Top 300 Public Health Multiple Choice Questions MCQs

Public Health MCQs and Answers

1. ICDS stands for

A. integrated child development scheme
B. Indian child development scheme
C. integrating child development support
D. none of these

Answer: A

2. The top priority of Janani Suraksha Yojana is:

A. decrease the fertility rate
B. reduce the birth rate
C. reduction of MMR
D. none of these

Answer: C

3. In which year NRHM was launched in India:

A. 2005
B. 2008
C. 2004
D. 2007

Answer: A

4. NFHS stands for :

A. national full health status
B. national family health survey
C. national family health status
D. none of these

Answer: B

5. National Population Policy of India was enacted in which year:

A. 2001
B. 2005
C. 2012
D. 2000

Answer: D

6. In which year National Health Policy in India was implemented:

A. 2002
B. 2001
C. 2007
D.2013

Answer: A

7. NRHM covers:

A. improve accessibility to quality health care for the rural population
B. bridge gaps in health care
C. facilitate decentralised planning in the health sector
D. all the above

Answer: D

8. NRHM seeks to strengthen:

A. private health care system
B.public and private health care system
C. public health care system
D. none of these

Answer: C

9. RCH stands for:

A. reproductive and child health
B. reproductive child health
C. researching child households
D. none of these

Answer: A

10. Reproductive and child health was launched in which year:

A. 1992-93
B. 1997-98
C. 2005-06
D. 2012-13

Answer: B

11. QALY means:

A. Quality adjusted life year
B. Quantity adjusted life year
C. quality accredited long youth
D. none of these

Answer: A

12. Externality refers to:

A. third party effect
B. inclusive growth
C. social exclusion
D. none of these

Answer: A

13. The number of deaths per one thousand people per year means:

A. birth rate
B. IMR
C. death rate
D. none of these

Answer: C

14. Probability of dying between birth and exactly five years of age expressed per 1,000 live births :

A. birth rate
B. under five mortality rate
C. death rate
D. none of these

Answer: B

15. Probability of dying between birth and exactly one year of age expressed per 1,000 live births: :

A. birth rate
B. IMR
C. death rate
D. none of these

Answer: B

16. The number of maternal deaths per 1,000 women of reproductive age in the population (generally defined as 15–44 years of age) means:

A. MMR
B. IMR
C. child mortality rate
D. none of these

Answer: A

17. the sum of neonatal deaths and fetal deaths (stillbirths) per 1,000 births:

A. MMR
B. perinatal mortality rate
C. IMR
D. none of these

Answer: B

18. The sum of the age-specific birth rates (5-year age groups between 10 and 49) for female residents of a specified geographic area during a specified time period:

A. crude death rate
B. birth rate
C. total fertility rate
D. none of these

Answer: C

19. Millennium development goals target of MMR in India:

A. 103
B. 134
C. 168
D. 198

Answer: A

20. The state of being diseased or unhealthy within a population means:

A. mortality
B. morbidity
C. fertility
D. none of these

Answer: B

21. In which year consider ‘year of great divide’:

A. 1981
B.1921
C. 1891
D. 1961

Answer: B

22. Child nutritional status measured in terms of three anthropometric indicators. They are:

A. stunting, wasting and underweight
B. mortality, morbidity and underweight
C. body mass index, morbidity rate, dependency ratio
D. none of these

Answer: A

23. RSBY stands for:

A. Rashtriya Swathya Bima Yojana
B. Rashtriya Swasthya beneficiary youth
C. Rashtriya self beneficiary youth
D. none of these

Answer: A

24. What is ASHA?

A. additional social health activist
B. accredited social health activist
C. additional socio-health activist
D. none of these

Answer: B

25. Example of life style diseases :

A. cancer
B. malaria
C. chikungunia
D. fever

Answer: A

26. Example of communicable diseases:

A. heart attack
B. diabetes
C. blood pressure
D. dengue

Answer: D

27. Palliative care policy in Kerala implemented in which year:

A. 2009
B. 2013
C. 2003
D. 2008

Answer: D

28. In Kerala, Tertiary care in government service is provided through which institutions:

A. Medical college hospitals
B. district hospital
C. primary health centres
D. taluk hospitals

Answer: A

29. Dimensions of public health:

A. health promotion
B. disease prevention
C. rehabilitation
D. all the above

Answer: D

30. Which variable is not a component of HDI:

A. life expectancy
B. access to knowledge
C. IMR
D. decent standard of living

Answer: C

31. Which agency defined health as “a complete state of physical, mental and social well being and not merely the absence of illness or disease”:

