Category: Wireless & Mobile Communications Objective Questions

Wireless & Mobile Communications Multiple Choice Questions on “TCP over Wireless”.

1. A packet in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is called a ____________
a) Transmittable slots
b) Packet
c) Segment
d) Source Slots
Answer: c
Clarification: Applications working at the Application Layer transfers a contiguous stream of bytes to the bottom layers. It is the duty of TCP to pack this byte stream to packets, known as TCP segments, which are passed to the IP layer for transmission to the destination device.

2. Cable TV and DSL are examples of ____________
a) Interconnection of network
b) LAN
c) MAN
d) WAN
Answer: c
Clarification: A MAN often acts as a high speed network to allow sharing of regional resources. It typically covers an area of between 5 and 50 km diameter. Examples of MAN are telephone company network that provides a high speed DSL to customers and cable TV network.

3. Station on a wireless ALOHA network is maximum of ________
a) 400 Km
b) 500 Km
c) 600 Km
d) 700 Km
Answer: c
Clarification: The stations on wireless ALOHA networks are a maximum of 600 km apart. It was designed for a radio (wireless) LAN, but it can be used on any shared medium. It is obvious that there are potential collisions in this arrangement. The medium is shared between the stations.

4. IEEE 802.11 defines basic service set as building block of a wireless ___________
a) LAN
b) WAN protocol
c) MAN
d) ALOHA
Answer: a
Clarification: The IEEE 802.11 topology consists of components interacting to provide a wireless LAN. It enables station mobility transparent to higher protocol layers, such as the LLC.

5. In wireless LAN, there are many hidden stations so that __________ cannot be detected.
a) Frames
b) Collision
c) Signal
d) Data
Answer: b
Clarification: In wireless networking, the hidden node problem or hidden terminal problem occurs when a node is visible from a wireless access point (AP), but not from other nodes communicating with said AP. This leads to difficulties in media access control and collisions could not be detected.

6. A set that makes stationary or mobile wireless station and also have optional central base station is known as ___________
a) Basic service set
b) Extended service set
c) Network point set
d) Access point
Answer: a
Clarification: A set that makes stationary or mobile wireless station and also have optional central base station is known as a basic service set. BSS is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional central base station, known as the access point (AP).

7. Wireless communication started in _________
a) 1869
b) 1895
c) 1879
d) 1885
Answer: b
Clarification: In England, Guglielmo Marconi began his wireless experiments in 1895. On 2 June 1896, he filed his provisional specification of a patent for wireless telegraphy. He demonstrated the system to the British Post Office in July.

8. Wireless transmission is divided into ___________
a) 3 broad groups
b) 6 broad groups
c) 9 broad groups
d) 8 broad groups
Answer: a
Clarification: We can divide wireless transmission into three broad groups: radio waves, microwaves, and infrared waves. Radio waves are used for multicast communications, such as AM and FM radio, television, maritime radio, cordless phones and paging systems. Microwave propagation is line-of-sight.

9. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Networking Protocol have ___________
a) Four Layers
b) Five Layers
c) Six Layers
d) Seven Layers
Answer: a
Clarification: TCP/IP functionality is divided into four layers, each with its own set of agreed-upon protocols: The datalink layer consists of methods and protocols that operate only on a link. The Internet layer connects independent networks to transport the packets. The Transport layer handles communications between. The Application layer standardizes data exchange for applications.

10. Packets of data that is transported by IP is called __________
a) Datagrams
b) Frames
c) Segments
d) Encapsulate message
Answer: a
Clarification: The format of data that can be recognized by IP is called an IP datagram. It consists of two components, the header and data, which need to be transmitted. The fields in the datagram, except the data, have specific roles to perform in the transmission of data.

11. Parameter that is normally achieved through a trailer added to end of frame is ___________
a) Access Control
b) Flow Control
c) Error Control
d) Physical addressing
Answer: c
Clarification: The data link layer adds reliability to the physical layer by adding mechanisms to detect and retransmit damaged or lost frames. It also uses a mechanism to recognize duplicate frames. Error control is normally achieved through a trailer added to the end of the frame.

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Wireless & Mobile Communications Multiple Choice Questions on “Handoff Strategies”.

