Advanced Software Engineering and Technology Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
1. Object oriented analysis and design can be handled by the one who knows UML.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
b. false
Clarification: the unified modeling language includes a set of graphic notation techniques to create visual models of object-oriented software-intensive systems.
2. At Conceptual level Class diagrams should include
a. operations only
b. attributes only
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of the mentioned
Answer:
b. attributes only
Clarification: in software engineering, a class diagram in the unified modeling language (uml) is a type of static structure diagram that describes the structure of a system by showing the system’s classes, their attributes, operations, and the relationships among objects.
3. Select the statement true for activity diagrams.
a. they can be used to discover parallel activities
b. they are used to depict workflow for a particular business activity
c. activity diagram do not tell who does what and are difficult to trace back to object models
d. all of the mentioned
Answer:
d. all of the mentioned
Clarification: activity diagrams are graphical representations of workflows of step wise activities and actions with support for choice, iteration and concurrency.
4. Constraints can be represented in UML by
a. {text}
b. [text] c) constraint
c. d) none of the mentioned
Answer:
a. {text}
Clarification: constraints are represented by {text string}.
5. What is an object?
a. an object is an instance of a class.
b. an object includes encapsulation of data
c. an object is not an instance of a class
Answer:
a. an object is an instance of a class.
Clarification: an object is an instance of a class.
6. What is an abstract class?
a. a class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances.
b. a class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances.
c. a class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances.
Answer:
c. a class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances.
Clarification: an abstract type is a type in a nominative type system which cannot be instantiated directly.
7. Which of the following are the valid relationships in Use Case Diagrams
a. generalization
b. include
c. extend
d. all of the mentioned
Answer:
d. all of the mentioned
Clarification: generalization, include, extend all of these are valid relationships in use case diagrams.
8. Which of the following statement(s) is true about interaction diagrams?
a. interaction diagrams are at their best when they deal with one main design flow and not multiple variants that can happen.
b. interaction diagrams are good at designing part or all of one use case’s functionality across multiple objects.
c. interaction diagrams allow the analyst to show iteration and conditional execution for messaging between objects.
d. all of these
Answer:
d. all of these
Clarification: interaction diagram is used to describe some type of interactions among the different elements in the model. so this interaction is a part of dynamic behaviour of the system.
9. UML interfaces are used to:
a. specify required services for types of objects.
b. program in java, but not in c++ or smalltalk.
c. define executable logic to reuse across classes.
d. define an api for all classes.
Answer:
a. specify required services for types of objects.
Clarification: an interface is like a template design for a class that contains no data or implementation; only definitions for methods, properties etc.
10. Referring to the attached diagram, the arrow indicates:
a. navigability
b. dependency
c. association
d. refers to
Answer:
a. navigability
Clarification: the arrows describe the ways you can navigate.
11. Which of the following is a building block of UML?
a. things
b. relationships
c. diagrams
d. all of the mentioned
Answer:
d. all of the mentioned
Clarification: all are the building blocks of uml which are further sub-categorized.
12. Classes and interfaces are a part of
a. structural things
b. behavioral things
c. grouping things
d. annotational things
Answer:
a. structural things
Clarification: structural things are mostly static parts of a model, representing elements that are either conceptual or physical.
13. .What is a collection of operations that specify a service of a class or component?
a. use case
b. actor
c. interface
d. relationship
Answer:
c. interface
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
14. What can be requested from any object of the class to affect behavior?
a. object
b. attribute
c. operation
d. instance
Answer:
c. operation
Clarification: an operation is the implementation of a service that can be requested from any object of the class to affect behavior.
15. Which things are dynamic parts of UML models?
a. structural things
b. behavioral things
c. grouping things
d. annotational things
Answer:
b. behavioral things
Clarification: these are the verbs of a model, representing behavior over time and space.
16. Which diagram in UML emphasizes the time-ordering of messages?
a. activity
b. sequence
c. collaboration
d. class
Answer:
b. sequence
Clarification: this diagram is a model describing how groups of objects collaborate in some behavior over time.
17. Object diagram captures the behavior of a single use case.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
b. false
Clarification: sequence diagram is responsible for this.
18. If you are working on real-time process control applications or systems that involve concurrent processing, you would use a
a. activity diagram
b. sequence diagram
c. statechart diagram
d. object diagram
Answer:
c. statechart diagram
Clarification: a statechart diagram shows a state machine, consisting of states, transitions, events, and activities.
19. Which diagram shows the configuration of run-time processing elements?
a. deployment diagram
b. component diagram
c. node diagram
d. er-diagram
Answer:
a. deployment diagram
Clarification: a deployment diagram shows the configuration of run-time processing elements and the software components, processes, and objects.
