Top 300 Pharmacy Multiple Choice Questions MCQs Quiz

Pharmacy MCQs and Answers

1. Total number of Axial bone in adult human body

A. 126
B. 80
C. 206
D. 202

Answer: B

2. Indian senna obtained from the plant

A. Cassia angustifolia
B. Cassia acutifolia
C. Cassia obovata
D. Cassia auriculata

Answer: A

3. What is the descriptive name of clotting factor X

A. Fibrinogen
B. Labile factor
C. Prothrombin
D. Stuart-Prower factor

Answer: D

4. Which among the following is a sterile preparation

A. Nasal drops
B. Effervescent granules
C. Ophthalmic Preparations
D. Otic Preparations

Answer: C

5. Which among the following drug formulation is required to be stored in refrigerator

A. Emulsions
B. Suspensions
C. Vaccines
D. Non of the above

Answer: C

6. Which among the following is a liquid alkaloid

A. Nicotine
B. Strychnine
C. Quinine
D. Colchicine

Answer: A

7. Schedule R of Drugs and Cosmetic Act deals with

A. Disinfectants
B. Antiseptics
C. Mechanical Contraceptives
D. Dyes,Colours & Pigments

Answer: C

8. Sterilization condition by Steam Sterilization of Injection as per IP

A. 121°C at 15psig for 30 minutes
B. 171°C at 15psig for 1 hour
C. 135°C at 15psig for 15 minutes
D. 134°C at 15psig for 15 minutes

Answer: A

9. One table spoon is equivalent to

A. 10ml
B. 15 ml
C. 20 ml
D. 5 ml

Answer: B

10. Iatrogenic disease means

A. Drug induced disease
B. Systemic infections
C. Physician induced desease
D. Contagious disease

Answer: C

Pharmacy MCQs

11. Major chemical constituent present in the clove oil

A. Fenchone
B. Citral
C. AnetholC
D. Eugenol

Answer: D

12. Vitali-Morin test is used to identify

A. Indole alkaloids
B. Isoquinoline alkaloids
C. Tropane alkaloids
D. Purine Alkaloids

Answer: C

13. Synonym of Chlorinated lime

A. Sodium hypochlorite
B. Calcium chloride
C. Chlorhexinol
D. Bleaching powder

Answer: D

14. Agar is obtained from the

A. Green algae
B. Blue algae
C. Red algae
D. Blue green algae

Answer: C

15. Locally applied protein precipitants are called

A. Astringents
B. Antiseptics
C. Disinfectants
D. Protectives

Answer: A

16. Chemically Paraldehyde is

A. Sodium-2,2,2-trichloroethyl hydrogen orthophosphate
B. 2,4,6 Trimethyl-1,3,5 trioxane
C. 3,3-Diethyl-5-methyl pipridine-2,4-dione
D. 3-Ethyl-3-phenyl piperidine-2,6 dione

Answer: B

17. Clofibrate is used as a

A. Lipid lowering agent
B. Antiarrhythmic drug
C. Antiinflammtory drug
D. Antianginal drug

Answer: A

18. Biotin acts as a coenzyme in which type of reactions

A. Carboxylation
B. Acetylation
C. Dehydrogenation
D. Transamination

Answer: A

19. Diphenhydramine is a derivative of

A. Ethylene diamine
B. Phenothiazines
C. Aminoalkyl ethers
D. Alkyl amines

Answer: C

20. Heterocyclic ring present in Indomethacin

A. Imidazole
B. Indole
C. Indoline
D. Quinoline

Answer: B

21. SSRI useful in the treatment of premature ejaculation

A. Dapoxetine
B. Duloxetine
C. Venlafaxine
D. Sertraline

Answer: A

22. In a clinical trial, comparison of efficacy of a new drug with an existing drug is done in

A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV

Answer: C

23. All of the following are short acting insulin analogs except

A. Insulin lispro
B. Insulin aspart
C. Insulin glargine
D. Insulin glulisine

Answer: C

24. Etravirine is

A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
B. Non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C. Integrase inhibitor
D. Entry inhibitor

Answer: B

25. Physiological salt solution used for mammalian smooth muscle experiments

A. Tyrode solution
B. Frog ringer solution
C. De Jalon solution
D. Mc even solution

Answer: A

26. Drug most likely to cause malignant hyperthermia is

A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Halothane
D. Thiopentone sodium

