300+ Top Society, Environment and Human Rights MCQs

Society, Environment and Human Rights Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following does not qualify for curtailing the freedom of speech and expression under Indian Constitution?

A. Security of the state
B. Public order, decency, morality
C. Demand for autonomy
D. Contempt of Court

Answer: C. Demand for autonomy

2. Which of the following kinds of special provisions are made for the Scheduled Tribes in India?
1. Reservation of seats in LokSabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
2. Central Government to give special grants for welfare.
3. Reservation of seats in public services and in employment
4. Reservation of seats in educational institutions.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

3. Which of the following political rights are not available to a civil servant ion India?
1. Expressing a political view
2. Supporting a political movement
3.Contributing financially to a political party
4. Voting in state and national elections
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2 and 3

Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3

4. Which of the following has been provided by the Indian Constitution?

A. Religious education cannot be imparted in private educational institutions
B. In private religious institutions presence is not compulsory in religious education.
C. In private religious institutions presence is compulsory in religious education.
D. Religious education can be imparted in government educational institutions.

Answer: B. In private religious institutions presence is not compulsory in religious education.

5. Which of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution has made Right to Education a Fundamental Right?

A. 92nd
B. 94th
C. 93rd
D. 91st

Answer: C. 93rd

6. Which of the following rights are available to foreigners living in India?

A. Equality before law
B. Right to education
C. Freedom of speech
D. Freedom of movement

Answer: B. Right to education

7. In which part and article of the Constitution of India, Fundamental Duties have been mentioned:

A. Part IV, Article 51
B. Part III, Article 51
C. Part IV A, Article 51 A
D. Part III A, Article 51

Answer: C. Part IV A, Article 51 A

8. Which one of the following rights was recognized by the Supreme Court in the Selvy Case Judgement (2010)?

A. Right to Mental Privacy
B. Right to purchase property in Jammu and Kashmir
C. Right to form pressure groups
D. None of the above.

Answer: B. Right to purchase property in Jammu and Kashmir

9. Which one of the following writs is issued against an inferior tribunal which has declined to exercise its jurisdiction?

A. Certiorari
B. Prohibition
C. Quo Warranto
D. Mandamus

Answer: D. Mandamus

10. Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in

A. Right to Freedom
B. Right to Life and personal Liberty
C. Right to Equality
D. Right against Exploitation

Answer: B. Right to Life and personal Liberty

11. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of

A. Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any person.
B. Establishment of Central, State and District Level Information Commissions as an appellate body.
C. Transparency and accountability in Public authorities.
D. All of the above.

Answer: A. Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any person.

12. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr.B.R.Ambedkar?

A. Freedom of Speech
B. Right to Equality
C. Right to Freedom of Religion
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Answer: D. Right to Constitutional Remedies.

13. The Fundamental Duties of a Citizen include
1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To develop the scientific temper.
3. Respect for the Government
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3, 4 and 2

Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4

14. The right to impart and receive information is guaranteed in the Constitution of India by Article:

A. 19 (2) A
B. 19 (16)
C. 19 (2)
D. 19 (1) A

Answer: D. 19 (1) A

15. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards the rights of Minorities to establish and run educational institutions of their own liking?

A. Article 19
B. Article 29
C. Article 30
D. Article 31

Answer: C. Article 30

16. . Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals with the

A. Freedom of conscience
B. Right to propagate religion
C. Rights of minorities to establish and manage educational institutions
D. Cultural and educational right of the majority community

Answer: C. Rights of minorities to establish and manage educational institutions

17. Fundamental rights guaranteed in the Indian Constitution can be suspended only by

A. A proclamation of an emergency
B. An Act passed by the Parliament
C. An amendment of the Constitution
D. The judicial decision of the Supreme Court

Answer: A. A proclamation of an emergency

18. Right to education relates to

A. Article 19
B. Article 20
C. Article 21
D. Article 21A

Answer: D. Article 21A

19. Right to education is a

A. Fundamental right
B. Legal right
C. Natural right
D. Neither fundamental nor legal right

Answer: A. Fundamental right

20. When Right to Information Act came into force in India?

A. 10th October 2005
B. 11th October 2005
C. 12th October 2005
D. 13th October 2005

Answer: C. 12th October 2005

21. Article 14-18 of the Constitution deal with

A. Right to equality
B. Right to Assembly
C. Right to Property
D. Right to Expression

Answer: A. Right to equality

22. Which among the following is not among six fundamental rights provided by Constitution?

A. Right to equality
B. Right to Protest
C. Right against exploitation
D. Right to freedom of religion

Answer: B. Right to Protest

23. Which Article ensures abolition of Untouchability?

A. Article 16
B. Article 17
C. Article 18
D. Article 19

Answer: B. Article 17

24. Which article ensures Abolition of Titles?

A. Article 16
B. Article 17
C. Article 18
D. Article 19

Answer: C. Article 18

25. Article 19 provides six freedoms, which is not among them?

A. Freedom of speech and expression.
B. Assemble peacefully and without arms
C. Form associations or unions
D. Reside and settle in any part of your state only.