A. UNICEF
B. WHO
C. WTO
D. ADB

Answer: B

32. The number of live births per thousand of population per year means:

A. birth rate
B. IMR
C. death rate
D. none of these

Answer: A

33. Health paradox refers to :

A. high income with high human development
B. low income with high human development
C. low mortality with high morbidity
D. none of these

Answer: C

34. Example of tertiary health care:

A. cardiac surgery
B. plastic surgery
C. cancer management
D. all the above

Answer: D

35. NRHM stands for:

A. national rural health mission
B. national remote health mission
C. national and regional health management
D. none of these

Answer: A

36. Health is a ……. subject:

A. central
B. state
C. concurrent
D. none of these

Answer: B

37. “the state of being free from illness or injury” means:

A. happiness
B. fitness
C.disease
D. health

Answer: D

38. Which refers to the work of health care professionals who act as a first point of consultation for all patients within the health care system:

A. primary care
B. secondary care
C. urgent care
D. none of these

Answer: A

39. Which is the health care services provided by medical specialists and other health professionals who generally do not have first contact with patients:

A. primary care
B. secondary care
C. urgent care
D. none of these

Answer: B

40. which is a specialized consultative health care:

A. primary care
B. secondary care
C. urgent care
D. tertiary care

Answer: D

41. Number of live births per 1000 live male births defined as:

A. sex ratio
B. maternal mortality rate
C. birth rate
D. death rate

Answer: A

42. Main determinants of health status of a person:

A. income and social status
B. education
C. physical environment
D. All the above

Answer: D

43. The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) combines three indicators. They are

A. infant mortality, life expectancy and adult literacy rate
B. crime rate, clean environment and quality of housing
C. air pollution rate, water pollution rate and sanitation
D. health, education and environment.

Answer: A

44. The Human Development Index (HDI) summarizes a great deal of social performance in a single composite index, combining:

A. disparity reduction rate, human resource development rate and the composite index
B. longevity, education and living standard
C. minimum schooling, adult literacy and tertiary educational attainment
D. human resource training, development and R&D.

Answer: B

45. Longevity is a proxy for _________ in the Human Development Index:

A. health and nutrition
B. living standard
C. infant mortality
D. Purchasing Power Parity

Answer: A

46. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram is a new initiative launched in which year:

A. 2011
B. 2012
C. 2013
D. 2010

Answer: A

47. AYUSH stands for:

A. all youth and usual status health status
B. Ayurveda, Yoga& naturopathy,Unani,Siddha and Homeopathy
C.accredited youth and usual special health care
D. none of these

Answer: B

48. Which state is accounted for first place in human development in India:

A. Tamilnadu
B.Punjab
C. Bihar
D. Kerala

Answer: D

49. Virtuous cycle means:

A. high economic development
B. high human development
C. high human development with high economic development
D. high human development with low economic development

Answer: B

50. Vicious cycle means:

A. low economic development
B. high economic development
C. high human development
D. low economic development

Answer: A

51. What is the tool for the community oriented case?

A. Evaluation
B. Survey
C. Community study
D. Community health nursing process

Answer: D

52. Which is series of speeches on the selected subject by experts?

A. Panel Discussion
B. Role play
C. Symposium
D. Workshop

Answer: C

53. Which is the major cause of nutritional blindness in children usually between 1 – 3 years of age.

A. Scurvy
B. Keratomalacia
C. Aneamia
D. Dandruff

Answer: B

54. Who is the chief technical advisor to the government on all matters relating to medical case and public health at the centre?

A. Health Secretary
B. Health Minister
C. Director of Health Services
D. Director General of Health Services

Answer: D

55. What is the another name for the two-way communication?

A. Work shop
B. Socratic Method
C. Didactic Method
D. Simulation Excercise

Answer: B

56. Who is the ex-officio secretary of Panchayat Samitti?

A. Block development officer
B. Block medical officer
C. Collector
D. District medical officer

Answer: A

57. The government of India set up “Multipurpose Workers Committee” in which year?

A. 1948
B. 1950
C. 1970
D. 1972

Answer: D

58. Another name for Target Free Approach?

A. ASHA
B. CNAA
C. IMNCI
D. C.S.S.M

Answer: B

59. What is the new strategy, a unique concept of WHO, to provide universal coverage of rehabilitation to all segments of society?

