250+ TOP MCQs on Theodolite Traversing – Trigonometrical Levelling and Answers

Surveying Multiple Choice Questions on “Theodolite Traversing – Trigonometrical Levelling”.

1. While taking Observations for the height and distances, which method of surveying is used?
a) Chain surveying
b) Compass surveying
c) Plane surveying
d) Geodic surveying

Answer: c
Clarification: Geodic surveying is used because it is assumed that the distances between the points observed are not large so that either the effect of curvature and refraction may be neglected or proper corrections may be applied linearly.

2. From the figure, the value of D can be given as_____________

a) D = (b tan α1) / (tan α1 – tan α2)
b) D = (b tan α2) / (tan α2 – tan α1)
c) D = (b tan α1) / (tan α2 – tan α1)
d) D = (b tan α2) / (tan α1 – tan α2)

Answer: b
Clarification: From the figure, h = D tan α1 and h = (b +D) tan α2
By equating we get,
D tan α1 = (b + D) tan α2
D = (b tan α2) / (tan α2 – tan α1).

3. The correction for curvature and refraction is applied when the points are having small distance between them.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: If the points are at small distance apart then there is no need to apply the correction for the curvature and refraction else you can apply the correction i.e.,
C= 0.06728D*D
Where, D is the horizontal distance between the given two points in Kilometres.

4. Which of the following indicates the value of D, when base of object is accessible?
a) D = s / tan α
b) D = tan α / s
c) D = tan α / h
d) D = h / tan α

Answer: d
Clarification: When base of the object is accessible then,
h = D tan α and D = h / tan α.

5. From the figure, determine the value of s

a) S = D tanα1 – b tanα2 – D tanα2
b) S = D tanα2 – b tanα2 – D tanα2
c) S = D tanα1 – b tanα1 – D tanα2
d) S = D tanα1 – b tanα2 – D tanα1

Answer: a
Clarification: From the figure, h1 = D tanα1 and h2 = (b+D) tanα2
Subtracting, we get h1 – h2 = D tanα1 – b tanα2 – D tanα2
h1 – h2 = s, so we get s = D tanα1 – b tanα2 – D tanα2.

6. Which of the following is not a case in trigonometric levelling?
a) Base of object is accessible
b) Base of object is inaccessible
c) Base of object is at accurate position
d) Base of object is inaccessible, station is not in vertical plane

Answer: c
Clarification: In order to get the difference in elevation between the instrument station and the object under observation, we consider some cases which include:
Case 1: Base of the object accessible.
Case 2: Base of the object inaccessible – Instrument stations in the same vertical plane as the elevated object.
Case 3: Base of the object inaccessible – Instrument stations not in the same vertical plane as the elevated object.

7. Among the following, which represents the method of observation?
a) Indirect method
b) Reciprocal method
c) Recurring method
d) Transit method

Answer: b
Clarification: The method of observation includes direct method, used when instrument isn’t possible to set over station and reciprocal method, where two instrument stations are used.

8. In which of the following cases, two instrument stations are used?
a) Base of the object is at infinity
b) Base of the object is at accurate position
c) Base of the object is accessible
d) Base of the object is inaccessible

Answer: d
Clarification: In case of inaccessible base of the object, for calculation of elevation of the required point, two instrument stations are used. By using two instruments, it would be helpful for calculating the value of R.L.

9. From the figure, determine R.L of Q from A?

a) R.L = R.L of A + h + H2
b) R.L = R.L of A + s + H1
c) R.L = R.L of A + s + H2
d) R.L = R.L of B + H1 + h

Answer: b
Clarification: The R.L of Q can be calculate by calculating the values of H1 and H2 from which it is given as
R.L = R.L of A + s + H1
Where, s = H2- H1.

10. In Geodic surveying, correction for curvature and refraction are neglected.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: In geodic surveying, the shape of earth is considered which implies that the correction of curvature and refraction are applied for mitigating errors.

11. Calculate the R.L of B, if D = 24.96 m, angle for line of sight is +4024ꞌ, height of the axis will be 1.29 m and the R.L of A is 400 m.
a) 403.21 m
b) 430.21 m
c) 403.12 m
d) 401.32 m

Answer: a
Clarification: The value of R.L can be given as, R.L of B = R.L of A + H.I + h. The value of h can be calculated from h = D*tan α = 24.96 * tan (4024ꞌ) = 1.921 m.
Now, R.L = 400 + 1.29 + 1.921 = 403.21 m.