Answer: D. Reside and settle in any part of your state only.

26. The idea of Fundamental Rights was adopted from

A. Greece
B. America
C. Australia
D. Finland

Answer: B. America

27. Fundamental Rights are incorporated in which part of the Constitution?

A. Part III
B. Part II
C. Part IV
D. Part IX

Answer: A. Part III

28. Which Fundamental Right deleted by 44th Constitutional amendment?

A. Right to equality
B. Right to Assembly
C. Right to Property
D. Right to Expression

Answer: C. Right to Property

29. Who told” Constitution is the aggregate of laws and customs”

A. Dicey
B. Bryce
C. Fine
D. None of them.

Answer: B. Bryce

30. A Constitution can be only

A. Written
B. Custom and usuages
C. Both written and unwritten
D. None of them

Answer: C. Both written and unwritten

31. “ A Constitution is not made, it grows” said by

A. Dicey
B. Strong
C. Maine
D. None of them

Answer: C. Maine

32. A Preamble to the Constitution means

A. A Preface
B. An introduction
C. A justiciable
D. None of them.

Answer: A. A Preface

33. .Directive Principles of State policy are found in

A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV

Answer: D. Part IV

34. Fundamental Rights are found in

A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV

Answer: C. Part III

35. Who is the following is called the father of the Preamble to the Constitution

A. Pandit Nehru
B. Gandhiji
C. B. N Rao
D. None of them

Answer: A. Pandit Nehru

36. The Directive Principles aims at a

A. Secular State
B. Welfare State
C. Totalitarian State
D. None of these.

Answer: B. Welfare State

37. The term „Democratic‟ used in the preamble denotes

A. Political democracy
B. Social democracy
C. Economic democracy
D. All of these

Answer: D. All of these

38. The idea of Directive Principles of state policy was borrowed from

A. America
B. Ireland
C. Canada
D. None of these.

Answer: B. Ireland

39. The words‟ secular and socialist‟ were added to the Indian Constitution by amending the

A. Fundamental Rights
B. Fundamental Duties
C. Preamble
D. None of these.

Answer: C. Preamble

40. Which part of the Indian Constitution is described as „Magna Carta‟?

A. Part II
B. Part III
C. Part IV
D. None of these.

Answer: B. Part III

41. What is „Magna carta‟?

A. Charter of rights
B. Economic Journal
C. Social Magazine
D. None of these

Answer: A. Charter of rights

42. Which one of the following is the first written document relating to the fundamental rights of citizen?

A. Magna Carta
B. Preamble
C. Fundamental duties
D. None of these

Answer: A. Magna Carta

43. In which year „Right to Property‟ was deleted as fundamental right?

A. 1978
B. 1979
C. 1980
D. 1981.

Answer: A. 1978

44. The Constitution of India was adopted in

A. 1949
B. 1950
C. 1960
D. None of these.

Answer: A. 1949

45. The Constitution of India came into force on

A. 15th August 1947
B. 26th November 1949
C. 26th January 195
D. None of these

Answer: C. 26th January 195

46. The Prime Minister must be a member of

A. Loksabha
B. Rajyasabha
C. Supreme Court
D. None of these

Answer: A. Loksabha

47. The Governor of a state is appointed by

A. The President
B. The Prime Minister
C. The Chief Justice of India
D. None of them.

Answer: A. The President

48. Which article was known as ‘seven freedoms’ in our constitution

A. Art.17
B. Art.32
C. Art.19
D. Art. 18

Answer: C. Art.19

49. Freedom of Expression deals with

A. Art.17
B. Art.32
C. Art.19
D. Art.18

Answer: C. Art.19

50. Right to education incorporated in

A. Art.17
B. Art.32
C. Art.19
D. Art.21

Answer: D. Art.21

51. Which article provides protection against arrest and detention

A. Art.22
B. Art.32
C. Art.19
D. Art.21

Answer: A. Art.22

52. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

A. Fundamental Right
B. Constitutional Right
C. Natural Right
D. legal Right

Answer: B. Constitutional Right

53. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject—

A. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
B. Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
C. Protection of life and personal liberty
D. None of the above

