500+ TOP Swasthavritta MCQs and Answers Quiz Test

Swasthavritta Multiple Choice Questions

1. The composition of Sauviranjanam is
A. Antimony sulphide
B. Antimony choride
C. Antimony flouride
D. Antimony bromide

Answer: A Antimony sulphide

2. Rasanjana is to be administered
A. Daily
B. Once a week
C. Once in 3 days
D. Once in 8 days

Answer: B Once a week

3. The drugs NOT recommended for Dantadhavana include
A. Nirgundi
B. Palasa
C. Sigru
D. All the above

Answer: D All the above

4. The Rasa contraindicated for Tooth brushing twigs according to Vagbhata.
A. Madura, Amla, Lavana
B. Lavana, Katu, Tikta
C. Karshaya, Amla, Tikta
D. Maduva, Katu, Kashaya

Answer: A Madura, Amla, Lavana

5. Dantadhavana is contraindicated in the following except …
A. Svasa
B. Hrdroga
C. Udavartha
D. Siroroga

Answer: C Udavartha

6. Dantadhavana is contraindicated in
A. Ajirna
B. Netraroga
C. Ardita
D. All the above

Answer: D All the above

7. A characteristic feature of rash – pleomorphism is seen in_______
A. Chickenpox
B. Measles
C. Smallpox
D. Rubella

Answer: A Chickenpox

8. Abhyanga should be particularly done in
A. Head, ears, soles
B. Head, trunk, sole
C. Head, ears, palms
D. Head, palms, soles

Answer: A Head, ears, soles

9. Eyes and skin are benefited by
A. Abhyangam and Nasya
B. Abhyangam and udvartanam
C. Udvartanam and Nasya
D. All the above

Answer: A Abhyangam and Nasya

10. Agnideepthi is obtained by
A. Vyayama and Snana
B. Abhyangam and vyayama
C. Abhyangm and udvartanam
D. Snana m and udvartanam

Answer: A Vyayama and Snana

Swasthavritta MCQs

11. The number of yama in a day are
A. 5
B. 6
C. 8
D. 4

Answer: C 8

12. Brahma muhurta can be considered as
A. Second half of the fourth yama, beginning of the 14th muhurta
B. Second half of the third yama, end of the 14th muhurta
C. Second half of the second yama, beginning of the12th muhurta
D. Second half of the seventh yama, end of the 12 th muhurta

Answer: A Second half of the fourth yama, beginning of the 14th muhurta

13. One muhurta is of
A. 48
B. 45
C. 44
D. 46

Answer: A 48

14. Which is the ODD one out
A. Patola
B. Sarkara
C. Godhuma
D. Dadhi

Answer: D Dadhi

15. The herbal toothbrushes are of
A. 12 angulas in length, diameter of the tip of little finger
B. 10 angulas in length, diameter of the tip of middle finger
C. 12 angulas in length, diameter of the tip of index finger
D. 10 angulas in length, diameter of the tip of little finger

Answer: A 12 angulas in length, diameter of the tip of little finger

16. IgG is the major immunoglobulin of serum, comprising about __ of the total serum immunoglobulins.
A. 80%
B. 70%
C. 90%
D. 60%

Answer: A 80%

17. Drugs mentioned for Dantadhavana in Astanga Hrdaya does NOT
A. Arka
B. Nyagrodha
C. Kakubha
D. Nimba

Answer: D Nimba

18. Drugs mentioned for Dantadhavana in Astanga Hrdaya includes
A. Arka
B. Khadira
C. Karanja
D. All the above

Answer: D All the above

19. The length of Tooth brush is prescribed to ——————
A. 12 angula
B. 10 angula
C. 6 angula
D. 8 angula

Answer: A 12 angula

20. The length of tongue cleaner is prescribed as ——————
A. 12 angula
B. 10 angula
C. 6 angula
D. 8 angula

Answer: B 10 angula

21. Vyayama can be daily done by
A. Those who consume snigdha bhojana
B. Those in state of ajirna
C. Those who are aged
D. In case of Vata Pitta vitiation

Answer: A Those who consume snigdha bhojana

22. Body massage should be done after
A. Vyayama
B. Udvartanam
C. Snanam
D. Pratimarsa nasya

Answer: A Vyayama

23. The ritu in which Vyayama is to be done with half strength
A. Hemanta, sisira, vasanta
B. Sarat, vasanta, sisira
C. Hemanta, sarat, sisira
D. Varsa, sarat, vasanta

Answer: A Hemanta, sisira, vasanta

24. Which is wrong statement regarding Vyayama
A. Vyayama renders lightness to body
B. Vyayama to be done upto Ardhosakthi
C. Vyayama stimulate Agni
D. Body to be managed prior to Vyayama

Answer: D Body to be managed prior to Vyayama

25. According to which Acharya, Vyayama can be done in all seasons
A. Vagbhata
B. Charaka
C. Kashyapa
D. Susruta

Answer: A Vagbhata

26. According to Vagbhata the complications of Ativyayama are
A. Ksata and mada
B. Klama and sosa
C. Kasa and chardi
D. Murcha and svasa

Answer: C Kasa and chardi

27. Bath with Usna jala on Adhakaya confers
A. Strength
B. Wisdom
C. Freshness
D. Longlife

Answer: A Strength

28. Snana and Dantadhavana are contraindicated in
A. Asyaroga and Netraroga
B. Atisara and kasa
C. Atisara and vamana
D. Adhmana and siroroga

Answer: A Asyaroga and Netraroga

29. Which among the following do NOT come under Dashavidha papam
A. Himsa
B. Parusa
C. Alasyam
D. Paisunya

Answer: C Alasyam

30. Adana kala includes the Ritu
A. Sisira, Varsa, Sarat
B. Sisira, Vasanta, Grisma
C. Varsa, Sarat, Hemanta
D. Sisira, Varsa, Vasanta

Answer: B Sisira, Vasanta, Grisma

31. Visarga kala includes the Ritu
A. Sisira, Varsa, Sarat
B. Sisira, Vasanta, Grisma
C. Varsa, Sarat, Hemanta
D. Sisira, Varsa, Vasanta

Answer: C Varsa, Sarat, Hemanta

32. In Adana kala the following properties become strong
A. Tiksna, usna, ruksha
B. Manda, sita, snigdha
C. Tiksna, sita, snigdha
D. Manda, ushna, snigdha

Answer: A Tiksna, usna, ruksha

33. In adana kala the————— rasas becomes stronger
A. Tikta, kasaya, katu
B. Tikta, katu, kasaya
C. Kasaya, katu, tikta
D. Katu, kasaya, tikta

Answer: A Tikta, kasaya, katu

34. During Hemanta ———— is the state of Dosha
A. Kapha sanchaya, pitta prasama
B. Pitta sanchaya, kapha prakopa
C. Pitta prasama, kapha prakopa
D. Kapha prakopa, vata prasama

Answer: A Kapha sanchaya, pitta prasama

35. During Grismakala————is the state of Dosha
A. Vata sanchaya, kapha prasama
B. Pitta sanchaya, vata prakopa
C. Kaphasanchaya, vata prakopa
D. Kaphasanchaya, vataprasama

Answer: A Vata sanchaya, kapha prasama

36. During Varsa kala—————is the state of Dosha
A. Pitta sanchaya, vata prakopa
B. Pitta prakopa, vata sanchaya
C. Vata sanchaya, kapha prakopa
D. Vata prakopa, kapha sanchaya

Answer: A Pitta sanchaya, vata prakopa

37. The body has maximum strength in
A. Hemanta, sisira
B. Vasanta, sarat
C. Varsa, grisma
D. Hemanta grisma

Answer: A Hemanta, sisira

38. The body has moderate strength in
A. Hemanta, sisira
B. Vasanta, sarat
C. Varsa, grisma
D. Hemanta grisma

Answer: B Vasanta, sarat

39. The body has minimum strength in
A. Hemanta, sisira
B. Vasanta, sarat
C. Varsa, grisma
D. Hemanta grisma

Answer: C Varsa, grisma

40. The Rasa to be consumed in Hemanta are
A. Madhura, amla, lavana
B. Katu, tikta, kasaya
C. Madhura, katu, kasaya
D. Tikta, lavana, kasaya

Answer: A Madhura, amla, lavana

41. Abhyanga, murdhataila, padaghata and vimardana are advised in
A. Hemanta
B. Vasanta
C. Sarat
D. Varsa

Answer: A Hemanta

42. During Hemanta after Vyayama one should take bath using drugs of——— Rasa
A. Tikta
B. Kasaya
C. Katu
D. Amla

Answer: B Kasaya

43. Following are pathya in Hemanta EXCEPT
A. Godhuma
B. Vasa
C. Purana annam
D. Ikshu

Answer: C Purana annam

44. The garments namely Kauseya, Praveni and Kauthapa are mentioned in — Ritu
A. Hemanta
B. Sarat
C. Varsa
D. Grisma

Answer: A Hemanta

45. The following are pathya in Vasanta EXCEPT
A. Purana yava
B. Vasa
C. Jangala mamsa
D. AristaKey

Answer: B Vasa

46. The regimen of Hemanta does NOT include
A. Fasting
B. Massage
C. Sunbath
D. Wrestling

Answer: A Fasting

47. During Vasanta all measures are taken to pacify
A. Kapha
B. Vata
C. Pitta
D. Tridosha

Answer: A Kapha

48. The regimen of Vasanta does NOT includes
A. Vamana
B. Virechana
C. Nasya
D. Udvartana

Answer: B Virechana

49. The property of diet in Vasanta is
A. Laghu, ruksha
B. Snigdha, laghu
C. Tikshna, usnam
D. Mandam, sita

Answer: A Laghu, ruksha

50. W.H.O. is established on …..
A. 7th Jan 1947.
B. 7th Feb 1948.
C. 7th Mar 1947.
D. 7th April 1948.

Answer: D 7th April 1948.

51. ______________ headquarter is at Geneva, Switzerland.
A. Unicef
B. WHO
C. Red cross
D. Rotary

Answer: B WHO

52. WHO is a _____
A. non-political
B. health agency of the United Nations.
C. Non profit
D. a and b

Answer: D a and b

53. _____defines, Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
A. UNICEF
B. WHO.
C. RED CROSS
D. ROTARY

Answer: B WHO.