Answer: C

27. Squalene epoxidase inhibitor is

A. Terbinafine
B. Griseofulvin
C. Miconazole
D. Tolnaftate

Answer: A

28. Penicillin G is the drug of choice in

A. Rickettsial infection
B. Leptospirosis
C. Typhoid
D. Bacterial dysentery

Answer: B

29. CAMP is the second messenger for the following receptors except

A. Histamine `”H_2″`
B. Adrenergic `beta`
C. Serotonin `5HT_2`
D. Dopamin `D_1`

Answer: C

30. Glucocorticoid with the least mineralocorticoid activity is

A. Deflazacort
B. Prednisolone
C. Methylprednisolone
D. Hydrocortisone

Answer: A

31. Ocular anti inflammatory agent among the following

A. Flurbiprofen
B. Indomethacin p-0
C. Mefenamic acid
D. Piroxicam

Answer: A

32. NMDA receptor antagonist useful in Alzheimer’s disease

A. Galantamine
B. Memantine
C. Donepezil
D. Co Dergocrine

Answer: B

33. Uses of ACE inhibitors are all except

A. Hypertension
B. Congestive cardiac failure
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Variant angina

Answer: D

34. Teriparatide can be used for the treatment of

A. Osteoporosis
B. Polycystic ovarian disease
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Hypocalcemia

Answer: A

35. Drug of choice in trigeminal neuralgia

A. Carbamazepine
B. Phenytoin
C. Lamotrigine
D. Sodium valproate

Answer: A

36. Conversion of T4 to T3 is inhibited by all EXCEPT

A. Propranolol
B. Propylthiouracil
C. Carbimazole
D. Amiodarone

Answer: C

37. Diuretic with anti remodelling action

A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Amiloride
D. Spironolactone

Answer: D

38. Mu receptor is responsible for all the following effects EXCEPT

A. Miosis
B. Bronchodilation
C. Euphoria
D. Hypothermia

Answer: B

39. Most cardiotoxic local anaesthetic is

A. Procaine
B. Prilocaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Tetracaine

Answer: C

40. A normal distribution curve depends on

A. Mean and sample size
B. Mean and median
C. Range and sample size
D. Mean and standard deviation

Answer: D

41. Non sugar parts of the glycosides are called

A. Aglycon
B. Glycon
C. Glycogen
D. Glycol

Answer: A

42. All are Heterocyclic alkaloids except

A. Nicotine
B. Strychnine
C. Ergotamine
D. Ephedrine

Answer: D

43. Vitamin present in Coenzyme A

A. Riboflavin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Biotin
D. Pantothenic acid

Answer: D

44. Which among the following is a Non Reducing sugar

A. Sucrose
B. Glucose
C. Maltose
D. Lactose

Answer: A

45. Latest edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia was published in the year

A. 1996
B. 2014
C. 2010
D. 2007

Answer: B

46. Use of Potassium Iodide in Iodune solution

A. Increase the solubility of Iodine
B. Decrease the solubility of Iodine
C. Reduce the toxicity of Iodine
D. Improve the apearance of Iodine solution

Answer: A

47. How much of 7 Percentage solution will be required to prepare 250 ml of 1 in 100 Solution

A. 0.026 ml
B. 2.8 ml
C. 7 ml
D. 35.71 ml

Answer: D

48. Term used to describe Partial OR Complete separation of Top or Bottom of the tablet

A. Lamination
B. Capping
C. Picking
D. Chipping

Answer: B

49. Drug of choice for filariasis

A. Carbamazepine
B. Diethyl succimide
C. Diethyl Carbamazine
D. Carbimazole

Answer: C

50. Antibiotic which causes Gray Baby Syndrome

A. Gentamicin
B. Doxorubicin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Amikacin

Answer: C

51. An example for an anthracene glycoside

A. Purpurea glycoside
B. Diosgenin
C. Cantharidin
D. Sennoside

Answer: D

52. Hydrogen Peroxide IP used as antiseptic contains

A. 100% w/v of Hydrogen peroxide
B. 25% w/v of Hydrogen Peroxide
C. 6% w/v of Hydrogen Peroxide
D. 27% w/v of Hydrogen Peroxide

Answer: C

53. The agent used as a radio-opaque contrast medium:

A. Radioactive Sodium Iodide
B. Colloidal Gold Injection
C. Barium Sulphate
D. Sodium Iodo hippurate

Answer: C

54. When an hypotonic solution is injected into blood stream, causes

A. Haemolysis
B. Shrinkage of blood cells
C. Sclerosis of veins
D. No characteristic change

Answer: A

55. Sodium lauryl Sulphate is

A. Cationic surface active agents
B. Ampholytic surface active agents
C. Nonionic surface active agents
D. Anionic surface active agents

Answer: D

56. A toxoid vaccine is:

A. Killed bacterial suspension
B. Live bacterial suspension
C. Live viral Vaccine
D. Toxins that have been incubated with for malin

Answer: D

57. 0.1gms contains:

