Agadtantra Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following yog is used for the treatment of garopahat pawak?
A. Dooshivishari
B. Moorvadi
C. Eladi
D. Panchashirisha
Answer: B Moorvadi
2. Tobacco is……poison.
A. Corrosive
B. somniferous
C. cardiac
D. spinal
Answer: C cardiac
3. Which of the following is a spinal stimulant poison?
A. Ahifen
B. Kuchala
C. Vatsanabh
D. Arka
Answer: B Kuchala
4. According to Sushruta, Sthavar visha adhisthana are …. in number.
A. 16
B. 10
C. 8
D. 13
Answer: B 10
5. According to Sushruta, Jangam visha adhisthana are …. in number.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 16
D. 14
Answer: C 16
6. …… is one of the ingredients of dooshivishari Agad.
A. Mamsi
B. Amruta
C. Shunthi
D. Triphala
Answer: A Mamsi
7. Which of the following dravya is not used for hrudayavaran?
A. Gomay ras
B. Kshaudra
C. Supakwa Ekshu
D. Mudgayusha
Answer: D Mudgayusha
8. In visha chikitsa, Kakandadi yog is indicated for……….chikitsa.
A. vaman
B. virechan
C. mrutasanjivan
D. upadhan
Answer: C mrutasanjivan
9. According to Sharangadhar, vish guna are …… in number.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 7
D. 9
Answer: A 8
10. According to Sushruta, Moola Visha are …. in number.
A. 7
B. 9
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: D 8
11. Dah upkrama is indicated for…… visha.
A. twakgat
B. mamsagat
C. takmamsagat
D. raktagat
Answer: C takmamsagat
12. Shodhan chikitsa protocol for Dooshivisha is……..
A. Snehan,- swedan,- vamanvirechana
B. Snehan- swedan- vaman
C. Snehan,- vaman- virechana
D. Swedan,- vaman- virechana
Answer: D Swedan,- vaman- virechana
13. According to Sushruta, which of the following is one of the upadrava of Dooshivisha?
A. Jwar
B. Pandu
C. Kotha
D. Shwas
Answer: A Jwar
14. According to Rastarangini, the upavisha are ……in number.
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11
Answer: D 11
15. …… is the toxic principle present in vatsanabh.
A. Usharin
B. Aconitine
C. Nerin
D. Calotropin
Answer: B Aconitine
16. According to Rastarangini, vatsanabh is a…..
A. trina
B. taru
C. lata
D. kshupa
Answer: D kshupa
17. Inj. Atropine is mainly used as antidote in acute poisoning of….
A. bhanga
B. vatsanabh
C. dhatura
D. kuchala
Answer: B vatsanabh
18. Risus sardonicus is a feature seen in …… poisoning.
A. vatsanabh
B. dhatura
C. kuchala
D. karveer
Answer: C kuchala
19. Pleurosthotonus is…….. of the body.
A. Forward bending
B. backward bending
C. lateral bending
D. straight stiffening
Answer: C lateral bending
20. Which of the following is the antidote of kuchala?
A. Atropine
B. Naloxone
C. Prostigmine
D. Barbiturates
Answer: D Barbiturates
21. The usual fatal dose of Vatsanabh rhizome powder is……
A. 10 mg
B. 100 mg
C. 1 gm
D. 1mg
Answer: C 1 gm
22. ….. is the English name of Vatsanabh.
A. Jimson seed
B. Wolf’s bane
C. Tiger’s claws
D. Swallow wart
Answer: B Wolf’s bane
23. The differential diagnosis for Kuchala poisoning is with………
A. acute gastroenteritis
B. tetanus
C. gullien barrie Syndrome
D. ventricular tachycardia
Answer: B tetanus
24. According to Rastarangini, …..is the synonym of Kuchala.
A. visha
B. vijaya
C. rechak
D. vishatinduk
Answer: D vishatinduk
25. Pin pointed pupils are the toxicity feature of ……
A. Ahifen
B. Dhatura
C. Bhanga
D. Kuchala
Answer: A Ahifen
26. ………is the toxic principle present in Ahifen.
A. Scopolamine
B. Brucine
C. Euphol
D. Morphine
Answer: D Morphine
27. According to Rastarangini, vatsanabh is…. visha.
A. patra
B. niryas
C. kand
D. pushpa
Answer: C kand
28. Postmortem findings showing combination of intense lividity of the face approaching blackness and oedema of lungs are the hallmark of.…..…poisoning.