54. _____is responsible for health of their people which can be fulfilled only by the provision of adequate health and social measures
A. Government
B. Public
C. NGO
D. RED CROSS

Answer: A Government

55. Membership of WHO is open for ____countries.
A. All
B. European
C. Asian
D. United Kingdom

Answer: A All

56. WHO Regional Headquarter of South East Asia is at____
A. Beijing(China
B. Dhaka(Bangladesh
C. New Delhi (India
D. Colombo(Shrilanka

Answer: C New Delhi (India

57. Activities of WHO in India are ……
A. Health statistics.
B. Public health administration.
C. Health laboratory services.
D. All above

Answer: D All above

58. First formal National Health Policy was formulated in ….
A. 1999
B. 1983
C. 1985
D. 2000

Answer: B 1983

59. Objectives of National Health Policy are…..
A. To rationalize use of drugs within the allopathic system.
B. To increase access to tried and tested systems of traditional Medicine.
C. To Achieve an acceptable standard of good health amongst the general population of the country.
D. All above

Answer: D All above

60. National Health Policy -2002 Policy Prescription
A. Delivery of national public health programs
B. The state of public health Infrastructure
C. Extending public health services
D. All above

Answer: D All above

61. Education of Health care Professional needs….
A. inclusion of contemporary medical research
B. geriatric concern and
C. creation of additional PG seats
D. All above

Answer: D All above

62. NHP 2002 has recommended notifying a contemporary code of ethics, which is to be rigorously implemented by ____
A. AYUSH
B. Medical Council of India
C. CCIM
D. UGC

Answer: B Medical Council of India

63. In UNICEF “E” stands for
A. Emergency
B. Ethics
C. Economy
D. Education

Answer: A Emergency

64. ….. Services are provided by UNICEF
A. Child Health
B. Child Nutrition
C. Family and child welfare
D. All above

Answer: D All above

65. UNICEF’s GOBI-FFF Programs excludes
A. Growth Monitoring
B. Oral medication
C. Breast Feeding
D. Immunization

Answer: B Oral medication

66. UNICEF’s GOBI-FFF Programs includes
A. Female Education
B. Family Spacing
C. Food Supplements
D. All above

Answer: D All above

67. _____is the President of Indian Red Cross Society ( IRCS )
A. President of India
B. Prime Minister of India
C. Union Health Minister
D. AYUSH Minister

Answer: A President of India

68. Objectives of Indian Red Cross Society ( IRCS ) are_____
A. Improvement of health
B. Prevention of disease
C. Mitigation of suffering
D. All above

Answer: D All above

69. _____.is a branch of biometry deals with data and law of human mortality, morbidity, & demography.
A. Health Statistics
B. Medical Statistics
C. Educational Statistics
D. None of the above

Answer: A Health Statistics

70. Which is the first element among the eight elements of primary health care
A. Treatment of common diseases
B. Essential drug supply
C. Immunization
D. Health Education

Answer: D Health Education

71. What is the proposed man-power requirement for Sub-centre?
A. 3/4
B. 2/3
C. 14/15
D. 12/13

Answer: A 3/4

72. What is the proposed man-power requirement for Primary Health Center?
A. 3/4
B. 2/3
C. 24/25
D. 12/13

Answer: C 24/25

73. Which among the following specialty doctor is present at Community Health Center?
A. Surgeon
B. ENT Specialist
C. Anesthetist
D. Ophthalmologist

Answer: A Surgeon

74. How many AYUSH practitioners are present at the level of Community Health Center?
A. 1
B. 2
D. 4

Answer: A 1

75. What is the duration of training for Village Health Guides?
A. 1 month
B. 2 month
C. 3 months
D. 4 months

Answer: C 3 months

76. In which stage of demographic cycle India has recently entered?
A. Highly stationary
B. Early Expanding
C. Late expanding
D. Low Stationary

Answer: C Late expanding

77. Which IUCD has been introduced in National Program on Family Planning
A. Cu-T-380 A
B. Cu – T- 200
C. Multiload Copper T
D. Levonorgestrel IUD

Answer: A Cu-T-380 A

78. The Oral contraceptive pills containing oestrogen and progesterone should be given for ____ days.
A. 28 days
B. 21 days
C. 30 days
D. 31 days

Answer: B 21 days

79. What is the maximum period of fetus for the abortion carried out by a Registered Medical practitioner without 2nd opinion according to MTP Act 1971?
A. 15 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 20 weeks

Answer: C 12 weeks

80. Billing method of Family planning method is A
A. Permanent method of Contraception
B. Observance of basal body temperature
C. Calendar method of contraception
D. Observance of changes in the characteristics of cervical mucus

Answer: D Observance of changes in the characteristics of cervical mucus

81. What is the minimum age of the husband for Vasectomy?
A. 21 years
B. 22 years
C. 24 years
D. 25 years

Answer: D 25 years

82. Which is the first country to launch National Family welfare program
A. India
B. China
C. UK
D. Pakisthan

Answer: A India

83. When did National Malaria Eradication program launched?
A. 1953
B. 1973
C. 1958
D. 1951

Answer: C 1958

84. Which month is observed as National Anti-malaria month?
A. June
B. July
C. Aug
D. Sept

Answer: A June

85. How are endemic areas classified in National Anti-malaria program?
A. Annual parasite incidence
B. No. of malaria cases
C. No. of positive slides of malaria
D. No. of deaths due to malaria

Answer: A Annual parasite incidence

86. Intensified malaria control project was launched with the assistance from
A. Global Fund
B. CARE
C. Prime Minister fund
D. SIDA

Answer: A Global Fund

87. National Filaria control was merged with ____ in 1978
A. National Urban Malaria control program
B. National control program for Vector borne diseases
C. National Anti – Malaria program
D. National Rural malaria control program

Answer: A National Urban Malaria control program

88. Which mass drug therapy is used in Filaria control program?
A. DDT
B. DEC
C. Malathion
D. Primiquine

Answer: B DEC

89. National Lepsosy eradication program has been in operation since _____.
A. 1947
B. 1913
C. 1983
D. 1971

Answer: C 1983

90. Which Pharma company supplies Multi Drug Therapy (MDT) free of cost through WHO.
A. Cipla
B. Novartis
C. Hetero
D. Ranbaxy

Answer: B Novartis

91. When was National Tuberculosis control program launched?
A. 1962
B. 1953
C. 1975
D. 1958

Answer: A 1962

92. Which one of the following is long term objective of National Tuberculosis control program
A. To vaccinate new borns and infants with BCG
B. To detect maximum no. of cases of Tb at OPD levels
C. DOTS (Directly observed short term therapy
D. One case infects less than one new person annually.

Answer: D One case infects less than one new person annually.

93. When was National control program on AIDS launched in India?
A. 1965
B. 1987
C. 1995
D. 2001

Answer: B 1987

94. Voluntary counseling and testing centers deals with ____.
A. AIDS
B. Tuberculosis
C. Leprosy
D. Mental disorders

Answer: A AIDS

95. Anti-Retroviral Threapy (ART) is given free of cost for ___
A. Viral Diseases
B. AIDS
C. Swine Flu
D. Bird Flu

Answer: B AIDS

96. When was National Blindness control program launched?
A. 1976
B. 1985
C. 1958
D. 1995

Answer: A 1976

97. Which is the apex institute involved in man –power development, research and referral services in National Control program of Blindness?
A. Dr Rajendra Prasad centre for ophthalmic science in AIIMs
B. Sanjay Gandhi Ophthalmic Unit at Bangalore
C. Vasan Eye Care Centre, Chennai
D. Swami Vivekananda Yoga AnusandhanaSamsthana, Bangalore

Answer: A Dr Rajendra Prasad centre for ophthalmic science in AIIMs

98. Which states are called as Goitre belt?
A. Uttar Pradesh along the belt of Himalayas
B. Coastal areas of Karnataka and Kerala
C. Maharashtra and Madhyapradesh
D. Costal belts of Tamilnadu and Andhrapradesh

Answer: A Uttar Pradesh along the belt of Himalayas

99. Which National Health program has the tag line Vision 2020: The Right to Sight
A. National control program on Iodine deficiency disorders
B. National control program on Blindness
C. National control program on Tuberculosis
D. National control program on Malaria

Answer: B National control program on Blindness

100. Universal Child Immunization was the program launched by _________
A. WHO
B. UNICEF
C. UNICARE
D. CARE

Answer: B UNICEF

101. When did Govt of India launch EPI
A. 1978
B. 1995
C. 1993
D. 1992

Answer: A 1978

102. What was the main aim of EPI (Expanded Program of Immunization?
A. Every child receives against Immunization against Polio
B. 100 coverage of pregnant women with 2 doses of Tetanus toxoid and at least 85% coverage of infants with DPT, OPV and BCG
C. 85 coverage of pregnant women with 2 doses of Tetanus toxoid and at least 100% coverage of infants with DPT, OPV and BCG
D. Eradication of Vaccine preventable diseases

Answer: B 100 coverage of pregnant women with 2 doses of Tetanus toxoid and at least 85% coverage of infants with DPT, OPV and BCG

103. When was Pulse polio program launched?
A. 1995
B. 1983
C. 1996
D. 2001

Answer: A 1995

104. National Rural health Mission was launched in ___
A. 1995
B. 2005
C. 2011
D. 2000

Answer: B 2005

105. The following were the plan of action to strengthen the infrastructure under NRHM program
A. Strengthen ASHA
B. Strengthen PHCs
C. Strengthen CHCs and Subcenters
D. All the above

Answer: D All the above

106. What is the general norm for selection of ASHA?
A. 1 ASHA for 1000 population
B. 1 ASHA for 100 population
C. 1 ASHA for 5000 population
D. 1 ASHA for 10000 population

Answer: A 1 ASHA for 1000 population

107. Which of the following are the main objectives of RCH phase II?
A. Immunization of children under 5 years
B. Emergency obstetric care
C. A & B
D. Training of Dias

Answer: B Emergency obstetric care

108. When is maternal mortality rate increased?
A. 1st trimester
B. 2nd trimester
C. 3rd trimester
D. 1st two days of birth

Answer: D 1st two days of birth

109. What are Neonatal deaths?
A. Deaths occurring during the period commencing from birth to 28 days
B. Deaths occurring during the period commencing from birth to 90 days
C. Deaths occurring during the period commencing from birth to 7 days
D. Deaths occurring during the period commencing from birth to 1 day

Answer: A Deaths occurring during the period commencing from birth to 28 days

110. What are Post Neonatal deaths?
A. Deaths occurring during the period commencing from 28 days to 1 year
B. Deaths occurring during the period commencing from 28 days to 90 days
C. Deaths occurring during the period commencing from birth to 7 days
D. Deaths occurring during the period commencing from birth to 1 day

Answer: A Deaths occurring during the period commencing from 28 days to 1 year

111. Swedish International Development Agency has been assisting mainly ________.
A. National Leprosy control program
B. National Tuberculosis control program
C. National Blindness control program
D. National AIDS control program

Answer: B National Tuberculosis control program

112. Bore-hole latrine was the innovative idea by ____
A. SIDA Foundation
B. Rockefeller Foundation
C. Ford Foundation
D. International Red cross

Answer: B Rockefeller Foundation

113. Hind Kusht Nivarana Sangh was initially known as ______.
A. BELRA
B. CARE
C. Bharat Sevak Samaj
D. Central Social Welfare Board

Answer: A BELRA

114. Which are the central modes of tendency?
A. Mean, Median and Mode
B. Standard deviation, Standard Error
C. Vital statistics
D. Range, Dispersion

Answer: B Standard deviation, Standard Error

115. What is Variance?
A. Square of Standard Error
B. Square of standard deviation
C. Range
D. Inter-quartile range

Answer: B Square of standard deviation

116. The male contraceptive pill contains
A. Isabgol
B. Gossypol
C. Oestrogen
D. Testesterone

Answer: B Gossypol

117. T Cu-380 A is classified under
A. 1st generation IUCD
B. 2nd generation IUCD
C. 3rd generation IUCD
D. 4th generation IUCD

Answer: B 2nd generation IUCD

118. MALA – N and MALA – D contain __________
A. Norgesterol 0.3 mg and Ethiniloestradiol 0.03mg
B. Norgesterol 0.1 mg and Ethiniloestradiol 0.01mg
C. Norgesterol 5 mg and Ethiniloestradiol 1mg
D. Norgesterol 250 mg and Ethiniloestradiol 50mg

Answer: A Norgesterol 0.3 mg and Ethiniloestradiol 0.03mg

119. When is post-coital recommended?
A. 24 hours after unprotected intercourse
B. 48 hours after unprotected intercourse
C. 72 hours after unprotected intercourse
D. 12 hours after unprotected intercourse

Answer: B 48 hours after unprotected intercourse

120. The slogan of international conference at Alma- Ata in 1978 is _______Nutritional supplement for all
A. Immunization
B. Health for all by 2000 A.D
C. Super specialty care
D. Nutritional supplement for all

Answer: B Health for all by 2000 A.D

121. Each primary health centre covers rural population of _____
A. 100,000
B. 15,000
C. 30,000
D. 50,000

Answer: C 30,000

122. _______is a globally eradicated disease
A. Small pox
B. Chicken pox
C. Measles
D. Influenza