A. 1000 mg
B. 100 mg
C. 10 mg
D. 1 mg

Answer: B

58. Volume of 95% alcohol required to prepare 500 ml of 20% alcohol is:

A. 80 ml
B. 50 ml
C. 105 ml
D. 150 ml

Answer: C

59. Which among the following is a blood coagulation factor:

A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Manganese

Answer: B

60. An example for a drug that undergoes extensive first pass metabolism:

A. Testosterone
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Tolbutamide
D. Theophylline

Answer: A

61. Which among the following is NOT a first line drug for the treatment of Tuberculosis

A. Rifampicin
B. Ethionamide
C. Isoniazide
D. Ethambutol

Answer: B

62. Which among the following is a first generation Cephalosporin

A. Cefepime
B. Cefuroxime
C. Cefixime
D. Cephalexin

Answer: D

63. Which of the following is NOT the use of Propranolol

A. Glaucoma
B. Cataract
C. Migraine
D. Hypertension

Answer: B

64. Vitamin present in the shark liver oil

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin E

Answer: A

65. Who is the Secretary of Pharmacy and Therapeutic Committee

A. Administrator
B. Pharmacist
C. Medical Director
D. Chief Physician

Answer: B

66. Which among the following drug induce hepatic microsomal enzymes

A. Isoniazid
B. Phenylbutazone
C. Cimetidine
D. Phenytoin

Answer: D

67. Which among the following preparation is applied to body cavity

A. Collodion
B. Liniments
C. Douches
D. Paints

Answer: C

68. 1mg is equivalent to

A. 1000μg
B. 100μg
C. 10μg
D. 50μg

Answer: A

69. example for preservative added in whole human blood

A. Phenyl mercuric acetate
B. Phenyl mercuric nitrate
C. Phenol
D. No preservative

Answer: D

70. Meaning of latin term “primo mane”

A. As directed
B. Breakfast
C. During night
D. Early in the morning

Answer: D

71. An inherited metabolic disorder Alkaptonuria is due to the lack of enzyme

A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
B. Tyrosine hydroxylase
C. Homogentisate oxidase
D. Hydroxy phenylpyruvate hydroxylase

Answer: C

72. Synthetic analogue of Vitamin K

A. Menadione
B. Coumarins
C. Warfarin sodium
D. Heparin

Answer: A

73. “Caution it is dangerous to take this preparation except under medical supervision” should be included in the label of

A. Schedule G drugs
B. Schedule H drugs
C. Schedule X drugs
D. Schedule C drugs

Answer: A

74. Plant steroid used as a precursor for the synthesis of cortico steroid

A. Solanine
B. Diosgenin
C. Solanidine
D. Veratridine

Answer: B

75. The drug which cause Oto toxicity

A. Azithromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Neomycin
D. Erythromycin

Answer: C

76. Which among the following Vitamin have a Naphthaquinone ring

A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin B12

Answer: B

77. Alcohol present in the Spingolipid

A. Sphingosine
B. Sphinganine
C. Sphingomyleine
D. Ceramide

Answer: A

78. Which agency advices government and DTAB on issues related to uniform operation of D&C Act throughout the Country

A. Drug Consultative Committe
B. Central Drugs Laboratory
C. Drugs Control Department
D. Central Drugs Research Institute

Answer: A

79. Devil’s dung is the synonym of

A. Myrrh
B. Asafoeitida
C. Digitalis
D. Ginseng

Answer: B

80. Disease characterized by increase in the number of platelets in blood

A. Lymphocytic leukemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Thrombocythemia

Answer: D

81. Which of the following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action?

A. Ether
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Halothane
D. Ketamine

Answer: B

82. The dose limiting toxicity of doxorubicin is

A. Hepatic centrilobular necrosis
B. Congestive cardiac failure
C. Proximal tubular necrosis
D. Peripheral neuropathy

Answer: B

83. Characteristic feature of piperacillin is

A. Acid labile and penicillinase resistant
B. Acid resistant and penicillinase labile
C. Acid labile and penicillinase labile
D. Acid resistant and penicillinase resistant

Answer: C

84. Cytochrome P450 isoenzyme involved in the metabolism of most of the drugs is

A. CYP2E1
B. CYP2D6
C. CYP3A4
D. CYP2C19

Answer: C

85. Antipsychotic with prokinetic action

A. Levosulpiride
B. Amisulpride
C. Loxapine
D. Pimozide

Answer: A

86. Centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant that acts via `alpha2` adrenergic agonism

A. Tizanidine
B. Brimonidine
C. Baclofen
D. Chlormezanone

Answer: A

87. Which of the following is a phase 2 reaction?

A. Oxidation
B. Acetylation
C. Hydrolysis
D. Reduction

Answer: B

88. All of the following are anti seizure drugs useful for migraine prophylaxis except

A. Gabapentin
B. Topiramate
C. Vigabatrin
D. Sodium valproate

Answer: C

89. The following are mixed agonist antagonist except

A. Pentazocine
B. Nalbuphine
C. Fentanyl
D. Nalorphine

Answer: C

90. Chlorpromazine has all the following actions in addition to its anti dopaminergic effect except

A. Anticholinergic action
B. Antihistaminic action
C. Alpha adrenergic blocking action
D. Beta adrenergic blocking action