20. Which things in UML are the explanatory parts of UML models?
a. structural things
b. behavioral things
c. grouping things
d. annotational things
Answer:
d. annotational things
Clarification: it include a note which is simply a symbol for rendering constraints and comments attached to an element or a collection of elements.
21. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”a structural relationship that specifies that objects of one thing are connected to objects of another”?
a. association
b. aggregation
c. realization
d. generalization
Answer:
a. association
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
22. What refers to the value associated with a specific attribute of an object and to any actions or side?
a. object
b. state
c. interface
d. none of the mentioned
Answer:
b. state
Clarification: in a state chart diagram, effects occur when the attribute’s value changes.
23. Which of the following UML diagrams has a static view?
a. collaboration
b. use case
c. state chart
d. activity
Answer:
b. use case
Clarification: a use case diagrams captures only the functionality of the system whereas a dynamic model/view captures the functions as well as the action.
24. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a modeled system at a specific time?
a. sequence diagram
b. collaboration diagram
c. class diagram
d. object diagram
Answer:
d. object diagram
Clarification: an object diagram focuses on some particular set of object instances and attributes, and the links between the instances. it is a static snapshot of a dynamic view of the system.
25. Interaction Diagram is a combined term for
a. sequence diagram + collaboration diagram
b. activity diagram + state chart diagram
c. deployment diagram + collaboration diagram
d. none of the mentioned
Answer:
a. sequence diagram + collaboration diagram
Clarification: interaction diagram are used to formalize the dynamic behavior of the system.
26. Structure diagrams emphasize the things that must be present in the system being modeled.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
a. true
Clarification: since structure diagrams represent the structure they are used extensively in documenting the architecture of software systems
27. Which of the following diagram is time oriented?
a. collaboration
b. sequence
c. activity
Answer:
b. sequence
Clarification: a sequence diagrams timeline along which tasks are completed
28. How many diagrams are here in Unified Modelling Language?
a. six
b. seven
c. eight
d. nine
Answer:
d. nine
Clarification: the nine uml diagrams include use-case, sequence, collaboration, activity, state-chart, deployment, class, object and component.
29. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed object-oriented design?
a. designing system architecture
b. developing design models
c. specifying interfaces
d. developing a debugging system
Answer:
d. developing a debugging system
Clarification: the debugging system is a part of testing phase.
30. Which of the following is a dynamic model that shows how the system interacts with its environment as it is used?
a. system context model
b. interaction model
c. environmental model
d. both system context and interaction
Answer:
b. interaction model
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
31. Which of the following is a structural model that demonstrates the other systems in the environment of the system being developed?
a. system context model
b. interaction model
c. environmental model
d. both system context and interaction
Answer:
a. system context model
Clarification: the context model of a system may be represented using associations. associations simply show that there are some relationships between the entities involved in the association.
32. Which of the following come under system control?
a. reconfigure
b. shutdown
c. powersave
d. all of the mentioned
Answer:
d. all of the mentioned
Clarification: functionalities are governed by the system.
33. We use _________ where various parts of system use are identified and analyzed in turn.
a. tangible entities
b. scenario-based analysis
c. design-based analysis
d. none of the mentioned
Answer:
b. scenario-based analysis
Clarification: use a scenario-based analysis where various scenarios of system use are identified and analyzed in turn.
34. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their relationships?
a. sequence model
b. subsystem model
c. dynamic model
d. structural model
Answer:
d. structural model
Clarification: important relationships that may be documented at this stage are generalization (inheritance) relationships, uses/used-by relationships, and composition relationships.
35. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?
a. sequence model
b. subsystem model
c. dynamic model
d. both sequence and dynamic model
Answer:
a. sequence model
Clarification: sequence model are represented using a uml sequence or a collaboration diagram and are dynamic models
36. If the system state is Shutdown then it can respond to which of the following message?
a. restart()
b. reconfigure()
c. powersave()
d. all of the mentioned
Answer:
d. all of the mentioned
Clarification: a restart() message causes a transition to normal operation. both the powersave() and reconfigure() messages cause a transition to a state in which the system reconfigures itself.
37. Which message is received so that the system moves to the Testing state, then the Transmitting state, before returning to the Running state?
a. signalstatus()
b. remotecontrol()
c. reconfigure()
d. reportstatus()
Answer:
d. reportstatus()
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
38. Open source development involves making the source code of a system publicly available.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
a. true
Clarification: this means that many people can propose changes and improvements to the software.