A. opium
B. aconite
C. strychnine
D. abrin
Answer: A opium
29. The exuding milk is collected from…….. of Papaver somniferum.
A. leaves
B. stem
C. Ripened poppy capsules
D. unripened poppy capsules
Answer: D unripened poppy capsules
30. In opium poisoning, weight in limbs and diminution of sensibility is initially seen in ……..
A. stage of Excitement
B. stage of Stupor
C. stage of Narcosis
D. stage of Medullary paralysis
Answer: B stage of Stupor
31. Hemp insanity sometimes results after chronic intoxication of…….
A. bhanga
B. opium
C. tobacco
D. alcohol
Answer: A bhanga
32. Frenzied desire on part of the victim of killing any person against whom he may have false or real enemity is……
A. risus sardonicus
B. carphologia
C. delirium
D. run amok
Answer: D run amok
33. Which of the following isnot an abuse preparation of bhanga?
A. Charas
B. Ganja
C. Marijuana
D. Afim
Answer: D Afim
34. Which of the following active principle is responsible for psychoactive effects of Bhanga?
A. Tetrahydrocannabinol
B. Hyoscyamine
C. Pseudoaconitine
D. Epinephrine
Answer: A Tetrahydrocannabinol
35. Inj. Methadone is used as drug of choice in the treatment of…….
A. dhatura poisoning
B. morphinism
C. hashish insanity
D. plumbism
Answer: B morphinism
36. The usual fatal dose of opium is……
A. 500 mg
B. 20 mg
C. 5 gm
D. 20 gm
Answer: A 500 mg
37. Which of the following visha dravya doesnot come under NDPS Act ?
A. Opium
B. Bhanga
C. Cocaine
D. Tobacco
Answer: D Tobacco
38. ……. is the active principle present in Jaypal.
