300+ TOP Human Anatomy MCQs and Answers Quiz

Human Anatomy Multiple Choice Questions

1. Ncucleus ‘Z’ is located between

A. Dorsal and medial accessory nucleus
B. Upper end of Gracilis nucleus and lower end of vestibular nucleus
C. Between hypoglossal Nucleus and Dorsal Nucleus of Vagus
D. Dorsal Nucleus of vagus and vestibular nucleus

Answer: B

2. In Wallen berg syndrome which artery is involved ?

A. Anterior cerebellar artery
B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Posterior cerebral artery
D. Posterior cerebellar inferior artery

Answer: D

3. In smothering ….. finding has great evidential value.

A) Bruising in inner aspect of lips
B) petechial hemorrhages on forehead
C) Cyanosis of lips and ear lobes
D) Crescentic abrasion marks on face

Answer: A

4. Bruising in inner aspect of lips is a very important evidential finding in……

A) choking
B) smothering
C) gagging
D) strangulation

Answer: B

5. The blockage of internal upper respiratory passage by liquid medium is called as…..

A) Smothering
B) Drowning
C) Mugging
D) Gagging

Answer: B

6. The assessment of difference of level of chloride in right and left side of heart is known as ……

A) Swann test
B) Hegar’s test
C) Diatom test
D) Gettler’s test

Answer: D

7. The chloride content of left side of heart in fresh water drowning is ….. than right side of heart.

A) lower
B) equal
C) higher
D) 25% higher

Answer: A

8. Contact flattening is reflection of ……..

A) Rigor mortis
B) Algor mortis
C) Primary relaxation
D) Livor mortis

Answer: A

9. The specific gravity of un-respired lung is…..

A) 1.04
B) 2.04
C) 1.94
D) 0.94

Answer: A

10. The weight of infant lung after respiration is……

A) 80-90gm
B) 60-70gm
C) 30-40gm
D) 20-30gm

Answer: C

1. An anatomically male with XXY chromosome pattern is seen in……

A) Turner’s syndrome
B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
C) Gonadal agenesis
D) Pseudo hermaphrodites

Answer: B

2. When ovaries and testis both are present in an individual that condition is labeled as……

A) True hermaphrodites
B) Pseudo hermaphrodites
C) Turner’s syndrome
D) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer: A

3. The germination of deciduous teeth starts in maxilla by…..

A) 4th /5th intrauterine month
B) 6th /7th extrauterine month
C) 4th /5th extrauterine month
D) 6th /7th intrauterine month

Answer: A

4. ….. formula is used to estimate age of infant from teeth.

A) Boyde’s
B) Mile’s
C) Gustafson’s
D) Point

Answer: A

5. Other than age the teeth also helps to determine…….

A) Sex
B) Blood group
C) race
D) All

Answer: D

6. …….is most reliable long bone used to estimate age of a person.

A) femur
B) humerus
C) skull
D) tibia

Answer: A

7. Sternal angle lies at the level of which costal cartilage?

A) 1st
B) 2nd
C) 3rd
D) 4th

Answer: B

8. Which bone ossifies second in the body?

A) Mandible
B) Clavicle
C) scapula
D) Skull

Answer: A

9. following are examples of pneumatic bones except

A) frontal
B) Maxilla
C) Ethmoid
D) Mandible

Answer: D

10. Which is the largest seasmoid bone in the body?

A) Pisiforn
B) Patella
C) fabella
D) none of above

Answer: B

1. Quadrate shaped caecum is seen in which type of caecum ?

A. adult type
B. normal
C. exaggerated type
D. infantile type

Answer: D

2. Renal veins begin beneath the renal capsule as

A. Renal plexus
B. Network of sinusoids
C. Arcuate veins
D. Stellate veins

Answer: D

3. Which is true about space of Ritzius ?

A. Act as a bursa
B. Act as a fluid filled space
C. Triangular in shape
D. On the posterior aspect of bladder

Answer: A

4. Following relation of the kidney is non peritoneal except

A. Supra renal
B. Jejunal
C. Colic
D. Duodenal

Answer: B

5. Which artery is considered as third coronary artery ?

A. left conus artery
B. right anterior interventricular branch
C. none of these
D. right conus artery

Answer: D

6. Content of posterior mediastinum includes

A. thymus
B. four pulmonary veins
C. vagus nerve
D. phrenic nerve

Answer: C

7. Arrangement of structures at hilum of left lung from above downwards are in order.

A. pulmonary artery, left principal bronchus, lower pulmonary vein
B. pulmonary artery, lower pulmonary vein, left principal bronchus
C. left principal bronchus, pulmonary vein, pulmonary artery
D. pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, left principal bronchus and its subdivisions