Answer: D

91. Bacillus Calmette Guerin Vaccine is

A. Suspension of living cells of a strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Suspension of living cells of a strain o
f Bordetella pertusis
C. Suspension of living cells of a strain of Salmonella typhi
D. Suspension of living cells of a strain of Vibrio cholerae

Answer: A

92. The toxic protein present in castor oil is

A. Ricinoleic acid
B. Ricin
C. Isoricinoleic acid
D. Linoleic acid

Answer: B

93. Calamine IP is

A. Aluminium silicate with ferric oxide
B. Magnesium silicate with ferric oxide
C. Calcium oxide with ferric oxide
D. Zinc oxde with ferric oxide

Answer: D

94. Which among the following statement is false with respect to NaCl Injection I P

A. Contains 0.9% w/v sterile solution of Sodium Chloride
B. pH of the solution is between 4.5 & 7.0
C. Contains added antimicrobial agents or preservatives
D. Contains approximately 150 mmol of Sodium ions

Answer: C

95. Which one of the following is used as an antimicrobial preservative:

A. Propylene glycol
B. Procaine hydrochloride
C. Propyl hydroxy benzoate
D. Sodium hydrogen carbonate

Answer: C

96. Cotrimoxazole tablet contains:

A. 5 parts of Cortisone acetate and 1 parts of trimethoprim
B. 5 parts of Sulphamethoxaole and 1 parts of trimethoprim
C. 5 parts of Sulphasalazine and 1 parts of trimethoprim
D. 5 parts of Cloxacillin and 1 parts of trimethoprim

Answer: B

97. Which among the following is used as a diuretic:

A. Tribulus terrestris
B. Claviceps purpurea
C. Cyamopsis tetragonolobus
D. Commiphora molmol

Answer: A

98. Potassium permanganate is an example for:

A. acidifying agent
B. alkalising agent
C. reducing agent
D. oxidising agent

Answer: D

99. Lugols Solution is:

A. 2.5%w/v of Iodine and 2.5% w/v of potassium iodide in water
B. 10.0%w/v of Iodine and 6.0% w/v pf potassium iodide in water
C. 5.0%w/v of Iodine and 10.0% w/v of potassium iodide in water
D. 2.0% w/v of Iodine and 2.4 % w/v of Sodium iodide in water

Answer: C

100. Ammonium Chloride is used as:

A. Alkalising agent
B. Astringent
C. Expectorant
D. All the above

Answer: C

101. Pyridoxine is

A. Vitamin B 1
B. Vitamin B 2
C. Vitamin B 6
D. Folic acid

Answer: C

102. The latin term “Oris” denotes

A. to mouth
B. Ever hour
C. when necessary
D. at bed time

Answer: A

103. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A. Ethacrynic acid
B. Chlorothiazide
C. Acetazolamide
D. Chlorothiazide

Answer: C

104. Which one among the following has a phenanthrene nucleus:

A. Pentazocine
B. Trifluperazine
C. Promethazine
D. Morphine
Answer: D

105. 2 Acetoxy benzoic acid is:

A. Paraben
B. Aspirin
C. PABA
D. Benzocaine

Answer: B

106. An agent used to delay the renal excretion of penicillins

A. Protamine sulphate
B. Procaine
C. Propylene glycol
D. Probenecid

Answer: D

107. An antidote for warfarin toxicity/overdose

A. Protamine
B. Dimercaprol
C. Penicillamine
D. Vitamin K

Answer: D

108. An ingredient of anticoagulant solution used for storage of whole blood

A. Anhydrous citric acid
B. Anhydrous benzoic acid
C. Anhydrous Tartaric acid
D. Ascorbic acid

Answer: A

109. Valproic acid is used as an

A. Analgesic
B. Antiepileptic
C. Anti-inflammatory
D. Diuretic

Answer: B

110. All the following General anaesthetics are administered intravenously except:

A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Halothane
D. Thiopentone Sodium

Answer: C

111. In tablet manufacturing, TALC is used as

A. Diluent
B. Granulating agent
C. Glidant
D. Disintegrating agent

Answer: C

112. SCHICK TEST is done to

A. Detect the degree of immunity against Diphtheria.
B. Detect the degree of immunity against Tuberculosis
C. Detect the degree of immunity against Typhoid
D. identify the presence of Ketone bodies in urine

Answer: A

113. Glycerin or Sorbitol is added to gelatin in the preparation of soft gelatin capsules as

A. Preservatives
B. Plasticizer
C. Polishing agent
D. Sweetening agent

Answer: B

114. Principle of Size Reduction in Ball Mill is

A. Compression
B. Impact
C. Attrition
D. Combination of Impact and Attrition

Answer: D

115. Eugenia caryophyllus is the botanical name of

A. Clove
B. Eucalyptus
C. Coriander
D. Cardamom

Answer: A

116. Who among the following is not an Ex-officio member of central council of Pharmacy Council of India

A. Director General, Health Services
B. Drugs Controller of India
C. Director, Central Drugs Laboratory
D. Health Secretary, Govt. of India