Answer: A Small pox

123. Health surveillance is________.
A. Collection of data
B. Interpretation of data
C. Collection and interpretation of data
D. Monitoring programme

Answer: C Collection and interpretation of data

124. Commonest cause of blindness in India is_______.
A. Glaucoma
B. Cataract
C. Keratomalacia
D. Trachoma

Answer: B Cataract

125. Functions of primary health centre are except………….
A. Prevention and control of communicable disease
B. Maternal child health care
C. Safe water supply and sanitation
D. Disability limitation

Answer: D Disability limitation

126. The five layers of human existence as per Yoga is known as_____
A. Saptadhatu
B. Panchakosha
C. Tridosha
D. Ashtakosha

Answer: B Panchakosha

127. The word Yoga comesfrom the Sanskrit word ___
A. Yuj
B. Yaka
C. Yaj
D. Yaga

Answer: A Yuj

128. In Sanskrit, the term philosophy is known as ______
A. Yoga Vasistha
B. Purana
C. Bhakti
D. Darshana

Answer: D Darshana

129. The word Yoga comes from the Sanskrit word Yuj means to ____
A. Unite
B. Add
C. Subtract
D. Divide

Answer: A Unite

130. Raja Yoga is the yoga of _____ control
A. Emotion
B. Mind
C. Work
D. Ethics

Answer: B Mind

131. Bhakti Yoga is the yoga of _____ control
A. Emotion
B. Mind
C. Work
D. Ethics

Answer: A Emotion

132. Karma Yoga is the yoga of _____ control
A. Emotion
B. Mind
C. Work
D. Ethics

Answer: C Work

133. DyanaYoga is the yoga of _____ control
A. Emotion
B. Mind
C. Work
D. Ethics

Answer: D Ethics

134. In Yoga, kriyas are ______ techniques
A. Cleansing
B. Meditating
C. Pranic
D. Relaxing

Answer: A Cleansing

135. The total number of major pranas is ____
A. 3
B. 5
C. 72
D. 6

Answer: A 3

136. As per Yoga Therapy disease starts from ________ kosha
A. Pranamaya
B. Annamaya
C. Manomaya
D. Anandmaya

Answer: C Manomaya

137. Mudra means a _____
A. Asana
B. Pranayama
C. Guesture
D. Dhyana

Answer: C Guesture

138. Asana means __________
A. Exercise
B. A body posture
C. Happiness
D. Wealth

Answer: B A body posture

139. The Yoga Sutras are compiled by
A. Bhagwat gita
B. Patanjali
C. Gherand
D. Hathayoga

Answer: B Patanjali

140. In Sanskrit, the word Veda means __________
A. Knowledge
B. Liberation
C. Happiness
D. Wealth

Answer: A Knowledge

141. The origin of Yoga is __
A. Veda
B. Purana
C. Darshana
D. Patanjali

Answer: D Patanjali

142. Indian Philosophy is divided into _____ parts
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8

Answer: C 6

143. Pranayama is the exercise of the ____ Kosha
A. Pranamaya
B. Annamaya
C. Manomaya
D. Anandmaya

Answer: A Pranamaya

144. Bandha is a neuro-muscular ___
A. Joint
B. Lock
C. Kriya
D. Exescise

Answer: B Lock

145. Yogaha Chitta Vritti Nirodha is quoted by ____
A. Bhagwat gita
B. Patanjali
C. Gherand
D. Hathayoga

Answer: B Patanjali

146. Yogaha Karmasu Kaushalyam is quoted by ____
A. Bhagwat gita
B. Patanjali
C. Gherand
D. Hathayoga

Answer: A Bhagwat gita

147. Samatvam Yogaha Uchate is quoted by ____
A. Bhagwat gita
B. Patanjali
C. Gherand
D. Hathayoga

Answer: A Bhagwat gita

148. Nasti Yogat Param Balam is quoted by ____
A. Bhagwat gita
B. Patanjali
C. Gherand
D. Hathayoga

Answer: C Gherand

149. Yogaha ______Vritti Nirodha
A. Chitta
B. Asana
C. Sama
D. Kriya

Answer: A Chitta

150. The word “Hatha” comes from the Sanskrit terms “tha” meaning _______
A. Atma
B. Moon
C. Sun
D. Earth

Answer: B Moon

151. ______ Yogaha Uchate
A. Chitta
B. Karmasu
C. Samatvam
D. Kriya

Answer: C Samatvam

152. ______ Yogat Param Balam
A. Chitta
B. Karmasu
C. Samatvam
D. Nasti

Answer: D Nasti

153. _________ is include in Antarang Sadhana
A. Samadhi
B. Niyama
C. Asana
D. Pratyahara

Answer: A Samadhi

154. _________ is include in Bahirang Sadhana
A. Samadhi
B. Dhyana
C. Dharana
D. Pratyahara

Answer: D Pratyahara

155. Avidya Asmita Raga Dvesha Abhnivesha ______
A. Samadhi
B. Klesha
C. Dharana
D. Pratyahara

Answer: B Klesha

156. Ahimsa Satya Asteya Bramhacharya Aparigraha _____
A. Yama
B. Niyama
C. Asana
D. Pratyahara

Answer: A Yama

157. Soucha Santosh Tapa Swadhyaya Ishwar Pranidhanani _____
A. Yama
B. Niyama
C. Asana
D. Pratyahara

Answer: B Niyama

158. Sthiram Sukham _____
A. Yama
B. Niyama
C. Asana
D. Pratyahara

Answer: C Asana

159. Pranasya Ayam _____
A. Pranayam
B. Niyama
C. Asana
D. Pratyahara

Answer: A Pranayam

160. Desha Bandh Chittasya _____
A. Samadhi
B. Dhyana
C. Dharana
D. Pratyahara

Answer: C Dharana

161. Tatra Pratyek Taanata _____
A. Samadhi
B. Dhyana
C. Dharana
D. Pratyahara

Answer: B Dhyana

162. Tadevatha Nirbhas Swarup Shunyamiva _____
A. Samadhi
B. Dhyana
C. Dharana
D. Pratyahara

Answer: A Samadhi

163. The most comprehensive text of Hathayoga is the Hatha Yoga Pradipika by Yogi _______
A. Patanjali
B. Swatmarama.
C. Gherand
D. Charak

Answer: B Swatmarama.

164. Aim of Hatha Yoga is _______
A. Spiritual exercise
B. Mental exercise
C. Purification of this ‘nadis’ or energy passages.
D. Physical exercise.

Answer: C Purification of this ‘nadis’ or energy passages.

165. Imbalance of physical and mental energies is state of …..
A. Wealth
B. Health
C. Decrease
D. Moksha

Answer: C Decrease

166. “The word “Hatha” comes from the Sanskrit terms “ha” meaning _______
A. Atma
B. Sun
C. Moon
D. Earth

Answer: B Sun

167. ..….. is not paths for removal of accumulated complexes
A. Path of intellectual analysis
B. Path of social service
C. Path of devotion
D. Path of meditation

Answer: B Path of social service

168. Path of intellectual analysis
A. Bhaktiyoga
B. Rajyoga
C. Dynanayoga
D. Hathayoga

Answer: C Dynanayoga

169. Path of devotion
A. Bhaktiyoga
B. Rajyoga
C. Dynanayoga
D. Hathayoga

Answer: A Bhaktiyoga

170. Path of meditation
A. Bhaktiyoga
B. Patanjali Yoga
C. Dynanayoga
D. Hathayoga

Answer: B Patanjali Yoga

171. The concept of the five koshas was originally given in ……… to help us understand what is ‘self’ and what is ‘non-self’.
A. Hatha yoga
B. Patanjali Yoga
C. Bhagwat Gita
D. Taittiriya Upanishad

Answer: D Taittiriya Upanishad

172. The Annamaya kosha is the sheath of ___________
A. Intellect (Buddhi
B. Wisdom
C. Physical Body
D. Intuitive Knowledge

Answer: C Physical Body

173. The Anandamaya kosha is the sheath of …..
A. Intellect (Buddhi
B. Wisdom
C. Food
D. Intuitive Knowledge

Answer: B Wisdom

174. The Manomaya kosha is the sheath of …..
A. Intellect (Buddhi
B. Wisdom
C. Food
D. Intuitive Knowledge

Answer: D Intuitive Knowledge

175. If the …… sheath is absent the physical body will disintegrate and merge back into its five elements.
A. Manomaya
B. Annamaya
C. Anandmaya
D. Pranamaya

Answer: D Pranamaya

176. The lack of ability to distinguish between self and non-self is termed “…..” which is the main cause of human suffering (“klesha”).
A. Abhinivesha
B. Asmita
C. Avidya
D. Dvesha

Answer: C Avidya

177. ____ Kosha is responsible for all the physiological functions in the body ” breathing, blood circulation, digestion, heartbeat, all hormonal functions, communication between the brain and the cells of the body, etc.
A. Manomaya
B. Annamaya
C. Anandmaya
D. Pranamaya

Answer: D Pranamaya

178. _____is not Yoga siddhikar bhav.
A. Utsāhāt
B. Jana-sanggha
C. Niśchayāt
D. Dhairyā

Answer: C Niśchayāt

179. ______is not Yoga Prathibandha Kara bhavas
A. Company of the evil-minded people
B. Travelling
C. Courage
D. Fire

Answer: C Courage

180. Svarasavahi-Vidusah-Api-Tatha-Arudhah is termed _______
A. Abhinivesah
B. Asmita
C. Avidya
D. Dvesha

Answer: A Abhinivesah

181. ______is responsible for our cognitive abilities, receiving input from the five senses, communicating with the intellect and directing our actions.
A. Mind
B. Intellect
C. Emotions
D. Wisdom

Answer: A Mind

182. Decreased/ Lowered vitality leads to—————
A. Accumulation of Morbid matter
B. Enervation.
C. Abnormal composition of blood and lymph.
D. All the above

Answer: D All the above

183. Father of Indian Naturopathy ——-
A. Mahatma Gandhiji
B. Vittaldas Modi
C. Lakshaman Sharma
D. Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: A Mahatma Gandhiji

184. According to Fundamentals of Naturopathy, Acute diseases are……….
A. Remedial/ Cleansing agents.
B. Detrimental.
C. Unfavorable condition for the body.
D. Enervation.

Answer: A Remedial/ Cleansing agents.

185. According to Mahatma Gandhji, Prayers is for …….
A. Mental peace.
B. Food for soul.
C. Intellectual peace.
D. Harmony between body and mind.

Answer: D Harmony between body and mind.

186. According to Fundamentals of Naturopathy, Primary manifestation of disease is due to
A. Parasites
B. Virus
C. Wrong food habits and lifestyle
D. Bacteria

Answer: C Wrong food habits and lifestyle

187. According to Fundamentals of Naturopathy, Diseases roots from ——
A. Self control.
B. Self ignorance.
C. Self indulgence.
D. All of the above.

Answer: D All of the above.

188. Return to nature is derived by ……
A. Adolf Just
B. Vincent Presnitz
C. Louis Pasture
D. Louis Khune

Answer: A Adolf Just

189. Langhanam pramoushadham means __________
A. Food is the medicine.
B. Juices are good for health.
C. Fasting is the Supreme remedy.
D. Diet is the medicine.

Answer: C Fasting is the Supreme remedy.