Answer: A

8. The inferior tracheo bronchial lymph nodes are otherwise known as _____ lymphnodes.

A. Hilar
B. Sentinel
C. Subcarinal
D. Paratracheal

Answer: C

9. During routine eosin-haematoxylin staining, red beaded cells in the fundus of stomach are

A. oxyphill cells
B. mucous neck cells
C. cheif cells
D. oxyntic cells

Answer: D

10. ‘Hassal’s corpuscles’ are seen in

A. Spleen
B. Bone Marrow
C. Glomerulus
D. Thymus

Answer: D

1. In highly decomposed body identification of….. is possible.

A) Prostate
B) Liver
C) Kidney
D) Thyroid

Answer: A

2. The accuracy of sex determination from whole skeleton is…..

A) 90%
B) 95%
C) 98%
D) 100%

Answer: D

3. The accuracy of sex determination from skull and pelvic bone is…..

A) 90%
B) 95%
C) 98%
D) 100%

Answer: C

4. The sex can be determined from pelvic bone alone with accuracy of…..

A) 90%
B) 95%
C) 98%
D) 100%

Answer: B

5. Inferior cerebellar peduncle is also called by the name

A. Restiform body
B. Cuneo cerebellar peduncle
C. Arcuate cerebellar peduncle
D. Arcuato floccular tract

Answer: A

6. ……bone is not useful in determination of sex

A) Sacrum
B) Mandible
C) Sternum
D) Clavicle

Answer: D

7. In male the obturator foramen is ……..

A) Oval
B) Triangular
C) Rectangular
D) Square

Answer: A

8. Triangle of Ausculation is formed by which part?

A) Scapula
B) Trapezius
C) Latissimus dorsi
D) All of above

Answer: D

9. What is the shape of space of Axilla?

A) Pyramidal
B) Rectangle
C) Triangle
D) Circular

Answer: A

10. Supercilliary arch is present in ……….

A) Norma Verticalis
B) Norma Occipitalis
C) Norma Frontalis
D) Norma Basalis

Answer: C

1. Following one anomaly considered is considered as ‘atavistic’ one

A. Accessory pancreas
B. Duodenal atresia
C. Pancreatic cyst
D. Annular pancreas

Answer: A

2. Inferior cerebellar peduncle is also called by the name

A. Restiform body
B. Cuneo cerebellar peduncle
C. Arcuate cerebellar peduncle
D. Arcuato floccular tract

Answer: A

3. Posterolateral sulcus contain root lets of all cranial nerve except

A. glossopharyngeal
B. vagus
C. hypoglossal
D. cranial accessory

Answer: C

4. Which among the following is vestibulo cerebellum ?

A. Archicerebellum
B. Paleocerebellum
C. Neocerebellum
D. Spinocerebellum

Answer: A

5. Bulb of Posterior horn of lateral ventricle is produced by

A. Forceps minor
B. Forceps major
C. Calcarnine Sulcus
D. Optic radiation

Answer: B

6. Coronary sinus opens in the….

A) Right atrium
B) Left atrium
C) Right ventricle
D) Left ventricle

Answer: A

7. Percentage of surface area of palm of a burn patient:

A) 1%
B) 9%
C) 18%
D) 27%

Answer: A

8. Which part of the small intestine is retroperitoneal………

A) Jejunum
B) Duodenum
C) Ileum
D) Stomach

Answer: B

9. Tricuspid valve present in-between——

A) Right atrium and Left atrium
B) Left atrium and Left Ventricle
C) Left ventricle and Right Ventricle
D) Right atrium and Right ventricle

Answer: D

10. Peyer’s patches are most numerous in….

A) Duodenum
B) Ileum
C) Jejunum
D) Large intestine

Answer: B

1. Peyer’s patches are ulcerated in………

A) Anaemia
B) Diarrhea
C) Malaria
D) Typhoid fever

Answer: D

2. The silvery –white marks on abdomen in delivered women is named as ……

A) Striae gravidarum
B) Linea nigra
C) Lineae ablicantes
D) Scar mark of delivery

Answer: C

3. In pregnancy the Braxton Hicks sign can be detected by……..onward

A) 16 weeks
B) 4 weeks
C) 10 weeks
D) 8 weeks

Answer: A

4. Amenorrhea is a ……. Sign of pregnancy.

A) Positive
B) Confirmative
C) Probable
D) Presumptive

Answer: D

5. Among the presumptive signs of pregnancy …… is most important in medicolegal point of view.

A) Chandwik sign
B) Linea nigra
C) Quickening
D) Montegomery’s follicle

Answer: C

6. Cardiac Orifice of stomach situated behind ………Coastal cartilage.

A) Right 7th
B) Left 7th
C) Right 9th
D) Left 9th

Answer: B

7. Softening and compressibility of lower uterine segment is named as……sign.

A) Chandwick
B) Ballottement
C) Hegar’s
D) Broxton Hick

Answer: C

8. The main culprit involved in rapid development of sepsis in criminal abortion is…….

A) E. coli
B) Staphylococci
C) C. Welchii
D) Steptococcci

Answer: C

9. Presence of ……. under microscope in the cells of placental site is sure sign of pregnancy.

A) Chorionic villi
B) enlarged endometrium
C) red blood cells
D) Pus cells

Answer: A

10. At ….. week gallbladder of foetus contain bile.

A) 24th week
B) 22th week
C) 20th week
D) 28th week

Answer: D

1. Frowning muscle is

A. Dialator naris
B. Procerus
C. Corrugator super cilii
D. Zygomatic minor

Answer: C

2. Direction of Nasolacrimal duct, true statement is

A. Forwards downwards and laterally
B. Downwards backwards and laterally
C. Downwards backwards and medially
D. Forwards downwards and medially