A. Croton
B. Abrin
C. Ricin
D. Calotoxin
Answer: A Croton
39. Which of the following is a plant irritant poison?
A. Dhatura
B. Bhanga
C. Jaypal
D. Karveer
Answer: C Jaypal
40. Which of the following drug is mentioned in Charakokta Vishghna Mahakashay?
A. Amruta
B. Suvaha
C. Klitak
D. Apamarga
Answer: B Suvaha
41. According to Gangadhar Teeka, the sthavar visha gati is…..
A. tiryak
B. Sarvag
C. urdhwa
D. Adho
Answer: D Adho
42. According to Charaka,……… is one of the hetu of shotha.
A. Gunja
B. Bhallatak
C. Jaypal
D. Arka
Answer: B Bhallatak
43. According to Anupan Manjiri, lepa of ……..is indicated in bhallatakjanit Shotha.
A. Meghnad ras with navneet
B. Punarnava ras with madhu
C. Triphala with madhu
D. Yashtimadhu with ghee
Answer: A Meghnad ras with navneet
44. According to Anupan Manjiri, ……. is stated to be used in Dhatura vishajanit vikara.
A. Vruntak-Phalabeej ras
B. Patwan vriksha ras
C. Meghnad ras
D. Bruhatkshudra ras with godugdha
Answer: A Vruntak-Phalabeej ras
45. Arushkar is the synonym of…….. upavisha.
A. Gunja
B. Bhallatak
C. Jaypal
D. Snuhi
Answer: B Bhallatak
46. Anaphylaxis reaction may occur with the consumption of……visha.
A. Arka
B. Snuhi
C. Bhallatak
D. Dhatura
Answer: C Bhallatak
47. Which of the following is not the toxicity feature of dhatura?
A. Dermatitis
B. Dysphagia
C. Mydriasis
D. Dysurea
Answer: A Dermatitis
48. Dhatura has been used as …..poison.
A. abortifacient
B. Somniferous
C. stupefying
D. Sui
Answer: C stupefying
49. The antidote used in the treatment of Dhatura poisoning is…..
A. Physostigmine
B. Atropine
C. Coramine
D. Phenobarbitone
Answer: A Physostigmine
50. Fatal dose of dhatura seeds is……….
A. 1-2
B. 10-20
C. 50-100
D. 500-600
Answer: C 50-100
51. Which of the following is used as sui poison?
A. Dhatura
B. Gunja
C. Arka
D. Karveer
Answer: B Gunja
52. The features of gunja poisoning resemble with ……poisoning.
A. cobra snake bite
B. viper snake bite
C. krait snake bite
D. Phosphorus
Answer: B viper snake bite
53. The principal toxicological action of abrin is……………..
A. Metabolic enzyme deactivation
B. protein synthesis inhibition
C. Disruption of signal transduction in neurons
D. Hb synthesis disruption
Answer: B protein synthesis inhibition
54. Which of the following visha dravya are the ingredients of Sanjeevani Vati ?
A. Bhallatak and Dhatura
B. Dhatura and Vatsanabh
C. Bhallatak and Vatsanabh
D. Kuchala and Vatsanabh
Answer: C Bhallatak and Vatsanabh
55. Which of the following bhavana dravya is used for shodhan of Afu?
A. Godugdha
B. Gomutra
C. Aardrak Swaras
D. Babbul twak kwatha
Answer: C Aardrak Swaras
56. According to Yogratnakar, ……visha dravya are shuddha themselves.
A. Arka and Snuhi ksheer
B. Dhatura and Gunja seeds
C. Bhanga and Ahifen
D. Bhallatak and Langali
Answer: A Arka and Snuhi ksheer
57. Yukaliksha vinashak is one of the karma of…….
A. arka
B. Dhatura
C. karveer
D. Gunja
Answer: B Dhatura
58. According to Rastarangini, Aparapatini is one of the karma of……..
A. arka
B. Snuhi
C. bhallatak
D. Langali
Answer: D Langali
59. According to Charak, visha vega in human are… in number.
A. 7
B. 4
C. 8
D. 10
Answer: C 8
60. Sushruta advised consumption of Ajeya ghruta for…………
A. virechana
B. Hrudayavaran
C. nasya
D. pratisaran
Answer: B Hrudayavaran
61. Anirdeshya ras is mentioned as one of the guna of visha by……..
A. Charak
B. Sushruta
C. Vagbhata
D. Sharangdhar
Answer: A Charak
62. The average fatal dose of Oleander root is….
A. 1 gm
B. 100mg
C. 15 gm
D. 5 gm
Answer: C 15 gm
63. Which of the following mantra is uttered for visha chikitsa ?
A. Gayatri Mantra
B. Vishnu Sahatranam
C. Ram Raksha
D. Nilkantha trayakshari
Answer: D Nilkantha trayakshari
64. “Vishagarvairodhik Prashaman” is mentioned as one of the ashtanga of Ayurved by……