190. In the Yoga Sutras of Patañjali, the Yamas includes _____.
A. Shaucha
B. Svadhyaya
C. Satya
D. Santosha

Answer: C Satya

191. Looking intently and to gaze at a small, single point until tears are shed from the eyes is known as ______
A. Dhouti
B. Trataka
C. Neti
D. Basti

Answer: B Trataka

192. The shuddikriya for the cleaning of the nasal path is known as ______
A. Dhouti
B. Trataka
C. Neti
D. Basti

Answer: C Neti

193. In ______ Pranayama.,one has to make sound like humming bee while exhalation and inhalation as well
A. Bhastrika
B. Bharamari
C. Ujjayi
D. Sitkari

Answer: B Bharamari

194. The first five are called ______ Sadhana
A. Yogic
B. Ashtang
C. Antaranga
D. Bahiranga

Answer: D Bahiranga

195. Tongue is rolled and inhalation is done via mouth followed by Kumbhaka with Bandhas and then exhalation with nostrils in _____ Pranayama.
A. Bhastrika
B. Bharamari
C. Ujjayi
D. Sitkari

Answer: D Sitkari

196. _____ is based on a massage of the internal belly organs by a circular movement of the abdominal muscles.
A. Nauli
B. Trataka
C. Neti
D. Basti

Answer: A Nauli

197. Toxin liquefies & gets thrown out from body through the medium of sweat in__________
A. Steam bath effect
B. Curing disease
C. Healing action
D. Nourishing action

Answer: A Steam bath effect

198. Body gets heat from hot bath & due to this ___________
A. Prevention of toxin occurrence
B. Blood purifies
C. Man becomes free from disease
D. Dilatation of blood capillaries occurs & blood flow increases

Answer: D Dilatation of blood capillaries occurs & blood flow increases

199. According to naturopathy the cause for disease is ———–
A. Microorganisms
B. Food& activities
C. Obstruction to nature’s way
D. Apathya

Answer: C Obstruction to nature’s way

200. These are different types of massage
A. Rubbing, beating
B. Stroking, tapping
C. Vibrating
D. All above

Answer: D All above

201. According to Naturopathy in kshaya rogi ………….. is contra indicated
A. Cold bath
B. Steam bath
C. Spinal cord bath
D. Sitz bath

Answer: B Steam bath

202. According to Naturopathy in hridroga ………… is contra indicated
A. Cold bath
B. Steam bath
C. Spinal cord bath
D. Sitz bath

Answer: B Steam bath

203. Benefits of natural bath are_____
A. Removal of morbid matter
B. Increase the digestion power
C. Increases immunity
D. All above

Answer: D All above

204. According to naturopathy in Unmad ………… is contra indicated
A. Cold bath
B. Steam bath
C. Spinal cord bath
D. Sitz bath

Answer: B Steam bath

205. By practicing kati snana one can get rid of _________________
A. Madhumeha & antravridhi
B. Vibandha & mandagni
C. Diseases of the genitals
D. All the above

Answer: D All the above

206. Water pack used when patient is ………………
A. Unable to do the bath
B. strong
C. Pregnant
D. Child

Answer: A Unable to do the bath

207. Number of Klesha according to Patanjali is_____________
A. 6
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9

Answer: B 5

208. Performing or involving in any work without any expectation is _____type of yoga
A. Karma
B. Dnyana
C. Bhakti
D. Mantra

Answer: A Karma

209. ____________ is not a Yoga Siddhikar Bhava
A. Shwasa Prashwasa viksepa
B. Utsaha
C. Dhairya
D. Sahasa

Answer: A Shwasa Prashwasa viksepa

210. Brahmacharya is a part of which step of Asthang Yoga
A. Niyama
B. Pratyahar
C. Dharana
D. Yama

Answer: D Yama

211. Which of the following is not included in Niyama
A. Asteya
B. Swadhyaya
C. Santosha
D. Ishvar Pranidhan

Answer: A Asteya

212. According to Hathayoga, which type of pranayama can help one float on water
A. Murcha
B. Bhasrika
C. Plavani
D. Shitali

Answer: C Plavani

213. Withdrawal of senses is
A. Niyama
B. Pratyahar
C. Dharana
D. Yama

Answer: B Pratyahar

214. According to Gherand Samhita, Kumbhaka is classified into how many types
A. 6
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9

Answer: C 8

215. National Institute of Naturopathy is in
A. Pune
B. Delhi
C. Bengaluru
D. Hyderabad

Answer: A Pune

216. In the Yoga Sutras of Patanjali, the Niyama excludes _____
A. Shaucha
B. Svadhyaya
C. Ahimsa
D. Santosha

Answer: C Ahimsa

217. ____________is good for spinal flexibility _____
A. Marjarasana
B. Parvatasana
C. Vajrasana
D. Sukhasana

Answer: A Marjarasana

218. The last three steps of Ashtanga Yoga are called ______ Sadhana
A. Antarang
B. Bahirang
C. Pranic
D. Yogic

Answer: A Antarang

219. Visamedicatrix Naturae means…
A. Healing power of nature
B. Natural diet
C. Belief in nature
D. Fasting

Answer: A Healing power of nature

220. Svadhyaya is a part of which step of Asthang Yoga
A. Niyama
B. Pratyahar
C. Dharana
D. Yama

Answer: A Niyama

221. Which of the following is not included in Niyama
A. Brahmacharya
B. Ishvar Pranidhan
C. Santosha
D. Swadhyaya

Answer: A Brahmacharya

222. Shankha prakshalana is which type of shatkarma
A. Neti
B. Dhauti
C. Pranayam
D. Basti

Answer: B Dhauti

223. Healing power of nature is called as
A. Vital power
B. Swasthya
C. Prana
D. Energy

Answer: A Vital power

224. Which of the following asana can be performed immediately after meals
A. Shavasana
B. Padmasana
C. Vajrasana
D. Pavanamuktasana

Answer: C Vajrasana

225. Fasting therapy is of which mahabhoot
A. Vayu
B. Prithvi
C. Aakash
D. Agni

Answer: C Aakash

226. Thyroid and parathyroid gland are activated by which chakra
A. Ajna
B. Vishuddha
C. Manipura
D. Muladhara

Answer: B Vishuddha

227. Which is an effective kriya for sinusitis
A. Neti
B. Nauli
C. Tratak
D. Basti

Answer: A Neti

228. Which is an effective kriya for Computer vision Syndrome
A. Neti
B. Nauli
C. Tratak
D. Basti

Answer: C Tratak

229. Ida is also called as
A. Nadi dvaya
B. Chandra nadi
C. Surya nadi
D. Mahanadi

Answer: B Chandra nadi

230. Heliotherapy uses which natural element for treatment
A. Water
B. Air
C. Sun
D. Wind

Answer: C Sun

231. By the practice of _______ the impurities being destroyed knowledge becomes effulgent, up to discrimination.
A. Heliotherapy
B. Yoga
C. Chromo therapy
D. Massage

Answer: B Yoga

232. ___________has propounded the famous Eight fold Path of disciplines, which shows a way of living in the world and how to interact and behave in society
A. Gherand
B. Hathayoga
C. Patanjali
D. Bhagwatgita

Answer: C Patanjali

233. Non-violence, truthfulness, abstaining from appropriating things belongings to other, purity in thoughts, words & deed. Non-acquisition of things are the essential, components of
A. Pratyahara
B. Niyama
C. Samadhi
D. Yama.

Answer: D Yama.

234. The collective disciplines of___________ are Physical & mental purity, contentment, austerity,self study of holy books and scriptures and devotion to god.
A. Pratyahara
B. Niyama
C. Samadhi
D. Yama.

Answer: B Niyama

235. ________ is withdrawing the senses or organs from their contact with the objects in the external world.
A. Pratyahara
B. Niyama
C. Samadhi
D. Yama.

Answer: A Pratyahara

236. An unbroken flow of knowledge in that object is _______
A. Pratyahara
B. Niyama
C. Samadhi
D. Dhyanam

Answer: D Dhyanam

237. When the chitta or mind-stuff is confined and limited to a certain place it is _______
A. Pratyahara
B. Dharana
C. Samadhi
D. Dhyanam

Answer: B Dharana

238. In ______ the mind remains concentrated (ekagra) on the object of meditation, therefore the consciousness of the object of meditation persists.
A. Samprajnata Samadhi
B. Asamprajnata Samadhi
C. Dharana
D. Dhyanam

Answer: A Samprajnata Samadhi

239. In ____ Samadhi, the Citta is concentrated upon a gross object of meditation such as a flame of a lamp, the tip of the nose, or the image of a deity.
A. Savitarka
B. Savichara
C. Sananda
D. Sasmita;

Answer: A Savitarka

240. In ____ Samadhi, the Citta is concentrated upon a subtle object of meditation, such as the tanmatra
A. Savitarka
B. Savichara
C. Sananda
D. Sasmita;

Answer: B Savichara

241. In ____ Samadhi, the Citta is concentrated upon a still subtler object of meditation, like the senses.
A. Savitarka
B. Savichara
C. Sananda
D. Sasmita;

Answer: C Sananda

242. In ____ Samadhi, the Citta is concentrated upon the ego-substance with which the self is generally identified.
A. Savitarka
B. Savichara
C. Sananda
D. Sasmita;

Answer: D Sasmita;

243. _________involves movement of the muscles of the stomach and especially the muscles of the diaphragm. The movement is important and characteristic.
A. Jalandhar Bandha
B. Maha Bandha
C. Uddiyan Bandh
D. Mula Bandha

Answer: C Uddiyan Bandh

244. In _______ a force is exerted onto the seven paths in the throat.
A. Jalandhar Bandha
B. Maha Bandha
C. Uddiyan Bandh
D. Mula Bandha

Answer: A Jalandhar Bandha

245. ____________is useful for awakening of Kundalini Shakti
A. Jalandhar Bandha
B. Maha Bandha
C. Uddiyan Bandh
D. Mula Bandha

Answer: C Uddiyan Bandh

246. _________ is not a types of Swedish Massage
A. Effleurage
B. Pétrissage
C. Tapotement
D. Compression

Answer: D Compression

247. ____________ purification and vitalisation of the frontal lobes.
A. Neti
B. Nauli
C. Tratak
D. Kapal bhati

Answer: D Kapal bhati

248. Tongue is rolled and inhalation is done via mouth followed by Kumbhaka with Bandhas and then exhalation with nostrils in __________ Pranayam
A. Bhramai
B. Plavani
C. Shitali
D. Ujjai

Answer: C Shitali

249. It’s recommended to synchronize postures, breath, mantras and bring attention to certain chakras when performing _______________
A. Tratak
B. Kapal bhati
C. Dhauti
D. Surya Namaskara.

Answer: D Surya Namaskara.