Answer: B

3. Part of the parotid gland seen between ramus of mandible and medial pterygoid muscle is called

A. ramus process
B. anterior process
C. pterygoid process
D. facial process

Answer: C

4. External carotid artery gives off how many branches in carotid triangle ?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

Answer: A

5. Foramen rotundum transmits which structure ?

A. maxillary nerve
B. maxillary artery
C. zygomatic nerve
D. mandibular nerve

Answer: A

6. Structure within the cavernous sinus include

A. maxillary division of trigeminal
B. superior ophthalmic vein
C. optic nerve
D. abducent nerve

Answer: D

7. Which of the following is not included in rotator cuff?

A) Supraspinatus
B) Subscapularis
C) Infraspinatus
D) Serratus anterior

Answer: D

8. In appendicitis condition patient feels pain at _______.

A) Right iliac fossa
B) Epigastric region
C) Right hypochondriac region
D) All over the abdomen

Answer: D

9. Movements of eye are regulated by ………. muscles.

A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7

Answer: C

10. The cephalic index of Indians is……

A) 75-80
B) 80-85
C) 65-70
D) 70-75

Answer: A

1. Diameter of ureter is……..

A) 6 mm
B) 5mm.
C) 7mm
D) 3mm

Answer: D

2 ……….Ligament of Urinary Bladder is the remnant of the urachus.

A) Lateral Umbilical
B) The medial puboprostatic
C) Median umbilical
D) None of A, B & C

Answer: C

3. For anterior 2/3 of Tongue. ……..is the nerve for general sensation.

A) Glossopharyngeal Nerve
B) Vagus Nerve
C) Facial Nerve
D) Lingual nerve

Answer: D

4. The greater and lesser sacs communicate through ………. foramen.

A) Jugular
B) Epiploic
C) Oval
D) None of A, B& C

Answer: B

5. Corpus spongiosum is present in….

A) Penis
B) Testis
C) Lungs
D) Heart

Answer: A

6. One of the following muscular branches of Mandibular nerve is not from anterior division, which is that

A. Masseterirc
B. Temporal
C. Nerve to lateral pterygoid
D. Nerve to Medial Pterygoid

Answer: D

7. Through Oculomotor foramen which structure is passed

A. Abducent nerve
B. Frontal nerve
C. Ophthalmic vein
D. Lacrimal nerve

Answer: A

8. Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of

A. Costocervical trunk of subclavian artery
B. Thyrocervical trunk of subclavian artery
C. External carotid artery
D. Arch of Aorta

Answer: B

9. The fundus of parous uterus is usually tend to be ……..

A) higher than the line of fallopian tube
B) at the line of fallopian tube
C) lower than the line of fallopian tube
D) Distant from fallopian tube

Answer: A

10. In the nulli-parous uterus the length of body is …… the length of cervical segment.

A) less
B) equal
C) twice
D) thrice

Answer: B

1. Which is the normal site of implantation of blastocyst?

A) Anterior wall of body of uterus
B) Posterior wall of body of uterus
C) Fallopian tube
D) Lower part of uterus

Answer: B

2. Which of the following is a true statement about placenta?

A) It is a temporary organ
B) It transfers oxygen to the fetus
C) It removes CO2 from the fetus
D) All of A, B & C

Answer: D

3. Notochord develops during……month of fetal development.

A) First
B) Second
C) Fourth
D) Third

Answer: A

4. All germ layers, ectoderm, mesoderm & endoderm present in …….

A) Urachus
B) Tympanic membrane
C) Heart
D) Cornea

Answer: B

5. Which of the following option is most appropriate regarding formation of Primary villi?

A) Syncytiotrophoblast
B) Cytotrophoblast
C) Extra embryonic mesoderm
D) Both A & B

Answer: D

6. Morula is ……cells stage.

A) 12
B) 08
C) 16
D) 18

Answer: C

7. Ligamentum teres is remnant of ………..

A) Lesser omentum
B) Ductus venosus
C) Left umbilical artery
D) Left umbilical vein

Answer: D

8. Ligamentum venosum is remnant of……..

A) Ductus arteriosus
B) Left umbilical artery
C) Ductus venosus
D) Lesser omentum

Answer: C

9. Ligamentum arteriosum is remnant of___________.

A) Ductus arteriosus
B) Left umbilical artery
C) Ductus venosus
D) Lesser omentum

Answer: A

10. Which of the following structure is not related to placental barrier?

A) Fetal blood vessels
B) Intra -embryonic mesoderm
C) Syncytium & cytotrophoblast
D) Extra -embryonic mesoderm

Answer: B

1. In female length of body of sternum is ….. the length of manubrium.

A) Less than twice
B) equal to
C) more than twice
D) twice

Answer: A

2. In male upper border of manubrium is at the level of……..

A) lower margin of second thoracic vertebra
B) lower margin of third thoracic vertebra
C) upper margin of second thoracic vertebra
D) lower margin of first thoracic vertebra

Answer: A

3. The diameter of glenoid cavity of female scapula is……

A) more than 3.5 cm
B) less than 3.5cm
C) 3.5 cm
D) none

Answer: B

4. ….pattern of sex chromosomes are frequently visible under microscope.