39. Which of the following is not the primary objectives in the analysis model?
a. describing the customer complaints
b. establishing a basis for the creation of a software design
c. defining a set of requirements that can be validated once the software is built
d. none of the mentioned
Answer:
d. none of the mentioned
Clarification: all the options are covered in analysis model.
40. A description of each function presented in the DFD is contained in a ________.
a. data flow
b. process specification
c. control specification
d. data store
Answer:
b. process specification
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
41. Which diagram indicates the behaviour of the system as a consequence of external events?
a. data flow diagram
b. state transition diagram
c. control specification diagram
d. workflow diagram
Answer:
b. state transition diagram
Clarification: the state transition diagram represents the various modes of behavior (called states) of the system and the manner in which transitions are made from state to state.
42. A data model contains
a. data object
b. attributes
c. relationships
d. all of the mentioned
Answer:
d. all of the mentioned
Clarification: the data object,
43. The __________ of a relationship is 0 if there is no explicit need for the relationship to occur or the relationship is optional.
a. modality
b. cardinality
c. entity
d. structured analysis
Answer:
a. modality
Clarification: the modality is 1 if an occurrence of the relationship is mandatory, else 0 for optional relationship.
44. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.
a. data flow diagram
b. state transition diagram
c. control specification
d. workflow diagram
Answer:
b. state transition diagram
Clarification: the basic form of a data flow diagram, also known as a data flow graph or a bubble chart.
45. A data condition occurs whenever a data is passed to an input element followed by a processing element and the result in control output.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
a. true
Clarification: standard flow of condition check.
46. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information domain and functional domain at the same time
a. data flow diagram
b. state transition diagram
c. control specification
d. activity diagram
Answer:
a. data flow diagram
Clarification: as the dfd is refined into greater levels of detail, the analyst performs an implicit functional decomposition of the system,
47. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of behavior.
a. data flow diagram
b. state transition diagram
c. control specification
d. workflow diagram
Answer:
c. control specification
Clarification: the control specification(cspec) describes the behavior of the system, but it gives us no information about
48. Which of the following is not a construct?
a. sequence
b. condition
c. repetition
d. selection
Answer:
d. selection
Clarification: sequence implements processing steps that are essential in the specification of any algorithm.
49. Which of the following steps is applied to develop a decision table?
a. list all actions that can be associated with a specific procedure
b. list all conditions during execution of the procedure.
c. define rules by indicating what action(s) occurs for a set of conditions.
d. all of the mentioned
Answer:
d. all of the mentioned
Clarification: a decision table includes action stub and a condition stub with a set of rules.
50. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”The ability to represent local and global data is an essential element of component-level design.”?
a. data representation
b. logic verification
c. “code-to” ability
d. automatic processing
Answer:
a. data representation
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
51. A software component
a. implements some functionality
b. has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces
c. communicates through its interfaces only
d. all of the mentioned
Answer:
d. all of the mentioned
Clarification: all the options identify with features of a software component.
52. Which diagram evolved from a desire to develop a procedural design representation that would not allow violation of the structured constructs?
a. state transition diagram
b. box diagram
c. er diagram
d. none of the mentioned
Answer:
b. box diagram
Clarification: none.
53. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task until the condition fails.
a. repeat until
b. condition
c. do while tests
d. if then-else
Answer:
a. repeat until
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
54. Which of the following is not a characteristics of box diagram?
a. functional domain
b. arbitrary transfer of control is impossible
c. recursion is easy to represent
d. providing a notation that translates actions and conditions
Answer:
d. providing a notation that translates actions and conditions
Clarification: this functionality is covered by uml diagrams.
55. The________ is represented as two processing boxes connected by an line (arrow) of control.
a. repetition
b. sequence
c. condition
d. none of the above
Answer:
b. sequence
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
56. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “Notation that can be input directly into a computer-based development system offers significant benefits.”?
a. machine readability
b. maintainability
c. structure enforcement
d. overall simplicity
Answer:
a. machine readability
Clarification: readability is processing input.
57. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?
a. place the user in control
b. reduce the user’s memory load
c. make the interface consistent
d. all of the mentioned
Answer:
d. all of the mentioned
Clarification: these golden rules actually form the basis for a set of user interface design principles that guide this important software design activity.
58. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?
a. provide for flexible interaction
b. allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
c. show technical internals from the casual user
d. design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen
Answer:
c. show technical internals from the casual user
Clarification: the user interface should move the user into the virtual world of the application.
59. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?
a. user, task, and environment analysis and modeling
b. interface design
c. knowledgeable, frequent users
d. interface validation
Answer:
c. knowledgeable, frequent users
Clarification: these are the end user for whom the product is being built.
60. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant.
a. short-term memory
b. shortcuts
c. objects that appear on the screen
d. all of the mentioned
Answer:
a. short-term memory
Clarification: the interface should be designed to reduce the requirement to remember past actions and results.
61. Which of the following option is not considered by the Interface design?
a. the design of interfaces between software components
b. the design of interfaces between the software and human producers and consumers of information
c. the design of the interface between two computers
d. all of the mentioned
Answer:
c. the design of the interface between two computers
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory
62. A software might allow a user to interact via
a. keyboard commands
b. mouse movement
c. voice recognition commands
d. all of the mentioned
Answer:
d. all of the mentioned
Clarification: all the mentioned input mediums are available today.
63. A software engineer designs the user interface by applying an iterative process that draws on predefined design principles.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
a. true
Clarification: the statement is true.
64. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the software?
a. design model
b. user’s model
c. mental image
d. system image
Answer:
a. design model
Clarification: the requirements specification may establish certain constraints that help to define the user of the system,
65. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?
a. design model
b. user’s model
c. mental image
d. system image
Answer:
b. user’s model
Clarification: to build an effective user interface, all design should begin with an understanding of the intended users,
66. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?
a. mental image
b. interface design
c. system image
d. interface validation
Answer:
c. system image
Clarification: when the system image and the system perception are coincident, users generally feel comfortable with the software and use it effectively.
67. What do you understand by V&V in software testing?
a. verified version
b. version validation
c. verification and validation
d. version verification
Answer:
c. verification and validation
Clarification: v&v generally refers to any activity that attempts to ensure that the software will function as required.
68. In static test techniques, behavioral and performance properties of the program are observed.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
b. false
Clarification: static analysis techniques are based solely on the (manual or automated) examination of project documentation of software models and code.
69. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?
a. unit testing
b. integration testing
c. acceptance testing
d. regression testing
Answer:
b. integration testing
Clarification: integration testing is the phase in software testing in which individual software modules are combined and tested as a group.
70. Which test refers to the retesting of a unit, integration and system after modification, in order to ascertain that the change has not introduced new faults?
a. regression test
b. smoke test
c. alpha test
d. beta test
Answer:
a. regression test
Clarification: regression test seeks to uncover new software bugs in existing functional and non-functional areas of a system after changes have been made to them.
71. Which of the following is a black box testing strategy?
a. all statements coverage
b. control structure coverage
c. cause-effect graphs
d. all paths coverage
Answer:
c. cause-effect graphs
Clarification: rest are test strategies of white box testing.
72. A set of inputs, execution preconditions and expected outcomes is known as a
a. test plan
b. test case
c. test document
d. test suite
Answer:
b. test case
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
73. In which test design each input is tested at both ends of its valid range and just outside its valid range?
a. boundary value testing
b. equivalence class partitioning
c. boundary value testing and equivalence class partitioning
d. decision tables
Answer:
a. boundary value testing
Clarification: boundary value analysis is a software testing technique in which tests are designed to include representatives of boundary values.
74. A white box test scales up well at different granularity levels of testing.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
b. false
Clarification: a white box test is mostly applicable at unit and integration testing level.
75. When does the testing process stops?
a. when resources (time and budget) are over
b. when some coverage is reached
c. when quality criterion is reached
d. testing never ends.
Answer:
c. when quality criterion is reached
Clarification: as software testing is an exhaustive process, when the quality assurance is established and the product is ready to be delivered, testing is stopped.
76. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?
a. test plan
b. test design specification
c. test case specification
d. test log
Answer:
d. test log
Clarification: test log is a part of testing result document.
77. Specifying a set of test cases or test paths for each item to be tested at that level is known as
a. test case generation
b. test case design
c. all of the mentioned
d. none of the mentioned
Answer:
c. all of the mentioned
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
78. Acceptance & system test planning are a part of architectural design.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
b. false
Clarification: they are a part of requirements engineering, while integration & unit test planning come under architectural design.
79. PRD stands for
a. product requirement document
b. project requirement document
c. product restrictions document
d. none of the mentioned
Answer:
a. product requirement document
Clarification: a product requirements document (prd) is a document written by a company that defines a product they are making,
80. Reuse-based software engineering is a software engineering strategy where the development process is geared to reusing existing software.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
a. true
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
81. The open source movement has meant that there is a huge reusable code base available at
a. free of cost
b. low cost
c. high cost
d. short period of time
Answer:
b. low cost
Clarification: the open source movement has meant that there is a huge reusable code base available at low cost.
