[12 Class] Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Biology

STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION – Biology CBSE :-

Animal Husbandry:
It is the agricultural practice of breeding and raising livestock. Animal husbandry deals with the care and breeding of livestock like buffaloes, cows, pigs, horses, cattle, sheep, camels goats, etc., that are useful to humans.

Management of Farms and Farm Animals:

1) Dairy Farm Management:
Dairying is the management of animals for milk and its products for human consumption.  In dairy farm management, we deal with processes and systems that increase yield and improve quality of milk.

  • Selection of good breeds having high yielding potential, combined with resistance to diseases is very important.
  • Cattle have to be housed well, should have adequate water and be maintained disease free.
  • The feeding of cattle should be carried out in a scientific manner (quality and quantity of fodder).
  • Stringent cleanliness and hygiene are importance while milking, storage and transport of the milk and its products.


2) Poultry Farm Management:

  • Poultry is the class of domesticated fowl used for food or for their eggs.
  • Selection of disease free and suitable breeds, proper and safe farm conditions, proper feed and water, and hygiene and health care are important components of poultry farm management.

 
Animal Breeding:

  • Animal breeding aims at increasing the yield of animals and improving the desirable qualities of the produce.
  • When breeding is between animals of the same breed it is called Inbreeding, while crosses between different breeds are called Outbreeding.

Inbreeding:

  • It refers to the mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 generations.  The breeding strategy is, superior males and superior females of the same breed are identified and mated in pairs.
  • Inbreeding increases Homozygosity. However, continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding, usually reduces fertility and even productivity.  This is called Inbreeding Depression. Whenever this becomes a problem, selected animals of the breeding population should be mated with unrelated superior animals of the same breed.  This usually helps restore fertility and yield.

Out-breeding:
It is the breeding of the unrelated animals, which may be between individuals of the same breed or between different breeds or different species.

Out-crossing:
This is the practice of mating of animals within the same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations.  The offspring of such a mating is known as an out-cross.  A single outcross often helps to overcome inbreeding depression.

Cross-breeding:
In this method, superior males of one breed are mated with superior females of another breed.  Cross-breeding allows the desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined.  The progeny hybrid animals may themselves be used for commercial production. For example, Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.
 
Interspecific Hybridisation:
In this method, male and female animals of two different species are mated.  In some cases, the progeny may combine desirable features of both the parents, and may be of considerable economic value. Eg. Mule.

Artificial Insemination:
Controlled breeding experiments are carried out using artificial insemination.  The semen is collected from the male that is chosen as a parent and injected into the reproductive tract of the selected female by the breeder.

The success rate of crossing mature male and female animals is fairly low even though artificial insemination is carried out.

To improve chances of successful production of hybrids, other means are also used (MOET).

Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET):
In this method, a cow is administered hormones, with FSH-like activity, to induce follicular maturation and super ovulation-instead of one egg, which they normally yield per cycle; they produce 6-8 eggs.  The animal is either mated with an elite bull or artificially inseminated.  The fertilized eggs at 8-32 cells stages, are recovered non-surgically and transferred to surrogate mothers.  The genetic mother is available for another round of super ovulation.

3) Bee-keeping / Apiculture:
Bee-keeping or Apiculture is the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production of honey. There are several species of honeybees which can be reared.  Of these, the most common species is Apis indica.

Honey is a food of high nutritive value and also finds use in the indigenous systems of medicine.  Honeybee also produces beeswax, which finds many uses in industry, such as in the preparation of cosmetics and polishes of various kinds.

The following points are important for successful bee-keeping:

  • Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees,
  • Selection of suitable location for keeping the beehives,
  • Catching and hiving of swarms (group of bees),
  • Management of beehives during different seasons, and
  • Handling and collection of honey and of beeswax.
  • Keeping beehives in crop fields during flowering period increases pollination efficiency and improves the yield.

 

4) Fisheries:

  • Fishery is an industry devoted to the catching, processing or selling of fish, shellfish or other aquatic animals. Freshwater fishes – Catla, Rohu and common crab;  Marine fishes – Hilsa, Sardines, mackerel and Pomfrets.
  • In order to meet the increasing demands on fisheries, different techniques have been employed to increase production.
  • Through aquaculture and pisciculture we have been able to increase the production of aquatic plants and animals, both fresh-water and marine.


II Plant Breeding:
Green revolution was dependent to a large extent on plant breeding techniques for development of high – yielding and disease resistant varieties in wheat, rice, maize, etc.

What is Plant Breeding? Plant breeding is the purposeful manipulation of plant species in order to create desired plant types that are better suited for cultivation, giver better yields and are disease resistant.

The main steps in breeding a new genetic variety of a crop are –
a)        Collection of variability – Collection and preservation of all the different wild varieties, species and relatives of the cultivated species.
b)        Evaluation and selection of parents – Evaluation is done to identify plants with desirable characters.  The selected plants are multiplied and used in the process of hybridization.
c)         Cross hybridization among the selected parents – By cross hybridizing the two parents to produce hybrids that genetically combine the desired characters in one plant.
d)        Selection and testing of superior recombinants – The selection process is crucial to the success of the breeding objective and requires careful scientific evaluation of the progeny.  These are self pollinated for several generations till they reach a state of uniformity, so that the characters will not segregate in the progeny.
e)        Testing, release and commercialization of new cultivars – This evaluation is done by growing these plants in the research fields and recording their performance under ideal fertilizer application irrigation, and other crop management practices.  It will be followed by testing the materials in farmers’ fields, for at least three growing at several locations in the country.

Wheat and Rice:

  • In 1963, several varieties such as Sonalika and Kalyan Sona, which were high yielding and disease resistant, were introduced all over the wheat-growing belt of India.
  • Semi-dwarf rice varieties were derived from IR-8, and Taichung Native-1 were introduced in 1966.  Later better-yielding semi-dwarf varieties Jaya and Ratna were developed in India.


Sugar cane:

  • Saccharum barberi and Saccharum officinarum were crossed to get the desirable qualities of high yield, thick stems, high sugar and ability to grow in the sugar cane areas of north India.

 

Millets:

  • Hyrbid maize, jowar and bajra have been developed in India, which are high yielding and resistant to water stress.


a) Plant Breeding for Disease Resistance:

Methods of Breeding for disease resistance: The various sequential steps are;
Screening germplasm for resistance, hybridization of selected parents, selection and evaluation of the hybrids and testing and release of new varieties.

 

CROP                        VARIETY                                            RESISTANCE TO DISEASES
Wheat                        Himgiri                                                Leaf and stripe rust, hill bunt
Brassica                      Pusa swarnim                                      White rust                                            Cauliflower                  Pusa Shubhra, Pusa Snowball K – 1       Black rot and Curl blight black rot
Cowpea                       Pusa Komal                                         Bacterial blight
Chilli                            Pusa Sadabahar                                  Chilly mosaic virus, Tobacco mosaic virus and Leaf curl

Mutation Breeding:

  • It is the process by which genetic variations are created through changes in the base sequence within genes resulting in the creation of a new character or trait not found in the parental type.
  • It is possible to induce mutations artificially through use of chemicals or radiations, and selecting and using the plants that have the desirable character as a source in breeding.
  • For example, in mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew were induced by mutations.
  • Resistance to yellow mosaic virus in bhindi (Abelmoschus esculentus) was transferred from a wild species and resulted in a new variety of A. esculentus called Parbhani kranti.


b) Plant Breeding for Devloping Resistance to Insect Pests:

  • Insect resistance in host crop plants may be due to morphological, biochemical or physiological characteristics.
  • Hairy leaves in several plants are associated with resistance to insect pests, e.g., resistance to jassids in cotton and cereal leaf beetle in wheat.
  • High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar content in maize leads to resistance to maize stem borers.
  • Smooth leaved and nectar-less cotton varieties do not attract bollworms.

 
CROP                     VARIETY                                          INSECT PESTS
Brassica                  Pusa Gaurav                                      Aphids
Flat bean                 Pusa Sem 2, Pusa Sem 3                   Jassids, aphids and fruit borer
Okra (bhindi)            Pusa Sawani, Pusa A – 4                   Shoot and Fruit borer

c) Plant Breeding for Improved Food Quality:

  • Diets lacking essential micronutrients – particularly iron, vitamin A, iodine and zinc – increase the risk for disease, reduce lifespan and reduce mental abilities.