Answer: B. Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence

54. Article 15 deals with

A. Equality before law
B. Equality of opportunity
C. Prohibition of discrimination
D. Equality of Expression

Answer: C. Prohibition of discrimination

55. Article 17 deals with

A. Abolition of Titles
B. Abolition Untouchability
C. Equality of Participation
D. Equality of Expression

Answer: B. Abolition Untouchability

56. Who has the power to declare that citizen has no right to move any court for the enforcement of the right conferred by Part 3 of Fundamental Rights during the course of emergency—

A. Executive
B. President
C. Governor
D. Prime Minister

Answer: B. President

57. SMOG is derived from :

A. Smoke
B. Fog
C. Both A and B
D. Only A

Answer: C. Both A and B

58. SMOG is caused due to

A. Emissions from vehicles
B. From incinerators
C. Oil paints
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

59. Who had coined the term SMOG?

A. Dr. Henry Antoine
B. Stephen Hawking
C. Nicolaus Copernicus
D. Nikola Tesla

Answer: A. Dr. Henry Antoine

60. Study of trends in human population growth and prediction of future growth is called

A. Demography
B. Psychology
C. Biography
D. Kalography

Answer: A. Demography

61. Secondary air pollutant is:

A. Ozone
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Nitrogen Dioxide
D. Sulphur dioxide

Answer: A. Ozone

62. Which of the following is the major photochemical smog?

A. Peroxyl acetyl nitrate
B. Smog
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Chlorofluorocarbon

Answer: D. Chlorofluorocarbon

63. Which of the following diseases are caused by the smog?
(i)Rickets
(ii)Throat Cancer
(iii)Skin Cancer
(iv)Breathing Problem Options are:

A. Both (i) and (ii)
B. Both (iii) and (iv)
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii) and (iv)

Answer: D. (i), (ii) and (iv)

64. “Culture is the man-made part of environment.” Who said so?

A. E.
B. Tylor d. M.J. Herskovits
C. R.Brown
D. K. Davis

Answer: B. Tylor d. M.J. Herskovits

65. Excess of fluoride in drinking water causes:

A. Lung disease
B. Intestinal infection
C. Fluorosis
D. None of the above

Answer: B. Intestinal infection

66. Which of the following is responsible for turning yellow TajMahal?

A. Nitrogen dioxide
B. Sulphur
C. Chlorine
D. Sulphur dioxide

Answer: D. Sulphur dioxide

67. What is Air Quality Index?

A. It tells about the sound pollution.
B. It measures air pollution mainly sulphur content in the air.
C. It measures ozone levels in your area.
D. It checks the colour of the air.

Answer: C. It measures ozone levels in your area.

68. What type of precautions will be taken to survive when ozone level is high?

A. Drive less
B. Stay hydrated
C. Avoid using gas powered engines.
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

69. In filtration, the amount of dissolved solids passing through the filters is

A. Difference between total solids and suspended solids
B. Sum of total solids and suspended solids
C. Independent of suspended solids
D. None of the above

Answer: A. Difference between total solids and suspended solids

70. The Total dissolved solids (TDS) can be reduced by the following method

A. Distillation
B. Reverse osmosis
C. Ion exchange
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

71. According to The United States Geological Survey, water having less than 1000 ml/litre of total dissolved solids is

A. Fresh water
B. Slightly saline
C. Moderately saline
D. Brine water

Answer: A. Fresh water

72. The following cause alkalinity in natural wate

A. Potassium carbonate
B. Potassium bicarbonate
C. Sodium carbonate
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

73. The following cause alkalinity as well hardness in natural water.

A. Calcium carbonate
B. Calcium bicarbonat
C. Magnesium carbonat
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

74. Which of the following is not influenced by human activities?

A. Destruction of mangroves and wetlands
B. Depletion of ground water
C. Increased extinction rate of species
D. None of the above

Answer: D. None of the above

75. Which of the following is not influenced by human activities?

A. Destruction of mangroves and wetlands
B. Depletion of ground water
C. Increased extinction rate of species
D. None of the above.

Answer: D. None of the above.

76. . Which of the following is not influenced by human activities?