250. ______________ is to gain mastery over the modifications of the mind
A. Yoga
B. Ayurved
C. Naturopathy
D. Homeopathy

Answer: A Yoga

251. Prophylactic administration of vitamin K in breast fed babies is an example of:
A. Health Promotion
B. Treatment
C. Specific protection
D. Rehabilitation

Answer: C Specific protection

252. Most important reason for recommending oral polio vaccine in the polio eradication campaign despite availability of a safe injectable vaccine that, it:
A. Provides 90% immunity in one dose
B. Does not interfere with vertical immunity
C. Has been donated by WHO
D. Provides herd immunity

Answer: D Provides herd immunity

253. A 5 year old child comes to the immunization centre without BCG scar on his arm; what would you prefer?
A. Give BCG vaccine
B. No need of BCG
C. Perform mantoux if positive then give BCG
D. Perform mantoux if negative then given BCG

Answer: D Perform mantoux if negative then given BCG

254. A woman in the seventh month of pregnancy reports to you in the antenatal clinic for the first time. The recommended immunization is by:
A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Rubella vaccine
D. Pneumococcal vaccine

Answer: A Tetanus toxoid

255. A GP purchased BCG vaccine for his clinic. He should store this vaccine at his clinic in:
A. A dark place
B. Deep freezer
C. Water carrier
D. Refrigerator

Answer: D Refrigerator

256. During a sanitary inspection of a rapid sand filtration plant, slowing of the filtration rate was observed owing to loss of head. Which method will you suggest to give head to water in such a situation?
A. Addition of alum
B. Scraping the top layer
C. Increasing duration of storage
D. Back washing of sand bed

Answer: D Back washing of sand bed

257. You were required to chlorinate well water; you added required amount of bleaching powder solution to the water and allowed an overnight contact tim What is your recommendation regarding consumption of this water for drinking.
A. Fit for consumption
B. To be used after 12 hours
C. To be used after another 24 hours
D. Rechlorinate

Answer: A Fit for consumption

258. A dental surgeon appointed in rural health centre reports an increased incidence of dental carries in the children of that are the relevant preventive measure that he should suggest to the health authorities is:
A. Fluoridation of water
B. Chlorination of water
C. Use of bacterial filter
D. Use of boiled water

Answer: A Fluoridation of water

259. Different agents are used for chlorination of water on large scale. If after chlorination taste of water is not much altered; level of residual chlorine is more stable and persistent. The likely agent to be used for chlorination was:
A. Chloramines
B. Chlorine gas
C. Perchloron
D. Bleaching powder

Answer: D Bleaching powder

260. Six of the ten family members living in a single room house complain of intense itching with scratching in axillae, groin and hands; it is more marked at night. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Scabies
B. Dermatitis
C. Eczema
D. Psoriasis

Answer: A Scabies

261. A Person working in compressed air chamber presented with symptoms of cough, dyspnoea and joint pains. This clinical presentation is suggestive of:
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Fat embolism
C. Air embolism
D. Rupture of spleen

Answer: C Air embolism

262. A survey on air pollution was conducted in an urban area to determine the major contaminant in air. The major contaminant estimated in all air pollution is:
A. Grit and dust
B. Sulphur dioxide
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Nitrogen dioxide

Answer: B Sulphur dioxide

263. Health education is the responsibility of
A. Health educationalist
B. Doctor
C. Paramedical staff
D. Every health worker

Answer: D Every health worker

264. A pregnant woman presented with pallor, shortness of breath, lethargy and palpitation. Her blood examination revealed hemoglobin level of 9 gm/dl. In your opinion what could be the probable deficiency in the woman?
A. Iron
B. Niacin
C. Vitamin C
D. Iodine

Answer: A Iron

265. A newly married couple visits family planning centre for contraception. Upon investigation the woman has hyperlipidemia. The method of contraception which would be used cautiously in this woman is:
A. Condom
B. Combined oral contraceptive pill
C. Second generation IUCD
D. Mini pill

Answer: B Combined oral contraceptive pill

266. A 30 years old lady having two kids wants to plan her family. On examination she is found to be anemia. She also gives history of ectopic pregnancy last year. The best method of contraception for her would be:
A. Lippe’s loop
B. Injectable contraceptives
C. Progestasert
D. Multi-load

Answer: B Injectable contraceptives

267. .For long term contraception, a sub -dermal implant known as “nor-plant” is being used now a days. The main disadvantage of Norplant is:
A. Spontaneous expulsion
B. Irregular menstrual bleeding
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy

Answer: B Irregular menstrual bleeding

268. A primary Gravida with O- ve blood group comes to labour room with labour pains. Her husband’s blood group is O+v In order to avoid Rh incompatibility in pregnancy, which measure would you take:
A. Administer AntiRh immunoglobulins at delivery
B. Serial ultrasonography
C. Chorionic villous biopsy
D. Amniocentesis

Answer: A Administer AntiRh immunoglobulins at delivery

269. An 8 weeks pregnant lady comes to gynae OPD for antenatal visit for the first time. She told the doctor that she has come from far off area and it’s not possible to come for her monthly antenatal visits. The doctor advised the minimum number of essential antenatal visits is:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Answer: A 3

270. An industrial worker reported to you with complaints of cough, history of dyspnoea on exertion and pain in the chest. His X-ray chest showed snow storm appearanc The diagnosis would be:
A. Asbestosis
B. Siderosis
C. Silicosis
D. Aspergillosis

Answer: C Silicosis

271. An occupational worker presented with complaints of exertional dyspnoe He gave history of being in an industry dealing with spare parts such as gas kit and brakes, he also gave history of smoking for about five years. His X-ray chest showed a ground glass appearance / honey combing in the lower two thirds of the lung fields. The likely condition that he suffers from is:
A. Silicosis
B. Anthracosis
C. Asbestosis
D. Siderosis

Answer: C Asbestosis

272. A worker who had been in the battery manufacturing unit for the last 20 years, reported to you with complaints of loss of appetite and abdominal colic of 2 weeks duration. You will prefer to investigate him for:
A. Cholecystitis
B. Lead poisoning
C. Appendicitis
D. Ca stomach

Answer: D Ca stomach

273. In a lead pipe factory, you want to carry out a screening programme in workers to exclude lead poisoning. Your choice of the most useful screening test will be measurement of:
A. Lead in blood
B. Lead in urine
C. Coproporphyrin in urine
D. Aminolaevulinic acid in urine

Answer: C Coproporphyrin in urine

274. The commonest physical health hazard in most industries is:
A. Heat
B. Noise
C. Humidity
D. Light

Answer: A Heat

275. A person aged 40 years, working as a laborer in grain market for the last 25 years presented with a history of repeated attacks of respiratory infections in the last 1 year. X-ray showed pulmonary fibrosis. The likely diagnosis was:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Silicosis
C. Silicotuberculosis
D. Farmer’s lung

Answer: D Farmer’s lung

276. Which disease is caused by fungus
A. Asbestosis
B. Siderosis
C. Aspergillosis
D. Silicosis

Answer: C Aspergillosis

277. A pottery industry worker developed symptoms of tuberculosis. The likely condition which resulted in tuberculosis was:
A. Anthracosis
B. Asbestosis
C. Begassosis
D. Silicosis

Answer: B Asbestosis

278. A shipyard worker presents with increasing breathlessness. His X-ray shows ground glass appearance in lower two thirds of lungs. He is likely to be suffering from:
A. Anthracosis
B. Silicosis
C. Asbestosis
D. Byssinosis

Answer: C Asbestosis

279. A research team conducted a nationwide survey of Industries and factories. While arranging the data they observed that the most common occupational cancer was:
A. CA lung
B. CA bladder
C. CA skin
D. Leukemia

Answer: C CA skin

280. An industrial worker presented with pulmonary tuberculosis. On X- rays Calcification and fibrosis were seen. The likely industry he had worked in is:
A. Sand blasting
B. Poultry
C. Cotton
D. Agriculture

Answer: A Sand blasting

281. Worker of lead foundry are tested for corpoporphyrin in the urine. This screening is:
A. Multiphasic
B. Targeted
C. Research
D. Mass

Answer: B Targeted

282. Accuracy of the screening test will depend upon:
A. Validity
B. Systemic error
C. Reliability
D. Random error

Answer: A Validity

283. With X representing the most accurate cutoff point for a diagnostic screening test, what does D represent:
A. False positives
B. True positives
C. False negatives
D. True negatives

Answer: A False positives

284. After excision of breast for Ca breast, a surgical reconstruction of breast tissue was don This reflects:
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Medical treatment

Answer: C Tertiary prevention

285. The median of the following data, is: 1,2,4,6,8,10,11,13
A. 6
B. 8
C. 7
D. 10

Answer: C 7

286. In study carried out in the hospital ward, every 10th admitted patient was included in the sample, which sampling procedure is this:
A. Random sampling
B. Stratified sampling
C. Quota sampling
D. Convenient sampling

Answer: D Convenient sampling

287. A school child is diagnosed to have chicken pox. He should be isolated from other school children till:
A. The scabs fall off
B. Two days after the scabs are formed
C. Three days after the fever develops
D. Five days after the development of pustules

Answer: A The scabs fall off

288. Your advice is sought to maintain sustainability of a health programm Which is the best and essential feature that you suggest to make the programme sustainable?
A. Community participation
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Cost analysis
D. Intersectoral collaboration

Answer: A Community participation

289. The absolute number of population of an area at any point in time is:
A. Count
B. Rate
C. Ratio
D. Proportion

Answer: A Count

290. 41A woman reports for vaccination against tetanus only 25 days before delivery; she has not received the first dose. What will you do?
A. Give anti tetanus immunoglobulin
B. Give two doses of tetanus toxoid with 2 weeks interval
C. Advise appropriate antibiotic course during delivery
D. Give one dose of tetanus toxoid and advice the second dose after delivery

Answer: D Give one dose of tetanus toxoid and advice the second dose after delivery

291. 42A woman in the seventh month of pregnancy reports to you in the antenatal clinic for the first time. The recommended immunization is by:
A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Rubella vaccine
D. Pneumococcal vaccine

Answer: A Tetanus toxoid

292. A women delivers a baby boy at term with Down’s syndrome. The most likely cause is:
A. An extra chromosome 21
B. No 2nd sex chromosome
C. Phenotypic effect only
D. Extra Y chromosome

Answer: A An extra chromosome 21

293. The policy of delaying marriage of girls till 20 years of age belongs to:
A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Disability limitation

Answer: A Primordial prevention

294. To prevent neonatal tetanus by TT injections during pregnancy is the:
A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Disability limitation

Answer: B Primary prevention

295. Antenatal service for detection of diseases which may lead to complications in pregnancy is an example of:
A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Disability limitation

Answer: C Secondary prevention

296. Management of deep vein thrombosis to arrest the progression of the disease is:
A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Disability limitation

Answer: D Disability limitation

297. There is an epidemic of Meningococcal Meningitis among jail prisoners. The best chemoprophylaxis for the protection of contacts is by giving:
A. Rifampicin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Chloroquine
D. Doxycycline

Answer: A Rifampicin

298. In a house consisting of two living rooms, the door and windows are facing each other. This will provide:
A. Low humidity
B. Aspiration
C. Cross ventilation
D. Diffusion

Answer: C Cross ventilation

299. A chronic alcoholic was complaining of loss of appetite and pain in lower legs. On examination his gate was ataxia. He is suffering from deficiency of:
A. Niacin
B. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
D. Folate

Answer: B Thiamine

300. The non-clinical Vit-A deficiency is more common as compared to the clinical, threatening the health of as many as one third of the world’s children. The best proxy indicator of this is:
A. Infant mortality rate
B. Maternal mortality rate
C. Literacy rate
D. Proportion of the rural population

Answer: A Infant mortality rate

301. Cigarette smoking increases the risk of acquiring cancer of:
A. Liver
B. Bones
C. Ovaries
D. Uterus

Answer: A Liver

302. Influenza pandemic occurs after every 7 – 10 years. This kind of disease distribution in time is known as:
A. Secular trend
B. Short time fluctuation
C. Cyclical trend
D. Seasonal trend

Answer: C Cyclical trend

303. A patient is suffering from AIDS. He is suffering from suppression of which of the following cells?
A. Monocytes
B. T- Cells
C. B-Cells
D. CD4 Cells

Answer: D CD4 Cells

304. What is the worldwide prevalence of obesity?
A. 11 %
B. 13 %
C. 15 %
D. 39 %

Answer: D 39 %

305. What is the definition of overweight?
A. BMI > 25 kg/m2
B. BMI = 25 kg/m2
C. BMI 25-29.9 kg/m
D. BMI 25-30 kg/m2

Answer: C BMI 25-29.9 kg/m

306. What are the main causes of the obesity epidemic?
A. Increased energy quantity/density and a more sedentary life-style
B. Decreased leisure time activity
C. Changes in genetic profiles
D. None of the options given is correct

Answer: A Increased energy quantity/density and a more sedentary life-style

307. Which of the following diseases does obesity increase the risk of developing?
A. Type 2 diabetes
B. Cancer
C. Cardiovascular disease
D. All of the options given are correct