Answer: D

117. The limit test of Iron depends upon the interaction of iron with

A. Barium Sulphate reagent
B. Diphenyl thiocarbazone
C. Thioglycollic acid
D. Mercuric Chloride

Answer: C

118. In relation to emulsion, formation of a layer of relatively concentrated emulsion above or below the surface is known as

A. Cracking
B. Creaming
C. Mottling
D. Phase inversion

Answer: B

1119. Drugs Inspector is appointed as per the provisions of

A. Pharmacy Act 1948
B. Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1945
C. Drugs Inspector Act 1940
D. Narcotic and Psychotropic Substances Act 1985

Answer: B

120. Presence of lignified trichomes is the characteristic microscopic feature of

A. Nux-vomica
B. Digitalis
C. Datura
D. Cinchona

Answer: A

121. Valbenazine is

A. VMAT2 inhibitor
B. MAO-B inhibitor
C. COMT inhibitor
D. MAO-A inhibitor

Answer: A

122. Concerning streptogramin, which of the following statement is false?

A. Active against MRSA
B. Induce cytochrome P450 enzyme
C. Useful against vancomycin resistant enterococci
D. Excreted mainly through feces

Answer: B

123. The minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a measure of its

A. Potency
B. Therapeutic index
C. Diffusibility
D. Efficacy

Answer: A

124. First line ACT under NVBDCP for chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria

A. Artesunate + sulfadoxine + pyrimethamine
B. Artemether + lumefantrine
C. Artesunate + mefloquine
D. Arterolane + piperaquine

Answer: A

125. About first order kinetics, true statement is

A. Fixed amount of the drug is eliminated
B. Clearance remains constant
C. Half-life increases with dose
D. Decreased clearance with increase in dose

Answer: B

126. Antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is

A. Physical antagonism
B. Physiological antagonism
C. Competitive equilibrium antagonism
D. Competitive non equilibrium antagonism

Answer: B

127. Which of the following is not associated with hydrochlorothiazide treatment

A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperuricemia

Answer: C

128. Aminoglycosides are not useful in the treatment of infections with

A. Pseudomonas
B. E Coli
C. Klebsiella
D. Clostridium difficile

Answer: D

129. Drug preferred in the treatment of swine flu

A. Abacavir
B. Oseltamivir
C. Acyclovir
D. Tenofovir

Answer: B

130. The name of ahlquist is associated with

A. Classification of cholinergic receptors
B. Classification of adrenergic receptors
C. Classification of histamine receptors
D. Classification of serotonin receptors

Answer: B

131. Organophosphorous poisoning is treated with

A. Acetylcholine
B. Atropine
C. Pentazocine
D. Methacholine

Answer: B

132. Benzodiazepine receptor antagonist:

A. Flumazenil
B. Atropine
C. Pentazocine
D. Phentolamine

Answer: A

133. Diabetes insipidus is due to deficiency of :

A. Oxytocin
B. Insulin
C. Vasopressin
D. Aldosterone

Answer: C

134. Epsom Salt is

A. Copper Sulphate
B. Magnesium Sulphate
C. Ferrous Sulphate
D. Calcium Sulphate

Answer: B

135. In combination antacids, Magnesium salts are added:

A. for immediate onset of action
B. to decrease the production of acid in GIT
C. to enhance taste and appearance
D. for laxative action

Answer: D

136. Directly observed treatment, Short course (DOTS) refers to:

A. AIDS control strategy of Govt of India
B. Strategic action plan for Malarial control in India
C. Tuberculosis control strategy, recommended by WHO
D. part of National Filaria control program

Answer: C

137. An Adverse effect of Clozapine

A. Agranulocytosis
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Respiratory depression

Answer: A

138. Antixerophthalmic vitamin is

A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B
D. Vitamin A

Answer: D

139. Lanolin is

A. Beeswax
B. Woolfat
C. Paraffin wax
D. Borax

Answer: B

140. Ratio of oil:water:gum for preparing an emulsion using volatile oil:

A. 2:2:1
B. 4:2:1
C. 3:2:1
D. 1:1:2

Answer: A

141. All of the following are disease modifying anti-rheumatoid drugs except

A. Etanercept
B. Anakinra
C. Infliximab
D. Cetuximab

Answer: D

142. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist is

A. Prasugrel
B. Ticlopidine
C. Tirofiban
D. Cangrelor

Answer: C

143. Preferred drug in the treatment of drug induced parkinsonism

A. Levodopa
B. Selegiline
C. Trihexyphenidyl
D. Tolcapone

Answer: C

144. Stimulation of which receptor will release renin?

A. Alpha 1
B. Alpha 2
C. Beta 1
D. Beta 2

Answer: C

145. Evolocumab is used in

A. Hyperlipidemia
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Migraine
D. Breast cancer

Answer: A

146. 5-HT1A partial agonist among the following

A. Ketanserin
B. Hydroxyzine
C. Cyproheptadine
D. Buspirone

Answer: D

147. All of the following can be used as local anaesthetics except

A. Dexmedetomidine
B. Centbucridine
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Benzyl alcohol

Answer: A

148. All of the following drugs are included under RNTCP for the treatment of XDR-TB except

A. Capreomycin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Clofazimine
D. Linezolid

Answer: B

149. Denosumab is used for the treatment of

A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Osteoporosis
D. Systematic lupus erythematosus