1. What is the condition for handoff?
a) A mobile moves into a different cell while in conversation
b) A mobile remains in the same cell while in conversation
c) A mobile moves to different cell when idle
d) A mobile remains in the same cell and is idle
Answer: a
Clarification: Handoff occurs when a mobile moves into a different cell while a conversation is in progress. The MSC automatically transfers the call to a new channel belonging to the new base station.

2. Handoff does not require voice and control channel to be allocated to channels associated with the new base station.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Handoff operation involves identifying a new base station. It also requires that the voice and control signal be allocated to channels associated with the new base station.

3. The time over which a call can be maintained within a cell without handoff is called _________
a) Run time
b) Peak time
c) Dwell time
d) Cell time
Answer: c
Clarification: The time over which a call is maintained within a cell without handoff is called as dwell time. Dwell time vary depending on speed of user and type of radio coverage.

4. Dwell time does not depend on which of the following factor?
a) Propagation
b) Interference
c) Distance between subscriber and base station
d) Mobile station
Answer: d
Clarification: Dwell time of a particular user is governed by a number of factors. They include propagation, interference, distance between the subscriber and the base station, and other time varying effects.

5. Which of the following is associated with the handoff in first generation analog cellular systems?
a) Locator receiver
b) MAHO
c) Cell dragging
d) Breathing cell
Answer: a
Clarification: Locator receiver is a spare receiver in each base station. It is used to scan and determine signal strengths of mobile users which are in neighbouring cells.

6. MAHO stands for ______
a) MSC assisted handoff
b) Mobile assisted handoff
c) Machine assisted handoff
d) Man assisted handoff
Answer: b
Clarification: MAHO stands for mobile assisted handoff. In 2G systems, handoff decisions are mobile assisted. In MAHO, every mobile station measure the received power from surrounding base station and continuously reports the results to serving base station.

7. A handoff is initiated when the power received from the base station of a neighbouring cell falls behind the power received from the current base station by certain level.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: MAHO measures the power received from the surrounding base station. And a handoff is initiated when the power received from the base station of a neighbouring cell begins to exceed the power received from current base station.

8. What is the condition for intersystem interference?
a) Mobile moves from one cell to another cell
b) Mobile remains in the same cell
c) Mobile moves from one cellular system to another cellular system
d) Mobile remains in the same cluster
Answer: c
Clarification: An intersystem handoff is initiated when a mobile moves from one cellular system to another during a course of a call. An MSC engages in an intersystem interference when a mobile becomes weak in a given cell and MSC cannot find another cell to which call can be transferred.

9. What is the disadvantage of guard channel?
a) Efficient utilization of spectrum
b) Cross talk
c) Near far effect
d) Reduce total carried traffic
Answer: d
Clarification: Guard channel is a concept for handling priority in handoff. Here, a fraction of the total available channels in a cell is reserved exclusively for handoff requests from ongoing calls. This method has the disadvantage of reducing the total carried traffic, as fewer channels are allocated to originating calls.

10. Which of the following priority handoff method decrease the probability of forced termination of a call due to lack of available channels?
a) Queuing
b) Guard channel
c) Cell dragging
d) Near far effect
Answer: a
Clarification: Queuing of handoff requests is a method to decrease the probability of forced termination of a call due to lack of available channels. Queuing of handoff is possible due to the fact that there is a finite time interval between the time the received signal level drops below the handoff threshold and the time the call is terminated.

11. Umbrella cell approach is possible by using _________
a) Antenna of same heights
b) Antenna of different heights
c) Different voice channels
d) Different control channels
Answer: b
Clarification: Umbrella cell approach is possible by using different antenna heights and different power levels. By using this approach, it is possible to provide large and small cells which are co-located at a single location.

12. Cell dragging is a problem occur due to __________
a) Pedestrian users
b) Stationary users
c) High speed mobile systems
d) Base stations having same frequency
Answer: a
Clarification: Cell dragging is a practical handoff problem in microcell system. It results from pedestrian users that provide a very strong signal to the base station.

13. What was the typical handoff time in first generation analog cellular systems?
a) 1 second
b) 10 seconds
c) 1 minute
d) 10 milliseconds
Answer: b
Clarification: In first generation analog cellular system, the typical time to make a handoff once the signal level is below the threshold, is about 10 seconds. This requires the value for threshold to be 6 dB to 12 dB.