A) XX
B) XY
C) XXY
D) XO

Answer: A

5. The spherical compact masses having drumstick appearance present in neutrophils are called as……

A) Barr bodies
B) Davidson bodies
C) Montegmeries tubercle
D) Negri bodies

Answer: B

6. The planoconvex masses situated inside the nucleus is called as…..

A) Barr bodies
B) Davidson bodies
C) Montegmeries tubercle
D) Negri bodies

Answer: A

7. In female Davidson bodies are seen in…..

A) 15%
B) 10%
C) 3%
D) 1%

Answer: C

8. In Turner’s syndrome the sex chromosomal pattern is…..

A) XY
B) XXY
C) XX
D) X0

Answer: D

9. A female with short structure, webbed neck & sterility is seen in….

A) Turner’s syndrome
B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
C) Gonadal agenesis
D) pseudo hermaphrodites

Answer: A

10. In gonadal agenesis the pattern of sex chromosome is….

A) XY
B) XXY
C) XX
D) 00

Answer: D

1. Branche of radial nerve in the axilla supplies which muscle ?

A. Lateral head of triceps
B. Long head of triceps
C. Anconeus
D. Brachioradialis

Answer: B

2. Following events takes place at the level of insertion of coracobrachialis, except

A. Cross Sectional shape of humerus of changes
B. Basilic vein passes into deep plane
C. Median nerve crosses cephalic vien
D. Medial cutaneous nerve of arm pierces deep fascia at this level

Answer: C

3. The nerve supply of first lumbrical is by

A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Anterior interosseous nerve

Answer: B

4. Second Dorsal Interosseous muscle supplied by

A. ulnar nerve
B. median nerve
C. radial nerve
D. both a and b

Answer: A

5. In ‘anterior leg syndrome’ pulsation of which artery usually disappears ?

A. popliteal artery
B. anterior tibial artery
C. dorsalis pedis artery
D. posterior tibial artery

Answer: C

6. Cranial neuropore closes by around

A. `15^(th)` day
B. `20^(th)` day
C. `25^(th)` day
D. `35^(th)` day

Answer: C

7. During Neurulation process the `BMP_(4)` inactivation is caused by

A. Noggin
B. Elastin
C. Chordin
D. Both a and c

Answer: D

8. Commonest type of twinning is

A. Monozygotic bichorinic
B. Monochorionic biamniotic
C. Monochorionic monoamniotic
D. Conjoint twins

Answer: B

9. In pygopagus type of twinning which region is seen fused ?

A. thorax
B. legs
C. abdomen
D. sacral

Answer: D

10. Which type of joint is pubic symphysis

A. primary cartilaginous
B. secondary cartilaginous
C. plane synovial
D. gomphosis

Answer: B

1. Episiotomy is meant to avoid injury to ______.

A) Pineal body
B) Perineal membrane
C) Perineal raphe
D) Perineal body

Answer: D

2. Which part of male urethra usually get ruptured during metal catheterization?

A) Prostatic
B) Membranous
C) Penile
D) All of these

Answer: B

3. Area vicinity to philtrum is called as Little’s danger area because it drains into ______.

A) Pterygoid plexus
B) Superior facial vein
C) Inferior facial vein
D) None of these

Answer: B

4. Boils on tip of nose are painful because _____.

A) Skin is firmly adhered to underlying fascia
B) Profuse sensory supply
C) Skin is loose over underlying fascia
D) None of A, B & C

Answer: A

5. Mediastinum moves up down during respiration without tearing lungs because of ______.

A) Spongy lungs
B) Large hilums
C) Mediastinal flexibility
D) Pulmonary ligaments

Answer: D

6. Vertebral origin of the diaphragm took place from how many arcuate ligamnets?

A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6

Answer: C

7. Which of the following is counteract the hardening effect of formalin?

A) Phenol
B) Ethyl alcohol
C) Glycerin
D) None of these

Answer: C

8. Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by _________

A) Brachial plexus
B) Carotid plexus
C) Chorid plexus
D) Cardiac plexus

Answer: C

9. The length of Spinal cord in male is _________ cm.

A) 42
B) 43
C) 44
D) 45

Answer: D

10. Weeping umbilicus is the congenital anomaly due to patent _____.

A) Median umbilical ligament
B) Lateral umbilical ligament
C) Medial umbilical ligament
D) None of these

Answer: A

1 ………….is common site for fracture of upper end of humerus?