Answer: C

150. Anthelmintic agent with immunomodulatory action

A. Albendazole
B. Pyrantel pamoate
C. Piperazine
D. Levamisole

Answer: D

151. An antidote which can be used in cyanide poisoning:

A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Sodium nitrite
C. Dimercaprol
D. Sodium bi sulphite

Answer: B

152. Colloidal dispersion of liquids or solids in gases are:

A. Aerosols
B. Emulsion
C. Creams
D. Suspensions

Answer: A

153. An example for a drug with anti-hypertensive action

A. Rhubarb
B. Vasaka
C. Liquorice
D. Rauwolfia

Answer: D

154. Restricted licences in Forms 20-A and 21-A are issued for:

A. Narcotic and Psychotropic substances
B. Pethidine and related drugs
C. wholesale dealing of drugs which does not require the supervision of a registered pharmacist
D. drugs specified in Schedule X

Answer: C

155. The Schedule in Drugs and Cosmetics Actwhich specifies that drugs shall not be sold by retail except on and in accordance with the prescription of a Registered Medical Practitioner:

A. Schedule K
B. Schedule G
C. Schedule J
D. Schedule H

Answer: D

156. As per Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1945, the term “Drugstore” refers to

A. Licenses where the service of registered
B. Licenses who employ the service of regispharmacist is employed but donot maintain a pharmacytered pharmacist and maintain a pharmacy for compounding against prescription
C. Licenses where drugs are temporarily stored
D. Licenses where service of a qualified person is not required

Answer: D

157. Which among the following is a prodrug:

A. Levodopa
B. Indomethacin
C. Paracetamol
D. Diphenhydramine

Answer: A

158. Leucovorin rescue is given to reduce the toxic effects of

A. Methotrexate
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Melphalan
D. Chlorambucil

Answer: A

159. The antibiotic that acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30s ribosomal subunits:

A. Chloramphenicol
B. Doxycyclin
C. Azithromycin
D. Vancomycin

Answer: B

160. Diethyl carbamazine is the drug of choice in the treatment of:

A. Epilepsy
B. Filarial infection
C. Hookworm infestation
D. Malaria

Answer: B

161. Inhgverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is

A. Flumazenil
B. Gabapentin
C. Beta carboline
D. Zopiclone

Answer: C

162. All are properties of digoxin except

A. Low steady margin
B. High volume of distribution
C. inhibits Na+K+ATPase
D. Metabolized in liver

Answer: D

163. Febuxostate is

A. Non purine inhibitor of xanthine oxidase
B. Used in acute gout
C. Uricosuric drug
D. Given intravenously

Answer: A

164. The drug with the least oral bioavailability among the following

A. Ampicillin
B. Gentamicin
C. Doxycycline
D. Ciprofloxacin

Answer: B

165. Prostaglandin analog used in the treatment of constipation predominant IBS

A. Lubiprostone
B. Alosetron
C. Prucalopride
D. Cisapride

Answer: A

166. A metal chelator which can be used in the treatment of a collagen vascular disease but may precipitate yet another collagen vascular disease

A. Penicillamine
B. Desferrioxamine
C. Dimercaprol
D. Calcium disodium edetate

Answer: A

167. Neurokinin receptor antagonist used in the treatment of chemotherapy induced vomitting

A. Dronabinol
B. Ondansetron
C. Aprepitant
D. Rimonabant

Answer: C

168. All are pharmacogenetically mediated reactions except

A. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
B. Succinylcholine apnoea
C. Coumarin insensitivity
D. G6PD deficiency

Answer: A

169. Which one of the following antimicrobial agent has got a ketolide structure

A. Linezolid
B. Streptogramins
C. Aztreonam
D. Telithromycin

Answer: D

170. Preferred drug for the treatment of pneumocystis Jiroveci Pneumonia

A. Erythromycin
B. Co-trimoxazole
C. Doxycycline
D. Clindamycin

Answer: B

171. Acetazolamide inhibits the enzyme

A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
B. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
C. Carbonic anhydrase
D. pyruvate dehydrogenase