A. Charak
B. Vagbhata
C. Sushruta
D. Kashyap
Answer: A Charak
65. According to Charak, Yoni of visha is………….
A. Ras
B. Tej
C. Ambu
D. Pruthwi
Answer: C Ambu
66. Activated charcoal is ………….. type of physical antidote.
A. bulky food
B. Adsorbent
C. demulcent
D. Diluents
Answer: B Adsorbent
67. Syp. Ipecac is orally given in the treatment of poisoning for………………..
A. purgation
B. dilution of poison
C. forced emesis
D. hastening the excretion through
Answer: C forced emesis
68. Which of the following is the first principle of treatment of poisoning?
A. Removal of unabsorbed poison from the body
B. Stabilization of vital functions
C. Administration of antidote
D. Removal of absorbed poison from the body
Answer: B Stabilization of vital functions
69. Which of the following is not the method of hastening the removal of absorbed poison from the body?
A. Peritoneal dialysis
B. Haemodialysis
C. Irrigation of bowel
D. Haemoperfusion
Answer: C Irrigation of bowel
70. Which agent is used for stomach wash in the removal of unabsorbed organic plant poison?
A. Potassium Permanagnate
B. Normal saline water
C. Magnesium sulphate
D. Activated charcoal
Answer: A Potassium Permanagnate
71. Which of the following is the best choice of chelation therapy in acute lead poisoning?
A. BAL
B. EDTA
C. BAL+EDTA
D. Penicillamine
Answer: C BAL+EDTA
72. Which of the following is the toxic organic compound of lead?
A. Lead acetate
B. Tetraethyl lead
C. Lead oxide
D. Lead sulphide
Answer: B Tetraethyl lead
73. Blastophoric effect on spermatozoa is seen in ………chronic poisoning.
A. lead
B. Arsenic
C. copper
D. Mercury
Answer: D Mercury
74. Aminoleuvelinic acid dehydratase enzyme is mainly deactivated in lead poisoning, which leads to……
A. oesteopathy
B. Hypertension
C. encephalopathy
D. Anaemia
Answer: D Anaemia
75. Literally where no activity is possible in mercury poisoning, the condition is called as……
A. Mercuria Lentis
B. Hatter’s Shake
C. Concossio Mercurialis
D. Mercurialism
Answer: C Concossio Mercurialis
76. Most corrosive and toxic compound of mercury is….
A. elemental mercury
B. mercury sulphide
C. mercuric chloride
D. mercurous chloride
Answer: C mercuric chloride
77. Primary acute mercury poisoning is seen as…
A. CNS degeneration
B. Bone damage
C. Kidney damage
D. Heart damage
Answer: C Kidney damage
78. Which of the following is the oral chelating agent administered in mercury poisoning?
A. Dimercaprol
B. Dimarcaptosuccinic acid
C. Desferrioxamine
D. Ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid
Answer: B Dimarcaptosuccinic acid
79. Ammonium hydrooxide test is carried out with……in acute copper poisoning.
A. Bile
B. Urine
C. Stool
D. blood
Answer: A Bile
80. . ……levels are reduced in copper toxicity.
A. FEPA
B. ceruloplasmin
C. calcium
D. ALA
Answer: B ceruloplasmin
81. Fatal dose of Copper Sulphate is…..
A. 1-2 mg
B. 100-200mg
C. 1-2 gm
D. 10-20 gm
Answer: D 10-20 gm
82. Vineyard sprayer’s lung disease is the result of ….chronic poisoning
A. Lead
B. Arsenic
C. Phosphorus
D. copper
Answer: D copper
83. Which of the following toxic element is highly reactive to air?
A. Mercury
B. Phosphorus
C. Lead
D. Copper
Answer: B Phosphorus
84. Which of the following is used as chemical antidote in phosphorus poisoning?
A. Potassium permanganate
B. Calcium gluconate
C. BAL
D. Magnesium sulphate
Answer: A Potassium permanganate
85. Which of the following symptom is seen in phossy jaw?
A. carious teeth
B. gingivitis
C. furred tongue
D. burtonian lines on gums
Answer: B gingivitis
86. The main target organ of acute primary toxicity in case of phosphorus is…..?
A. heart
B. liver
C. brain
D. spinal cord
Answer: B liver
87. In PM findings of acute arsenic poisoning, …….. appearance of stomach is seen.
A. whitish
B. bluish black
C. yellowish
D. velvet
Answer: D velvet
88. In arsenic poisoning, ………deficiency is principally seen.
A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin D3
C. Vitamin B1
D. calcium
Answer: C Vitamin B1
89. Which of the following skin manifestation is generally seen in chronic arsenic poisoning?
A. Vitiligo
B. Ichthyosis
C. Hyperkeratosis
D. Psoriasis
Answer: C Hyperkeratosis
90. Arsenicosis may occur through…………….
A. water
B. food
C. air
D. soil
Answer: A water
91. In postmortem findings,………smell of the stomach contents emanates in arsenic poisoning.
A. kerosene
B. garlic
C. no
D. sweet
Answer: B garlic
92. …………………..is a protoplasmic poison.
A. Iodine
B. Copper
C. Arsenic
D. Phosphorus
Answer: D Phosphorus
93. ………… is a autosomal recessive disorder having error of copper metabolism.