Answer: C Cardiovascular disease

308. What is the energy need of a sedentary 43-year old woman who weighs 63 kg?
A. 1250 kcal/day
B. 1350 kcal/day
C. 1525 kcal/day
D. 1800 kcal/day

Answer: C 1525 kcal/day

309. What is leptin resistance?
A. Deficiency of leptin caused by a mutation in the leptin gene
B. Lack of leptin release from the adipose tissue
C. High concentrations of leptin without reduction in energy intake
D. Low concentrations of leptin with increased energy intake

Answer: C High concentrations of leptin without reduction in energy intake

310. What is the difference between LCD and VLCD?
A. VLCD provides less energy than LCD and usually does not include natural foods natural foods
B. LCD provides less energy than LCD and usually does not include natural foods natural foods
C. LCD provides less energy than VLCD and usually includes natural foods
D. VLCD provides less energy than LCD and usually includes natural foods

Answer: D VLCD provides less energy than LCD and usually includes natural foods

311. Why were low-carbohydrate diets not recommended previously?
A. Due to less weight loss efficacy
B. Due to low adherence to the diet
C. Due to the high protein content of the diet
D. Due to possible cardiovascular sideeffects

Answer: B Due to low adherence to the diet

312. What type of diet is recommended for weight maintenance?
A. Low protein and low GI
B. High protein and high GI
C. Low protein and high GI
D. High protein and low GI

Answer: A Low protein and low GI

313. Which drug(s) is/are approved for the treatment of obesity in Europe?
A. Orlistat
B. Phentermine/Topiramate
C. Lorcaserin
D. Naltrexone/Bupropion

Answer: C Lorcaserin

314. Bariatric surgery is used for obesity treatment but how much is the incidence of type 2 diabetes reduced in obese individuals after surgery?
A. 80-90%
B. No reduction in the incidence
C. Approximately 50 %
D. None of the options given is correct

Answer: D None of the options given is correct

315. Which of the mechanisms below can explain why high protein diets are optimal for weight loss and weight maintenance?
A. Synergistic effect of GLP-1 and PYY on the appetite centres in the brain
B. Preservation of lean body mass
C. A higher thermic effect of protein than carbohydrates and fats
D. All of the options above

Answer: D All of the options above

316. The time duration for the pasteurization is
A. 30 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 11 minutes

Answer: A 30 minutes

317. During pasteurization, the milk is heated for 30 minutes at
A. 97 °C
B. 83 °C
C. 72 °C
D. 61 °C

Answer: D 61 °C

318. In hospitals, the surgical instruments and plastics are washed with
A. Ethylene oxide
B. Iodine
C. Tincture
D. Chlorine

Answer: A Ethylene oxide

319. For the purification of swimming pools and water supplies of chemical used is
A. Alcohol
B. Chlorine
C. Iodine
D. Heavy metals

Answer: B Chlorine

320. The temperature required for the sterilization with dry heat is
A. 180 °C
B. 183 °C
C. 189 °C
D. 190 °C

Answer: A 180 °C

321. Which of the following diseases appeared as public health concern in the last quarter of 20th century
A. HIV
B. Ebola virus
C. Escherichia coli O157:H7
D. All of the above

Answer: D All of the above

322. A disease that becomes unusually widespread and even global in its reach is referred to as
A. Epidemic
B. Pandemic
C. Spanish flu
D. Hyperendemic

Answer: B Pandemic

323. Bhopal Gas Disaster is a kind of
A. Natural disaster
B. Manmade disaster
C. None of the above
D. All the above

Answer: B Manmade disaster

324. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is headed by
A. Prime Minister of India
B. President of India
C. Governor of States
D. Chief Minister of States

Answer: A Prime Minister of India

325. Volcanoes are generally found where
A. Intraplates pull apart or are coming together
B. Tectonic plates pull apart or are coming together
C. Earth’s crust pull apart or are coming together
D. None of these pull apart or are coming together

Answer: B Tectonic plates pull apart or are coming together

326. Volcanic erupted material when inside the hill/earth/mountain it is called
A. Lava
B. Magma
C. Lahars
D. None of these

Answer: B Magma

327. Which of the following is not a man-made hazard?
A. Leakage of Toxic waste
B. Wars and Civil Strife
C. Drought
D. Environmental Pollution

Answer: C Drought

328. Cyclones occurring in North Atlantic ocean are called
A. Typhoon
B. Hurricanes
C. Tornad
D. None of the above

Answer: B Hurricanes

329. Generally the number on Richter Scale ranges between –
A. 0 and 6
B. 0 and 9
C. 1 to 5
D. 1 to 12

Answer: B 0 and 9

330. Disaster Management includes:
A. Mitigation
B. Reconstruction
C. Rehabilitation
D. All of the above

Answer: D All of the above

331. In India National Institute of Disaster Management is located at
A. Manipur
B. Punjab
C. Hyderabad
D. New Delhi

Answer: D New Delhi

332. The Disaster Management Act was made in
A. 2006
B. 2003
C. 2005
D. 2009

Answer: C 2005

333. Which of the following is seasonally related hazard
A. Earthquake
B. Volcanic eruption
C. Terrorist attack
D. None of the above

Answer: D None of the above

334. The level of risk of a disaster depends on
A. Nature of the hazard
B. Vulnerability of the elements which are affected
C. Economic value of the elements which are affected
D. All of the above

Answer: D All of the above

335. Vulnerability analysis comes in which part of the Disaster Management Cycle
A. Mitigation
B. Preparedness
C. Response
D. Recovery

Answer: A Mitigation

336. The instrument which records earthquake wave is called
A. Climograph
B. Seismograph
C. Hythergraph
D. None of the above

Answer: B Seismograph

337. Which is known as seismic wave ?
A. Tsunami
B. Hurricane
C. El Nino
D. Typhoon

Answer: A Tsunami

338. Latur earthquake occurred in
A. 1991
B. 1992
C. 1993
D. 1994

Answer: C 1993

339. Which country is known as the most forest fire prone country in the world ?
A. Uganda
B. Canada
C. Australia
D. India

Answer: C Australia

340. What is it called when a large number of people in a community get a disease at the same time?
A. Influx
B. Black death
C. Epidemic
D. Pandemic

Answer: C Epidemic

341. In India, Cyclone is tracked through which satellite?
A. INSAT
B. IRS
C. Ocean SAT
D. None of the above

Answer: A INSAT

342. About 2/3rd of the cyclones that occur in the Indian coastline occur in the
A. Bay of Bengal
B. Coastal area of south India
C. Coastal area of west India
D. None of the above

Answer: A Bay of Bengal

343. International Tsunami information centre is in
A. Honolulu
B. Goa
C. Jakarta
D. Puducherry

Answer: A Honolulu

344. Hurricanes are common in
A. India
B. Bangladesh
C. USA
D. Australia

Answer: C USA

345. Bovine Tuberculosis are found in
A. Animals
B. Man
C. None of the Above
D. All of the Above

Answer: A Animals

346. The word Tsunami has been derived from
A. French word
B. Latin word
C. Japanese word
D. Greek word

Answer: C Japanese word

347. Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) calls a storm ‘Super cyclone” when the wind blows
A. More than 120 km /hour
B. More than 100km/hour
C. More than 220km/ hour
D. None of the above

Answer: C More than 220km/ hour

348. Which of the following is a non-precipitation food?
A. Coastal flood
B. Cloud burst flood
C. Flash flood
D. None of the above

Answer: A Coastal flood

349. Ultimate consequences of war are
A. Decline in human population
B. Outbreak of diseases and epidemics
C. Rise in refugees
D. All of the above

Answer: D All of the above

350. The total flood prone area in India is
A. 30%
B. 20%
C. 12%
D. 10%

Answer: C 12%

351. The total cyclone prone area in India is
A. . 15%
B. 10%
C. 8%
D. 20%

Answer: C 8%

352. The terrorist attack in Mumbai took place on
A. 2005
B. 2006
C. 2007
D. 2008

Answer: D 2008

353. In disaster management, mitigation measures involves
A. Governmental action and administration
B. Community action and administration
C. Military action and administration
D. None of the above

Answer: B Community action and administration

354. The State Disaster Management Authority is headed by
A. Governor
B. Chief minister
C. Chief Secretary of the State
D. None of the above

Answer: B Chief minister

355. The cycle of disaster consists of the following components
A. Mitigation, Preparedness,Response, Recovery
B. Preparedness, vulnerability assessment, risk assessment, recovery
C. Mitigation, Risk assessment, Response and Recovery
D. None of the above

Answer: A Mitigation, Preparedness,Response, Recovery

356. What is drought?
A. No rainfall for a long continuous period
B. Heavy rainfall for a long continuous period
C. Moderate rainfall for a long continuous period
D. None of the above

Answer: A No rainfall for a long continuous period

357. One of the main reasons for farmers commit suicide in India is
A. Crop failure
B. Earthquake
C. Tsunami
D. All of the above

Answer: A Crop failure

358. The highest peak of Tripura is
A. Bethling sib
B. Jarimura
C. Feng pui
D. Sakhan

Answer: A Bethling sib

359. DENV virus is related to which of the following diseases
A. Leptospirosis
B. Yellow fever
C. Japanese encephalitis
D. Dengue

Answer: D Dengue

360. Which of the following volcanoes is known for its most destructive volcanic eruption in recorded history
A. Mount Kilimanjaro
B. Mauna Loa
C. Krakatoa
D. Mount St Helens

Answer: C Krakatoa

361. United Nations disaster management team are responsible for solving problems resulting from disaster in
A. Asia
B. Africa
C. Australia
D. All continents

Answer: D All continents

362. Tsunami’s can occur only during
A. Evening
B. Afternoon
C. Any time of the day or night
D. Morning

Answer: C Any time of the day or night

363. According to Ayurved healthy person should have the functions of
A. Sama Doshas and Sama Dhatus
B. Sama Agni and Sama Mala
C. Prassana Atma, Indriya and Manas
D. All of them

Answer: D All of them

364. Which one among the following elements/ions is essential in small quantities for development of healthy teeth but causes mottling of the teeth if consumed in higher quantities?
A. Iron
B. Chloride
C. Fluoride
D. Potassium

Answer: C Fluoride

365. Among the given nutrients milk is a poor source of
A. Calcium
B. Protein
C. Carbohydrate
D. Vitamin C

Answer: D Vitamin C

366. Which one of the following is essential for preventing dental caries?
A. Flourine
B. Iodine
C. Iron
D. Zinc

Answer: A Flourine

367. The vitamin necessary for coagulation of blood is
A. Vitamin B
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin E

Answer: C Vitamin K

368. Which one among the following minerals is essential for the transmission of nerve impulses in the nerve fibres of human body?
A. Calcium
B. Cobalt
C. Iodine
D. Sodium

Answer: D Sodium

369. Which one of the following mineral elements is required for muscle contraction?
A. Calcium
B. Iron
C. Sodium
D. Zinc

Answer: A Calcium

370. Besides carbohydrates, a major source of energy in our food is constituted by
A. Proteins
B. Fats
C. Minerals
D. Vitamins

Answer: B Fats

371. Pulses are a good source of –
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Fats
D. Vitamins

Answer: B Proteins

372. A person suffering from high blood pressure should avoid foods which are rich in
A. Sodium
B. Iodine
C. Calcium
D. Iron

Answer: A Sodium

373. Which of the following food constituents is not digested but is still important for us?
A. vitamins
B. Minerals
C. proteins
D. Fibre

Answer: D Fibre

374. Which of the following is not an artificial sweetener?
A. saccharin
B. aspartame
C. sucrose
D. Neotame

Answer: C sucrose

375. Which of the following is considered a complete protein food?
A. Almond
B. Horse gram
C. Soya bean
D. Cashew nut

Answer: C Soya bean

376. Which of the following nutrients is needed for a healthy immune system?
A. Calcium
B. Iodine
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin C