Biofortification:
It is the process of breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals, or higher protein and healthier fats.

Breeding for improved nutritional quality is undertaken with the objectives of improving;

  • Protein content and quality
  • Oil content and quality
  • Vitamin content ; and
  • Micronutrient and mineral content

 
Examples;- Vitamin A enriched carrots, spinach, pumpkin; Vitamin C enriched bitter gourd, mustard, tomato; Iron and Calcium enriched spinach and Protein enriched Beans.

d) Single Cell Protein (SCP):

  • Single cell proteins can be produced from algae, fungi, yeasts and bacteria.
  • Some low-cost substrates are used to produce microbial biomass to produce single cell proteins.
  • SCP is rich in high quality protein and is low in fat content, hence it is a desirable human food.
  • SCP should also reduce the pressure on agricultural production systems for the supply of proteins and it can reduce environmental pollution.
  • For example, microbes like Spirulina can be grown easily on materials like waste water from potato processing plants, straw, molasses, animal manure and even sewage, to produce large quantities and can serve as food rich in protein, minerals, fats, carbohydrate and vitamins.


d) Tissue Culture:
Plant tissue culture refers to the maintenance and growth of plant cells, tissues and organs on a suitable synthetic medium in vitro and the whole plants could be regenerated from explants.

Explant: An explant is the plant part excised from a specific location in a plant, to be used for initiating a culture.

In this tissue culture process, explant, i.e., any part of a plant is taken out and grown in a test tube, under sterile conditions in special nutrient media.  This capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell / explant is called Totipotency. This method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called Micropropagation. Each of these plants will be genetically identical to the original plant from which they were grown i.e., they are somaclones.

Somatic Hybridisation / Somatic Hybrids: The first step in somatic hybridization is to remove the cell wall by digesting it with enzymes like pectinase and cellulase.

Isolated protoplasts from two different varieties of plants – each having a desirable character – can be fused to get hybrid protoplasts, which can be further grown to form a new plant. These hybrids are called somatic hybrids while the process is called somatic hybridization.  For example, a protoplast of tomato is fused with that of potato to form new hybrid plants combining tomato and potato characteristics.

300+ TOP Heating & Welding MCQ Questions and Answers

HEATING & WELDING Multiple Choice Questions

1.   Which of the following is an advantage of heating by electricity ?
A.     Quicker operation
B.     Higher efficiency
C.    Absence of flue gases
D.    All of the above
Answer: D

2.   ________ has the highest value of thermal conductivity.
A. Copper
B. Aluminium
C. Brass
D. Steel
Answer: A

3. Which of the following heating methods has maximum power factor ?
A.    Arc heating
B.    Dielectric heating
C.    Induction heating
D.    Resistance heating
Answer: D

4. method has leading power factor
A.     Resistance heating
B.     Dielectric heating
C.    Arc heating
D.    Induction heating
Answer: B

5. is used for heating non-conducting materials.
A.     Eddy current heating
B.     Arc heating
C.    Induction heating
D.    Dielectric heating
Answer: D

6. Which of the following methods of heating is not dependent on the frequency of supply ?
A.     Induction heating
B.     Dielectric heating
C.    Electric resistance heating
D.    All of the above
Answer: C

7. When a body reflects entire radiation incident on it, then it is known as
A.     white body
B.     grey body
C.    black body
D.    transparent body
Answer: A

8. For the transmission of heat from one body to another
A.     temperature of the two bodies must be different
B.     both bodies must be solids
C.    both bodies must be in contact
D.    at least one of the bodies must have some source of heating
Answer: A

9. Heat transfer by condition will not occur when
A.     bodies are kept in vacuum
B.     bodies are immersed in water
C.    bodies are exposed to thermal radiations
D.    temperatures of the two bodies are identical
Answer: D

10. A perfect black body is one that
A.     transmits all incident radiations
B.     absorbs all incident radiations
C.    reflects all incident radiations
D.    absorbs, reflects and transmits all incident radiations
Answer: B

11. Heat is transferred simultaneously by condition, convection and radiation
A.     inside boiler furnaces
B.     during melting of ice
C.    through the surface of the insulted pipe carrying steam
D.    from refrigerator coils to freezer of a refrigerator
Answer: A

12. The process of heat transfer during the reentry of satellites and missiles, at very high speeds, into earth’s atmosphere is known as
A.     ablation
B.     radiation
C.    viscous dissipation
D.    irradiation
Answer: A

13. Which of the following has the highest value of thermal conductivity ?
A.     Water
B.     Steam
C.     Solid ice
D.     Melting ice
Answer: C

14. Induction heating process is based on which of the following principles ?
A.     Thermal ion release principle
B.     Nucleate heating principle
C.    Resistance heating principle
D.    Electro-magnetic induction princi¬ple
Answer: D

15. Which of the following insulating materials was suitable for low temperature applications ?
A.     Asbestos paper
B.     Diatomaceous earth
C.    80 percent magnesia
D.     Cork
Answer: B

16. A non-dimensional number generally associated with natural convection heat transfer is
A.     Prandtl number
B.     Grashoff number
C.     Pecelet number
D.     Nusselt number
Answer: B

17. The temperature inside a furnace is usually measured by which of the following ?
A.    Optical pyrometer
B.    Mercury thermometer
C.    Alcohol thermometer
D.    Any of the above
Answer: A

18. Which of the following will happen if the thickness of refractory wall of furnace is increased ?
A.     Heat loss through furnace wall will increase
B.     Temperature inside the furnace will fall
C.    Temperature on the outer surface of furnace walls will drop
D.    Energy consumption will increase
Answer: C

19. The material of the heating element for a furnace should have
A.     lower melting point
B.     higher temperature coefficient
C.     high specific resistance
D.     all of the above
Answer: C

20. In a resistance furnace the atmosphere is
A.     oxidizing
B.     deoxidising
C.     reducing
D.     neutral
Answer: A

21. By which of the following methods the temperature inside arc nace can be varied ?
A.    By disconnecting some of the heating elements
B.    By varying the operating voltage
C.    By varying the current through heating elements
D.    By any of the above method
Answer: D

22. In induction heating ______ is abnormally high.
A.     phase angle
B.     frequency
C.    current
D.     voltage
Answer: B

23. By the use of which of the following, high frequency power supply for induction furnaces can be obtained ?
A.     Coreless transformers
B.     Current transformers
C.    Motor-generator set
D.    Multi-phase transformer
Answer: C

24. Induction furnaces are employed for which of the following ?
A.     Heat treatment of castings
B.     Heating of insulators
C.    Melting aluminium
D.    None of the above
Answer: A

25. In an electric room heat convector the method of heating used is
A.     arc heating
B.     resistance heating
C.    induction heating
D.    dielectric heating
Answer: B

HEATING and WELDING Questions with Answers Pdf ::

26. In a domestic cake baking oven the temperature is controlled by
A.     voltage variation
B.     thermostat
C.    auto-transformer
D.    series-parallel operation
Answer: D

27. In an electric press mica is used
A.     as an insulator
B.     as a device for power factor improvement
C.    for dielectric heating
D.    for induction heating
Answer: A

28. Induction heating takes place it which of the following ?
A.     Insulating materials
B.     Conducting materials which are magnetic
C.    Conducting materials which are non-magnetic
D.    Conducting materials which may or may not be magnetic
Answer: D

29. For heating element high resistivity material is chosen to
A.    reduce the length of heating element
B.    increase the life of the heating element
C.    reduce the effect of oxidation
D.     produce large amount of heat
Answer: A

30. In resistance heating highest working temperature is obtained from heating elements made of
A.     nickel copper
B.     nichrome
C.    silicon carbide
D.     silver
Answer: C

31. For intermittent work which of the following furnaces is suitable ?
A.    Indirect arc furnace
B.    Core less furnace
C.    Either of the above
D.     None of the above
Answer: A

32. Due to which of the following reasons it is desirable to have short arc length ?
A.     To achieve better heating
B.     To increase the life of roof refractory
C.    To have better stirring action
D.    To reduce problem of oxidation
(e)    All of the above
Ans: e