14. How much time it takes for handoff in digital cellular systems like GSM?
a) 1 second
b) 10 seconds
c) 1 minute
d) 10 milliseconds
Answer: a
Clarification: In digital cellular systems, the mobile assista with the handoff procedure by determining the best candidate. Once the decision is made, it typically requires 1 to 2 seconds for handoff.

15. Soft handoff is also known as _________
a) MAHO
b) Hand over
c) Break before make
d) Make before break
Answer: d
Clarification: Soft handoff is one in which the channel in the source cell is retained and used for a while in parallel with the channel in the target cell. In this case, the connection with the receiver target is established before the connection to the source is broken, hence this handover is called make-before-break.

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Wireless & Mobile Communications Multiple Choice Questions on “Rayleigh and Ricean Distribution”.

1. Which of the following distribution is used for describing statistical time varying nature of received envelope of multipath component?
a) Log normal distribution
b) Levy distribution
c) Rayleigh distribution
d) Gaussian distribution
Answer: c
Clarification: Rayleigh distribution is the most common distribution for statistical modelling. It is used to describe the statistical time varying nature of the received envelope of a flat fading signal. It also describes the envelope of an individual multipath component.

2. Envelope of the sum of two quadrature Gaussian noise signal obeys _________ distribution.
a) Rayleigh
b) Inverse Gaussian
c) Nakagami
d) Gamma
Answer: a
Clarification: It is well known that the envelope of the sum of two quadrature Gaussian noise signal obeys Rayleigh distribution. This fading distribution could be applied to any scenario where there is no line of sight path between transmitter and receiver antennas.

3. For a Rayleigh fading signal, mean and median differ by _______
a) 2 dB
b) 10 dB
c) 0.55 dB
d) 100 dB
Answer: c
Clarification: The mean and median differ by only 0.55 dB in a Rayleigh fading signal. The differences between the rms values and the other two values are higher.

4. It is easy to compare different fading distributions using mean values instead of median values.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: By using median values instead of mean values, it is easy to compare different fading distributions which may have widely varying means. Median is used in practice since fading data is measured in the field and a particular distribution cannot be assumed.

5. For a nonfading signal component present, the small scale fading envelope distribution is ____________
a) Rayleigh
b) Gaussian
c) Log normal
d) Ricean
Answer: d
Clarification: The small scale fading envelope is Ricean when there is a dominant stationary (nonfading) signal component, such as line of sight propagation path. In such a situation, random multipath components arriving at different angles are superimposed on a stationary dominant signal.

6. Ricean distribution degenerates to ________ distribution when the dominant component fades away.
a) Log normal
b) Gamma
c) Rayleigh
d) Gaussian
Answer: c
Clarification: Ricean distribution degenerates to Rayleigh distribution when the dominant component fades away. As the dominant signal becomes weaker, the composite signal resembles a noise signal which has an envelope that is Rayleigh.

7. The envelope of a bandpass noise is __________
a) Uniformly distributed
b) Rayleigh
c) Ricean
d) Gaussian
Answer: b
Clarification: The envelope of only bandpass noise is Rayleigh distribution. Rayleigh distribution is a continuous probability density function for positive random variables.

8. The envelope of a sinusoid plus bandpass noise has __________
a) Uniformly distributed
b) Rayleigh
c) Ricean
d) Gaussian
Answer: c
Clarification: The envelope of a sinusoid plus bandpass noise has Ricean distribution. In probability theory, Ricean distribution is the probability distribution which has magnitude of a circular bivariate normal random variable with potentially non-zero mean.

9. What do you call an attenuation that occurs over many different wavelengths of the carrier?
a) Rayleigh fading
b) Ricean fading
c) Wavelength fading
d) Slow fading
Answer: d
Clarification: Slow fading does not vary quickly with the frequency. It originates due to effect of mobility. Slow fading is the result of signal path change due to shadowing and obstructions such as tree or buildings etc.

10. Which of the reception problems below that is not due to multipath?
a) Delayed spreading
b) Rayleigh fading
c) Random Doppler shift
d) Slow fading
Answer: d
Clarification: Slow fading arises when the coherence time of the channel is large relative to the delay requirement of the application. Slow fading is caused by events such as shadowing, where a large obstruction such as a hill or large building obscures the main signal path between the transmitter and the receiver.

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Wireless & Mobile Communications Multiple Choice Questions on “Diversity Techniques”.