12. From the figure, find the horizontal distance between the station and staff and consider distance between stations will be 2 m.

a) 1.6 m
b) 1.4 m
c) 1.2 m
d) 1.8 m

Answer: d
Clarification: While using two instrument stations, when the base is horizontal the value of horizontal distance D is given as, D = (b * tanα2) / (tanα1 – tanα2). On substitution, we get, D = (2*tan (2052ꞌ)) / (tan (602ꞌ) – tan (2052ꞌ)) = 1.8 m.

13. By using the data provided from the figure, find the value of h1. Where α1 = 9024ꞌ, α2 = 4044ꞌ, b = 1.2 m, s = 1.295 m.

a) 2.66 m
b) 2.86 m
c) 2.79 m
d) 2.97 m

Answer: c
Clarification: When the instrument stations are at different instrument levels, there would be two heights, off which, h1 can be calculated by
h1 = (s + b*tanα2)*tanα1 / (tanα1 – tanα2). By substituting the required values we get, h1 = (1.295 + 1.2 * tan4044ꞌ) / (tan9024ꞌ – tan4044ꞌ) = 2.79 m.

14. If the value of D = 2000m, what would be correction for curvature?
a) 0.629 sq. m
b) 0.269 sq. m
c) 0.962 sq. m
d) 0.692 sq. m

Answer: b
Clarification: The correction for curvature can be applied as, Cr = 0.06728*D2. On substituting, we get, Cr = 0.06728*22 = 0.269 sq. m.

250+ TOP MCQs on Adjustments of Dumpy Level and Answers

Surveying Multiple Choice Questions on “Adjustments of Dumpy Level”.

1. Which principle is used in the process of permanent adjustment of dumpy level?
a) Repetition
b) Reiteration
c) Recurring
d) Reversion
Answer: d
Clarification: The principle of reversion is very much used in all adjustments. By reversing the instrument, the error becomes apparent.

2. Which of the following does not indicate a principle line?
a) Line of sight
b) Vertical axis
c) Horizontal axis
d) Axis of level tube
Answer: c
Clarification: The principle lines in a dumpy level include line of sight at intersection of cross-hairs, axis of level tube, vertical axis. These are to be adjusted in order to avoid the error.

3. Which of the following does not represent the condition of adjustment?
a) Adjustment of vertical axis
b) Adjustment of level tube
c) Adjustment of cross hair ring
d) Adjustment of line of sight
Answer: a
Clarification: The conditions of adjustment include Adjustments of level tube, cross-hair ring, line of sight which must be done so that there won’t be any problem while using the instrument.

4. The principle of single reversion is involved in which of the following processes?
a) Adjustment of vertical axis
b) Adjustment of level tube
c) Adjustment of cross hair ring
d) Adjustment of line of sight
Answer: b
Clarification: Adjustment of level tube is the case of single reversion in which the apparent error is double the true error.

5. Which of the following processes is adopted when speed of the work is concerned?
a) Adjustment of vertical axis
b) Adjustment of cross hair ring
c) Adjustment of level tube
d) Adjustment of line of sight
Answer: c
Clarification: For ordinary work, adjustment of level tube is not essential but it is made for the sake of convenience in using the level. This adjustment is desirable for speedy work and convenience.

6. Which adjustment doesn’t need any levelling?
a) Vertical axis
b) Horizontal axis
c) Line of sight
d) Cross-hair
Answer: d
Clarification: The objective of cross-hair adjustment is to ensure that the horizontal cross-hair lie in a plane perpendicular to the vertical axis. It is not necessary to level the instrument when the test is carried out.

7. The adjustment of line of collimation is having most priority in permanent adjustments.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Once the desired relation is accomplished, the line of sight will be horizontal when the bubble is in the centre. This adjustment is very necessary, and is having prime importance since the whole function of the level is to provide horizontal line of sight.

8. Dumpy level is used for_________
a) Finding point to point distance
b) Finding the elevation difference
c) Finding the traverse area
d) Finding the perimeter of area
Answer: b
Clarification: Dumpy level is one of the levelling instruments, which is used for finding the elevation difference between the points so that slope and area of the particular traverse can be determined.

9. Permanent adjustments are done at every time the instrument is setup.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Permanent adjustments are done at the time of manufacturing the instruments whereas temporary adjustments are done at every instrumental setup.