Answer: C

172. Viscosity of Agar solution is due to the presence of

A. Agarose
B. Cellulose
C. Agaropectin
D. cellobiose

Answer: C

173. Which among the following is not an anti thyroid drug

A. Carbimazol
B. Levothyroxine sodium
C. Propylthiouracil
D. Iodine

Answer: B

174. Anti estrogen used for the treatment of infertility

A. Tamoxifen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Naproxen
D. Clomifene

Answer: D

175. Drugs which contain Catechol nucleus

A. Nor adrenalin
B. Ephedrine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Pseudo ephedrin

Answer: A

176. Hydrous wool fat is known as

A. Lanolin
B. Macrogoal
C. Cholestrol
D. Lecithin

Answer: A

177. Repacking license are granted in drugs specified in following schedules except

A. Schedule X
B. Schedule C & C1
C. Schedule H
D. Schedule O

Answer: B

178. Antidot used for the treatment of organo phosphorous poisoning

A. Physostigmine
B. Pyridostigmine
C. Pralidoxime
D. Pilocarpine

Answer: C

179. Toxic principle present in the castor seed

A. resino tannic acid
B. Recinoleic acid
C. Isorecinoleic acid
D. Ricin

Answer: D

180. Schedule M1 of Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 & Rules 1945 deals with

A. Allopathic medicines
B. Homeopathic medicines
C. Medical devices
D. Cosmetics

Answer: B

181. Clavulanic acid is given along with amoxycillin to

A. decrease excretion
B. avoid first pass metabolism
C. prevent drug resistance
D. enhance oral absorption

Answer: C

182. Carbidopa is used for the treatment of parkinsonism because it

A. crosses blood brain barrier
B. decrease monoamine oxidase
C. inhibits L aminoacid decarboxylase
D. a COMT inhibitor

Answer: C

183. Aldosterone antagonist

A. Spironolactone
B. Amiloride
C. Mannitol
D. Acetazolamide

Answer: A

184. Antimalarial drug used in Rheumatoid arrthritis

A. Mepacrine
B. Chloroquine
C. Artemisine
D. Pamaquine

Answer: B

185. Selenium Sulfide is used as

A. Antimalarial
B. Antileprotic
C. Antifungal
D. Antidandruff

Answer: D

186. The process of loosing water of crystallisation from a substance is

A. Exudation
B. Efflorescence
C. Delequescence
D. Diaphoretic

Answer: B

187. Plantago ovata is used as

A. Expectorant
B. Sweetening agent
C. Analgesic
D. Laxative

Answer: D

188. Sucrose is a

A. Hexose
B. Monosaccharides
C. Disaccharides
D. Polysaccharides

Answer: C

189. An antidiabetic plant drug:

A. Withania somnifera
B. Saraca indica
C. Urginea maritima
D. Gymnema sylvestre

Answer: D

190. A tropane alkaloid:

A. Atropine
B. Reserpine
C. Ergometrine
D. Diosgenin

Answer: A

191. Domperidone is

A. `”5HT_3″` antagonist
B. `”5HT_4″` agonist
C. D2 antagonist
D. D2 agonist

Answer: C

192. Drug of choice in neurocysticercosis

A. Praziquantel
B. Albendazole
C. Ivermectin
D. Pyrantal pamoate

Answer: B

193. Stiripentol is an

A. Antipsychotic
B. Antiepileptic
C. Antiparkinsonian
D. Antidepressant

Answer: B

194. All are catecholamines except

A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Phenylephrine

Answer: D

195. Fastest acting antimalarial drug

A. Chloroquine
B. Quinine
C. Mefloquine
D. Artesunate

Answer: D

196. The mechanism of action of sofosbuvir is

A. NS5B polymerase inhibitor
B. NS5A inhibitor
C. NS3 Protease inhibitor
D. Neuraminidase inhibitor

Answer: A

197. Drug which is not of microbial origin

A. Lovastatin
B. Ivermectin
C. Paclitaxel
D. Sirolimus

Answer: C

198. Essential drugs are

A. Life saving drugs
B. Drugs meeting the health needs of majority of population
C. Drugs that must be available in emergency departments
D. Drugs that are listed in pharmacopoeia of a nation