A) Anatomical neck
B) Morphological neck
C) Surgical neck
D) None of above

Answer: C

2. Olecranon process is present in which bone?

A) Scapula
B) Radius
C) Ulna
D) Clavicle

Answer: C

3. Klumpeke’s paralysis is caused due to injury to …….. of brachial plexus.

A) Upper trunk
B) Middle trunk
C) Lower trunk
D) None of above

Answer: C

4. Triangle of Ausculation is formed by which part?

A) Scapula
B) Trapezius
C) Latissimus dorsi
D) All of above

Answer: D

5. What is the shape of space of Axilla?

A) Pyramidal
B) Rectangle
C) Triangle
D) Circular

Answer: A

6. Which artery is palpated in Anatomical snuff box?

A) Ulnar
B) Brachial
C) Radial
D) Axillary

Answer: C

7. Coracobrachialis is the muscle of which region?

A) Arm
B) Forearm
C) Hand
D) Shoulder

Answer: A

8. Golfer’s elbow is also called as ……

A) Lateral epicondylitis
B) Medial epicondylitis
C) Tennis elbow
D) Bursitis

Answer: B

9. Following are types of finger prints except

A) Arch
B) Composite
C) Whorl
D) Oval

Answer: D

10. Which muscle is called as Boxer’s muscle?

A) Brachialis
B) Serratus anterior
C) Pectoralis major
D) Latissimus dorsi

Answer: B

1. In Lasrsell’s classification Paleocerebellum includes

A. anterior lobe + pyramid
B. anterior lobe – lingula plus pyramid and uvula
C. anterior lobe – lingula plus uvula
D. anterior lobe, uvual and pyramid

Answer: B

2. Rigor mortis first appears in voluntary muscles of……

A) Neck
B) eye
C) Heart
D) face

Answer: B

3. Rigor mortis develops in a foetus beyond ……intrauterine life.

A) 180 days
B) 280 days
C) 210 days
D) 250 days

Answer: C

4. Constitents of pyriform lobe are the following except

A. gyrus semilunaris
B. entorhinal area
C. dentate gyrus
D. pre pirigorm area

Answer: C

5. Meta thalamus refers to

A. tegmentum of mid brain
B. Subthalamic region
C. Hypothalamus and mammillary bodies
D. Medial and Lateral geniculate bodies

Answer: D

6. Regarding arachnoid granulations which statement is true ?

A. No change with age
B. Seen in the region of sigmoid sinus
C. Also called Pacchionion bodies
D. Help in formation of CSF

Answer: C

7. …….. is pain sensitive.

A) Parietal Peritoneum
B) Visceral Peritoneum
C) Visceral Pleura
D) None of A,B& C

Answer: A

8. Bare area of Liver present on …………surface of liver.

A) Anterior
B) Posterior
C) Inferior
D) Superior

Answer: B

9. Hepatic Segments are …………in number.

A) 2
B) 5
C) 4
D) 6

Answer: C

10. Mean capacity of Stomach at birth is………..

A) 10ml
B) 15ml
C) 20ml
D) 30ml

Answer: D

1. Ovula Nebothi are

A. Histogical appearance of cervix
B. Paculiar feature of cervical canal
C. Dialated cervical glands bulging into cervical canal
D. Functinal significance of cervical canal

Answer: C

2. Root value of sacral plexus is

A. `S_(1)`, ` S_(2)`, `S_(3)` and `S_(4)`
B. `L_(4)`, ` L_(5)`, `L_(6)` ,`S_(1)`, ` S_(2)` and `S_(3)`
C. `L_(4)`, ` L_(5)`, `S_(1)`, ` S_(2)`, ` S_(3)` and `S_(4)`
D. ` L_(5)`, `S_(1)`, ` S_(2)`, ` S_(3)` and `S_(4)`

Answer: C

3. In which vessel blood flow occurs in diastole

A. lower limb vessels
B. oesophageal vessels
C. coronary vessels
D. renal vessels

Answer: C

4. Length of thoracic part of oesophagus is about

A. 8 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 12.5 cm
D. 25 cm

Answer: B

5. Nuclear origin of vagus nerve include all except

A. Nucleus ambiguus
B. Dorsal Nucleus of vagus
C. Nucleus of tractus solitarians
D. Vestibular Nucleus

Answer: D

6. Contents of rectus sheath include

A. Rectus abdominis
B. Pyramidalis
C. Superior epigastric artery
D. All the above

Answer: D

7. Raspberry red tumour is due to

A. Vitellointestinal duct-distal part
B. Meckel’s diverticulum
C. Testicular bulging
D. Appendicular inflammation

Answer: A

8. Which joint is an example for pivot joint ?

A. Sternocostal joint
B. Superior radioulnar joint
C. Shoulder joint
D. Elbow joint

Answer: B

9. The upper one third of cervix of uterus including internal os is called

A. Functional isthmus
B. Isthmus
C. Upper segment
D. Body of uterus

Answer: A

10. Which statement is true regrading base of heart ?

A. Base forms posterior surface
B. Triangular in outline
C. Directed backwards to left
D. Formed by both left atrium and left ventricle

Answer: A

1. Bony and cartilagenious framework of body is called as….

A) joint
B) Skeleton
C) Bone
D) none of above

Answer: B

2. A large depression in bone is called as ……

A) Facet
B) Fovea
C) Fossa
D) Foveolae

Answer: C

3. The process of gradual bone formation is called as…..

A) Osmosis
B) Osteoporosis
C) osteogenesis
D) Ossification

Answer: D

4. The portion of long bone between two cartilaginous ends is known as……

A) Epiphysis
B) Metaphysis
C) Diaphysis
D) None of above

Answer: C

5. Skull consists of how many bones?

A) 22
B) 28
C) 26
D) 32

Answer: B

6. Humerus has how many necks?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Answer: C

7. Posterior view of skull is called ……….

A) Norma Verticalis
B) Norma Occipitalis
C) Norma Frontalis
D) Norma Basalis

Answer: B

8. . ………. is the content of cribiform plate of ethmoid bone.

