal efficiency
C. Measuring quality
D. All mentioned above

Answer: Defect removal efficiency

95. Cohesion metrics and coupling metrics are metrics in which level of design?

A. User interface design
B. Pattern-based design
C. Architectural design
D. Component-level design

Answer: Component-level design

96. Which condition defines the circumstances for a particular operation is valid?

A. Postcondition
B. Precondition
C. Invariant
D. None of the above

Answer: Precondition

97. Which subsystem implements a repository that encompasses the following elements,

1. Content database
2. Database capabilities
3. Configuration management functions

A. The publishing subsystem
B. The management subsystem
C. The collection subsystem
D. None of the above

Answer: The management subsystem

98. Which is not a SQA activity?

A. Black box testing
B. White box testing
C. Integration testing
D. Unit testing

Answer: White box testing

99. PAD is metric indicates the number of classes that can access another class attributes and a violation of encapsulation.

A. True
B. False

Answer: True

100. Find out which phase is not available in SDLC?

A. Coding
B. Testing
C. Maintenance
D. Abstraction

Answer: Abstraction

101. From the following, which software has been characterized by ‘Number Crunching’ Algorithms?

A. System software
B. Artificial intelligence software
C. Embedded software
D. Engineering and scientific software

Answer: Engineering and scientific software

102. IEEE provides a standard as IEEE 830-1993. For which activity this standard is recommended standard?

A. Software requirement specification.
B. Software design.
C. Testing.
D. Both a and b

Answer: Software requirement specification.

103. A generic process framework for software engineering encompasses five activities. What are those activities?

A. Communication, risk management, measurement, production, deployment.
B. Communication, Planning, Modeling, construction, deployment.
C. Analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance
D. None of the above.

Answer: Communication, Planning, Modeling, construction, deployment.

104. Who deliver the technical skills that are necessary to engineer for a product or an application?

A. Project managers
B. Practitioners
C. Customers
D. End users

Answer: Practitioners

105. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A. Spiral model.
B. Waterfall model.
C. Prototyping model
D. None of the above.

Answer: Spiral model.

106. What is a child window that contains message for the user and request for some action to be taken?

A. Dialogue box
B. Text-Box
C. Check-Box
D. Radio Button

Answer: Dialogue box

107. A Project can be characterized as _____ .

A. Every project may not have a unique and distinct goal.
B. Project is routine activity or day-to-day operations.
C. Project does not comes with a start time and end time.
D. All mentioned above.
e. None of the above.
Answer: None of the above.

108. Which model is not suitable for large software projects but good one for learning and experimenting?

A. Big Bang model
B. Spiral model
C. Iterative model
D. Waterfall model

Answer: Big Bang model

109. Which includes modifications and updations done in order to correct or fix the problems, that are either discovered by user or concluded by user error reports?

A. Perfective maintenance
B. Adaptive maintenance
C. Corrective maintenance
D. Preventive maintenance

Answer: Corrective maintenance

110. Boehm suggests an approach that addresses project objectives, milestones and schedules, responsibilities, management and technical approaches and required resources, This principle is called as ______ .

A. W3HH principle
B. WHO principle
C. W5HH principle
D. None of the above.

Answer: W5HH principle

111. The objective for formal technical review is to core errors in software work products.

A. True
B. False

Answer: False

112. CASE tools are set of automated software application programs, that are not used to support, accelerate and smoothen the SDLC activities.

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: No

113. From the following give three major categories of risk,
1. Schedule risk
2. Project risk
3. Technical risk
4. Business risk

A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 4
D. 1,3 and 4

Answer: 2,3 and 4

114. Activities and action taken on the data are represented by circle or round-edged rectangles is called _____ .

A. Entities
B. Process
C. Data storage
D. Data flow

Answer: Process

115. The six sigma for software engineering what gives the existing process and its output to determine the current quality performance?