33. In the indirect resistance heating method, maximum heat-transfer takes place by
A. radiation
B. convection
C. conduction
D. any of the above
Answer: A

34. Properly of low temperature co-eflficient of heating element is desired due to which of the following reasons ?
A.     To avoid initial rush of current
B.     To avoid change in kW rating with temperature
C.    Both A. and B.
D.    Either A. or B.
Answer: C

35. Which of the following methods is used to control temperature in resistance furnaces ?
A.    Variation of resistance
B.    Variation of voltage
C.    Periodical switching on and off of the supply
D.    All of the above methods
Answer: D

36. It is desirable to operate the arc furnaces at power factor of
A.     zero
B.     0.707 lagging
C.     unity
D.     0.707 leading
Answer: B

37. Radiations from a black body are proportional to
A.    T1
B.    T2
C.    T3
D.    T*
Answer: D

38. In arc furnace the function of choke is
A.    to stabilize the arc
B.    to imprpve, power factor
C.    to reduce severity of the surge
D.    none of the above
Answer: A

39. Ajax Wyatt furnace is started when
A.     it is filled below core level
B.     it is filled above core level
C.    it is fully empty
D.    none of the above
Answer: B

40. In electric press, mica is used because it is _______ conductor of heat but/and    ________ conductor of electricity.
A.     bad, good
B.     bad, bad
C.     good, bad
D.     good, good
Answer: C

41. Resistance variation method of temperature control is done by connecting resistance elements in
A.     series
B.     parallel
C.    series-parallel connections
D.    star-delta connections
(e)    all of the above ways
Ans: e

42. Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are used in
A.    induction heating of steel
B.    dielectric heating
C.    induction heating of brass
D.    resistance heating
Answer: A

43. In heating the ferromagnetic material by induction heating, heat is produced due to
A.     induced current flow through the charge
B.     hysteresis loss taking place below curie temperature
C.    due to hysteresis loss as well as eddy current loss takingplace in the charge
D.    none of the above factors
Answer: C

44. Radiant heating is used for which of the following ?
A.     Annealing of metals
B.     Melting of ferrous metals
C.    Heating of liquids in electric kettle
D.    Drying of paints and varnishes
Answer: D

45. Which of the following devices is necessarily required for automatic temperature control in a furnace ?
A.     Thermostat
B.     Thermocouple
C.    Auto-transformer
D.    Heating elements of variable resis-tance material
Answer: B

46. For radiant heating around 2250°C, the heating elements are made of
A.     copper alloy
B.     carbon
C.    tungsten alloy
D.    stainless steel alloy
Answer: C

47. Which of the following is an advantage of eddy current heating ?
A.    The amount of heat generated can be controlled accurately
B.    Heat at very high rate can be gene-rated
C.    The area of the surface over which heat is produced can be accurately controlled
D.    All of the above
Answer: D

48. The electrode of a direct arc furnace is made of
A.     tungsten
B.     graphite
C.     silver
D.     copper
Answer: B

49. Direct arc furnaces have which of the following power factors ?
A.     Unity
B.     Low, lagging
C.     Low, leading
D.     Any of the above
Answer: B

50. In direct arc furnace, which of the following has high value ?
A.    Current
B.    Voltage
C.    Power factor
D.    All of the above
Answer: A

HEATING & WELDING Mcqs Download ::

[12 Class Notes] HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE – Biology CBSE

HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE – Biology CBSE :-

Health:-
It can be defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being. When people are healthy, they are more efficient at work.

Health is affected by –

Genetic disorders – inheritable defects of parents to offspring.

Infections and
Life style including food and water we take, rest and exercise we give to our bodies, habits that we have or lack etc.

Diseases can be broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious. Diseases which are easily transmitted from one person to another, are called infectious diseases. Among non-infectious diseases, cancer is the major cause of death.

Common Diseases in Humans:
Pathogen :- Disease causing organisms.

Typhoid:

Pathogen: Salmonella typhi.
Symptoms: High fever, weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite, intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases. Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test.
Mode of transmission: These pathogens generally enter the small intestine through contaminated food and water and migrate to other organs through blood.

Pneumonia:

Pathogen: Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus infuenzae.
Symptoms: the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in respiration. Symptoms include fever, chills, cough and headache, in severe cases the lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour.
Mode of transmission: transmitted through droplets of infected persons.

Common Cold:

Pathogen: Rhino viruses.
Symptoms: nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache, tiredness.
Mode of transmission: through droplets of infected persons.

DISEASES CAUSED BY PROTOZOANS.
Malaria.(means bad air)

Pathogen. Protozoan Plasmodium.
Vector. Female Anopheles mosquito
Symptoms. Head aches, muscle pain, high fever. During fever the patient feels chill and shivering.
Prevention. Eradication of vector and keeping the surrounding clean.
Treatment. It involves the use of medicine like quinine and protection of patients from the mosquitoes.
Mode of spread. This disease spreads by the bite of infected Anopheles mosquito. Only the female Anopheles is capable of spreading the disease because it sucks the blood of man.

Amoebiasis.

Pathogen. It is due to an intestinal protozoan parasite Entamoeba histolytica.
Symptoms. This parasite lives in the large intestine and destroys the mucus membrane. This may cause bleeding and ulcer that produce dysentery. Hence patient passes out blood and mucus with the stool. There will be severe pain in abdomen, fever, nausea and nervessness.
Mode of transmission: As the cysts of pathogen are found in the intestinal discharge the possibility of infection to healthy persons is through contaminated water or improperly washed or cooked vegetables and fruits. The pathogen can also be transmitted through dirty hands.
Prevention. Proper disposal of faecal matter of the patient. Vegetables and fruits when used raw, should be thoroughly washed. Water should be boiled before drinking.

DISEASE CAUSED BY HELMINTHES WORM.

Ascariasis.

Pathogen. A round worm Ascaris lumbricoides.
Symptoms. This parasite is found in the small intestine of man and is of world wide distribution. It causes a lot of stomach ache, nausea and cough.
Mode of transmission: Through food, when soil consist of cyst and eggs, it will be transmitted through vegetables growing on it or through dirty hands or by ingestion of soil.
Prevention: The disposal of human faeces by underground sewer canals is an efficient measure to prevent the spread. Washing of vegetables and fruits before eating help of keep away the eggs of the worm.

Filariasis.

Pathogen. Wuchereria bancrofti.
Vector. Culex mosquito.
Symptoms. The worm lives in the lymph vessels and block them, this causes swelling of the body parts like, legs scrotum, foot, etc. This enlargement of legs gives the disease its name as Elephantiasis.

Prevention. Eradication of vector.

DISEASE CAUSED BY FUNGI

Ringworms:

Pathogens: Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
Symptoms: appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp with intense itching.

Measures for prevention and control of infectious diseases –

Personal hygiene: It includes cleanliness of body, drinking of clean water, etc.
Public hygiene: It includes cleaning of water reservoirs, proper disposal of sewage, etc.

Immunity

Ability of the body to fight infectious agents

On the basis of the immunity possessed by the body, immunity can be innate immunity and acquired immunity.

1. Innate immunityis a non-specific type of defense mechanism.
It has four types of barriers –

Physical barrier: Example, skin covering of the body, secretion of mucous in the respiratory tract
Physiological barrier: Example, acid in the stomach, tears from the eyes
Cellular barrier: Example, monocytes and lymphocytes in blood
Cytokine barrier: Example, interferon

2. Acquired immunity: itis a specific type of defense mechanism. It shows two types of responses: primary response and secondary response. It involves two types of lymphocytes –

B lymphocytes: Show humoral immune response (HI)
T lymphocytes: Show cell mediated immunity (CMI)

Structure of an Antibody:

The antibodies are protein molecules called immunoglobulins and are of various types like IgA, IgM, IgE, IgG.

Each antibody molecule consists of four polypeptide chains, two are long called heavy chains and other two are short called light chains. Both are arranged in the shape of ‘Y’, hence an antibody is represented as H2L2.