A) Optic Nerve
B) Occulomotor Nerve
C) Olfactory Nerve
D) Trochlear Nerve

Answer: C

9 …….. coat of Eyeball is vascular

A) Outer
B) Middle
C) Inner
D) None of above

Answer: B

10. Which is the type of Temporomandibular joint?

A) Cartilaginous
B) Synovial
C) Diarthrosis
D) Both B & C

Answer: D

1. Root of finger nail covered with soft keratin is called

A. eponychium
B. paronychium
C. lunula
D. nail bed

Answer: A

2. Content of ‘Anatomical snuff box’ is

A. abductor pollicis longus
B. radial artery
C. extensor pollicis longus
D. styloid process of ulna

Answer: B

3. Fourth compartment of extensor retinaculum contains all except.

A. anterior interosseous artery
B. posterior interosseous nerve
C. tendon of extensor indicis
D. tendon of extensor digctorum profundus

Answer: D

4. Scapular anastamosis include all except

A. suprascapular artery
B. thoraco acromial artery
C. posterior cirumflex humeral artery
D. anterior circumflex humeral artery

Answer: D

5. Subscapular bursa of shoulder joint is seen in between

A. Superior glenohumeral ligament and middle glenohumeral ligament
B. Middle glenohumeral ligament and inferior gleonohumeral ligament
C. Above superior glenohumeral ligament
D. Below inferior glenohumeral ligament

Answer: A

6. Radial tripod includes movements of the finger tips of following fingers except.

A. thumb
B. middle finger
C. index finger
D. ring finger

Answer: D

7. Patella develop as a sesamoid bone in the tendon of

A. Quadriceps femoris
B. Quadratus femoris
C. Flexor carpi ulnaris
D. Medical head of gastronemius

Answer: A

8. Name the muscle that is not attached to the little toe

A. third plantar interosseous muscle
B. abductor digiti minimi
C. third dorsal interosseous muscle
D. flexor digiti minimi brevis

Answer: C

9. Morphologically soleus muscle corresponds with which muscle of fore arm

A. pronator teves
B. flexor digitorum superficialis
C. flexer digitorum profundus
D. pronator quadratus

Answer: B

10. Normally Deep External Pudendal artery is a branch of

A. Femoral artery
B. Profunda femoris artery
C. Medial circumflex femoral artery
D. Obturator artery

Answer: A

1. Taenia Coli is feature of……….

A) Small intestine
B) Duodenum
C) Large intestine
D) Stomach

Answer: C

2. ……… is one of those organs of the body that have Greater width than the length.

A) Liver
B) Stomach
C) Kidney
D) Caecum

Answer: D

3. Which is the commonest position of the Appendix?

A) Splenic
B) Retrocecal
C) Paracolic
D) Pelvic

Answer: B

4. ………….is a retroperitoneal organ.

A) Spleen
B) Stomach
C) Liver
D) Kidney

Answer: D

5. Primary Piles – occurs in ……..O’clock positions of the anal wall.

A) 7, 8 and 9
B) 2, 3 and 5
C) 3, 7, and 11
D) 3, 5, and 7

Answer: C

6. Length of Female Urethra is…..

A) 20 cm
B) 4.cm
C) 10 cm
D) 7 cm

Answer: B

7. Oesophageal opening in the diaphragm lies at level of ……… thoracic vertebra.

A) 8th
B) 11th
C) 10th
D) 12th

Answer: C

8. Costodiaphragmatic recess extends from…….. ribs along the midaxillary line.

A) 8th to 10th
B) 6th to 8th
C) 10th to 12th
D) 6th to 8th

Answer: A

9. Foramen caecum is present in…..

A) Caecum
B) Tongue
C) Heart
D) Brain

Answer: B

10. All muscles of Tongue, except the palatoglossus are supplied by the….

A) Hypoglossal nerve
B) Lingual nerve
C) Glossopharyngeal nerve
D) Vagus nerve

Answer: A

1. Dartos muscle is supplied by which nerve?

A) External pudendal nerve
B) Genitofemoral nerve
C) Internal pudendal nerve
D) Ilioinguinal nerve

Answer: B

2. Central tendon of perineum gives attachment to how many muscles?

A) 8
B) 9
C) 10
D) 11

Answer: C

3. Intravenous needle insertion is usually difficult in the dorsum of hand due to _____.

A) Laxity skin
B) Absence of deep fascia
C) Absent superficial fascia
D) None of A, B & C

Answer: B

4. Perianal lymph is drained into _____.

A) Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
B) Deep inguinal lymph nodes
C) External iliac lymph nodes
D) Internal iliac lymph nodes

Answer: A

5. “Aartava” is dominated by which of the following Mahabhutas?