A. Occupational Rehabilitation
B. Medical Rehabilitation
C. Community based Rehabilitation
D. Institutional based Rehabilitation

Answer: C

60. What is the best quality of a good counsellor?

A. good listener
B. good teacher
C. good speaker
D. good advocate

Answer: A

61. Which among the following deficiency is due to vitamin `B_(5)`?

A. Beriberi
B. Rickets
C. Pellagra
D. Scurvy

Answer: C

62. What is the psychosocial developmental stage of a preschooler?

A. Initiative Vs Guilt
B. Industry Vs Inferiority
C. Trust Vs Mistrust
D. Autonomy Vs Shame

Answer: A

63. In which year UN adopted the “Declaration of the Rights of the Child”?

A. 1956
B. 1957
C. 1958
D. 1959

Answer: D

64. Identify the reaction of a toddler towards hospitalization?

A. Despair
B. Repression
C. Projection
D. Displacement

Answer: A

65. What percentage is the ideal weight gain during adolescence?

A. 30
B. 60
C. 50
D. 40

Answer: C

66. Which infection in early intrauterine period causes miscarriage?

A. Measles
B. Varicella Zoster
C. Rubella
D. Toxoplasmosis

Answer: D

67. NPAG stands for

A. National Program for Adolescent Girls
B. New Program for Adolescent Girls
C. Nutritional Program for Adolescent Girls
D. National Program for Adolescent Group

Answer: C

68. At what age birth weight doubles?

A. 24 months
B. 30 months
C. 36 months
D. 48 months

Answer: D

69. The milk which is produced after colostrum is

A. Preterm Milk
B. Mature Milk
C. Transitional Milk
D. Fore Milk

Answer: C

70. Chest compression ventilation ratio in infant and child CPR with two rescuer is

A. 15:2
B. 30:1
C. 30:2
D. 15:1

Answer: A

71. Which term used for the number of people who died within a population:

A. mortality
B. morbidity
C. fertility
D. none of these

Answer: A

72. Measure of overall disease burden:

A. acute morbidity
B. chronic morbidity
C. mortality
D. DALY

Answer: D

73. QUALY stands for:

A. quality adjusted life year
B. quantity adjusted life year
C. quality adjusted long youth
D. none of these

Answer: A

74. Which measure calculated by taking the sum of the years lived with disability (YLD) and years of life lost (YLL):

A. acute morbidity
B. chronic morbidity
C. mortality
D. DALY

Answer: D

75. The ratio of males to females in a population means:

A. sex ratio
B. fertility rate
C. mortality rate
D. none of these

Answer: A

76. Kerala experiences that “virtuous and vicious cycle of development’, it means that:

A. high human development with low economic development
B. high human development with high economic development
C. low economic development with low human development
D. none of these

Answer: A

77. High social sector development measured in terms of:

A. health and nutrition
B. education and health
C. education, health and quality of life of the people
D. none of these

Answer: C

78. Which factors contributed to the model of health in Kerala:

A. land reforms and effective PDS
B. high female literacy rate
C. strong public health system
D. all the above

Answer: D

79. “The proportion of persons whom the persons in economically active age group need to support”, which measure?

A. dependency ratio
B. transition ratio
C. fertility rate
D. none of these

Answer: A

80. Kerala is passing through which Stage of Demographic transition:

A. first
B. second
C. third
D. fourth

Answer: C

81. India is passing through which Stage of Demographic transition:

A. first
B. second
C. third
D. fourth

Answer: B

82. It is the statistical study of human population.

A. health economics
B. gender economics
C. demography
D. none of these

Answer: C

83. Actual female mortality rates exceed expected rate called as:

A. excess female mortality
B. extended infanticide
C. crude death rate
D. maternal mortality rate

Answer: A

84. Overall sex ratio in Kerala continues to be favourable to :

A. women
B. men
C. total population
D. male and female

Answer: A

85. Which index adjusts the average achievement to reflect the inequalities between men and women:

A. HPI
B. GEM
C. HDI
D. GDI

Answer: D

86. Three component of HDI are:

A.IMR, life expectancy, knowledge
B. life expectancy, knowledge, decent standard of living
C. life expectancy, knowledge, labour force participation
D. MMR, labour force participation, attainment of secondary and higher education levels

Answer: B

87. Which index reflects women’s disadvantages in reproductive health, empowerment and the labour market:

A. GDI
B. GEM
C. GII
D. HDI

Answer: C

88. Crude literacy rate stand for:

A. the literacy rate taking the entire population in to account
B. literacy rate taking only females
C. literacy rate taking only males
D. none of these