On the basis of production of antibodies, immunity can be further categorised as –

Active immunity: Body produces its own antibodies against antigens
Passive immunity: Readymade antibody is transferred from one individual to another
Colostrum (contains antibodies IgA) is an example of passive immunity provided by the mother to her child.

Auto immunity:
Production of antibodies against the tissues of its own cells. Example – Rheumatoid arthritis.

Lymphoid organs:
It acts as the sites of formation and maturation of lymphocytes.
Primary lymphoid organ – where lymphocytes are produced and matured. Example – Bone marrow and Thymus.

Secondary lymphoid organ– where lymphocytes fight with antigens. Example – Spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches Mucosal Associated Lymphocyte Tissues (MALT).

Vaccination:
It is the protection of the body from communicable diseases by administration of agents (called vaccines) that mimic the microbes. Vaccines are available against tetanus, polio, etc.

Allergies:
Hypersensitivity to a particular allergen (such as pollens, dust) is termed as allergy. IgE is an antibody responsible for allergy. Symptoms include, sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and difficulty in breathing. Allergy is due to secretion of histamine and serotonine by mast cells. Allergy is treated with anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids.

AIDS (Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) :

It can spread –

through sexual contact with the infected person
from the mother to her child, through the placenta
infected blood transfusion
by the use of infected syringe

It is caused by HIV virus (a retro virus) and has RNA as genetic material. HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

When HIV virus enters the host cell, the virus enters into macrophages, where RNA replicates and forms viral DNA by the help of enzyme reverse transcriptase. The viral DNA gets incorporated into the host cell’s DNA and directs the infected cells to produce daughter viruses. The macrophages continue to produce virus that enters the helper T-lymphocytes. Thus the number of helper T-lymphocytes progressively decreases in the body and weaken the immune system.

Diagnostic test for AIDS: ELISA (enzyme-linked-immuno-sorbent assay)

Cancer

Tumour caused by abnormal and uncontrolled cell division. It is of two types –
Benign tumour: Remains confined to a particular location and does not spread
Malignant tumour: Cells divides and invades new locations by getting transported through blood to distant sites
Metastasis: Property of malignant tumour to invade the distant body parts, thereby initiating formation of new tumours.
Carcinogen: Cancer-causing agents; e.g., X-rays, UV rays
Cancer detection and diagnosis: Techniques involved are radiography, computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging

Treatment of cancer:

Surgical – cancerous tissues are surgically removed.
Radiotherapy – tumor cells are irradiated lethally by radiation.
Chemotherapy – drugs are used to kill cancerous cells, but shows side effects like hair loss, anemia, etc.
Immunotherapy – patients are given with alpha-interferon which activate their immune system and help in destroying the tumor.

Drugs and Alcohol

Drugs and alcohol abuse includes –

Opioids: Morphine is obtained from Poppy plant. It is a sedative (depressant) and pain killer. Heroin is chemically diacetylmorphine. It slows down body functions. Example, Heroin (extracted from Papaver somniferum)
Cannabinoids: Itis obtained from Cannabis sativa. These are taken by inhalation and oral ingestion, they affect the cardiovascular system of the body. Example, marijuana, hashish, charas, ganja (obtained from Cannabis sativa),
Coca alkaloids / Cocaine: it is obtained from Erythroxylon coca. It is taken by smoking. It is a stimulant and activates central nervous system.
Hallucinogens: It is obtained from Atropa belladonna and Datura sp. LSD (Lysergic acid Diethylamide) is obtained from fungus.
Tobacco: it contains nicotine, which is stimulant. It stimulates adrenaline and increases the secretion of adrenaline. Smoking of tobacco leads to lung cancer, bronchitis, emphysema, coronary heart diseases.

Adolescence and Drug abuse

Adolescence is the period during which the child becomes matured.
It is between 12 – 18 years of age.

Causes of drug abuse –

Curiosity
Adventure
Excitement
Experimentation
Stress or pressure to excel in examination

Effects of drug/alcohol abuse –

Reckless behaviour
Malicious mischief
Violence
Drop in academic performance
Depression, isolation, aggressiveness, etc.

Prevention and control –

Avoid peer pressure
Counselling and education
Take help from teachers, parents and peers
Take professional and medical help

300+ TOP Industrial Drivers MCQ Questions and Answers

Industrial Drivers Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. The selection of an electric motor for any application depends on which of the following factors ?
A. Electrical characteristics
B. Mechanical characteristics
C. Size and rating of motors
D. Cost
E. All of the above

Answer: E

2. For a particular application the type of electric-and control gear are determined by which of the following considerations ?
A. Starting torque
B. Conditions of environment
C. Limitation on starting current
D. Speed control range and its nature
E. All of the above

Answer: E

3. Which of the following motors is preferred for traction work ?
A.      Universal motor
B.      D.C. series motor
C. Synchronous motor
D. Three-phase induction motor

Answer: C

4   Which of the following motors always starts on load ?
A.      Conveyor motor
B.      Floor mill motor
C. Fan motor
D. All of the above

Answer: D

5. is preferred for automatic drives.
A.      Squirrel cage induction motor
B.      Synchronous motors
C. Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. motors
D. Any of the above

Answer: C

INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Objective Questions and Answers
INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Objective Questions

6. When the load is above _____ a synchronous motor is found to be more economical.
A.      2 kW
B.      20 kW
C.      50 kW
D.      100 kW

Answer: D

7. The load cycle for a motor driving a power press will be
A.      variable load
B.      continuous
C. continuous but periodical
D. intermittent and variable load

Answer: D

8. Light duty cranes are used in which of the following ?
A.      Power houses
B.      Pumping stations
C. Automobile workshops
D. All of the above

Answer: D

9. While selecting an electric motor for a floor mill, which electrical characteristics will be of least significance ?
A. Running characteristics
B. Starting characteristics
C. Efficiency
D. Braking

Answer: D

10. Which of the following motors are pre-ferred for overhead travelling cranes ?
A. Slow speed motors
B. Continuous duty motors
C. Short time rated motors
D. None of the above

Answer: C

11. is preferred for synthetic fibre mills.
A.      Synchronous motor
B.      Reluctance motor
C. Series motor
D. Shunt motor

Answer: B

12. Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. drives are generally used for ______ excavators.
A.      Light duty
B.      Medium duty
C. Heavy duty
D. All of the above

Answer: C

13. Which of the following motors is used for elevators ?
A. Induction motor
B. Synchronous motor
C. Capacitor start single phase motor
D. Any of the above

Answer: A

14. Which part of a motor needs maximum attention for maintenance ?
A.      Frame
B.      Rearing
C. Stator winding
D. Rotor winding

Answer: B

15. need frequent starting and stopping of electric motors,
A.      Paper mills
B.      Grinding mills
C. Air-conditioners
D. Lifts and hoists

Answer: D

16. Which feature, while selecting a.motor for centrifugal pump, will be of least significance ?
A. Starting characteristics
B. Operating speed
C. Horse power
D. Speed control

Answer: D

17. _______ motor is a constant speed motor.
A. Synchronous motor
B. Schrage motor
C. Induction motor
D. Universal motor

Answer: A

18. The starting torque in case of centrifugal pumps is generally
A. less than running torque
B. same as running torque
C. slightly more than running torque
D. double the running torque

Answer: A

19. Which of the following motors are best for the rolling mills ?
A.      Single phase motors
B.      Squirrel cage induction motors
C. Slip ring induction motors
D. D.C. motors

Answer: D

20. is not a part of ball bearing ?
A. Inner race
B. Outer race
C. Cage
D. Bush

Answer: D

21. The starting torque of a D.C. motor is independent of which of the following?
A.      Flux
B.      Armature current
C.      Flux and armature current
D. Speed

Answer: D

22. Rotor of a motor is usually supported on _______ bearings.
A.      ball or roller
B.      needle
C.      bush
D.      thrust

Answer: A

23. For which of the following applications D.C. motors are still preferred ?
A.      High efficiency operation
B.      Reversibility
C. Variable speed drive
D. High starting torque

Answer: C

24. In a paper mill where constant speed is required
A.      synchronous motors are preferred
B.      A.C. motors are preferred
C. individual drive is preferred
D. group drive is preferred