10. Determine the inclination of line of sight if H = 2.654 m and Hꞌ = 1.876 m and the distance between the points can be given as 150 m.
a) 0019ꞌ
b) 0020ꞌ
c) 0017ꞌ
d) 007ꞌ
Answer: c
Clarification: The declination of line of sight can be given as
Tan α = (H-Hꞌ) / AB. On substitution, we get
α = tan-1(2.654-1.876 / 150)
α = 0017ꞌ.

11. Find the amount of inclination provided in case of two stations A and B having staff readings 0.984m, 0.765m which are placed at a distance of 100m.
a) 1.23 m
b) 0.98 m
c) 0.44 m
d) 0.22 m
Answer: d
Clarification: The amount of inclination provided can be determined by the difference between the points i.e., 0.984 – 0.765 = 0.22m in 100m.

12. Which among the following indicates the objective of adjusting level tube?
a) Making horizontal axis truly horizontal
b) Levelling the tube
c) Making vertical axis truly vertical
d) Making line of collimation perpendicular to vertical axis
Answer: c
Clarification: The objective of the adjusting the level tube is to make the vertical axis truly vertical so as to ensure that once the instrument is levelled up, the bubble will remain central in all directions of sighting.

13. The readings of staff at points A and B are given as 1.672 m, 2.484 m and 1.928 m, 3.124 m. Find the true elevation difference between the station points.
a) 0.384 m
b) 0.834 m
c) 0.438 m
d) 0.843 m
Answer: a
Clarification: The difference in elevation between the readings at A can be given as 2.484 – 1.672 = 0.812 m and at B as 3.124 – 1.928 = 1.196 m.
The true difference in elevation can be given as 1.196 – 0.812 = 0.384 m.

250+ TOP MCQs on Compound Curve Elements and Answers

Surveying Multiple Choice Questions on “Compound Curve Elements”.

1. Length of tangent formula is same for all types of curves.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Though there might be a change in the curve but length of the tangent value remains the same i.e., t = R tan (δ/2). Where R is the radius and δ is the deflection angle measured.

2. In a compound curve, both curves are of equal radius.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: A compound curve consists of two curves which will meet at P.C.C, known as Point of Compound Curve, in which it consists of one shorter radius curve another one of longer radius.

3. Compound curve can be designated by____________
a) Angle subtended by a chord of any curvature
b) Angle subtended by a chord of known radius
c) Angle subtended by a chord of known length
d) Angle subtended by a chord of any length
Answer: c
Clarification: For designing a Compound curve, we must know the required property like length from where it has to be started and where it has to end. It should also be known that the angle by which the chord subtends that is taken by the length determined.

4. The angle at point of intersection of tangents indicate____________
a) Radius of the arc
b) Angle of the arc
c) Curvature angle
d) Deflection angle
Answer: d
Clarification: The point where the two tangents will meet is described as the point of intersection, where the deflection angle between the two tangents can be known and later on used for further calculation like setting out curve.

5. Which of the following curves helps in avoiding overturning of vehicles?
a) Simple curve
b) Transition curve
c) Compound curve
d) Reverse curve
Answer: b
Clarification: Though compound curve serves as a best source in highways, it doesn’t provide the elevation needed to avoid overturning. Simple curve, reverse curve are not used in case of highways so those can be avoided. Transition curve provides the required amount of super elevation by using the formula provided and helps in decreasing overturning problem.

6. The tangent distance of a long curve is given as____________
a) (T = t_l – (t_s + t_l) frac{sin⁡(Δ1)}{sin⁡Δ})
b) (T = t_l + (t_s – t_l) frac{sin⁡(Δ1)}{sin⁡Δ})
c) (T = t_l + (t_s + t_l) frac{sin⁡(Δ1)}{sin⁡Δ})
d) (T = t_l + (t_s + t_l) frac{sin⁡(Δ1)}{sin⁡Δ})
Answer: c
Clarification: The tangent distance for a long curve can be given as (T = t_l + (t_s + t_l) frac{sin⁡(Δ1)}{sin⁡Δ}) in which tl = long tangent length, ts = short tangent length. These can be determined by their respective formulae and will be substituted in T for getting tangent distance.

7. What would be the short curve length of tangent if the radius of curvature is given as 43.21m and deflection of about76˚54ꞌ?
a) 34.13m
b) 43.13m
c) 43.31m
d) 34.31m
Answer: d
Clarification: The tangent length can be found out by using the formula,
t = R*tan (θ/2). On substitution, we get
t = 43.21*tan (76˚54ꞌ/2)
t = 34.31 m.