Answer: B

199. Loading dose of a drug primarily depends on

A. Volume of distribution
B. Clearance
C. Rate of administration
D. Plasma half-life

Answer: A

200. Selective estrogen receptor down regulator is

A. Clomiphene citrate
B. Toremifene
C. Letrozole
D. Fulvestrant

Answer: D

201. Which one of the following is referred to as Good Cholesterol:

A. Triglycerides
B. High density Lipoproteins
C. Low density Lipoproteins
D. Chylomicrons

Answer: B

202. Which part of the plant “Opium poppy” is used for obtaining the active principles:

A. dried latex from stem
B. dried latex from capsules
C. dried latex from root
D. dried latex from shoots

Answer: B

203. Proton pump inhibitor used in the treatment of peptic ulcer

A. Rabeprazole
B. Ranitidine
C. Misoprostol
D. Sucralfate

Answer: A

204. An example for a drug that induces cytochrome P450:

A. Phenytoin
B. Omeprazole
C. Allopurinol
D. Chloramphenicol

Answer: A

205. Physostigmine is an example for

A. Adrenergic durg
B. Anticholinergic drug
C. Adrenergic blocking drug
D. Anticholinesterase

Answer: D

206. A Non Steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drug derived from anthranilic acid:

A. Mephenemic acid
B. Ibuprofen
C. Indomethacin
D. Diclofenac Sodium

Answer: A

207. A hormone secreted by the anterior lobe of pituitary gland:

A. Mineralocorticoids
B. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
C. Growth hormone
D. Thyrotropin releasing hormone

Answer: C

208. An drug which inhibits spermatogenesis, used as male contraceptive

A. Tamoxifen
B. Norethindrone
C. Levonorgestrel
D. Gossypol

Answer: D

209. An Angiotensin antagonist:

A. Captopril
B. Losartan
C. Verapamil
D. Nicorandil

Answer: B

210. Lovastatin is

A. Antifibrinolytic agent
B. H2 receptor antagonist
C. HMG Co-A reductase inhibitor
D. Lipoprotein lipase activator

Answer: C

211. Which of the following is not an instability problem of emulsion

A. Creaming
B. Phase inversion
C. Cracking
D. Flashing

Answer: D

212. Which among the following is used as a systemic acidifier

A. Potassium iodide
B. Potassium citrate
C. Ammonium Chloride
D. Sodium acetate

Answer: C

213. Radioisotope P-32 used for the treatment of

A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Carcinoma of bone
C. Thyroid cancer
D. Polycythemia vera

Answer: D

214. Which among the following is used as a filtering aid

A. Calcium carbonate
B. Hydroxy methyl cellulose
C. Methyl cellulose
D. Kaolin

Answer: D

215. Radiopaque contrast media used for the X-ray examination of Gastro intestinal tract

A. Barium chloride
B. Barium sulphite
C. Barium sulphide
D. Barium Sulphate

Answer: D

216. Which among the following is used to prepare Anti-Rust tablet

A. Sodium chloride
B. Sodium sulphate
C. Sodium nitrite
D. Sodium metabisulphate

Answer: C

217. Method for mixing potent drug powder with large volume of diluent is

A. Tumbling
B. Geometric dilution
C. Swifting
D. Levigation

Answer: B

218. Modified Brontagers test are used to identify which type of Anthraquinone glycosides

A. O-glycosides
B. N-glycosides
C. C-glycosides
D. S-glycosides

Answer: C

219. Cinnamon is marketed in the form of

A. Compound quills
B. Double quills
C. Simple quills
D. Channelled

Answer: A

220. Heavy and light Magnesium oxides differ in their

A. Water of hydration
B. Solubility
C. Molecular weight
D. Bulk density

Answer: D

221. A state of decreased responsiveness to the pharmacologic effect of a drug resulting from prior exposure to that drug or to a related drug is called

A. Drug Tolerance
B. Drug Habituation
C. Drug Addiction
D. Drug Dependence

Answer: A

222. Which one of the following compound is used for the treatment of cyanide poisoning

A. Sodium nitrate
B. Sodium Nitrite
C. Sodium bisulphate
D. Sodium metabisulphate

Answer: B

223. Siam benzoin differs from Sumatra variety due to the insufficient content of

A. Benzoic acid
B. Cinnamic acid
C. Coniferyl alcohol
D. Coniferyl benzoate

Answer: B

224. Glycoside present in the Cinchona bark

A. Quinine
B. Cinchonidine
C. Cinchonin
D. Quinovin

Answer: D

225. Which one of the following is an ingredient of Compound effervescent powder

A. Bismuth subcarbonate
B. Antimony potassium tartarate
C. Sodium potassium tartarate
D. Sodium antimony gluconate

Answer: C

226. Solution containing 6 %w/v of Hydrogen peroxide corresponding to

A. 5 times its volume of available Oxugen
B. 20 times its volume of available Oxugen
C. 10 times its volume of available Oxugen
D. 15 times its volume of available Oxugen

Answer: B

227. Green Vitriol is

A. Ferrous sulphate
B. Zinc sulphate
C. Copper sulphate
D. Magnesium sulphate

Answer: A

228. An agent used for gaseous sterilization

A. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Methane
D. Ethylene oxide

Answer: D

229. Which among the following is a substitute of Cinchona

A. Cinchona succirubra
B. Cinchona calisaya
C. Remijia pendunculata
D. Cinchona officinalis

Answer: C

230. Oxytocic activity of the Ergot is due to the presence of

A. Ergotamine
B. Ergometrine
C. Dihydroergotamine
D. Lysergic acid diethylamide

Answer: B

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