A. Destruction of mangroves and wetlands
B. Depletion of ground water
C. Increased extinction rate of species
D. None of the above

Answer: D. None of the above

77. Which of these organisms has a diet consisting only of plant matter

A. Omnivores
B. Carnivores
C. Herbivores
D. Insectivores

Answer: D. Insectivores

78. In a pyramid of numbers in grassland ecosystems, the largest population is that of

A. Herbivores
B. Primary consumers
C. Secondary consumer
D. Producers

Answer: A. Herbivores

79. Which of these belong to the category of primary consumers in grazing food chain

A. snakes and frogs
B. Insects and cattle
C. Eagle and snake
D. Cow and rabbit

Answer: D. Cow and rabbit

80. The pyramid of energy is always upright for any ecosystem, this situation indicates that

A. Herbivores have better energy conversion efficiency than carnivores
B. Producers have the lowest energy conversion efficiency
C. Carnivores have a better energy conversion efficacy than herbivores
D. Energy conversion efficiency is same at all trophic levels

Answer: D. Energy conversion efficiency is same at all trophic levels

81. Which of the ecological pyramid is always upright

A. Pyramid of numbers
B. Pyramid of biomass
C. Pyramid of energy
D. All of the above

Answer: C. Pyramid of energy

82. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle

A. Nitrogen cycle
B. Carbon cycle
C. Sulphur cycle
D. Phosphorus cycle

Answer: D. Phosphorus cycle

83. Deserts, grasslands, forests and tundra regions are the examples of

A. Biomes
B. Biogeographically regions
C. Ecosystems
D. Biospheres

Answer: C. Ecosystems

84. The upright pyramid of numbers is absent in

A. Lake
B. Pond
C. Grasslands
D. Forests

Answer: D. Forests

85. The final stable community in ecological succession is

A. Climax
B. Pioneer
C. Sere
D. Carnivores

Answer: A. Climax

86. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any given time is called

A. Standing state
B. Standing crop
C. Humus
D. Detritus

Answer: B. Standing crop

87. Hydrarch succession takes place in

A. Dry areas
B. Bare area
C. Wetter areas
D. None of the above

Answer: C. Wetter areas

88. A herbivore is also known as a

A. Producer
B. First order consumer
C. Second order consumer
D. Third order consumer

Answer: B. First order consumer

89. A product of photosynthesis is

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water
C. Oxygen
D. Chlorophyll

Answer: C. Oxygen

90. Primary source of energy in a food web is/are

A. Green plants
B. Sun
C. Inorganic nutrients
D. Animals

Answer: B. Sun

91. A group of living organisms of the same kind living in the same place and at the same time refers to a

A. Community
B. Species
C. Population
D. Consumers

Answer: C. Population

92. Which of these organisms has a diet consisting only of plant matter

A. Omnivores
B. Carnivores
C. Herbivores
D. Insectivores

Answer: C. Herbivores

93. The true end of any food chain is the

A. Decomposer
B. Predator
C. Consumer
D. Human

Answer: A. Decomposer

94. The second trophic level in a lake is

A. Phytoplankton
B. Zooplanktons
C. Fishes
D. Benthos

Answer: B. Zooplanktons

95. Which of the following can act as a pioneer species in a xerachsuccession

A. Lichens
B. Humans
C. Herbs
D. Animals

Answer: A. Lichens

96. Energy flow in an ecosystem is

A. Bidirectional
B. Unidirectional
C. Multidirectional
D. All rounds

Answer: C. Multidirectional

97. Which of the following is an example of a man-made ecosystem

A. Tissue culture
B. Herbarium
C. Aquarium
D. Forest

Answer: C. Aquarium

98. Pyramid of energy in a pond ecosystem is always

A. Inverted
B. Upright
C. Linear
D. Irregular

Answer: B. Upright

99. If in a population, natality is balanced by mortality, then there will be

A. Decrease in population growth
B. Increase in population growth
C. Zero population growth
D. Over population

Answer: C. Zero population growth

100. Which of these belong to the category of primary consumers in grazing food chain

A. snakes and frogs
B. Insects and cattle
C. Eagle and snakes
D. Cow and rabbit

Answer: D. Cow and rabbit

101. A herbivore is also known as a

A. Producer
B. First order consumer
C. Second order consumer.
D. Third order consumer

Answer: B. First order consumer

102. Which of the following is a fossil fuel?

A. Oil
B. Coal
C. Natural gas
D. All of the above

Answer: B. Coal

103. Which of the following is not an inexhaustible form of energy?

A. Water
B. Wind
C. Solar
D. Fossil

Answer: C. Solar

104. Biogas contains mainly

A. Methane
B. Propane
C. Butane
D. Carbon dioxide

Answer: A. Methane

105. The burning of fossil fuels releases a large amount of

A. Nitrogen into air
B. Sulphur into air
C. Carbon dioxide into air
D. Oxygen into air

Answer: B. Sulphur into air

106. A poisonous gas given out of a vehicle exhaust is

A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Carbon monoxide

Answer: D. Carbon monoxide

107. The purest form of coal is

A. Anthracite
B. Lignite
C. Peat
D. Bitumen

Answer: C. Peat

108. Which one of the following is used as a refrigerant?

A. Freon
B. Teflon
C. Ethanol
D. Benzol

Answer: A. Freon

109. Loss of forest has led to

A. Erosion of fertile soil
B. Global warming
C. Loss of habitat of plants and animals
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