A. Define
B. Analyze
C. Measure
D. None of the above

Answer: Measure

116. Which tools are helpful in all the stages of SDLC, for requirement gathering to testing and documentation?

A. Upper case tools
B. Lower case tools
C. Integrated case tools
D. None of the above

Answer: Integrated case tools

117. OOD languages provide a mechanism where methods performing similar tasks but vary in arguments, and that can be assigned to the same name is called _____ .

A. Classes
B. Object
C. Polymorphism
D. Encapsulation

Answer: Polymorphism

118. Abbreviate the term SMI.

A. Software Maturity Index
B. Software Model Instruction
C. Software Maturity Instruction
D. Software Model Index

Answer: Software Maturity Index

119. What computer-based system can have a profound effect on the design that is chosen and also the implementation approach will be applied?

A. Scenario-based elements
B. Class-based elements
C. Behavioural elements
D. Flow-oriented elements

Answer: Behavioural elements

120. SRS is a document created by system analyst after the requirements are collected from various stakeholders.

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: Yes

121. Which structures in Organizational Paradigms on a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team members?

A. Closed paradigm
B. Open paradigm
C. Random paradigm
D. Synchronous paradigm

Answer: Random paradigm

122. Give the name to diagram that represents the flow of activities described by the use cases and at the same time the captors are involved in UML .

A. State diagram
B. Swim lane diagram
C. Activity diagram
D. Component diagram

Answer: Swim lane diagram

123. Which phase is refers to the support phase of software development?

A. Acceptance Phase.
B. Testing.
C. Maintenance.
D. None of the above.

Answer: Maintenance.

124. Which model is also called as the classic life cycle or the Waterfall model?

A. Iterative Development
B. Linear Sequential Development
C. RAD Model.
D. Incremental Development

Answer: Linear Sequential Development

125. What is the average effective global activity rate in an evolving E-type system is invariant over the lifetime of the product?

A. Self-regulation
B. Reducing quality
C. Feedback systems
D. Organizational stability

Answer: Organizational stability

126. Which document is created by system analyst after the requirements are collected from Various stakeholders?

A. Software requirement specification
B. Software requirement validation
C. Feasibility study
D. Requirement Gathering

Answer: Software requirement specification

127. Which is focused towards the goal of the organization?

A. Feasibility study
B. Requirement gathering
C. Software requirement specification
D. Software requirement validation

Answer: Feasibility study

128. The architectural model is derived from which of these sources?

A. Information about the application domain for the software to be built;
B. Specific requirements model elements such as data flow diagrams or analysis classes, their relationships and collaborations for the problem at hand;
C. The availability of architectural styles and patterns.

A. Both A & B
B. Both B & C
C. Both A & C
D. All mentioned above

Answer: All mentioned above

129. What is the correctness, completeness, and consistency of the requirements model will have a strong influence on the quality of all work products that follow?

A. Requirement quality
B. Design quality
C. Code quality
D. Quality control effectiveness

Answer: Requirement quality

130. An entity in ER Model is a real world being, which has some properties called_____ .

A. Attributes
B. Relationship
C. Domain
D. None of the above

Answer: Attributes

131. Waht is the most common measure for correctness?

A. Defects per KLOC
B. Errors per KLOC
C. $ per KLOC
D. Pages of documentation per KLOC

Answer: Defects per KLOC

132. Which documentation works as a key tool for software designer, developer and their test team is to carry out their respective tasks?

A. Requirement documentation
B. User documentation
C. Software design documentation
D. Technical documentation

Answer: Requirement documentation

133. Which tools are used in implementation,testing and maintenance?

A. Upper case tools
B. Integrated case tools
C. Lower case tools
D. None of the above

Answer: Lower case tools

134. Which risk gives the degree of uncertainty and the project schedule will be maintained so that the product will be delivered in time?