1. Diversity requires a training sequence.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Unlike equalization, diversity requires no training overhead since a training sequence is not required by the transmitter. Diversity is a powerful communication receiver technique that provides wireless link improvement at a relatively low cost.

2. Diversity decisions are made by ____________
a) Receiver
b) Transmitter
c) Channel
d) Adaptive algorithms
Answer: a
Clarification: In virtually all applications, diversity decisions are made by the receiver and are unknown to the transmitter. Diversity exploits the random nature of radio propagation by finding independent signal paths for communication.

3. Small scale fades are characterized by ____________ amplitude fluctuations.
a) Large
b) Small
c) Rapid
d) Slow
Answer: c
Clarification: Small scale fades are characterized by deep and rapid fluctuations. They occur as the mobile system moves over distances of just a few wavelengths. These fades are caused by multiple reflections from the surrounding in the vicinity of the mobile.

4. ____________ is used to prevent deep fade for rapidly varying channel.
a) Modulation
b) Demodulation
c) Macroscopic diversity technique
d) Microscopic diversity technique
Answer: d
Clarification: In order to prevent deep fades from occurring, microscopic diversity techniques can exploit the rapidly changing signal. By selecting the best signal at all times, a receiver can mitigate small scale fading effects.

5. Large scale fading can be mitigated with the help of _________
a) Modulation
b) Demodulation
c) Macroscopic diversity technique
d) Microscopic diversity technique
Answer: c
Clarification: Large scale fading is mitigated with macroscopic diversity techniques. It is done by selecting a base station which is not shadowed when others are, the mobile can improve substantially the average signal to noise ratio.

6. Space diversity s also known as ________
a) Antenna diversity
b) Time diversity
c) Frequency diversity
d) Polarization diversity
Answer: a
Clarification: Space diversity is also known as antenna diversity. It is one of the popular forms of diversity used in wireless communications. Signals received from the spatially separated antenna on the mobile would have essentially uncorrelated envelopes for antenna separation.

7. Which of the following is not a category of space diversity technique?
a) Selection diversity
b) Time diversity
c) Feedback diversity
d) Equal gain diversity
Answer: b
Clarification: Space diversity reception methods can be classified into four categories. They are selection diversity, feedback diversity, maximal ratio combining and equal gain diversity.

8. In selection diversity, the gain of each diversity branch provides different SNR.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Selection diversity uses m demodulators to provide m diversity branches. Their gain is adjusted to provide the same average SNR for each branch.

9. Polarization diversity uses the ________ as the diversity element.
a) Modulation index
b) Carrier frequency
c) Reflection coefficient
d) Coherence time
Answer: c
Clarification: Decorrelation of the signal in each polarization is caused by multiple reflections in the channel between mobile and base station antenna. Reflection coefficient for each polarization is different, which results in different amplitudes and phases for each reflection.

10. Which of the factor does not determine the correlation coefficient?
a) Polarization angle
b) Cross polarization discrimination
c) Offset angle from the main beam direction
d) Coherence time
Answer: d
Clarification: The correlation coefficient is determined by three factors, polarization angle, offset angle from the main beam direction of the diversity antenna, and the cross polarization discrimination. The correlation coefficient generally becomes higher as offset angle becomes large.

11. Frequency diversity is implemented by transmitting information on more than one ___________
a) Carrier frequency
b) Amplitude
c) Phase
d) Modulation scheme
Answer: a
Clarification: Frequency diversity is implemented by transmitting information on more than one carrier frequency. Frequency diversity is often employed in microwave line of sight links which carry several channels in frequency division multiplex mode.

12. Frequency diversity uses ________ as a diversity element.
a) Correlation coefficient
b) Coherence time
c) Coherence bandwidth
d) SNR
Answer: c
Clarification: The rationale behind the frequency diversity is that frequencies separated by more than the coherence bandwidth of the channel will be uncorrelated. Thus, they will not experience the same fade.

13. Frequency diversity is good for low traffic conditions.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Frequency diversity is not good for low traffic conditions. This technique has a disadvantage that it not only requires spare bandwidth but also requires that there be as many receivers as there are channels used for frequency diversity. However, for critical traffic, the expense may be justified.

14. Time diversity repeatedly transmits information at time spacings that exceed ___________
a) Coherence bandwidth
b) Dwell time
c) Run time
d) Coherence time
Answer: d
Clarification: Time diversity repeatedly transmits information at time spacings that exceed coherence time of the channel. Thus, multiple repetitions of the signal will be received with independent fading conditions, thereby providing for diversity.