Answer: C

25. A reluctance motor
A. is provided with slip rings
B. requires starting gear
C. has high cost
D. is compact

Answer: D

26. The size of an excavator is usually expressed in terms of
A.      ‘crowd’ motion
B.      angle of swing
C. cubic metres
D. travel in metres

Answer: C

27. For blowers which of the following motor is preferred ?
A.      D.C. series motor
B.      D.C. shunt motor
C. Squirrel cage induction motor
D. Wound rotor induction motor

Answer: B

28. Belted slip ring induction motor is almost invariably used for
A.      water pumps
B.      jaw crushers
C. centrifugal blowers
D. none of the above

Answer: B

29. Which of the following is essentially needed while selecting a motor ?
A.      Pulley
B.      Starter
C. Foundation pedal
D. Bearings

Answer: B

30. Reluctance motor is a
A.      variable torque motor
B.      low torque variable speed motor
C. self starting type synchronous motor
D. low noise, slow speed motor

Answer: C

31. method of starting a three phase induction motor needs six terminals.
A. Star-delta
B. Resistance starting
C. Auto-transformer
D. None of the above

Answer: A

32. In ______ method of staging three phase induction motors the starting voltage is not reduced.
A. auto-transformer
B. star-delta
C. slip ring
D. any of the above

Answer: C

33. In jaw crushers a motor has to often start against ______ load.
A. heavy
B. medium
C. normal
D. low

Answer: A

34. For a motor-generator set which of the following motors will be preferred ?
A.      Synchronous motor
B.      Slip ring induction motor
C. Pole changing induction motor
D. Squirrel cage induction motor

Answer: A

35. Which of the following motors is usually preferred for kiln drives ?
A.      Cascade controlled A.C. motor
B.      Slip ring induction motor
C. Three  phase  shunt  wound  com-mutator motor
D. Any of the above

Answer: D

INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Mcqs Pdf ::

36. Heat control switches are used in
A. transformers
B. cooling ranges
C. three phase induction motors
D. single phase

Answer: B

37. has relatively wider range of speed control.
A.      Synchronous motor
(6)     Ship ring induction motor
C. Squirrel cage induction motor
D. D.C. shunt motor

Answer: D

38. In squirrel cage induction motors which of the following methods of starting cannot be used ?
A.      Resistance in rotor circuit
B.      Resistance in stator circuit
C.      Auto-transformer starting
D.      Star-delta starting

Answer: A

39. In which of the following applications the load on motor changes in cyclic order ?
A.      Electric shovels
B.      Cranes
C.      Rolling mills
D.      All of the above

Answer: D

40. Flame proof motors are used in
A.      paper mills
B.      steel mills
C. moist atmospheres
D. explosive atmospheres

Answer: D

41. Which of the following machines has heavy fluctuation of load ?
A. Printing machine
B. Punching machine
C. Planer
D. Lathe

Answer: B

42. For derries and winches which of the following drives can be used ?
A. Pole changing squirrel cage motors
B. D.C. motors with Ward-leonard con-trol
C. A.C. slip ring motors with variable resistance
D. Any of the above

Answer: D

43. Battery operated scooter for braking uses
A.      plugging
B.      mechanical braking
C. regenerative braking
D. rheostatic braking

Answer: B

44. has least range of speed control.
A. Slip ring induction motor
B. Synchronous motor
C. D.C. shunt motor
D. Schrage motor

Answer: B

45. has the least value of starting torque to full load torque ratio.
A. D.C. shunt motor
B. D.C. series motor
C. Squirrel cage induction motor
D.      Slip ring induction motor

Answer: C

46. In case of _______ speed control by injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit is possible,
A.      d.c. shunt motor
B.      schrage motor
C. synchronous motor
D. slip ring induction motor

Answer: D

47. A pony motor is used for the starting which of the following motors ?
A.      Squirel cage induction motor
B.      Schrage motor
C. Synchronous motor
D. None of the above

Answer: C

48. In ________  the  speed can be varied by changing the position of brushes.
A.      slip ring motor
B.      schrage motor
C. induction motor
D. repulsion motor

Answer: B

49. In which of the following applications variable speed operation is preferred ?
A.      Exhaust fan
B.      Ceiling fan
C.      Refrigerator
D.      Water pump

Answer: B

50. Heavy duty cranes are used in
A. ore handling plants
B. steel plants
C. heavy engineering workshops
D. all of the above

Answer: D

51. The travelling speed of cranes varies from
A.      20 to 30 m/s
B.      10 to 15 m/s
C.      5 to 10 m/s
D.      1 to 2.5 m/s

Answer: D

52. Besides a constant speed a synchronous rotor possesses which of the following advantages ?
A.      Lower cost
B.      Better efficiency
C.      High power factor
D.      All of the above

Answer: C

53. By the use of which of the following m D.C. can be obtained from AC. ?
A. Silicon diodes
B. Mercury arc rectifier
C. Motor generator set
D. Any of the above

Answer: D

54. Which of the following motors is preferred when quick speed reversal is the main consideration ?
A.      Squirrel cage induction motor
B.      Wound rotor induction motor
E. Synchronous motor
D.      D.C. motor

Answer: D

55. Which of the following motors is preferred when smooth and precise speed control over a wide range is desired ?
A.      D.C. motor
B.      Squirrel cage induction motor
C.      Wound rotor induction motor
D.      Synchronous motor

Answer: A

56. For crane travel which of the following motors is normally used ?
A.      Synchronous motor
B.      D.C. differentially compound motor
C. Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt motor
D. AC. slip ring motor

Answer: D

57. The capacity of a crane is expressed in terms of
A.      type of drive
B.      span
C.      tonnes
D.      any of the above

Answer: C

58. The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and lowering are which of the following ?
A.      Precise control
B.      Smooth movement
C. Fast speed control
D. All of the above

Answer: D

59. Which of the following motors is preferred for boom hoist of a travelling crane ?
A.      Single phase motor
B.      Synchronous motor
C. A.C. slip ring motor
D. Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt motor

Answer: C

60. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred, as compared to squirrel cage induction motor, when major consideration is
A. slop speed operation
B. high starting torque
C. low windage losses
D. all of the above

Answer: B

61. Which of the following motors has series characteristics ?
A.      Shaded pole motor
B.      Repulsion motor
C. Capacitor start motor
D. None of the above

Answer: B

62. Which of the following happens when star-delta starter is used ?
A. Starting voltage is reduced
B. Starting current is reduced
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of the above

Answer: C

63. For a D.C. shunt motor which of the following is incorrect ?
A.      Unsuitable for heavy duty starting
B.      Torque varies as armature current
C. Torque-armature current is a straight line
D. Torque is zero for zero armature current

Answer: A

64. For which of the following applications motor has to start with high acceleration?
A. Oil expeller
B. Floor mill
C. Lifts and hoists
D. Centrifugal pump

Answer: C

65. Which of the following types of motor enclosure is safest ?
A. Totally enclosed
B. Totally enclosed fan cooled
C. Open type
D. Semi closed

Answer: B

66. While selecting motor for an air conditioner which of the following characteristics is of great importance ?
A.      Type of bearings
B.      Type of enclosure
C. Noise
D. Arrangement for power transmis¬sion
E. None of the above

Answer: C

67. The diameter of the rotor shaft for an  electric motor depends on which of the following ?
A.      r.p.m. only
B.      Horse power only
C. Horse power and r.p.m.
D. Horse power, r.p.m. and power factor

Answer: C

68. Which of the following alternatives will be cheaper ?
A.      A 100 H.P. AC. three phase motor
B.      Four motors of 25 H.P. each
C. Five motors of 20 H.P. each
D. Ten motors of 10 H.P. each

Answer: A

69. The cost of an induction motor will increase as
A. horsepower rating increases but r.p.m. decreases
B. horsepower rating decreases but r.p.m. increases
C. horsepower rating and operating speed increases
D. horsepower rating and operating speed decreases

Answer: A

70. In series motor which of the following methods can be used for changing the flux per pole ?
A. Tapped field control
B. Diverter field control
C. Series-parallel control
D. Any of the above

Answer: D

INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Questions with Answers Pdf Download ::

[12 Class Notes] EVOLUTION – Biology CBSE

EVOLUTION – Biology CBSE :-

Theory of Special Creation:
According to this theory, life originated on this earth from super natural powers like god.  He created all plants and animals, which appeared on earth in the form they exist today.