A. Business risk
B. Technical risk
C. Schedule risk
D. Project risk

Answer: Schedule risk

135. You are working in CareerRide as a project manager. Company wants to develop a project. You are also involved in planning team. What will be your first step in project planning?

A. Establish the objectives and scope of the product.
B. Determine the project constraints.
C. Select the team.
D. None of the above.

Answer: Establish the objectives and scope of the product.

136. Configuration management is an essential part of the system maintenance. It is aided with version control tools to control versions, semi-version or patch management.

A. True
B. False

Answer: True

137. Which model is also known as Verification and validation model?

A. Waterfall model
B. Big Bang model
C. V-model
D. Spiral model

Answer: V-model

138. Software project management is the process of managing all activities that are involved in software development, they are _____ .

A. Time
B. Cost
C. Quality management
D. All mentioned above

Answer: All mentioned above

139. A small picture representing an associated application, what does it mean?

A. Icon
B. Window
C. Menu
D. Cursor

Answer: Icon

140. What is the meaning of requirement elicitation in software engineering?

A. Gathering of requirement.
B. Understanding of requirement.
C. Getting the requirements from client.
D. All of the above.

Answer: All of the above.

141. Which of the following is/are Project Estimation Technique?

A. Empirical Estimation Technique.
B. Heuristic Estimation Technique.
C. Analytical Estimation Technique.
D. All of the above.

Answer: All of the above.

142. The maximum number of objects that can participate in a relationship is called________ .

A. Cardinality
B. Attributes
C. Operations
D. Transformers

Answer: Cardinality

143. What is legacy system?

A. A legacy system refers to newer version of software.
B. A legacy system refers to outdated application software that is used instead of available upgraded versions.
C. A legacy system always devolved by advance technology.
D. None of the above.

Answer: A legacy system refers to outdated application software that is used instead of available upgraded versions.

144. Which of the following cannot be applied with the software according to Software Engineering Layers?

A. Process
B. Methods
C. Manufacturing
D. None of the above.

Answer: Manufacturing

145. Which software is used to control products and systems for the consumer and industrial markets?

A. System software
B. Artificial intelligence software
C. Embedded software
D. Engineering and scientific software

Answer: Embedded software

146. Which software enables the program to adequately manipulate information?

A. Instructions
B. Data Structures
C. Documents
D. All of the above

Answer: Data Structures

147. Which coding element is generally omitted at the end of line?

A. Naming conventions
B. Identifying
C. Whitespace
D. Operators

Answer: Whitespace

148. The rules of writing ‘if-then-else’, ‘case-switch’, ‘while-until’ and ‘for’ control flow statements are called _____ .

A. Comments
B. Functions
C. Line length and wrapping
D. Control Structure

Answer: Control Structure

149. If an application allows executing multiple instances of itself, they appear on the screen as separate windows are called ______ .

A. Window
B. Tabs
C. Menu
D. Cursor

Answer: Tabs

150. Match the List 1 to List 2 and choose the correct option.

1. Requirement Elicitation ——- A. Module Development and integration.
2. Design——————————B. Analysis
3. Implementation——————C. Structure and behavioral
4. Maintenance ——————— D. Performance tuning.

A. 1-c , 2-a , 3-d , 4-b
B. 1-c , 2-a , 3-b , 4-d
C. 1-a , 2-c , 3-d , 4-b
D. 1-b , 2-c , 3-a , 4-d

Answer: 1-b , 2-c , 3-a , 4-d

151. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Sandwich testing
D. Thread-based testing

Answer: Thread-based testing

152. In which elicitation process the developers discuss with the client and end users and know their expectations from the software?