Answer: A

89. Enlist 4 village level health workers?

A. ASHA, FHW, MHW DAI
B. AWW, FHW, DAI, VHG
C. AWW, ASHA, DAI, VHG
D. ASHA, DAI, MHW, VHG

Answer: C

90. Koplik’s spot is a characteristic lesion of

A. Rubeola
B. Rubella
C. Varicella
D. Herpes

Answer: A

91. Infectious disease hospital floor space should be–

A. 90 sq. ft.
B. 100 sq. ft.
C. 120 sq. ft.
D. 144 sq. ft

Answer: D

92. Amount of bleaching powder used for disinfection of well is –

A. 2.5 gm for 500 ml of water
B. 5 gm for 500 ml of water
C. 2.5 gm for 1000 L of water
D. 5 gm for 1000L of water

Answer: C

93. The Bore Hole Latrine should be atleast —— feet away from source of water

A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

Answer: A

94. The temperature of the incinerator is —

A. 1200 c
B. 1300 c
C. 1500 c
D. 1800 c

Answer: B

95. Fracture in old age is mainly due to —

A. fall
B. poor diet
C. menopause
D. osteoporosis

Answer: D

96. ECT discovered by —

A. Duvall
B. Cerletti & Bini
C. Aristotle
D. Soranus

Answer: B

97. Face saving defense in defense mechanism is —

A. compensation
B. projection
C. rationalisation
D. regression

Answer: C

98. Early signs of maladjustments can be detected by —

A. peer groups
B. adolescents
C. health worker
D. school teacher

Answer: D

99. The disease affecting a large proportion of population in a wide geographic area is known as

A. Epidemic
B. Sporadic
C. Pandemic
D. Endemic

Answer: C

100. An adverse effect of a preventive, therapeutic or diagnostic procedure which causes disability or death

A. Nosocomial infection
B. Iatrogenic disease
C. Opportunistic infection
D. Sequelae

Answer: B

101. Contraction without regularity, rhythm and progressive lengthening in duration is known as

A. Show
B. Braxton hicks contraction
C. Axis pressure contraction
D. Continues contraction

Answer: B

102. Average number of cotyledons in a fully matured placenta is

A. 15-25
B. 30-35
C. 10-15
D. 25-45

Answer: A

103. Menopause belongs to which type of amenorrhoea

A. Primary amenorrhoea
B. Oligomenorrhoea
C. Secondary amenorrhoea
D. Dysmenorrhoea

Answer: C

104. When umbilical cord inserted to membrane some distance from placental edge is called

A. Battledore placenta
B. Circumvillate placenta
C. Bipirate placenta
D. Valementous placenta

Answer: D

105. Pregnant endometrium is called

A. Decidua
B. Myometrium
C. Secreatory endometrium
D. Proliferative endometrium

Answer: A

106. How many vertebras are fused to form Cocyx

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer: C

107. The narrow space of uterus between the cavity and cervix which forms the lower uterine segment during pregnancy is

A. Neck of uterus
B. Corpus of uterus
C. Cornua
D. lsthmus

Answer: D

108. Anti D vaccines given at which weeks of gestation

A. 24 weeks
B. 30 weeks
C. 36 weeks
D. 28 weeks

Answer: D

109. Golden colour amniotic fluid is an indication of

A. Fetal distress
B. Obstructed labour
C. Rh incompatability
D. Large baby

Answer: C

110. All of the following conditions may cause cord prolapse except one

A. Multiparty
B. Engagement of head
C. Breech presentation
D. Polyhydramnios

Answer: B

111. Which is the word used for converting contents into codes?

A. Feedback
B. Decoding
C. Source
D. Encoding

Answer: D

112. Which concept is based on the definition of health given by World Health Organization

A. Biomedical concept
B. Concept of ecology
C. Concept of well being
D. Psycho social concept

Answer: C

113. Enlist 4 village level health workers?

A. ASHA, FHW, MHW DAI
B. AWW, FHW, DAI, VHG
C. AWW, ASHA, DAI, VHG
D. ASHA, DAI, MHW, VHG

Answer: C

114. Which is the common media used by villagers in India?

A. Newspaper
B. Radio
C. Television
D. Computer

Answer: B

115. The size of the uterus is —

A. 7.5 mm x 5 mm x 2.5 mm
B. 7.5 cm x 5 cm x 2.5 cm
C. 7 cm x 5 cm x 2 cm
D. 7 mm x 5 mm x 5 mm

Answer: B

116. The type of nerves responsible for Flight or Flight response is–

A. Spinal
B. somatic
C. sympathetic
D. para-sympathetic

Answer: C

117. Smooth long, long up and down strokes in massaging are–

A. Brush stroke
B. tapping
C. effleurage
D. petrissage

Answer: C

118. A normal BMI can be maintained by —

A. exercise
B. posture
C. balanced diet
D. recreation

Answer: C

119. The cheapest source of vitamin D is —

A. diet