Theory of Spontaneous generation or Abiogenesis:
According to this theory life originated on earth from non-living objects spontaneously by a process called Abiogenesis (origin of life from non-living matter).  It was believed that fishes and frogs originated from mud, maggots arouse from decaying meat and insects from plant juices and microorganisms from air & water.  But later Louis Pasteur disproved this theory and stated that life originate from pre-existing life.

Conditions of Primitive earth/ Origin of life:
It is believed that earth has originated about 4,600 million years ago.  It is formed by the condensation and cooling from a cloud of gases and dust.  At first the earth was very hot and had various gases and vapour of several elements.  With the passage of time, the earth gradually cooled down and gases condensed.  Thus a solid crust of earth was formed.  There were torrential rains for thousands of years resulting in the formation of large water bodies like oceans.

The earth’s atmosphere at the time was a reducing atmosphere and not an oxidizing one as today.  There were large quantities of hydrogen, nitrogen, water vapour, carbon monoxide, methane and ammonia in the primitive atmosphere.  However, free oxygen was not present, so the atmosphere is known as reducing atmosphere and this led to the continuous series of chemical reactions among the gases to form amino acids. Hence life originates from reducing atmosphere.

The present atmosphere is oxidizing one and no life is originating today because oxygen will not allow any continuous series of chemical reaction and if any product is formed among the gases that will be oxidized.

A.I. Oparin and J.B.S. Haldane believed that methane, ammonia and water vapours contain the kinds of atoms needed to form various substances such as alcohol and amino acids.  Accumulation of such organic compounds within the oceans, lakes, ponds, pools, etc. over million of years must have produced a kind of ‘hot soup’.  In this ‘hot soup’ or ‘Darwin’s warm little pond’ smaller organic compounds must have combined together to form larger organic compounds and various macromolecules like polypeptides, proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates etc.  These compounds then interacted to produce the first living cell.  So according to them, the first living cell arose from simple inorganic and organic non-living elements – a process called Abiogenesis.

The energy for such chemical reactions must have come from the heat of the atmosphere and from the electrical energy of lightening.

The most important compound that initially formed is a nucleoprotein (nucleic acid and protein) since it is the chemical characteristic of genes.  They might have aggregated in various combinations and must have formed the colloidal masses at the base of oceans.  They formed the small globules. They are then covered by fatty acids to form their surface membranes.  This membrane also became selectively permeable so a specific organization inside was maintained. Experimental evidences have also shown that such types of cells formed are called as coacervates (pre-cell) and then they gradually transformed into a living cell.

Then enzymes and other important compounds inside were formed. In the present day cells, all these macromolecules are formed by the actions of enzymes.  But the enzymes are protein in nature.  So initially all macromolecules were formed by non-enzymatic actions.

Urey and Miller experiment:
Stanley Miller and Harold C. Urey in 1953 tested the Oparin-Haldane theory.  They made an apparatus to circulate methane, ammonia, water vapour and hydrogen gases.  All these gases were put in a flask fitted with electrodes.  In another flask, water was being boiled continuously.  The electrical charges, to provide energy similar to lightening etc.  were passed for one week or more.  After that they collected and analysed the contents of the apparatus.  He was able to get a number of amino acids, some of which are known to be present in the proteins e.g., glycine, alanine, aspartic acid and glutamic acid.  Miller also got several of the simple acids that are known to occur in the living organisms such formic acid, acetic acid, propionic acid, lactic acid and succinic acid.

Hence they proved the Oparin and Haldane theory and now it is clear that reducing atmosphere was essential for such abiotic synthesis.

Organic evolution:
It is defined as the process of gradual and orderly changes in organisms from one form to another over a period of millions of years.  It is a slow and continuous process.

Morphological Evidences:
Homologous organs (Divergent Evolution):
Organs having similar embryonic origin and basic plan, but differing in their functions are known as homologous organs.  E.g., The arm of man, the leg of a horse, the wing of a bat, the wing of a bird and the flippers of a seal have the same basic plan of development but they are used for different works. All of them possess humerus in upper arm, radius and ulna in the forearm, carpals in the wrist, metacarpals  in the palm and phalanges in digits.  They also show similarities in the arrangement of the muscles and nerves and also show same pattern of embryonic development.
Homology in plants:
In plants, the homologous organs are a thorn of Bougainvillea and a tendril in Cucurbita both arising in the axillary position, but perform different functions.  Thorn for protection and tendril for support.
Analogous organs (Convergent Evolution):
Organs having similar functions but different in their basic plan of development are known as analogous organs.  For example, the wing of insects and that of birds or bats are analogous structure.  Their basic plan of development is different but has a similar function of flying.  In insects wing is an extension of the integument whereas a birds wing is formed of bones covered with flesh, skin and feathers.
In plants:

  • In Opuntia/Cactus, a stem is modified to look like a leaf and may perform the function of a leaf (photosynthesis).
  • In potato and sweet potato, potato is a stem tuber and sweet potato is a root tuber.  Storage of food is the same function.

 
Geological time scale:
It shows the ages of the various eras and periods together with the major groups of plants and animals that are believed to have existed during that period.  It helps in the study of palaeontology.

It has been divided into 6 eras which are further divided into periods or epochs.  Each being characterised by some specific living forms and climatic changes geological time scale is the calender of earth past history indicating the evolution of life through time recorded in sequence of rocks.

Biological Evolution:
The essence of Darwinian theory about evolution is natural selection.  Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of Evolution.

Lamarck’s concept of evolution/Inheritance of acquired characters:

This theory states that characters are acquired by animals in two ways,

  1. The effects of environment
  2. Use and disuse of body parts.

For example, the long neck of giraffe is explained by Lamarck on the same principle.  Giraffe, which lived in the dry and arid deserts of Africa, tried to reach the foliage high up on the trees to eat them as there was no vegetation on the ground.  In the process its neck and forelegs got stretched a bit and this was inherited to the next generation.  Then in the next generation same efforts were continued.  Gradually through many successive generations, we got giraffe having such a long neck and forelegs.

Lamarck’s idea of the use and disuse of body parts and the inheritance of acquired characters was not accepted by the scientists.  It was disproved by August Wiesmann.  He showed that even after cutting the tail of rats for several generations, no rat was born without a tail.

Darwin’s Theory:
Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace independently gave the theory of evolution.  This theory is known as ‘Darwin’s theory of natural selection’ and is published in a book, “Origin of Species by Natural Selection”.  The main features of this theory are as follows,

Reproduction:  All organisms reproduce and multiply enormously.  Eg.  A pair of mice produces dozens of young ones, insects lay thousands of eggs and plants also produce thousands of seeds.
Variations:  No two individuals are alike.  They differ from each other in size, shape, behaviour, etc. even the offspring of the same parent are never exactly alike except identical twins.
Struggle for existence:  All the offspring are not able to reach adulthood.  When offspring

become adulthood, then they start to reproduce.  This reproductive capacity varies from animal to animal; some reproduce more and some minimum.  This differential capacity of reproduction is known as differential reproduction.

Since the number of individuals is far more than actually can survive, so they compete among themselves for food, shelter and space.
Survival of fittest/ Natural selection:  Only those individuals which have favourable variations survive and reproduce while others not suited by the environment perish away.  Thus nature exercises its selection and only those individuals that are ‘fit’ to survive and reproduce successfully.
Origin of Species/Speciation:  This continuous process of variation and natural selection will ultimately result in elimination of certain individuals; while others will gradually establish.  In this process new characters, which are good, will set in.  Thus new species may be produced in due course of time.

Mechanism of Evolution:
Hugo deVries believed that it is mutation which causes evolution and not the minor variations (heritable) as Darwin said.  Mutations are random and directionless while Darwinian variations are small and directional.  Evolution for Darwin was gradual while deVries believed mutation caused speciation and hence called it Saltation (single step large mutation).

Hardy-Weinberg Principle:

  • According to this law, if all the factors / conditions remain constant, the frequency of particular genes and their alleles will remain constant in a population of sexually reproducing organisms from generation to generation.
  • The difference between the observed frequencies of alleles and those predicted by Hardy-Weinberg Principle indicates the degree of evolutionary change.  Evolution occurs when the genetic equilibrium is disturbed.