A) Vayu
B) Agni
C) Aakash
D) Aap

Answer: B

6. By how many openings do the semicircular canals open into the vestibule?

A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 5

Answer: D

7. The tympanic membrane separates the ear canal from the……….

A) Auditory tube
B) Middle ear cavity
C) Aditus to mastoid antrum
D) Inner ear cavity

Answer: B

8. Bony labyrinth does not contain______.

A) Stapes
B) Semicircular canals
C) Cochlea
D) Vestibule

Answer: A

9. Which vessel transports blood rich in oxygen and nutrients to the fetus?

A) Ductus arteriosus
B) Ductus venosus
C) Umbilical vein
D) Umbilical artery

Answer: C

10. Portion of placenta contributed by the embryo is the………

A) Chorion
B) Yolk sac
C) Amnion
D) Allantosis

Answer: A

1. Diameter of ovum is about ……..μm.

A) 60
B) 80
C) 100
D) 50

Answer: C

2. Fertilization occurs in the …….. part of fallopian tube.

A) Isthmus
B) Ampulla
C) Infundibulum
D) None of A, B & C

Answer: B

3. Which hormone is the basis for pregnancy test?

A) HCG
B) Prolactin
C) Estrogen
D) Prostaglandins

Answer: A

4. Subdivision of fertile ovum into smaller cells is called as…….

A) Chorion
B) Amnion
C) Yolk sac
D) Cleavage

Answer: D

5. Acrosome of spermatozoa is formed by…….

A) Ribosome
B) Golgi complex
C) Lysosomes
D) Mitochondria

Answer: B

6. Which of the following is not site of portosystemic anastomosis?

A) Lower part of oesophagus
B) Umbilicus
C) Rectum
D) Inguinal canal

Answer: D

7. Length of Proximal interphalangeal joint of_____ finger is considered as Swanguli Praman

A) Index
B) Middle
C) Ring
D) Little

Answer: B

8. Nasal septum is made up of _____.

A) Vomer, Sphenoid
B) Vomer, Nasal
C) Vomer Ethmoid
D) Only Vomer,

Answer: C

9. Nasolacrimal duct opens in to ______.

A) Superior meatus
B) Inferior meatus
C) Middle meatus
D) Sphenoidal recess

Answer: B

10. Which of the turbinate bone is independent bone?

A) Superior
B) Inferior
C) Middle
D) All A, B & C

Answer: B

1. Which among the following is derived from all the three embryonic layers ?

A. optic nerve
B. tympanic membrane
C. mammary gland
D. suprameatal triangle

Answer: B

2. “Stave Cells” are present in the histology of

A. Spleen
B. Thymus
C. Bone marrow
D. Lymph node

Answer: A

3. Lymphatics of liver starts as blind radicles in which space ?

A. Bile canaliculi
B. Spaces of Disse
C. Space of Mall
D. Sinusoids

Answer: C

4. Which is blood testis barrier ?

A. adluminal compartment between the adjacent sertoli cells
B. tight junctions produced by lateral processes of adjoining sertoli cells
C. none of these
D. fenestrated capillaries and basement membrane

Answer: C

5. Which cell has cart-wheel shaped nuclues ?

A. plasma cells
B. fibrocytes
C. eosinophils
D. monocytes

Answer: A

6. The position of Nucleus pulposis in cervical and thoracic regions

A. shifted anteriorly
B. central
C. peripherally shifted
D. shifted posteriorly

Answer: B

7. Cells of Juxtra glomerular apparatus consists of all except

A. Macula densa
B. Lacis cells
C. Polkissan cells
D. Juxtra rotary cells

Answer: D

8. What type of chromosomes are usually involved in Robertsonian type of translocations ?

A. one acrocentric and one metacentric
B. two acrocentric
C. two metacentric
D. one telocentric and one acrocentric

Answer: B

9. False statement regrading X-linked recessive trait is

A. females are the carriers
B. males are the victims of the diseases
C. females are the usual victims of the diseases
D. no male to male transmission

Answer: C

10. Largest carpal bone is

A. capitate
B. hamate
C. pisiform
D. scaphoid

Answer: A

1. Shape of body of Mandible is ………

A) Quadrilateral
B) Horse-shoe
C) Triangular
D) Circular

Answer: B

2. Malleolar fossa of fibula is present at ……….

A) Upper end
B) Shaft
C) Lower end
D) Apex

Answer: C

3. Supercilliary arch is present in ……….

A) Norma Verticalis
B) Norma Occipitalis
C) Norma Frontalis
D) Norma Basalis

Answer: C

4. Middle mennigeal artey passes through ……….

A) Superior orbital fissure
B) Foramen rotundum
C) Foramen spinosum
D) Foramen ovale

Answer: C

5 ……..surface of fibula is the shortest surface.

A) Lateral
B) Posterior
C) Medial
D) None of above

Answer: C

6. Pterion can be seen in ………. view of skull.

A) Anterior
B) Lateral
C) Posterior
D) Inferior

Answer: B

7. Which of the following muscle acts as muscle of mastication?

A) Temporalis
B) Masseter
C) Buccinator
D) All of above.