Answer: D Vitamin C

377. Which of the following is a rich source of Omega-3 oils?
A. Dairy products
B. Cod-liver oil
C. Vegetables
D. Wheat products

Answer: B Cod-liver oil

378. Recently a compound Sulforaphane has been discovered to offer protection against cancer. In which of the following can it be found?
A. Milk
B. Fish
C. Tea
D. Broccoli

Answer: D Broccoli

379. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin and hence is required to be taken every day?
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin A

Answer: B Vitamin C

380. Which of the following works with calcium to build strong bones
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin C
C. Phosphorus
D. Iron

Answer: A Vitamin D

381. Which of the following is considered an easily digestible source of protein?
A. Egg albumin
B. Soyabean
C. Fish flesh
D. Red meat

Answer: B Soyabean

382. Washing of peeled vegetables removes the vitamin?
A. E
B. D
C. C
D. B

Answer: C C

383. Which of the following metals is a constituent of Vitamin B12?
A. Iron
B. Magnesium
C. Zinc
D. Cobalt

Answer: D Cobalt

384. Milk, cheese and eggs are the sources of
A. Vitamin C and A
B. Vitamin A and D
C. Vitamin C and D
D. Vitamin B and C

Answer: B Vitamin A and D

385. Piperine is a compound found in
A. pepper
B. turmeric
C. cardamom
D. cloves

Answer: A pepper

386. Consider the following statements:
1. Brinjal is a good source of iron.
2. Pumpkin is a good source of Vitamin A. Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C Both 1 and 2

387. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Fats
C. Proteins
D. Vitamins

Answer: B Fats

388. Sweetex used by the diabetic patients has energy content of –
A. Five calories
B. Ten calories
C. Hundred calories
D. Zero calorie

Answer: D Zero calorie

389. Which of the following food items is rich in iron ?
A. Rice
B. Apple
C. Pulses
D. Orange

Answer: C Pulses

390. Which of the following is also sometimes referred to as Vitamin H?
A. Keratin
B. Niacin
C. Biotin
D. Riboflavin

Answer: C Biotin

391. Which of the following contains lauric acid which is used treat certain infections and also in the manufacture of soaps?
A. Coconut Oil
B. Olive Oil
C. Mustard Oil
D. Butter

Answer: A Coconut Oil

392. Ideal temperature for storage of DPT vaccine at PHC level is
A. 0 °C
B. 2 to 8 °C
C. Room temperature
D. –20 °C

Answer: B 2 to 8 °C

393. Most of the ElTor vibrios isolated in India belong to the
A. Inaba serotype
B. Ogawa serotype
C. Hitojima serotype
D. NAG serotype

Answer: B Ogawa serotype

394. 11. The Dosage of Fenthion used as Larvicide in mosquito control is
A. 1 to 2 g/hectare
B. 2 to 20 g/hectare
C. 224 to 672 g/hectare
D. 22 to 112 g/hectare

Answer: D 22 to 112 g/hectare

395. The incubation period of tetanus is usually
A. 2 to 5 days
B. 6 to 10 days
C. 12 to 15 days
D. 15 to 20 days

Answer: B 6 to 10 days

396. The cut off point for blood lead level above which clinical symptoms appear is
A. 20 μg/100 ml
B. 50 μg/100 ml
C. 70 μg/100 ml
D. 100 μg/100 ml

Answer: C 70 μg/100 ml

397. The commonest side effect of IUCD is
A. Pain
B. Pelvic infections
C. Uterine perforation
D. Increased vaginal bleeding

Answer: D Increased vaginal bleeding

398. Sample registration system was initiated to provide
A. Reliable estimates of birth and death rates at National and State levels
B. Reliable estimates of population size
C. Reliable estimates of morbidity pattern
D. Reliable cause of death at National and State level

Answer: A Reliable estimates of birth and death rates at National and State levels

399. 13. Gomez classification of PEM is based on
A. weight for age
B. weight for height
C. height for age
D. mid arm circumference

Answer: A weight for age

400. 18. Net Protein Utilization (NPU) is estimated from
A. Biological value alone
B. Biological value and protein efficiency ratio
C. Biological value and digestibility coefficient
D. Protein efficiency ratio alone

Answer: C Biological value and digestibility coefficient

401. Which of the following diseases is found in India?
A. West Nile fever
B. Murray valley encephalitis
C. Yellow fever
D. Colorado tick fever

Answer: A West Nile fever

402. What is the population norm for mini- Anganwadi centre in a tribal/ desert/ riverine/hilly and other difficult areas?
A. 150 – 300
B. 300 – 400
C. 100 – 200
D. 150 – 250

Answer: A 150 – 300

403. Trypsin inhibitor is present in
A. Hen egg
B. Duck egg
C. Milk
D. Fish

Answer: B Duck egg

404. The life cycle of Malarial parasites in man may be described as
A. Propagative
B. Cyclo-propagative
C. Cyclo-developmental
D. A sexual cycle

Answer: D A sexual cycle

405. 19. Sick New Born Care Units (SNCUS) are established at which of the following facilities?
A. First Referral unit
B. District Hospital
C. Community Health Centre
D. Medical College

Answer: B District Hospital

406. Under the ‘Nutrition Programme for Adolescent Girls’ the nutrition provided to each beneficiary is
A. 600 calories through food per day
B. 6 kg of free food grain per month
C. Rs. 6 for buying food per day
D. 6 gm proteins through food per day

Answer: B 6 kg of free food grain per month

407. ‘Ujjawala’ is a comprehensive scheme launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to combat
A. Child labour
B. Child abuse
C. Child trafficking
D. Juvenile Delinquency

Answer: C Child trafficking

408. Supplementary nutrition given to children, aged 6-72 months who are severely malnourished under ICDS is
A. 800 calories and 20-25 gm protein everyday
B. 500 calories and 15-20 gm protein everyday
C. 1000 calories and 20-25 gm protein everyday
D. 600 calories and 15-20 gm protein everyday

Answer: A 800 calories and 20-25 gm protein everyday

409. Which of the following methods is used to remove the permanent hardness of water?
A. Boiling
B. Adding lime
C. Permutit process
D. Adding sodium carbonate

Answer: C Permutit process

410. The cut off point for diagnosis of anaemia in children aged 6-14 years as recommended by WHO Expert Group is
A. 13.8 g/dl haemoglobin
B. 11.5 g/dl haemoglobin
C. 12 g/dl haemoglobin
D. 10 g/dl haemoglobin

Answer: C 12 g/dl haemoglobin

411. Under the Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme monthly pension is given to
A. People aged more than 60 years and who are below poverty line
B. People aged more than 65 years and who are below poverty line
C. People aged more than 62 years and who are below poverty line
D. Destitute elderly

Answer: B People aged more than 65 years and who are below poverty line

412. A corrected effective temperature of how many degree Celsius is considered comfortable in India?
A. 20 °C – 30 °C
B. 20 °C – 25 °C
C. 27 °C – 30 °C
D. 25 °C – 27 °C

Answer: D 25 °C – 27 °C

413. Pasteurization of milk effectively kills all the following except:
A. fever organisms
B. Tubercle bacilli
C. Salmonella
D. Bacterial spores

Answer: D Bacterial spores

414. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to which molecule?
A. Chlorine
B. Hypochlorine
C. Hydrogen
D. Hypochlorous

Answer: D Hypochlorous

415. Waste water from kitchen is called
A. Refuse
B. Sullage
C. Garbage
D. Sewage

Answer: B Sullage

416. Source reduction in mosquito control comprises of
A. Genetic engineering techniques
B. Personal protection against bites
C. Space sprays
D. Minor engineering methods

Answer: D Minor engineering methods

417. In a mosquito, period between a blood meal until eggs are laid is called
A. Serial interval
B. Genotrophic cycle
C. Extrinsic incubation period
D. Generation time

Answer: B Genotrophic cycle

418. 31. Which indicator is included in Human development index?
A. Infant mortality rate
B. Maternal mortality rate
C. Life expectancy at birth
D. Proportion of immunized children

Answer: C Life expectancy at birth

419. Which is not a constituent of oral rehydration fluid
A. Glucose
B. Calcium lactate
C. Sodium chloride
D. Potassium Chloride

Answer: B Calcium lactate

420. The minimum number of antenatal visits recommended for a pregnant woman in India is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 6

Answer: B 4

421. Abdominal fat accumulation is indicated by waist hip ratio of
A. more than 1.0 in men and more than 0.85 in women
B. more than 0.85 in men and more than 0.5 in women
C. more than 1.0 in men and more than 1.0 in women
D. more than 1.5 in men and more than 0.85 in women

Answer: A more than 1.0 in men and more than 0.85 in women

422. The only cancer in which some cases show spontaneous regression without treatment is
A. Cancer breast
B. Lung cancer
C. Cancer cervix
D. Oral cancer

Answer: C Cancer cervix

423. Which one is the most important single determinant of Infant mortality?
A. Mother’s age
B. Family size
C. Order of birth
D. Birth weight

Answer: D Birth weight

424. The Body Mass Index (BMI) for a normal adult is
A. 13.5 – 17.99
B. 18.5 – 24.99
C. 25.5 – 30.99
D. 31.5 – 35.99

Answer: B 18.5 – 24.99

425. Specificity of a test refers to its ability to detect
A. True positive
B. False positive
C. True negative
D. False negative

Answer: C True negative

426. The incidence of Hydatid disease is highest in
A. Northern India
B. Eastern India
C. Southern India
D. Western India

Answer: C Southern India

427. Primary health care concept was formed by Alma ata Conference in
A. 1950
B. 1970
C. 1978
D. 1998

Answer: C 1978

428. The daily requirement of Iodine in adult male
A. 10 μ gm/day
B. 50 μ gm/day
C. 100 μ gm/day
D. 150 μ gm/day

Answer: D 150 μ gm/day

429. The commonest opportunistic infection associated with HIV in India is
A. Cryptosporidiosis
B. Herpes simplex
C. Tuberculosis
D. Pneumocystis pneumonia

Answer: C Tuberculosis

430. For every case of paralytic poliomyelitis the estimated no. Of subclinical cases are
A. 10
B. 100
C. 400
D. 1000

Answer: D 1000

431. Residual action of HCH lasts for
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 10 months
D. 12 months

Answer: B 3 months

432. 48. The most common site of cancer in males in India is
A. Lung
B. Prostate
C. Oro-pharynx
D. Esophagus

Answer: A Lung

433. During which Five Year Plan Family Planning Programme was renamed as Family Welfare Programme?
A. Second
B. Third
C. Fourth
D. Fifth Five Year Plan

Answer: D Fifth Five Year Plan

434. When was the Health Policy first formulation in India?
A. 1983
B. 1993
C. 1973
D. 2003

Answer: A 1983

435. Population growth rate is rated to be explosive if the annual growth rate exceeds
A. 0.5%
B. 1.0%
C. 1.5%
D. 2.0%

Answer: D 2.0%

436. Most difficult criterion to establish causal association in etiology of disease is
A. Temporality
B. Strength of association
C. Specificity of association
D. Biological plausibility

Answer: C Specificity of association

437. Sullivan’s index indicates
A. Life free disability
B. Pregnancy rate per Hundred Women Years (HWY
C. Hook worm eggs/gm of stool
D. Standard of living

Answer: A Life free disability

438. Odds ratio for estimation of strength of association is calculated in
A. Cross sectional study
B. Cohort study
C. Intervential study
D. Case-control study

Answer: D Case-control study

439. External validity of a study indicates
A. Reproducibility
B. Credibility
C. Generalizability
D. Compatability

Answer: C Generalizability

440. If the prevalence is very low as compared to the incidence of a disease, it implies
A. The disease has low mortality.
B. The disease is very fatal and/easily curable
C. The disease has a long latent period
D. The disease has a short latent period