15. In maximal ratio combining, the output SNR is equal to __________
a) Mean of all individual SNRs
b) Maximum of all SNRs
c) Sum of individual SNR
d) Minimum of all SNRs
Answer: c
Clarification: Maximal ratio combining produces an output SNR equal to the sum of the individual SNRs. Thus, it has the advantage of producing an output with an acceptable SNR even when none of the individual signals are themselves acceptable.

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Wireless & Mobile Communications Multiple Choice Questions on “Wireless and Fixed Telephone Networks”.

1. In a wireless communication, base station is connected to central hub called _______
a) PSTN
b) MSC
c) CO
d) PBX
Answer: b
Clarification: To provide wireless communication within a particular geographic region, an integrated network of base stations must be deployed to provide sufficient radio coverage to all mobile users. The base station, in turn must be connected to a central hub called MSC (mobile switching center).

2. PSTN stands for ________
a) Public switched telephone network
b) Personal switched telephone network
c) Personal switched telephone node
d) Public switched telephone node
Answer: a
Clarification: PSTN stands for public switched telephone network. The PSTN forms the global telecommunication grid which connects conventional telephone centers with MSCs throughout the world.

3. MSCs provide connectivity between PSTN and the base stations.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The MSC provide connectivity between the public switched telephone network (PSTN) and the numerous base stations. It ultimately provides connectivity between all of the wireless subscribers in the system.

4. Communication protocol, CAI stands for ___________
a) Common air interchange
b) Control air interchange
c) Common air interface
d) Control air interchange
Answer: c
Clarification: To connect mobile subscribers to the base stations, radio links are established using a carefully defined communication protocol called common air interface (CAI) which in essence is a precisely defined handshake communication protocol.

5. At the base station, the air interface portion of mobile transmission is passed to MSC.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: At the base station, the air interface portion (i.e., signalling and synchronization data) of the mobile transmission is discarded, and the remaining voice traffic is paased along to the MSC on fixed networks.

6. PSTN is ___________ and wireless networks are ________
a) Highly dynamic, virtually static
b) Static, virtually static
c) Highly dynamic, virtually dynamic
d) Virtually static, highly dynamic
Answer: d
Clarification: The network configurations in the PSTN are virtually static, since the network connections may only be changed when a subscriber changes residence. Wireless networks are highly dynamic with the network configuration being rearranged everytime a new subscriber moves into the coverage region of a different base station.

7. In public switched telephone network, LATA stands for ______
a) Local access and transport area
b) Land area and transport area
c) Local access and telephone access
d) Local area and telephone access
Answer: a
Clarification: In public switched telephone network, LATA stands for Local access and transport area. LATA is a city or a geographic grouping of towns in PSTN.

8. LATAs are connected by a company called _________
a) Land exchange carrier
b) Local exchange carrier
c) Local control exchange
d) Land area exchange
Answer: b
Clarification: Surrounding LATAs are connected by a company called a local exchange carrier (LEC). A LEC is a company that provides telephone services and may be a local telephone company.

9. A long distance telephone company that collects toll is called _________
a) LATA
b) LEC
c) PSTN
d) IXC
Answer: d
Clarification: A long distance telephone company collects toll fees to provide connections between different LATAs over its long distance network. These companies are referred to as interexchange carriers (IXCs).

10. Wireless networks are extremely hostile and random nature of radio channel.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: A problem unique to wireless networks is the extremely hostile and random nature of the radio channel, and since users may request service from any physical location while traveling over a wide range of velocities.

11. The technique for separate but parallel signalling channel is called ________
a) Common channel signalling
b) Forward channel signalling
c) Reverse channel signalling
d) Separate channel signalling
Answer: a
Clarification: During the mid 1980s, the PSTN was transformed into two parallel networks- one dedicated to user traffic, and one dedicated to call signalling traffic. This technique is called common channel signalling.

12. In North America, the cellular telephone signalling network uses _______
a) SS7
b) IXC
c) IS-41
d) PSTN
Answer: a
Clarification: In North America, the cellular telephone signalling network uses No. 7 Signalling System (SS7), and each MSC uses the IS-41 protocol to communicate with other MSCs on the continent.