82. reused in a database management system”.
a. application system reuse
b. component reuse
c. object and function reuse
d. none of the mentioned
Answer:
b. component reuse
Clarification: components of an application, ranging in size from subsystems to single objects, may be reused.
83. COTS stands for
a. commercial off-the-shelf systems
b. commercial off-the-shelf states
c. commercial off-the-system state
d. none of the mentioned
Answer:
a. commercial off-the-shelf systems
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
84. COTS product reuse means
a. class and function libraries that implement commonly used abstractions are available for reuse.
b. shared components are woven into an application at different places when the program is compiled.
c. large-scale systems that encapsulate generic business functionality and rules are configured for an organization.
d. systems are developed by configuring and integrating existing application systems.
Answer:
d. systems are developed by configuring and integrating existing application systems.
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
85. .NET are specific to which platform?
a. java
b. mac-os
c. microsoft
d. linux
Answer:
c. microsoft
Clarification: net framework (pronounced dot net) is a software framework developed by microsoft that runs primarily on microsoft windows.
86. Which of the following is a generic structure that is extended to create a more specific subsystem or application?
a. software reuse
b. object-oriented programming language
c. framework
d. none of the mentioned
Answer:
c. framework
Clarification: frameworks are implemented as a collection of concrete and abstract object classes in an object-oriented programming language.
87. “An ordering system may be adapted to cope with a centralized ordering process in one company and a distributed process in another.” Which category the example belong to?
a. process specialization
b. platform specialization
c. environment specialization
d. functional specialization
Answer:
a. process specialization
Clarification: in process specialization, the system is adapted to cope with specific business processes.
88. What are generic application systems that may be designed to support a particular business type, activity, or sometimes a complete enterprise?
a. cots-solution systems
b. cots-integrated systems
c. erp systems
d. both cots-solution and cots-integrated systems
Answer:
a. cots-solution systems
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory
89. Which of the following is not an advantages of software reuse?
a. lower costs
b. faster software development
c. high effectiveness
d. lower risks
Answer:
c. high effectiveness
Clarification: effectiveness depends on how one reuses the existing product.
90. ERP stands for
a. effective reuse planning
b. enterprise resource planning
c. effective research planning
d. none of the mentioned
Answer:
b. enterprise resource planning
Clarification: enterprise resource planning systems are examples of large-scale cots reuse.
91. Which framework class include standards and classes that support component communication and information exchange?
a. system infrastructure frameworks
b. middleware integration frameworks
c. enterprise application frameworks
d. mvc
Answer:
b. middleware integration frameworks
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
92. Which of the following option is not provided by formal methods?
a. providing frameworks
b. verifying systems
c. provide investors
d. both providing frameworks and verifying systems
Answer:
d. both providing frameworks and verifying systems
Clarification: a method is formal if it has a sound mathematical basis, typically given by a formal specification language.
93. ___________ are statements that can be interpreted in a number of ways.
a. contradictions
b. ambiguities
c. vagueness
d. comments
Answer:
a. contradictions
Clarification: as the name indicates, these statements may be interpreted differently as per user.
94. What defines the circumstances in which a particular operation is valid?
a. contradictions
b. post-condition
c. vagueness
d. none of the mentioned
Answer:
d. none of the mentioned
Clarification: a precondition defines the circumstances in which a particular operation is valid.
95. Which of the following is a way of making a statement about the elements of a set that is true for every member of the set?
a. set
b. sequence
c. universal quantification
d. both set and sequence
Answer:
c. universal quantification
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory.
96. Which of the following occurs often due to the bulkiness of a system specification document?
a. contradictions
b. ambiguities
c. vagueness
d. incompleteness
Answer:
c. vagueness
Clarification: achieving a high level of precision consistently is an almost impossible task.
97. The _________ of a formal specification language is often based on a syntax that is derived from standard set theory notation and predicate calculus.
a. semantic domain
b. syntactic domain
c. sequence
d. set
Answer:
b. syntactic domain
Clarification: the answer is self explanatory
98. Which of the following provides a concise, unambiguous, and consistent method for documenting system requirements?
a. cmm
b. iso-9001
c. case tools
d. formal methods
Answer:
d. formal methods
Clarification: formal methods provide a concise, unambiguous, and consistent method for documenting system requirements.
99. The ____________ of a specification language indicates how the language represents system requirements.
a. semantic domain
b. syntactic domain
c. sequence
d. set
Answer:
a. semantic domain
Clarification: for example, a programming language has a set of formal semantics that enables the software developer to specify algorithms that