B. sunlight
C. fish
D. egg

Answer: B

120. Pernicious anemia is caused by–

A. vitamin A
B. iron
C. niacin
D. vitamin B 12

Answer: D

121. The formation and excretion of urine less than 500 ml in 24 hours is termed as

A. Anuria
B. Polyuria
C. Oliguria
D. Pyuria

Answer: C

122. Which is the technique used to dislodge the impacted foreign body from upper respiratory tract to clear the airway is?

A. Vasalva manoeuvre
B. Heimlich manoeuvre
C. Carotid sinus massage
D. Vagal manoeuvre

Answer: B

123. The process in which there is continuous scrutiny of factors that determines the occurrence and distribution of disease is termed as

A. Controlling
B. Virulence
C. Monitoring
D. Surveillance

Answer: D

124. Bluish discolouration of skin and mucous membrane due to poor oxygenation is termed as

A. Pallor
B. Cyanosis
C. Erythema
D. Jaundice

Answer: B

125. Which of the following disease is caused only by energy deficiency?

A. Kwashiorkor
B. Marasmus
C. Marasmic Kwashiorkor
D. Nutritional Marasmus

Answer: B

126. Find out the most heat sensitive vaccine among the following?

A. Measles
B. Tetanus
C. Pentavalent
D. BCG

Answer: A

127. What is the typical play for a schooler?

A. Associative play
B. Co-operative Play
C. Parallel Play
D. Unoccupied play

Answer: B

128. Normal weight gain in single torn pregnancy in an average Indian women?

A. 15 kg.
B. 20 kg.
C. 9 kg.
D. 11 kg.

Answer: D

129. WHO recommendation of iron and folic acid for pregnant woman is

A. Elemental iron 60mg and 0.4 mg folic acid per day
B. Elemental iron 100 mg and 0.6mg of folic acid per day
C. Elemental iron 100 mg and 100mg of folic acid per day
D. Elemental iron 30 mg and 0.3 mg of folic acid per day

Answer: A

130. Which one is a cause of physiological anaemia in pregnancy

A. Poor iron intake
B. Heamodilution
C. Vomiting
D. Blood loss

Answer: B

131. What is the meaning of community?

A. to come together
B. to participate together
C. to serve together
D. to enjoy together

Answer: C

132. What is the exchange of information between individuals of same status or designation?

A. Horizontal Communication
B. Upward Communication
C. Downward Communication
D. Non-verbal Communication

Answer: A

133. What is the population of a corporation?

A. Population below 1 lakh
B. Population below 2 lakh
C. Population above 1 lakh
D. Population above 2 lakh

Answer: C

134. Weaning started at the age of–

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 8 months
D. 1 year

Answer: B

135. Road to Health Card is designed by —

A. David Morley
B. Hippocrate
C. James Simpson
D. Kuhn

Answer: A

136. A pregnant lady gains weight from–

A. 5 – 6 kg
B. 7 – 8 kg
C. 9 – 12 kg
D. 13 – 15 kg

Answer: C

137. Koplik’s spot is a characteristic lesion of

A. Rubeola
B. Rubella
C. Varicella
D. Herpes

Answer: A

138. In which year WHO launched new “Stop TB strategy”?

A. 1996
B. 2006
C. 1995
D. 2005

Answer: B

139. The anti TB drug which cause peripheral neuropathy is

A. Ethambutol
B. Thioacetazone
C. Rifampicin
D. INH

Answer: D

140. The level of prevention in which the emergence of risk factors of a chronic disease in a population is prevented

A. Primary prevention
B. Primordial prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention

Answer: B

141. Absence of spermatozoa is semen is called

A. Azoospermia
B. Oligospermia
C. Polyspermia
D. Chromospermia

Answer: A

142. Basal body temperature is increased by ……….. °F at the time of ovulation

A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 0.5

Answer: B

143. The fetal part which lies at the pelvic brim is called

A. Lie
B. Attitude
C. Presentation
D. Position

Answer: C

144. A neonate should void at birth or within …………….. hours following birth

A. 48 hours
B. 72 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours

Answer: A

145. Bluish black skin present on skin of new born usually over the sacral area is

A. Rashes
B. Erythma
C. Navy spots
D. Mongolian spots

Answer: D

146. Which one is not an indication of fetal well being

A. Increase in maternal weight and uterine size according to gestational age
B. Fetal movements appreciated by mother follows a regular pattern throughout pregnancy
C. Increase in fetal kicks with increase in gestational age
D. Fetal heart rate between 110-160 beats per minute