8. Find the value of the long curve tangent distance, if the tangent length of short and long curves were given as 23.21m and 65.87m. The total deflection is 67˚54ꞌ and the deflection angle at short curve is given as 28˚43ꞌ.
a) 112.06m
b) 121.06m
c) 211.06m
d) 121.68m
Answer: a
Clarification: The long curve tangent distance can be determined by,
T = tl + (ts+tl)* sin θ1/ sin θ. On substitution, we get
T = 65.87 + (23.21+65.87)* sin 28˚43ꞌ / sin 67˚54ꞌ
T = 112.06 m.

9. Determine the value of chainage of point of the compound curve, if the chainage at T1 is given as 226.43m and the curve length as 23.64m.
a) 205.07
b) 250.07
c) 207.7
d) 202.79
Answer: b
Clarification: Chainage at point of compound curve can be given as
Chainage at P.C.C = chainage of T1 + curve length. On substitution, we get
Chainage at P.C.C = 226.43 + 23.64
Chainage at P.C.C = 250.07 m.

10. If the radius of curvature is given as 76.98m and the deflection angle as 45˚21ꞌ, find the short curve length of a compound curve.
a) 60.93m
b) 6.93m
c) 9.63m
d) 3.69m
Answer: a
Clarification: The compound curve length can be determined by using the formula,
t = R*θ*π/180. On substitution, we get
t = 76.98*45˚21ꞌ*π/180
t = 60.93 m.

11. Find the value of long curve tangent length, if the radius is given as 76.43m and the deflection angle as 54˚32ꞌ.
a) 39.24m
b) 93.42m
c) 39.42m
d) 93.24m
Answer: c
Clarification: The formula for the determination of the long curve tangent length is given as,
t = R*tan (θ/2). On substitution, we get
t = 76.43*tan (54˚32ꞌ/2)
t = 39.42m.

250+ TOP MCQs on Field Astronomy – Astronomical Triangle and Answers

Surveying Multiple Choice Questions on “Field Astronomy – Astronomical Triangle”.

1. Which among the following is used in the formation of the astronomical triangle?
a) Zenith
b) Meridian
c) Horizon
d) Azimuth
Answer: a
Clarification: An astronomical triangle can be formed by zenith, combining the pole joints, and a star with reference to circles. By doing this, there might be chance of obtaining a relation between the zenith and the pole joints.

2. When the greatest distance is to the east of the meridian then the elongation is said to be____________
a) Azimuthal elongation
b) Meridian elongation
c) Western elongation
d) Eastern elongation
Answer: d
Clarification: In general, a star can be said to be in elongation when its greatest distance is at east or west of the meridian. Eastern elongation can be said only when the greatest distance is at the east of the meridian, which determines the position of azimuth.

3. Which of the following cases determine that the astronomical triangle is right angled?
a) Star at horizon
b) Star at prime vertical
c) Star at culmination
d) Star at elongation
Answer: b
Clarification: When the star is positioned at the prime vertical, it is having a chance of attaining a right angled astronomical triangle. By joining the prime vertical and the meridian, declination of the circle can be found out.

4. Napier’s rule is used for the calculation of___________
a) Latitude
b) Declination
c) Hour angle
d) Horizon
Answer: c
Clarification: Napier’s rule is generally used in case of field astronomy, which involves in the calculation of altitude and hour angle. These can be calculated by the usage of declination and latitude which are available when the astronomical triangle is right angled.

5. If the star is at horizon which of the following will be equal to zero?
a) Prime vertical
b) Altitude
c) Declination of circle
d) Meridian
Answer: b
Clarification: If at all the star is at horizon, it makes the altitude zero and by that influence zenith distance will be equal to 900. By this condition, the value of azimuth and hour angle can be calculated using the value of α = 0.

6. A star crosses a meridian only once in its revolution.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Clarification: When the star is at culmination or at the state of transition, it will be able to cross the observer’s meridian. It makes it obvious that the star crosses a meridian twice during its period of revolution.

7. Which of the following is obtained from astronomical triangle?
a) Relation between cylindrical co-ordinates
b) Relation between rectangular co-ordinates
c) Relation between geometrical co-ordinates
d) Relation between spherical co-ordinates
Answer: d
Clarification: Astronomical triangle involves the usage of spherical co-ordinates. By using the triangle, we are able to derive a relation for the spherical co-ordinates by using certain cases which provide different outputs based on the placement of the star.