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Wireless & Mobile Communications Multiple Choice Questions on “Paging System”.

1. IPv6 has a larger address space of _________
a) 2¹⁶
b) 2¹²⁸
c) 2³²
d) 2⁸
Answer: b
Clarification: The main advantage of IPv6 over IPv4 is its larger address space. The length of an IPv6 address is 128 bits, compared with 32 bits in IPv4. The address space therefore has 2¹²⁸ or approximately 3.4×10³⁸ addresses.

2. Three strategies used to handle transition from version 4 to version 6 are dual-stack, tunneling and ________
a) Header Switching
b) Header Translation
c) Header Transfer
d) Header Transmission
Answer: b
Clarification: Three strategies used to handle transition from version 4 to version 6 are dual-stack, tunneling and header translation. Header translation techniques are more complicated than IPv4 NAT because the protocols have different header formats.

3. MTU stands for _________
a) Minimum Transfer Unit
b) Maximum Transfer Unit
c) Maximum Transport Unit
d) Maximum Transmission Unit
Answer: d
Clarification: In computer networking, the maximum transmission unit (MTU) is the size of the largest network layer protocol data unit that can be communicated in a single network transaction.

4. In IPv6, real-time audio or video, particularly in digital form, requires resources such as __________
a) Fixed Bandwidth
b) Variable Bandwidth
c) High Bandwidth
d) Low Bandwidth
Answer: c
Clarification: In IPv6, real-time audio or video, particularly in digital form, requires resources such as high bandwidth, large buffers, long processing times, and so on. A process can make a reservation for these resources beforehand to guarantee that real time data will not be delayed.

5. In practical IPv6 application, a technology encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets, this technology is called _______
a) Tunneling
b) Hashing
c) Routing
d) NAT
Answer: a
Clarification: IPv6 tunneling enables IPv6 hosts and routers to connect with other IPv6 hosts and routers over the existing IPv4 Internet. The main purpose of IPv6 tunneling is to deploy IPv6 as well as maintain compatibility with large existing base of IPv4 hosts and routers.

6. Which one of the following descriptions about IPv6 is correct?
a) Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random
b) Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts
c) There are 2.7 billion available addresses
d) An interface can only be configured with one IPv6 address
Answer: b
Clarification: In IPv6, there’s no longer any broadcast, sending one packet to a large number of unspecified hosts. There’s only multicast, unicast and anycast. In IPv6 all nodes are required to support multicast.

7. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________
a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes
Answer: d
Clarification: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of 40bytes. It results in faster processing of the datagram. Fixed length IPv6 header allows the routers to process the IPv6 datagram packets more efficiently.

8. In the IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?
a) Fragmentation field
b) Fast switching
c) TOS field
d) Option field
Answer: c
Clarification: This field enables to have different types of IP datagram. In an IPv6 packet, the Traffic Class byte is used in the same way as the ToS byte in an IPv4 packet. A ToS/Traffic Class byte includes a DSCP (Differentiated Services Codepoint) and precedence bits.

9. Which are the features present in IPv4 but not in IPv6?
a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum
c) Options
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Clarification: All the features are only present in IPv4 and not IPv6. IPv6 no longer has a header checksum to protect the IP header, meaning that when a packet header is corrupted by transmission errors, the packet is very likely to be delivered incorrectly.

10. IPv6 is designed to allow extension of the _________
a) Protocol
b) Dataset
c) Headers
d) Routes
Answer: a
Clarification: IPv6 is designed to allow the extension of the protocol if required by new technologies or applications. IPv6 uses a new header format in which options are separated from the base header and inserted, when needed, between the base header and upper-layer data.

11. In IPv6, base header can be followed by, up to _________
a) Six Extension Layers
b) Six Extension Headers
c) Eight Extension headers
d) Eight Extension layers
Answer: b
Clarification: The length of the base header is 40 bytes. However, to give more functionality to the IP datagram, the base header can be followed by up to six extension headers.

12. In an IPv6 datagram, M bit is 0, value of HLEN is 5, value of total length is 200 and offset value is ___________
a) 400
b) 350
c) 300
d) 200
Answer: d
Clarification: In an IPv6 datagram, M bit is 0, value of HLEN is 5, the value of total length is 200 and offset value is 200. If the M bit is 0, it means there are no more fragments, the fragment is the last name.

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