Answer: C

147. Hard, swollen and painful breast with stasis of milk is an indication of

A. Breast Engorgement
B. Mastitis
C. Breast abscess
D. Breast infection

Answer: A

148. Name the condition when uterus fails to contract in order to compress blood vessals and control bleeding.

A. Inversion of uterus
B. Cricket ball uterus
C. Atonic uterus
D. Hypotonic uterus

Answer: C

149. Swelling due to collection of fluid in the layers beneath the scalp is called

A. Cephal heamatoma
B. caput succedaneum
C. subgaleal hematoma
D. subdural hamatoma

Answer: B

150. The largest antero-posterior diameter in a fetal skull is

A. Biparietal diameter
B. Occipito mental diameter
C. Suboccipito bregmatic diameter
D. mento vertical diameter

Answer: D

151. normal pregnancy period in human being is

A. 250 days
B. 270 days
C. 280 days
D. 300 days

Answer: C

152. Signs of placental separation are the following except

A. Rise of temperature
B. Lengthening of umbilical cord at vulva
C. Shivering
D. Gush of blood

Answer: A

153. The first pill of oral contraceptives starts on which day after starting of menstruation

A. 1st day
B. 3rd day
C. 5th day
D. 7th day

Answer: C

154. Which one is not a natural method of contraception

A. Basal body temperature monitoring
B. Safe period
C. Rhythm method
D. Foam tablets

Answer: D

155. The institution provides primary health care at grass root level in the community

A. PHS
B. Subcentre
C. CHC
D. FHC

Answer: B

156. Pulse Polio Immunization Programme was launched in India..

A. 1993
B. 1997
C. 1994
D. 1995

Answer: D

157. The theme of World Health Day 2019

A. Health for All
B. Blood save lives
C. Universal health coverage, everyone, everywhere
D. Make hospitals safe in emergencies

Answer: C

158. The organizer for activities of PHC.

A. Medical officer
B. Health Superviser
C. Public health nurse
D. Health inspector

Answer: A

159. A note book carried by a health worker during home visit and the information written in the proper record on return to health centre.

A. Incidental report
B. Family folder
C. Village record
D. Daily diary

Answer: D

160. A new initiative for child health screening and early intervention for birth defects, disease, deficiency and developmental delays.

A. NSSK
B. RBSK
C. JSSK
D. JSY

Answer: B

161. The simplest and most effective technique of barrier nursing

A. Use of PPE
B. Disinfection
C. Hand washing
D. Sterilization

Answer: C

162. Biomedical waste management and handling rules came into force in India on

A. 28th July 1998
B. 28th June 1998
C. 28th July 1999
D. 28th June 1999

Answer: A

163. Sudden attack of shivering accompanied by rapid rise of body temperature is known as

A. Crisis
B. Rigor
C. Lysis
D. Heat exhaustion

Answer: B

164. Normal Serum sodium level is ———-

A. 135-145 meq/l
B. 130-140 meq/l
C. 125-135 meq/l
D. 130-150 meq/l

Answer: A

165. Total number of vitamin A doses given to baby up to 3 Years of age

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Answer: C

166. Which is the vaccine that should not be given to the baby of HIV positive mother

A. Rubella
B. Hepatitis B
C. DPT
D. BCG

Answer: D

167. As per 2015 American Heart Association Guideline, the compression ventilation ratio while performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation is

A. 15:2
B. 30:2
C. 15:1
D. 30:1

Answer: B

168. Diclofenac sodium is an ——-

A. Anti hypertensive
B. Oral hypoglycaemic
C. Anti-inflammatory analgesic
D. Antipyretic

Answer: C

169. Coronary Artery Disease which relieved by rest and nitroglycerine

A. Myocardial infarction
B. Angina
C. Arrhythmia
D. Heart block

Answer: B

170. Excessive thirst and frequent and urgent urination is the feature of

A. Kidney failure
B. Nephrotic Syndrome
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Heart failure

Answer: C

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