8. Which of the following cases is not related to astronomical triangle?
a) Star at culmination
b) Star at elongation
c) Star at vertical
d) Star at prime vertical
Answer: c
Clarification: An astronomical triangle is obtained by joining the poles, zenith, and a star which is at an equidistant position. It involves certain cases, which are applied based on the position of the star. They include star at elongation, at culmination, at prime vertical and at horizon.

9. The stars which always move above the horizon are called as__________
a) Circumpolar star
b) Prime star
c) Horizon star
d) Culmination star
Answer: a
Clarification: A circumpolar star is the one which will move above the horizon, which doesn’t set. It is useful for the observer in such a way that the observer can use it for describing a circle.

10. The culmination of the star depends upon which of the following factors?
a) Zenith
b) Altitude
c) Meridian
d) Horizon
Answer: b
Clarification: A star is said to be culminative when it is crosses the observer’s meridian. There is a possibility for the formation of two culminatives one is lower culminative and upper culminate. It depends on the altitude at which the star is placed.

11. If the star is at elongation, find the altitude of the celestial body having declination and latitude as 24˚56ꞌ and 21˚43ꞌ.
a) 16˚16ꞌ
b) 61˚61ꞌ
c) 16˚16ꞌ
d) 61˚16ꞌ
Answer: d
Clarification: The altitude of the celestial body can be determined by using the formula,
Sin α = sin θ * cosec δ. Where θ = latitude of the observer and δ = declination of the celestial body. On substitution, we get
Sin α = sin 21˚43ꞌ * cosec 24˚56ꞌ
Sin α = 0.87
α = 61˚16ꞌ.

12. The point in the figure indicates which among the following?
surveying-questions-answers-astronomical-triangle-q12
a) Circumpolar star
b) Circum centre star
c) Polar star
d) Circum star
Answer: a
Clarification: Circumpolar stars are located above the horizon which cannot be set. It can appear to the observer to describe a circle above the pole. It has a different path which is located at the poles of the sphere.

250+ TOP MCQs on Idealized Remote Sensing System and Answers

Surveying Multiple Choice Questions on “Idealized Remote Sensing System”.

1. Which of the following doesn’t indicate a stage in remote sensing?
a) Reflectance of energy
b) Transmission of energy
c) Energy source
d) Absorption of energy
Answer: d
Clarification: Remote sensing can be defined as the process of obtaining information without any contact with the object. In this process, it undergoes several steps for obtaining the required output. They include energy source, propagation of energy, interaction of energy, reflectance of energy, transmission and usage of data.

2. The electromagnetic wave travelling from source to the object is having same wave length.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The electromagnetic waves while travelling from source to the object under goes interaction with the atmosphere. During this interaction, the EM waves will undergo scattering, refraction due to this it can undergo loss in information.

3. Which of the following indicates the functioning of a sensor?
a) Transmits energy
b) Absorbs wave length
c) Sensitive to wave length
d) Reflects energy
Answer: c
Clarification: A sensor can be defined as an electromagnetic instrument, which server as a path for recording and transmitting energy. It is sensitive to wave length and yield data on the wavelength of the wave transmitted.

4. Among the following, which indicates the correct set of classification of data?
a) Analog, digital
b) Digital, binary
c) Binary, analog
d) Vector, raster
Answer: a
Clarification: The data obtained at the end of the transmission can be classified as analog and digital formats. The usage of the data depends upon the type of bit the software can adopt to show the result. In general, digital format is most probably used.

5. Which type of remote sensing uses its own source of electromagnetic energy?
a) Passive
b) Active
c) Satellite
d) Orbital
Answer: b
Clarification: Active remote sensing involves the usage of its own electromagnetic energy, which emits and absorb the reflected energy. Camera with flash is an example for this process. In the case of passive remote sensing, it uses other source of energy.

6. The correct sequence of transmission of electromagnetic waves in remote sensing system can be given as ___________
a) Energy source, transmission of signal, propagation of signal
b) Transmission of signal, propagation of signal, energy source
c) Propagation of signal, transmission of signal, energy source
d) Energy source, propagation of energy, transmission of signal
Answer: d
Clarification: In the process of remote sensing, it undergoes certain series of stages for obtaining the data. The sequence is given as energy source, propagation of energy, interaction of energy, reflectance of energy, transmission of the signal and usage of data.