110. What are the consequences of excessive mining in an area?

A. Air and water pollution
B. Deforestation
C. Migration of large numbers of population
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

111. Resources which are directly derived from nature are referred to as

A. Organic resources
B. Natural resources
C. Man made resources
D. None of the above

Answer: B. Natural resources

112. Resources that take too long a period of time to be used as a resource are called as

A. Renewable resource
B. Non-renewable resource
C. Exhaustible resource
D. Inexhaustible resource

Answer: D. Inexhaustible resource

113. The fossil fuel that is derived from the dead remains of plants that grew some 250 million years ago is

A. Petroleum
B. Natural gas
C. Coal
D. LPG

Answer: C. Coal

114. A resource that cannot be replaced in a reasonably short time is usually referred to as

A. Renewable
B. Non-renewable
C. Natural
D. Man made

Answer: B. Non-renewable

115. Man made resources are alternative to natural resources for a variety of reasons. Which of these would not be one of those?

A. They increase variety and choice
B. They are cheaper to produce than natural resources
C. They are made from renewable resources
D. They are better suited for the purpose for which they will be used

Answer: C. They are made from renewable resources

116. Which of these is not a fossil fuel?

A. Coal
B. Oil
C. Natural gas
D. Uranium

Answer: D. Uranium

117. A liquid fuel that was formed from the ancient remains of sea plants and animals is

A. Natural gas
B. Petroleum
C. Geothermal energy
D. Coal

Answer: B. Petroleum

118. Energy in the rays from the sun is called

A. Solar energy
B. Wind energy
C. Tidal energy
D. Water energy

Answer: A. Solar energy

119. Which is a list of renewable resources?

A. Petroleum, geothermal, wind
B. Biomass, geothermal, hydropower
C. Natural gas, wind, biomass
D. Hydropower, solar, wind energy