A. Requirement gathering
B. Organizing requirements
C. Negotiation & discussion
D. Documentation

Answer: Requirement gathering

153. If requirements are easily understandable and defined then which model is best suited?

A. Spiral model
B. Waterfall model
C. Prototyping model
D. None of the above

Answer: Waterfall model

154. Which Software-end factors affecting maintenance Cost?

A. Structure of Software Program
B. Programming Language
C. Dependence on external environment
D. All mentioned above
e. None of the above

Answer: All mentioned above

155. Software quality assurance is an umbrella activity.

A. True
B. False

Answer: True

156. Software process and improvement are assessed by ____.

A. ISO 9000
B. ISO 9001
C. SPICE (ISO/IEC15504)
D. Both B and C

Answer: Both B and C

157. CASE Tool stands for.

A. Computer Aided Software Engineering
B. Component Aided Software Engineering
C. Constructive Aided Software Engineering
D. Computer Analysis Software Engineering

Answer: Computer Aided Software Engineering

158. Software is defined as ____ .

A. Instructions
B. Data Structures
C. Documents
D. All of the above

Answer: All of the above

159. During security testing the tester plays the role of the individual who desires to______ .

A. Penetrates the system
B. Penetrates the listener
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

Answer: Penetrates the system

160. Which of the following is not a section in the standard for SQA plans recommended by IEEE?

A. Budget
B. Time
C. People
D. None of the above

Answer: Budget

161. Which box specifies the behavior of a system or a part of a system?

A. State box
B. Clear box
C. Black box
D. None of the above

Answer: Black box

162. FAST stands for ______ .

A. Facilitated Application Software Technique.
B. Functional Application Software Technique.
C. Facilitated Application Specification Technique.
D. None of the above.

Answer: Facilitated Application Specification Technique.

163. Which may be estimated either in terms of KLOC (Kilo Line of Code. or by calculating number of function points in the software?

A. Time estimation
B. Effort estimation
C. Cost estimation
D. Software size estimation

Answer: Software size estimation

164. SDLC Models are adopted as per requirements of development process. It may vary Software-to-software to ensuring which model is suitable.

A. True
B. False

Answer: True

165. The always growing and adapting nature of software hugely depends upon the environment in which user works in ____________ .

A. Cost
B. Dynamic Nature
C. Quality Management
D. Scalability

Answer: Dynamic Nature

166. When the customer may ask for new features or functions in the software, what does it mean in Software maintenance?

A. Host modifications
B. Client requirements
C. Market conditions
D. Organization changes

Answer: Client requirements

167. Reliability is measured by considering processing speed, response time, resource consumption, throughput, and efficiency.

A. True
B. False

Answer: False

168. Abbreviate the term CASE.

A. Computer Authorized Software Engineering
B. Computer Aided Software Engineering
C. Common Authorized Software Engineering
D. Common Aided Software Engineering

Answer: Computer Aided Software Engineering

169. What is described by means of DFDs as studied earlier and represented in algebraic form?

A. Data flow
B. Data storage
C. Data Structures
D. Data elements

Answer: Data flow

170. Which metrics are derived by normalizing quality and/or productivity measures by considering the size of the software that has been produced?

A. Size oriented
B. Function-Oriented
C. Object-Oriented
D. Use-case-Oriented

Answer: Size oriented

171. What are the signs that a software project is in trouble?

A. The product scope is poorly defineD.
B. Deadlines are unrealistiC.
C. Changes are managed poorly.
D. All of the above.

Answer: All of the above.

172. Application that generate a dialogue to get confirmation from user and to delete a file it is an example for _____ .

A. Radio-Button
B. Text-box
C. Check-box
D. Dialogue box

Answer: Dialogue box

173. What is used for implementing the changes in existing or new requirements of user in software maintenance?

A. Preventive maintenance
B. Perfective maintenance
C. Corrective
D. Adaptive

Answer: Perfective maintenance

174. Lehman has given eight laws for software evolution and he divided software into three categories. In which category software works strictly according to defined specifications and solutions.

A. Static-type
B. Embedded-type
C. Practical-type
D. None of the above

Answer: Embedded-type

175. Computer software is a complete package, which includes software program, its documentation and user guide on how to use the software.

A. True
B. False

Answer: True

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