Factors affecting Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium:

  • Gene migration / Gene flow
  • Genetic drift
  • Mutation
  • Genetic recombination
  • Natural Selection

 
Examples of Natural Selection:

1.Industrial melanism.    
A case of natural selection was seen in Great Britain in a peppered moth (Biston betularia).  This moth had two forms: grey colour and black colour (Carbonaria).  In the early part of the nineteenth century only the grey coloured forms of moths were present; the dark forms were rare.  The grey coloured moths were seen on the tree trunks covered with lichens and so they were able to escape from their enemies. Later on, due to the development of industries the lichens were killed and the tree trunks looked dark due to the deposition of industrial soot.  Birds, now were able to spot these moths and feed upon them.  So the grey coloured moths were eaten by the birds and the dark coloured moths escaped from the birds. Then now the coal is replaced by the industries and oil and electricity is used.  This has reduced the soot production and ultimately less deposition of soot on the tree trunks.  These tree trunks have, now, again become grey in colour.  Consequently, grey coloured moths have again increased in number.  This example clearly brings out the action of natural selection.

2.Resistanceof mosquitoes to pesticides.
When DDT was introduced to control mosquitoes it was tremendously successful.  Most of the mosquitoes were sensitive to DDT and were therefore killed.  In that population of mosquitoes, few mosquitoes became resistant to DDT and survived.  They multiplied and now almost total population of mosquitoes became resistant to DDT.

Hence the principle of natural selection shows that the chemical insecticides can remain effective only for a limited period.

Adaptive Radiation:
The Process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called Adaptive radiation. Ex. Darwinian Finches, Australian Marsupials.

A Brief Account of Evolution:

  • About 2000 million years ago the first cellular forms of life appeared on earth.  Some of these cells had the ability to release O2.
  • Slowly single-celled organisms became multi-cellular forms and by the time 500 mya, invertebrates were formed and active.
  • Jawless fish evolved around 350 mya.
  • Organisms started to invade from water to land.  Fish with stout and strong fins could move on land and go back to water. These fishes evolved into the first amphibians
  • Later, these amphibians evolved into reptiles. They lay shelled eggs.  Then reptiles of different shapes and sizes dominated on earth (dinosaurs).
  • Some of the reptiles evolved into birds and later some of them to mammals.  Mammals were viviparous and more intelligent in sensing and avoiding danger at least.


Origin and Evolution of Man:

  • About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing.  They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees.  Ramapithecus was more man like and Dryopithecus was more ape-like.
  • Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East aftrican grasslands.  Evidence shows that they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruits.
  • Fossils of first human like being the hominid were found and their brain capacity were between 650-800cc, they were called as Homo habilis. They did not eat meat.
  • Fossils discovered in Java 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya and had a large brain around 900 cc and they ate meat.
  • Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc.  They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
  • Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races.
  • During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose.

300+ TOP ELECTRIC TRACTION Objective Questions and Answers

ELECTRIC TRACTION Objective Questions :-

1. Which of the following is an advantage of electric traction over other methods of traction ?
(a) Faster acceleration
(b) No pollution problems
(c) Better braking action
(d) All of the above
Ans: a

2. Which of the following is the voltage for single phase A.C. system ?
(a) 22 V
(b) 440 V
(c) 5 kV
(d) 15 kV
(e) None of the above
Ans: a

3. Long distance railways use which of the following ?
(a) 200 V D.C.
(b) 25 kV single phase A.C.
(c) 25 kV two phase A.C.
(d) 25 kV three phase A.C.
Ans: b

4. The speed of a locomotive is controlled by
(a) flywheel
(b) gear box
(c) applying brakes 11.
(d) regulating steam flow to engine
Ans:

5. Main traction systems used in India are, those using
(a) electric locomotives
(b) diesel engine locomotives
(c) steam engine locomotives
(d) diesel electric locomotives
(e) all of the above
Ans: e

6. in India diesel locomotives are manufactured at
(a) Ajmer
(b) Varanasi
(c) Bangalore
(d) Jamalpur
Ans: b

7. For diesel locomotives the range of horsepower is
(a) 50 to 200
(b) 500 to 1000
(c) 1500 to 2500
(d) 3000 to 5000
Ans: c

8. _______ locomotive has the highest operational availability.
(a) Electric
(b) Diesel
(c) Steam
Ans: a

9. The horsepower of steam locomotives is
(a) up to 1500
(b) 1500 to 2000
(c) 2000 to 3000
(d) 3000 to 4000
Ans: a

10. The overall efficiency of steam locomotive is around
(a) 5 to 10 percent
(b) 15 to 20 percent
(c) 25 to 35 percent
(d) 35 to 45 percent
Ans: a

11. In tramways which of the following motors is used ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) A.C. three phase motor
(d) AC. single phase capacitor start motor
Ans: b

12. In a steam locomotive electric power is provided through
(a) overhead wire
(b) battery system
(c) small turbo-generator
(d) diesel engine generator
Ans: c

13. Which of the following drives is suitable for mines where explosive gas exists ?
(a) Steam engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Battery locomotive
(d) Any of the above
Ans: c

14. In case of locomotives the tractive power is provided by
(a) single cylinder double acting steam engine
(b) double cylinder, single acting steam engine
(c) double cylinder, double acting steam engine
(d) single stage steam turbine
Ans: c

15. Overload capacity of diesel engines is usually restricted to
(a) 2 percent
(b) 10 percent
(c) 20 percent
(d) 40 percent
Ans: a

16. In case of steam engines the steam pressure is
(a) 1 to 4 kgf/cm2
(b) 5 to 8 kgf/cm2
(c) 10 to 15 kgf/cm2
(d) 25 to 35 kgf/cm2
Ans: c

17. The steam engine provided on steam locomotives is
(a) single acting condensing type
(b) single acting non-condensing type
(e) double acting condensing type
(d) double acting non-condensing type
Ans: b

18. Electric locomotives in India are manufactured at
(a) Jamalpur
(b) Bangalore
(c) Chittranjan
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans: c

19. The wheels of a train, engine as well as bogies, are slightly tapered to
(a) reduce friction
(b) increase friction
(c) facilitate braking
(d) facilitate in taking turns
Ans: d

20. Automatic signalling is used for which of the following trains ?
(a) Mail and express trains
(b) Superfast trains
(c) Suburban and Urban electric trains
(d) All trains
Ans: b

21. The efficiency of diesel locomotives is nearly
(a) 20 to 25 percent
(b) 30 to 40 percent
(c) 45 to 55 percent
(d) 60 to 70 percent
Ans: a

22. The speed of a superfast train is
(a) 60 kmph
(b) 75 kmph
(c) 100 kmph
(d) more than 100 kmph
Ans: d

23. The number of passenger coaches that can be attached to a diesel engine locomotive on broad gauge is usually restricted to
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 17
Ans: b

24. Which of the following state capitals is not on broad gauge track ?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Bhopal
(c) Jaipur
(d) Chandigarh
Ans: c

25. Which of the following is the advantage of electric braking ?
(a) It avoids wear of track
(b) Motor continues to remain loaded during braking
(c) It is instantaneous
(d) More heat is generated during braking
Ans: a

26. Which of the following braking systems on the locomotives is costly ?
(a) Regenerative braking on electric locomotives
(b) Vacuum braking on diesel locomotives
(c) Vacuum braking on steam locomotives
(d) All braking systems are equally costly
Ans: a

27. Tractive effort is required to
(a) overcome the gravity component of train mass
(b) overcome friction, windage and curve resistance
(c) accelerate the train mass
(d) do all of the above
Ans: d

28. For given maximum axle load tractive efforts of AC. locomotive will be
(a) less than that of D.C. locomotive
(b) more than that of D.C. locomotive
(c) equal to that of D.C. locomotive
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

29. Co-efficient of adhesion reduces due to the presence of which of the following ?
(a) Sand on rails
(b) Dew on rails
(c) Oil on the rails
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: d

30. Due to which of the following co-efficient of adhesion improves ?
(a) Rust on the rails
(b) Dust on the rails
(c) Sand on the rails
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