7. Signal can be generated by ____________
a) Interaction of EM waves with surface
b) Interaction of EM waves with energy source
c) Interaction of EM waves with atmosphere
d) Interaction of EM waves with sensor
Answer: a
Clarification: When the electromagnetic waves interact with the earth’s surface, it generates signals which are emitted from the surface. They contain spectral signature, which is useful in earth’s surface material.

8. Which among the following is the first Indian remote sensing satellite?
a) Quick Bird
b) SPOT
c) IRS-1A
d) MOS
Answer: c
Clarification: IRS-1A is the first Indian remote sensing satellite which was launched in the mid 1980’s. It is capable of recording the reflected EM waves from the surface and transmits them to the ground station.

9. Among the following, the correct set of remote sensing classification can be given as __________
a) Active, orbital
b) Active, passive
c) Passive, orbital
d) Orbital, satellite
Answer: b
Clarification: Remote sensing is the process of obtaining information without any contact with the object. This includes using its own source of energy or using another source for reflecting and absorbing. The classification includes active and passive remote sensing.

10. The data obtained by the process of remote sensing needs great knowledge to understand it.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: After receiving the reflected energy from satellite to the ground station, the data is all set to use. It may be in digital or analog format. But the usage requires a great depth of knowledge regarding the signal formation and generation of data.

250+ TOP MCQs on GPS – Calculation of User Position and Answers

Surveying Multiple Choice Questions on “GPS – Calculation of User Position”.

1. Which of the following is necessary for further processing in code based positioning?
a) Frequency
b) Carrier wave
c) Receiver clock error
d) Satellite
Answer: c
Clarification: In pseudo ranging, code based positioning takes places, which needs a certain parameter to continue further. Those include receiver clock error and the position of co-ordinates. By using these, equations can be developed for solving the unknowns.

2. Two satellites are enough for finding accurate position of the object.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Clarification: GPS is used in finding the location of object. In order to have an accurate location of the object, it is recommended to have at least four satellites in contact of the object to locate the point. Otherwise, it may consume more time for having the output.

3. Carrier phase uses the principle of ____________
a) Compass
b) Theodolite
c) EDM
d) Traversing
Answer: c
Clarification: Carrier phase uses the principle of EDM, where the measurement of phase is done. GPS can measure the difference between the phase of oscillator and receiver satellite. It can attain accuracy up to 3-10 mm.

4. Which of the following can be identified as the correct set for position fixing method?
a) Carrier phase, relative positioning
b) Code phase, absolute positioning
c) Absolute positioning, relative positioning
d) Code phase, carrier phase
Answer: d
Clarification: In GPS, fixing position plays an n important role which must be done with accuracy. So as to attain accuracy, it involves certain methods like code phase and carrier phase.

5. Cycle slip occurs due to change in____________
a) Wave length
b) Phase
c) Frequency
d) Velocity
Answer: b
Clarification: In a carrier phase, the determination of initial ambiguity is foremost important as t has to measure the carrier phase. Ambiguity must be fixed so that the phase can be locked. If at all the phase loses its lock formation of cycle slip occurs.

6. Kinematic positioning will come under which of the following classification?
a) Relative positioning
b) Absolute positioning
c) Resection method
d) Carrier wave method
Answer: a
Clarification: Relative positioning involves certain classifications. Those are given as kinematic positioning, static positioning, stop-and-go GPS positioning. Each one can be adopted based on the type of work being done as all of them yield better results.

7. Base receiver is kept stationary in which of the following operations?
a) Stop-and-go positioning
b) Kinematic positioning
c) Fast static positioning
d) Static positioning
Answer: c
Clarification: Fast static positioning follows the same principle of static positioning. In static positioning, all receivers are kept stationary where as in fast static positioning, only base receiver is kept stationary.

8. If the connection of the number of satellites decreases, the accuracy of the positioning increases.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The accuracy of the position can be improved only if the numbers of satellites connected to the user are more. In general, a maximum of four satellites must be connected to the user for having a better output.

9. Which of the following indicates the correct set of GPS data classification?
a) Almanac and ephemeris
b) Ephemeris and user segment
c) Ephemeris and space segment
d) Almanac and user segment
Answer: a
Clarification: The GPS data has been classified so as to have a correct idea about the work going on. The classification includes almanac and ephemeris. This data is continuously transmitted by the GPS satellites and the GPS receivers.

10. The GPS time must be very accurate.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: For the calculation of the time that the GPS signal took, we need to have an accurate time of the signal. The GPS satellites possess atomic clocks, which are able to keep the time very precise. Sometimes it is not feasible to set an atomic clock.