Answer: D. Hydropower, solar, wind energy

120. Energy from the heat inside the earth is

A. Natural gas
B. Geothermal
C. Petroleum
D. Terrathermal

Answer: B. Geothermal

121. A coal deposit that is not economical to mine today would be considered part of our ___________

A. Coal reserves
B. Coal resources
C. Coal reservoirs
D. None of these

Answer: A. Coal reserves

122. Which out of the following are the causes of soil erosion?

A. Unrestricted grazing
B. Over cultivation
C. Deforestation
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

123. The process of restoring forests that once existed but was removed at some time in the past is known as

A. Afforestation
B. Reforestation
C. Deforestation
D. None of these

Answer: B. Reforestation

124. Red data book contains data of

A. All plant species
B. All animal species
C. Threatened species
D. Economically important species

Answer: C. Threatened species

125. IUCN Headquarters is at

A. Morges, Switzerland
B. Paris, France
C. Vienna, Austria
D. New York, USA

Answer: A. Morges, Switzerland

126. Which of the following regions has the maximum diversity?

A. Mangroves
B. Temperate forest
C. Taiga
D. Coral reefs

Answer: D. Coral reefs

127. The most important reason for decrease in biodiversity is

A. Habitat pollution
B. Over exploitation
C. Habitat destruction
D. Introduction of exotic species

Answer: C. Habitat destruction

128. Dodo is

A. Endangered species
B. Rare species
C. Extinct species
D. Exotic species

Answer: C. Extinct species

129. Blue whale is placed under

A. Endangered
B. Rare
C. Extinct
D. Exotic

Answer: A. Endangered

130. Conservation within the natural habitat is

A. Ex-situ conservation
B. In-situ conservation
C. Ex-vivo conservation
D. In-vivo conservation

Answer: B. In-situ conservation

131. Which one of the following is not included under in situ conservation?

A. Zoo
B. National Park
C. Wild life Sanctuary
D. Biosphere Reserve

Answer: A. Zoo

132. Ex-situ conservation includes

A. Zoo
B. Botanical Garden
C. Germplasm Bank
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

133. Hotspots are regions of high

A. Rareism
B. Endemism
C. Diversity
D. Critically endangered population

Answer: C. Diversity

134. Endemic species are

A. Rare species
B. Species localized in a specific region
C. Cosmopolitan in distribution
D. None of these

Answer: B. Species localized in a specific region

135. Which one of the following has the maximum genetic diversity in India?

A. Tea
B. Teak
C. Mango
D. Wheat

Answer: C. Mango

136. Which one of the following regions in India is a hotspot of biodiversity?

A. Sundarbans
B. Western Ghats
C. Eastern Ghats
D. Gangetic plains

Answer: B. Western Ghats

137. Darwin’s finches are a good example of

A. Convergent evolution
B. Adaptive radiation
C. Connecting link
D. Industrial melanism

Answer: B. Adaptive radiation

138. Which group of vertebrates comprises of highest number of species

A. Mammals
B. Fishes
C. Reptiles
D. Birds

Answer: B. Fishes

139. 5th June is observed as

A. World environment day
B. World forest day
C. World population day
D. World wildlife day

Answer: A. World environment day

140. The unfavorable alteration of environment by human activities is termed as

A. Ecological disturbance
B. Ecological degradation
C. Pollution
D. Catastrophe

Answer: B. Ecological degradation

141. Biogas contains mainly

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Methane
C. Butane
D. Propane

Answer: B. Methane

142. Main source of acid rain is

A. Sulphur dioxide
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Carbon monoxide

Answer: A. Sulphur dioxide

143. Treated water can be disinfected by adding

A. Alum
B. Fluorine
C. Chlorine
D. Oxygen

Answer: C. Chlorine

144. The burning of fossil fuels releases large amount of

A. Nitrogen
B. Sulphur
C. Carbon
D. Hydrogen

Answer: B. Sulphur

145. Which of the following does not causes air pollution when used for heating purposes

A. Coal
B. Petrol
C. Kerosene
D. Solar energy

Answer: D. Solar energy

146. pH of rainwater is

A. 5-6
B. 6-7
C. 7-8
D. 8-9

Answer: A. 5-6

147. A poisonous gas given out of vehicles exhaust is

A. Carbon monoxide
B. Ethane
C. Methane
D. Carbon dioxide

Answer: A. Carbon monoxide

148. A common bactericide used in swimming pools is

A. Chlorine
B. Alum
C. Borax
D. DDT

Answer: A. Chlorine

149. Green house effect is linked to

A. Nitrogen oxides
B. Sulphur dioxides
C. Carbon dioxides
D. Carbon monoxides

Answer: C. Carbon dioxides

150. Disposable glasses and plates are made up of

A. PVC
B. Polystyrene
C. Polyvinyl alcohol
D. Polypropylene

Answer: D. Polypropylene

151. Aerosols consisting of solid particles produced by combustion

A. Fog
B. Smog
C. Smoke
D. None of these

Answer: B. Smog

152. Which of the following are consequences of ozone depletion

A. Skin cancer and cataract
B. Reduced growth in plants
C. Shortening of zooplanktons and their breeding period
D. All of the above

Answer: A. Skin cancer and cataract

153. Which out of the following is a measure to control air pollution

A. Reduction in use of fossil fuels
B. Increasing use of renewable energy resources
C. Using catalytic convertors in vehicles
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

154. The discharge of warm/hot water directly into rivers is known as

A. Water pollution
B. Thermal pollution
C. Marine pollution
D. None of the above

Answer: B. Thermal pollution

155. Yellowing of TajMahal is an effect of

A. Acid rain
B. Global warming
C. Ozone depletion
D. All of the above

Answer: A. Acid rain

156. Identify the aftermaths of acid rain from the following

A. Dissolving and washing away of nutrients from the soil
B. Increasing the acidity of soils, thereby hindering the growth of plants
C. Damaging the building materials/ heritage sites
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

157. Increase in concentration of toxic level in each trophic level is referred to as

A. Eutrophication
B. Biomagnification
C. Bioaccumulation
D. Bioconcentration

Answer: B. Biomagnification

158. Pollutants that are easily manageable and decomposable in nature are called

A. Biodegradable pollutants
B. Non-biodegradable pollutants
C. Renewable pollutants
D. None of these

Answer: A. Biodegradable pollutants

159. The supersonic jets cause air pollution by the thinning of

A. Carbon dioxide layer
B. Sulphur dioxide layer
C. Ozone layer
D. Oxygen layer

Answer: C. Ozone layer

160. Which of the following is the best indicator of SO2 pollution

A. Bryophytes
B. Pteridophytes
C. Lichens
D. Algae

Answer: C. Lichens

161. BOD stands for

A. Biotic oxidation demand
B. Biological oxygen demand
C. Biological oxidation demand
D. Biochemical oxygen demand

Answer: B. Biological oxygen demand

162. A river with high BOD value means

A. Highly polluted
B. Highly clean
C. Highly productive
D. None of the above

Answer: A. Highly polluted

163. Which gas is responsible for ozone layer depletion around earth?

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Chlorofluorocarbons
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen oxide