Answer: B The disease is very fatal and/easily curable

441. Number of live births per thousand women in the reproductive age group in a given year is known as
A. General Fertility Rate (GFR
B. Total Fertility Rate (TFR
C. Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR
D. Net Reproduction Rate (NRR

Answer: A General Fertility Rate (GFR

442. There are no subclinical cases in which of the following infectious diseases?
A. Measles
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Cholera
D. Diphtheria

Answer: A Measles

443. In estimation of statistical probability, Z score is applicable to
A. Normal distribution
B. Skewed distribution
C. Binomial distribution
D. Poisson distribution

Answer: A Normal distribution

444. Statistical power of a study is related to
A. α error
B. β error
C. systematic error
D. γ error

Answer: B β error

445. Yellow fever is absent in India because
A. Climatic conditions are not favourable
B. Virus is not present
C. Vector mosquito is absent
D. Population is immune to the disease

Answer: B Virus is not present

446. Fast breathing in a two years old child is recognised at
A. ≥ 60 breaths
B. ≥ 50 breaths
C. ≥ 40 breaths
D. ≥ 30 breaths

Answer: C ≥ 40 breaths

447. A case of acute flaccid paralysis must be observed for how many days for residual paralysis after onset of paralysis?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days

Answer: D 60 days

448. The non-modifiable risk factor for hypertension is
A. Obesity
B. Stress
C. Salt intake
D. Age

Answer: D Age

449. Which of the following indirect causes contribute most for maternal mortality in India?
A. Anaemia
B. Pregnancy with T.B.
C. Pregnancy with Malaria
D. Pregnancy with Hepatitis

Answer: A Anaemia

450. Commonly affected site of occupational cancer is
A. Cervix
B. Tongue
C. Skin
D. Brain

Answer: C Skin

451. Lathyrism affects one of the following system:
A. Gastro intestinal system
B. Renal system
C. Cardio vascular system
D. Central nervous system

Answer: D Central nervous system

452. Adolescent age starts from according to WHO
A. 9 years
B. 10 years
C. 14 years
D. 15 years

Answer: B 10 years

453. Which of the following is not a norm for the delivery of health and family welfare services to rural community in the hilly regions?
A. One CHC per 80,000 persons
B. One sub-centre per 3000 persons
C. One PHC per 20000 persons
D. One ASHA per 1000 persons

Answer: D One ASHA per 1000 persons

454. National Malaria Control Programme was rechristened as National Malaria Eradication Program in 1958. When was the National Anti-Malaria Programme introduced?
A. 1979
B. 1999
C. 1989
D. 2009

Answer: B 1999

455. Under ICDS which of the following services are not delivered through the Anganwadi centre?
A. Sports training to children below 5 years
B. Growth monitoring
C. Nutritional supplement
D. Pre-school education

Answer: A Sports training to children below 5 years

456. Which of the following States in India ranks poorest in nutritional status of children below 5 years of age?
A. Chhatisgarh
B. Orissa
C. Uttarakhand
D. Jharkhand

Answer: D Jharkhand

457. Which of the following institutions is responsible for issues pertaining to health education?
A. ICMR
B. CBHI
C. CHEB
D. NIMS

Answer: C CHEB

458. Care at birth requires five cleans. Which of the following is not among them?
A. Clean hands
B. Clean cord tie
C. Clean water tap
D. Clean razor blade

Answer: C Clean water tap

459. 1. The following vaccine is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine:
A. Measles
B. BCG
C. Salk Vaccine
D. Hepatitis B Vaccine

Answer: B BCG

460. Against which of the viral hepatitis, vaccine is currently available in India?
I. Hepatitis A
II. Hepatitis B
III. Hepatitis C
IV. Hepatitis D
A. I and II are correct.
B. I and III are correct.
C. I and IV are correct.
D. II and IV are correct.

Answer: A I and II are correct.

461. Where is the WHO established international laboratory for monitoring and studying air pollution, located in India?
A. Delhi
B. Pune
C. Nagpur
D. Mumbai

Answer: C Nagpur

462. The type of Pneumoconiosis that cotton dust causes is known as
A. Bagassosis
B. Byssinosis
C. Anthrocosis
D. Silicosis

Answer: B Byssinosis

463. The drug given prophylactically to prevent parent-to-child transmission of HIV infection under NACO is
A. Zidovudine
B. Nevirapine
C. Ritonavir
D. Saguinavir

Answer: B Nevirapine

464. ‘Nirmal Gram Abhiyan’ deals with which of the following?
A. Soft loan for the villages
B. Education of the villagers
C. Sanitation incentives for the villages
D. State award for sanitation

Answer: C Sanitation incentives for the villages

465. While studying health and illness, who propounded the notion of ‘Sick Role’ from among the following?
A. Talcott Parsons
B. Karl Marx
C. Weber
D. Francis Bacon

Answer: A Talcott Parsons

466. Point prevalence overestimates the disease with
A. High incidence
B. Low incidence
C. Low mortality
D. High mortality

Answer: C Low mortality

467. Nested case – control study is a type of
A. Retrospective study
B. Prospective study
C. Descriptive study
D. Cross-sectional study

Answer: B Prospective study

468. Bhopal Gas Tragedy is an example of
A. Point source epidemic
B. Propagated epidemic
C. Continuous epidemic
D. Modern epidemic

Answer: A Point source epidemic

469. Which of the following is an internationally notifiable disease?
A. Diphtheria
B. Tuberculosis
C. Yellow Fever
D. Malaria

Answer: C Yellow Fever

470. Which of the following of the millennium Development Goals is to ‘Develop a global partnership for development’?
A. Goal 5
B. Goal 4
C. Goal 8
D. Goal 1

Answer: C Goal 8

471. Correctly identify ICMR recommended dietary intakes for a normal adult male doing sedentary work.
I. Cereals – 460 gms
II. Milk – 250 gms
III. Green leafy vegetables – 100 gms
IV. Pulses – 40 gms
A. I and II are correct
B. II and III are correct
C. I and IV are correct
D. II and IV are correct

Answer: C I and IV are correct

472. Which of the following are the asymmetrical frequency distributions?
I. Normal Distribution
II. Bimodal Distribution
III. ‘J’ shaped Distribution
IV. ‘V’ shaped Distribution
A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and IV are correct
C. II, III and IV are correct
D. I and II are correct

Answer: C II, III and IV are correct

473. Correctly identify the inherent properties of a screening test:
I. Yield
II. Sensitivity
III. Specificity
IV. Predictive Accuracy
A. II and IV are correct
B. I and III are correct
C. I, II and IV are correct
D. II, III and IV are correct

Answer: D II, III and IV are correct

474. The earlier centres for Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) through surrogacy in India were in which of the following States?
I. Karnataka
II. Gujarat
III. Delhi
IV. Maharashtra
A. I and II are correct
B. II and IV are correct
C. I and III are correct
D. II, III and IV are correct

Answer: B II and IV are correct

475. Medical tourism is fast becoming a growing industry in India. Name the States which
are major contributors to medical tourism.
I. Kerala
II. Himachal Pradesh
III. Andhra Pradesh
IV. Rajasthan
A. II, III and IV are correct
B. I, III and IV are correct
C. I, II and IV are correct
D. I, II and III are correct

Answer: D I, II and III are correct

476. Which of the following are probability sampling methods?
I. Simple Random Sampling
II. Cluster Sampling
III. Stratified Sampling
IV. Quota Sampling
A. II and IV are correct
B. I, II and III are correct
C. I, II and IV are correct
D. II and III are correct

Answer: B I, II and III are correct

477. Which of the following are parametric test of significance?
I. Analysis of variance
II. χ2 test
III. ‘t’ test
IV. ‘Z’ test
A. I and II are correct
B. II and IV are correct
C. I and III are correct
D. I, III and IV are correct

Answer: D I, III and IV are correct

478. Which of the following are measures of dispersion?
I. Mean Deviation
II. Mode
III. Standard Deviation
IV. Inter-quartile range
A. I and II are correct
B. I, III and IV are correct
C. II, III and IV are correct
D. I and III are correct

Answer: B I, III and IV are correct

479. Which of the following is a vaccine preventable disease?
A. Malaria
B. HIV/AIDS
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Dengue fever

Answer: C Poliomyelitis

480. Orthotoluidine test determines
A. Free chlorine
B. Residual chlorine
C. Combined chlorine
D. Both free and combined chlorine

Answer: D Both free and combined chlorine

481. Use of Oral Rehydration solution in place of Intravenous fluids for treating mild dehydration is an example of
A. Equitable distribution
B. Inter-sectoral co-ordination
C. Appropriate technology
D. Community participation

Answer: C Appropriate technology

482. Sex ratio in the Indian context is expressed as
A. Number of males per 1000 females.
B. Number of females per 1000 males.
C. Number of males per 100 females.
D. Number of females per 100 males.

Answer: B Number of females per 1000 males.

483. Sentinal surveillance is done for identifying
A. Missed cases
B. Index case
C. Sub-clinical cases
D. Carriers

Answer: A Missed cases

484. Cereals are deficient in which amino acid?
A. Lysine
B. Methionine
C. Leucine
D. Tryptophans

Answer: A Lysine

485. Ergonomics refers to
A. Social Engineering
B. Genetic Engineering
C. Human Engineering
D. Occupational Alterations

Answer: C Human Engineering

486. Which of the following countries comes under W.H.O. South East Asia Region?
A. Pakistan
B. Afghanistan
C. Myanmar
D. Egypt

Answer: C Myanmar

487. AedesAegypti is a vector that transmits
A. Malaria
B. Filaria
C. Dengue fever
D. Diarrhoeal Diseases

Answer: C Dengue fever

488. Minimum interval between two doses of Vaccines should be
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 8 weeks

Answer: B 4 weeks

489. Sensitivity of a screening test is the ability to correctly identify
A. True positives
B. True negatives
C. False positives
D. False negatives

Answer: A True positives

490. Anti-tetanus serum is prepared from
A. Rat
B. Rabbit
C. Guinea pig
D. Horse

Answer: D Horse

491. Which of the following is the most important cause of Infant Mortality in India?
A. Respiratory infections
B. Low Birth Weight (LBW
C. Diarrhoeal Diseases
D. Cord infections

Answer: B Low Birth Weight (LBW

492. Which one of the following indices is regarded as the most sensitive index of recent transmission of malaria in a locality?
A. Parasite Rate
B. Spleen Rate
C. Infant Parasite Rate
D. Average Enlarged spleen

Answer: C Infant Parasite Rate

493. In which one of the following cities was the First International Sanitary Conference held in the year 1851?
A. Geneva
B. Paris
C. Copenhagen
D. London

Answer: B Paris

494. Which of the following areas in India is ‘Rabies Free’?
A. Goa
B. Nagland
C. Sikkim
D. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answer: D Andaman and Nicobar Islands

495. The term ‘Comprehensive health care’ was used for the first time by which of the following committees?
A. Bhore Committee
B. Mukerji Committee
C. Jungalwalla Committee
D. Kartar Singh Committee

Answer: A Bhore Committee

496. Which of the following is the goal to be achieved by 2015 as per the National Health Policy 2002?
A. Eradicate Polio and Yaws
B. Eliminate Leprosy
C. Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis
D. Achieve Zero growth of HIV/AIDS

Answer: C Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis

497. The Births, Deaths and Marriages Registration Act was passed by the Government of India in the year:
A. 1872
B. 1975
C. 1873
D. 1985

Answer: C 1873

498. Which of the following is the maximum intensity of sound that can be tolerated by humans on a daily basis in decibels (dB) without substantial damage to their hearing?
A. 60 dB
B. 85 dB
C. 100 dB
D. 120 dB

Answer: B 85 dB

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