Answer: D

8. Which is the largest & strongest bone of face?

A) Maxilla
B) Mandible
C) Frontal
D) Zygomatic

Answer: B

9. Which is the lateral bone of forearm?

A) Ulna
B) Radius
C) Tibia
D) Fibula

Answer: B

10. The penalty for violation of PC&PNDT Act 1994 by RMP is proved for first offence is ……..

A) imprisonment for 3 yrs & fine upto 10,000/-
B) removal of name from register for 5 yrs
C) imprisonment for 3 yrs & fine upto 50,000/-
D) permanent removal of name from register

Answer: B

1. In suspected infanticide the displacement of Wharton’s jelly is suggestive of attempt of …

A) Head injuries
B) Strangulation
C) Smothering
D) poisoning

Answer: B

2. In precipitated labour ……is not seen in infant.

A) Caput succedaneum
B) head injury
C) fracture in skull
D) hematoma

Answer: A

3. …….does not falls under the criteria of primary identification data.

A) Age
B) Sex
C) Finger print
D) Stature

Answer: C

4. The skull of Negroids are…….

A) Meso-cephalic
B) Brachy-cephalic
C) Dalico-cephalic
D) Mono-cephalic

Answer: C

5. The cephalic index of Caucasians is …….

A) 75-80
B) 70-75
C) 80-85
D) 65-70

Answer: A

6. Short upper and lower extremities are the characteristic of ……..

A) Indians
B) Negroids
C) Caucasians
D) Mangoloids

Answer: D

7. Proportionately longer leg than thigh is characteristic of…….

A) Indians
B) Negroids
C) Caucasians
D) Mangoloids

Answer: B

8. Brachial index is an indices measured from…..

A) skull
B) long bone of upper extremities
C) long bone of lower extremities
D) long bone of upper & lower extremities

Answer: B

9. Crural index is an indices measured from…..

A) skull
B) long bone of upper extremities
C) long bone of lower extremities
D) long bone of upper & lower extremities

Answer: C

10. The Blumen Back’s classification of race is based on ….

A) colour of skin
B) colour of hair
C) colour of iris
D) Indices of bone

Answer: A

1. If only heart is located on the right side then this anomaly is called as _____.

A) Levocardia
B) Dextrocardia
C) Situs inversus
D) Situs solitus

Answer: B

2. Referred pain at right tip shoulder due to irritation of ______.

A) Irritation of left dome of diaphragm
B) Irritation of right crus of diaphragm
C) Irritation of left crus of diaphragm
D) Irritation of right dome of diaphragm

Answer: D

3. Caput Medusa is the clinical condition caused due to ______.

A) Systemic hypertention
B) Portal hypertension
C) Systemic hypotension
D) Portal hypertension

Answer: D

4. What is the root value of phrenic nerve?

A) C2, C3, C4
B) C3, C4, C5
C) C4, C5, C6
D) C5, C6, C7

Answer: B

5. Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to compressed _____.

A) Radial nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
C) Median nerve
D) None of these

Answer: C

6. Due to protective function police of the abdomen is the name given to _____.

A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Greater omentum
D) Cisterna chylii

Answer: C

7. Which of the following gland is located in Sella turcica of Sphenoid bone.

A) Thyroid gland
B) Thymus gland
C) Pineal gland
D) Pituitary gland

Answer: D

8. Which of the following gland is called a “Master gland”

A) Pituitary
B) Thymus gland
C) Pineal gland
D) Thyroid gland

Answer: A

9. Pituitary gland in the sella turcica is covered by _________

A) Falx cerebri
B) Falx cerebella
C) Tentorium cerebelli
D) Diaphragma sellae

Answer: D

240. The two cerebral hemisphers are separated by _________

A) Falx cerebri
B) Falx cerebella
C) Tentorium cerebelli
D) Diaphragma sellae

Answer: A

241. Whitnall’s tubercle is seen on which bone ?

A. Frontal
B. Nasal
C. Zygomatic
D. Maxilla

Answer: C

242. The cranial nerve that emerge out through the side of frenulum veli is

A. Oculomotor nerve
B. Trochlear nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Abducent nerve

Answer: B

243. How many layers are there for masseter muscle ?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: C

244. Dartos muscle supplied by sympathetic supply from

A. Superior hypogastric plexus
B. Inferior hypogastric plexus
C. Genito femoral nerve
D. Sacral plexus

Answer: A

245. The tributeries received by the trunk part of portal vein are

A. Superior mesenteric and splenic vein
B. Splenic vein and right gastric vein
C. Cystic vein and para umbillical vein
D. Cystic vein and left gastric vein

Answer: B

246. Length of Pancreatic neck region is about

A. 3 cm
B. 1 cm
C. 0.5 cm
D. 2 cm

Answer: D

247. Inferior rectal artery is a branch of

A. Inferior mesenteric artery
B. Internal iliac artery
C. Internal pudendal artery
D. Middle rectal artery

Answer: C

248. Ischiococcygeus muscle degenerated to form which ligament ?

A. Perineal body
B. Sacrospinous ligament
C. Sacrotuberous ligament
D. Poupart’s ligament

Answer: B

249. Boundaries of gastric trinagle include all except

A. Lower border of liver on the right side
B. Left costal margin on the left side
C. Below transverse colon
D. Lower boder of left lung

Answer: D

250. During pyloric surgery which one is considered as important land mark ?

A. Vagal trunk
B. Pre pyloric vein of mayo
C. Incisura angularis
D. Bile staining

Answer: B

Human Anatomy Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download

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