Answer: B. Chlorofluorocarbons

164. What is Kyoto Protocol?

A. It is an agreement among countries to take steps for reducing global warming.
B. It is an agreement among countries to take steps for reducing acid rain.
C. It is an agreement among countries to take steps for planting trees to control pollution.
D. It is an agreement among countries to start using nuclear energy.

Answer: A. It is an agreement among countries to take steps for reducing global warming.

165. Possible health effects of noise pollution includes

A. Hearing loss
B. Hypertension
C. Cardiovascular effects
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

166. Noise is measured by sound meter and the unit is

A. Hertz
B. Joule
C. Decibel
D. Seconds

Answer: C. Decibel

167. Which of the following are major causes of land degradation?

A. Soil erosion
B. Water logging
C. Deforestation
D. Desertification

Answer: C. Deforestation

168. The main components of photochemical smog is

A. Water vapors
B. Nitrogen oxides
C. Sulphur oxides
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

169. Which gas is responsible for the global warming?

A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Noble gases
D. Hydrogen

Answer: B. Carbon dioxide

170. Which country has organized its cabinet meeting under the sea to drag attention of the world towards the Global Warming and its threats?

A. Maldives
B. Sri Lanka
C. Fiji
D. Indonesia

Answer: A. Maldives

171. Which of the following effect is responsible for Global Warming?

A. Green house effect
B. Radioactive effect
C. Solar effect
D. Nuclear effect

Answer: A. Green house effect

172. Which of the following greenhouse gas is entirely anthropogenic in origin?

A. CFCs
B. Methane
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Water vapor

Answer: C. Carbon dioxide

173. Which of the following statements regarding the greenhouse effect has the lowest degree of certainty?

A. Addition of greenhouse gases to the atmosphere results in increased heat energy in the atmosphere
B. Global warming will result in an increase in the number of tropical storms
C. Global warming will result in rising sea levels
D. The concentrations of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are increasing due to human activities.

Answer: B. Global warming will result in an increase in the number of tropical storms

174. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

A. Methane
B. Ozone
C. Water vapour
D. Carbon dioxide

Answer: C. Water vapour

175. The two major impacts expected as a result of rising global temperatures are

A. Higher water levels in lakes and streams but more consistent flooding patterns
B. Regional climatic changes and a rise in sea level
C. Longer summers and drier winters
D. Low water levels in lakes and streams and larger floodplains.

Answer: B. Regional climatic changes and a rise in sea level

176. How are humans making greenhouse gases of our own?

A. Burning fossil fuels
B. Burning forests
C. With large scale agriculture
D. All of these

Answer: A. Burning fossil fuels

177. The solar radiation that bounces off the earth back towards the atmosphere is mostly

A. Gamma radiation
B. X-ray radiation
C. Ultraviolet radiation
D. Infrared radiation

Answer: D. Infrared radiation

178. Things you can do to decrease global warming include

A. Reduce the usage of your air conditioner on high
B. Turn off your light when you are not using them.
C. Use public transports instead of personal vehicles for transportation.
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

179. Excess atmospheric carbon dioxide increases green house effect as carbon dioxide

A. Precipitates dust in the atmosphere
B. Is opaque to infrared rays
C. Reduces atmospheric pressure
D. Is heavier than other gases