31. Quadrilateral speed-time curve pertains to which of the following services ?
(a) Main line service
(b) Urban service
(c) Sub-urban service
(d) Urban and sub-urban service
Ans: d

32. Which of the following is the disadvantage of electric traction over other systems of traction ?
(a) Corrosion problems in the under-ground pipe work
(b) Short time power failure interrupts traffic for hours
(c) High capital outlay in fixed installations beside route limitation
(d) Interference with communication lines
(c) All of the above
Ans: c

33. Co-efficient of adhesion is
(a) high in case of D.C. traction than in the case of AC. traction
(b) low in case of D.C. traction than in the case of AC. traction
(c) equal in both AC. and D.C. traction
(d) any of the above
Ans: b

34. Speed-time curve of main line service differs from those of urban and suburban services on following account
(a) it has longer free running period
(b) it has longer coasting period
(c) accelerating and braking periods are comparatively smaller
(d) all of the above
Ans: d

35. The rate of acceleration on suburban orurban services is restricted by the consideration of
(a) Engine power
(b) Track curves
(c) Passenger Discomfort
(d) Track size
Ans: c

36. The specific energy consumption of a train depends on which of the following ?
(a) Acceleration and retardation
(b) Gradient
(c) Distance covered
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

37. The friction at the track is proportional to
(a) 1/speed
(b) l/(speed)2
(c) speed
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

38. The air resistance to the movement of the train is proportional to
(a) speed
(b) (speed)
(c) (speed)
(d) 1/speed
Ans: b

39. The normal value of adhesion friction is
(a) 0.12
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.75
Ans: b

40. The pulsating torque exerted by steam locomotives causes which of the following?
(a) Jolting and skidding
(b) Hammer blow
(c) Pitching
(d) All of the above
Ans: a

41. Which of the following braking systems is used on steam locomotives ?
(a) Hydraulic system
(b) Pneumatic system
(c) Vacuum system
(d) None of the above
Ans: c

42. Vacuum is created by which of the following?
(a) Vacuum pump
(b) Ejector
(c) Any of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans: c

43. The resistance encountered by a train in motion is on account of
(a) resistance offered by air
(b) friction at the track
(c) friction at various parts of the rolling stock
(d) all of the above
Ans: d

44. Battery operated trucks are used in
(a) steel mills
(b) power stations
(c) narrow gauge traction
(d) factories for material transportation
Ans: d

45 method can bring the locomotive to dead stop.
(a) Plugging braking
(b) Rheostatic braking
(c) Regenerative braking
(d) None of the above
Ans: a

46. The value of co-efficient of adhesion will be high when rails are
(a) greased
(b) wet
(c) sprayed with oil
(d) cleaned with sand
Ans: d

47. The voltage used for suburban trains in D.C. system is usually
(a) 12 V
(b) 24 V
(c) 220 V
(d) 600 to 750 V
Ans: d

48. For three-phase induction motors which of the following is the least efficient method of speed control ?
(a) Cascade control
(b) Pole changing
(c) Rheostat control
(d) Combination of cascade and pole changing
Ans: c

49. Specific energy consumption becomes
(a) more on steeper gradient
(b) more with high train resistance
(c) less if distance between stops is more
(d) all of the above
Ans: d

50. In main line service as compared to urban and suburban service
(a) distance between the stops is more
(b) maximum speed reached is high
(c) acceleration and retardation rates are low
(d) all of the above
Ans: d

51. Locomotive having monomotor bogies
(a) has better coefficient of adhesion
(b) are suited both for passanger as well as freight service
(c) has better riding qualities due to the reduction of lateral forces
(d) has all above qualities
Ans: d

52. Series motor is not suited for traction duty due to which of the following account ?
(a) Less current drain on the heavy load torque
(b) Current surges after temporary switching off supply
(c) Self relieving property
(d) Commutating property at heavy load
Ans: b

53. When a bogie negotiates a curve, reduction in adhesion occurs resulting in sliding. Thus sliding is acute when
(a) wheel base of axles is more
(b) degree of curvature is more
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

54. Energy consumption in propelling the train is required for which of the following?
(a) Work against the resistance to motion
(b) Work against gravity while moving up the gradient
(c) Acceleration
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

55. An ideal traction system should have
(a) easy speed control
(b) high starting tractive effort
(c) equipment capable of with standing large temporary loads
(d) all of the above
Ans: d

56. have maximum unbalanced forces
(a) Diesel shunters
(b) Steam locomotives
(c) Electric locomotives
(d) Diesel locomotives
Ans: b

57. Specific energy consumption is affected by which of the following factors ?
(a) Retardation and acceleration values
(b) Gradient
(c) Distance between stops
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

58. In case of ________ free running and coasting periods are generally long.
(a) main-line service
(b) urban service
(c) sub-urban service
(d) all of the above
Ans: a

59. Overhead lines for power supply to tramcars are at a minimum height of
(a) 3 m
(b) 6 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 15 m
Ans: c

60. The return circuit for tramcars is through
(a) neutral wire
(b) rails
(c) cables
(d) common earthing
Ans: b

61. Specific energy consumption is least in _______ service.
(a) main line
(b) urban
(c) suburban
Ans: a

62. Locomotives with monometer bogies have
(a) uneven distribution of tractive effect
(b) suitability for passanger as well as freight service
(c) lot of skidding
(d) low co-efficient of adhesion
Ans: b

63 _______ was the first city in India to adopt electric traction.
(a) Delhi
(b) Madras
(c) Calcutta
(d) Bombay
Ans: d

64 _______ frequency is not common in low frequency traction system
(a) 40 Hz
(b) 25 Hz
(c) 16 Hz
Ans: a

65. For 25 kV single phase system power supply frequency is
(a) 60 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 25 Hz
(d) 16 Hz
Ans: b

66. Power for lighting in passanger coach, in a long distance electric train, is provided
(a) directly through overhead electric line
(b) through individual generator of bogie and batteries
(c) through rails
(d) through locomotive
Ans: b

67. In India, electrification of railway track was done for the first time in which of the following years ?
(a) 1820—1825
(b) 1880—1885
(c) 1925—1932
(d) 1947—1954
Ans: c

68. Suri transmission is
(a) electrical-pneumatic
(b) mechanical-electrical
(c) hydro-mechanical
(d) hydro-pneumatic
Ans: c

69. In case of a steam engine an average coal consumption per km is nearly
(a) 150 to 175 kg
(b) 100 to 120 kg
(c) 60 to 80 kg
(d) 28 to 30 kg
Ans: d

70. Which of the following happens in Kando system ?
(a) Three phase A.C. is converted into D.C.
(b) Single phase A.C. is converted into D.C.
(c) Single phase supply is converted into three phase system
(d) None of the above
Ans: c

71. For which of the following locomotives the maintenance requirements are the least?
(a) Steam locomotives
(b) Diesel locomotives
(c) Electric locomotives
(d) Equal in all of the above
Ans: b

72. Which of the following methods is used to control speed of 25 kV, 50 Hz single phase traction ?
(a) Reduced current method
(b) Tap changing control of transformer
(c) Series parallel operation of motors
(d) All of the above
Ans: b

73. If the co-efficient of adhesion on dry rails is 0.26, which of the following could be the value for wet rails ?
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.26
(c) 0.225
(d) 0.16
Ans: d

74. watt-hours per tonne km is usually the specific energy consumption for suburban services.
(a) 15—20
(b) 50—75
(c) 120—150
(d) 160—200
Ans: b

75. The braking retardation is usually in the range
(a) 0.15 to 0.30 km phps
(b) 0.30 to 0.6 km phps
(c) 0.6 to 2.4 km phps
(d) 3 to 5 km phps
(e) 10 to 15 km phps
Ans: d

79. The rate of acceleration on suburban orurban service is in the range
(a) 0.2 to 0.5 km phps
(b) 1.6 to 4.0 km phps
(c) 5 to 10 km phps
(d) 15 to 25 km phps
Ans: b

80. The coasting retardation is around
(a) 0.16 km phps
(b) 1.6 km phps
(c) 16 km phps
(d) 40 km phps
Ans: a

ELECTRIC TRACTION MCQs ::