Answer: B. Is opaque to infrared rays

180. Which of the following is not a potential adverse effect of global warming?

A. More extreme weather patterns
B. Retreat of glaciers
C. Sea level rise
D. An increase of UV-B radiation

Answer: D. An increase of UV-B radiation

181. Which of the following processes adds to the removal of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

A. Burning fossil fuels
B. Photosynthesis
C. Respiration
D. Deforestation

Answer: B. Photosynthesis

182. Which is the only country who has not ratified the Kyoto Protocol yet?

A. United States
B. Australia
C. Japan
D. India

Answer: A. United States

183. Ozone day is observed on

A. 3rd January
B. 16th September
C. 10th November
D. 26th March

Answer: B. 16th September

184. Ozone layer is present in

A. Troposphere
B. Mesosphere
C. Thermosphere
D. Stratosphere

Answer: D. Stratosphere

185. Which one of the following gases can deplete the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere?

A. Methane
B. Ammonia
C. Carbon tetrachloride
D. Sulphur dioxide

Answer: C. Carbon tetrachloride

186. Peeling of Ozone umbrella, which protects us from UV rays, is caused by

A. Carbon monoxide
B. CFCs
C. Coal burning
D. Methane

Answer: B. CFCs

187. Formation of hole in Ozone is maximum over

A. India
B. Europe
C. Antarctica
D. Africa

Answer: C. Antarctica

188. Increasing skin cancer and high mutation rate are the result of

A. Global warming
B. Ozone depletion
C. Acid rain
D. Pollution

Answer: B. Ozone depletion

189. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

A. Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog
B. Ozone is highly reactive
C. It protects us from harmful UV radiations of sun
D. All of the above

Answer: C. It protects us from harmful UV radiations of sun

190. Thickness of ozone layer is measured in

A. Decibels
B. Dobson unit
C. Meter
D. Armstrong unit

Answer: B. Dobson unit

191. Chlorofluorocarbon releases a chemical harmful to ozone is

A. Chlorine
B. Fluorine
C. Carbons
D. Nitrogen peroxide

Answer: A. Chlorine

192. In the breakdown of the ozone layer, the ozone (O3) directly reacts with

A. Ultraviolet light
B. Chlorine atoms
C. Oxygen atoms
D. CFC molecules

Answer: B. Chlorine atoms

193. A population is a group of

A. Individual in a family
B. Individuals in a species
C. Communities in an ecosystem
D. Species in a community

Answer: B. Individuals in a species

194. The main cause of world population growth in 18th and 19th centuries was

A. Decrease in birth rates
B. Decrease in death rates
C. Industrial revolution
D. None of these

Answer: C. Industrial revolution

195. What is most important factor for the success of animal population?

A. Natality
B. Adaptability
C. Interspecies activity
D. Unlimited food

Answer: B. Adaptability

196. Human population growth is

A. Horizontal line
B. L-shaped curve
C. J-shaped curve
D. Parabola curve

Answer: C. J-shaped curve

197. The main factors contributing to the decline in death rate in 20th century were

A. Improved agricultural practices and increased birth rates
B. Improved health care, sanitation and nutrition
C. Endemic poverty and low levels of education
D. European colonization and improved agriculture practices

Answer: B. Improved health care, sanitation and nutrition

198. The world population in 2000 was approximately

A. 5.1 billion
B. 2.1 billion
C. 6 billion
D. 8 billon

Answer: C. 6 billion

199. The average life expectancy around the world is currently

A. Stable
B. Increasing
C. Decreasing
D. Not changing

Answer: B. Increasing

200. Exponential growth in population occurs when there is

A. A great environment resistance
B. No environment resistance
C. A fixed carrying capacity
D. No biotic potential

Answer: B. No environment resistance

201. The disease which wiped out 33% of population of Europe in the 12th and 13th centuries was

A. Cholera
B. Meningitis
C. Plague
D. Diphtheria

Answer: C. Plague

202. A human population is small, there is greater chance of

A. Mutation
B. Gene flow
C. Genetic drift
D. Natural selection

Answer: C. Genetic drift

203. Which of the following is a problem not associated with population growth?

A. Increased resource consumption
B. Environmental pollution
C. Food and energy shortages
D. None of these

Answer: D. None of these

204. Unrestricted reproductive capacity, in a population, is called

A. Birth rate
B. Carrying capacity
C. Fertility rate
D. Biotic potential

Answer: D. Biotic potential

205. The concept that “population increases geometrically while food supply increases arithmetically” was given by

A. Stuart Mill
B. Charles Darwin
C. Adam Smith
D. Thomas Malthus

Answer: D. Thomas Malthus

206. Population pyramids are useful to

A. Express the population growth rates
B. Indicate the birth rates
C. Indicate the death rates
D. Express age – sex distribution of a population

Answer: D. Express age – sex distribution of a population

207. The carrying capacity of a population is determined by

A. Population growth rate
B. Natality
C. Mortality
D. Limiting resources

Answer: D. Limiting resources

208. HIV is not likely to be transmitted by

A. Sharing needles of injections
B. Mosquito bites
C. Blood transfusion
D. Breast feeding

Answer: D. Breast feeding

209. Today, the world’s number one problem is:

A. Pollution
B. Population explosion
C. Nuclear proliferation
D. Natural calamities

Answer: B. Population explosion

210. Population explosion has occurred in the last

A. 500 years
B. 300 years
C. 400 years
D. 150 years

Answer: D. 150 years

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