A. Klienfilter’s syndrome
B. Dawn’s syndrome
C. Wilson’s disease
D. Pot’s disease
Answer: C Wilson’s disease
94. Which of the following disorder is the result of chronic mercury poisoning?
A. Black foot disease
B. Menke’s Kinky hair syndrome
C. Pink’s disease
D. Wilson’s disease
Answer: C Pink’s disease
95. Constipation and offensive stool are the characteristics in acute………poisoning.
A. lead
B. mercury
C. arsenic
D. copper
Answer: A lead
96. Section 375 IPC deals with….
A. Rape
B. Grievous hurt
C. Murder
D. Sodomy
Answer: A Rape
97. Tribadism is also called as….
A. Lesbianism
B. Sexual oralism
C. Buccal coitus
D. Eonism
Answer: A Lesbianism
98. Valid consent for sexual intercourse can be given by a female above the age of…..years.
A. 12
B. 15
C. 16
D. 18
Answer: C 16
99. Sodomy is punishable under section……IPC.
A. 354
B. 375
C. 377
D. 378
Answer: C 377
100. Disulfiram is useful in ………….dependence.
A. Alcohol
B. Heroin
C. Cocaine
D. Cannabis
Answer: A Alcohol
101. Mc Ewans sign is seen …….poisoning.
A. Organophosphate
B. Alcohol
C. Barbiturates
D. Opium
Answer: B Alcohol
102. Optic atrophy is seen in …………poisoning.
A. Lead
B. Phosphorus
C. Methyl alcohol
D. Ethyl alcohol
Answer: C Methyl alcohol
103. Maximum ethyl alcohol content is seen in………
A. Rum
B. Brandy
C. Whisky
D. Gin
Answer: A Rum
104. . ……………is an ultra short acting barbiturate.
A. Pentobarbitol
B. Amylobarbitone
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Thiopentone
Answer: D Thiopentone
105. ……….breathing is seen in barbiturate poisoning.
A. Rapid and deep
B. Slow and shallow
C. Normal
D. Rapid and shallow
Answer: D Rapid and shallow
106. Skin blisters are not seen in case of…
A. Barbiturate poisoning
B. Electric shock
C. CO poisoning
D. Decomposition
Answer: B Electric shock
107. Organophosphorus compounds inhibit……
A. Acetylcholine
B. Acetylcholine esterase
C. Cytochrome oxidase
D. Sulphydryl enzymes
Answer: B Acetylcholine esterase
108. …….is not seen in organophosphate poisoning.
A. Lacrimation
B. Salivation
C. Mydriasis
D. Diarrhoea
Answer: C Mydriasis
109. The drug of choice in organophosphate poisoning is….
A. Atropine
B. BAL
C. EDTA
D. Copper sulphate
Answer: A Atropine
110. Pralidoxime is antidote of………..
A. Mercury
B. Lead
C. Organophosphorus
D. Phosphorus
Answer: C Organophosphorus
111. Most common death due to suicide is by
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Insecticides
C. Hanging
D. Suicidal cut throat
Answer: B Insecticides
112. Which one of the following insecticide is an organophosphorus compound?
A. Endrin
B. DDT
C. BHC
D. Malathion
Answer: D Malathion
113. Kerosene like smell from mouth is present in……poisoning.
A. Mercury
B. Arsenic
C. Organophosphorus
D. Phosphorus
Answer: C Organophosphorus
114. The fatal dose of methyl alcohol is……
A. 20-40ml
B. 40-50ml
C. 60-200ml
D. 200-300ml
Answer: C 60-200ml
115. ………….is a blistering war gas.
A. Chlorine gas
B. Mustard gas
C. HCN gas
D. Tabun
Answer: B Mustard gas
116. A person after ingesting a toxic agent is in a state of Narcosis. The pupils are constricted. However, on pinching the neck the pupils dilate initially and slowly return to their original size. The toxic agent is:
A. Barbiturate
B. Alcohol
C. Strychnine Organophosphate
D. Carbolic acid
Answer: B Alcohol
117. Blackout is due to:
A. Alcohol intoxication
B. Cocaine toxicity
C. LSD toxicity
D. Cyanide poisoning
Answer: A Alcohol intoxication
118. Korsakoff’s psychosis is seen in:
A. CRF
B. Chronic alcoholism
C. Marasmus
D. Cirrhosis
Answer: B Chronic alcoholism
119. CAGE questionnaire is used in:
A. Alcohol dependence
B. Opiate poisoning
C. Dhatura poisoning
D. Barbiturate poisoning
Answer: A Alcohol dependence
120. In India, driving under influence is considered at blood alcohol level of:
A. ≥20 mg%
B. ≥30 mg%
C. ≥50 mg%
D. ≥100 mg%
Answer: B ≥30 mg%
121. The dead body is lying on autopsy table. There is leathery, fine, tenacious, froth at mouth and nostrils. The death is due to:
A. Opium poisoning
B. Barbiturate poisoning
C. Throttling
D. Drowning
Answer: D Drowning
122. Widmark’s formula is used for measurement of blood levels of:
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Barbiturates
C. Alcohol
D. Cocaine
Answer: C Alcohol
123. Alkalization of urine is done in which poisoning:
A. Barbiturates
B. Amphetamine
C. Alcohol
D. Cocaine
Answer: A Barbiturates
124. Which of the following is not a phase of organophosphorus poisoning:
A. Acute cholinergic phase
B. Intermediate syndrome
C. OPC induced delayed polyneuropathy
D. Late onset proximal myopathy
Answer: D Late onset proximal myopathy
125. A 5-year-old child presents with confusion, increased salivation, fasiculations, miosis, tachycardia and hypertension. Poison that can cause these manifestations:
A. Opium
B. OPC
C. Dhatura
D. Arsenic
Answer: B OPC
126. Privileged communication is between:
A. Doctor-patient
B. Doctor-medical council
C. Doctor-court
D. Doctor-police
Answer: C Doctor-court
127. Dichotomy means:
A. Fee splitting
B. Summons
C. Civil wrong
D. Employing touts to get patients
Answer: A Fee splitting
128. Declaration of Helsinki is about:
A. Organ transplantation
B. Human experimentation
C. Torture
D. Physician’s oath
Answer: B Human experimentation
129. Burden to prove defense lies with the doctor in case of:
A. Mens rea
B. Res ipsa loquitor
C. Res judicata
D. Respondent superior
Answer: B Res ipsa loquitor
130. A doctor has to do an urgent operation on an unconscious patient to save his life. But there are no relatives to take consent. He goes ahead without obtaining consent from anyone; he is using the principle of:
A. Therapeutic privilege
B. Doctrine of implied consent
C. Therapeutic waiver
D. Doctrine of informed consent
Answer: B Doctrine of implied consent
131. Chief Judicial Magistrate can give sentence a guilty for imprisonment upto:
A. 3 years
B. 5 years
C. 7 years
D. Life imprisonment
Answer: C 7 years
132. Juvenile court deals with cases of children upto the age of:
A. 15 years
B. 16 years
C. 18 years
D. 21 years
Answer: C 18 years
133. A lady died due to unnatural death within seven years of her marriage. The inquest in this case will be done by:
A. Forensic medicine expert
B. Deputy superintendent of police
C. Sub-divisional magistrate
D. Coroner
Answer: C Sub-divisional magistrate
134. When a doctor issues a false medical certificate, then he is liable under:
A. Sec. 197 IPC
B. Sec. 87 IPC
C. Sec. 304A IPC
D. Sec. 338 IPC
Answer: A Sec. 197 IPC
135. A married woman died in unnatural conditions within 5 years of her marriage. Her parents complained of frequent demand of dowry. Her autopsy will be conducted under which section:
A. Sec. 174 CrPC
B. Sec. 176 CrPC
C. Sec. 302 IPC
D. Sec. 304B IPC
Answer: B Sec. 176 CrPC
136. Color of urine in phenol poisoning:
A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Blue
Answer: B Green
137. Maximum damage to esophagus is with:
A. H2SO4
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Acetic acid
D. Nitric acid
Answer: B Sodium hydroxide
138. In postmortem findings, leathery stomach is seen in poisoning with:
A. HCl
B. H2SO4
C. Carbolic acid
D. Oxalic acid
Answer: C Carbolic acid
139. Antidote for mineral acid poisoning is:
A. MgSO4
B. CuSO4
C. NaHCO3
D. MgO
Answer: D MgO
140. Color that can be observed in nitric acid toxicity is
A. White
B. Black
C. Yellow
D. Red
Answer: C Yellow
141. In acute cyanide poisoning, amyl nitrate is given by one of the following route:
A. Oral
B. intravenous
C. Inhalation
D. Intramuscular
Answer: C Inhalation
142. All the following are characteristic of alkaline ingestion except:
A. Liquefactive necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Denaturation
D. Saponification of fats
Answer: B Coagulative necrosis
143. Which one of the following is the systemic action of Oxalic acid poisoning?
A. Hepatic failure
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypercalcaemia
D. Renal failure
Answer: D Renal failure
144. Which one of the following is the antidote for oxalic acid poisoning?
A. Animal charcoal
B. Aluminum oxide
C. Calcium lactate
D. Magnesium oxide
Answer: C Calcium lactate
145. Postal envelop shaped crystals in the urine are the features of poisoning from
A. Carbolic acid
B. Oxalic acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Sulphuric acid
Answer: B Oxalic acid
146. Xanthoproteic reaction is a feature of poisoning from
A. Sulphuric acid
B. Nitric acid
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Carbolic acid
Answer: B Nitric acid
147. Vitriolage is
A. Consuming alcohol mixed with acids
B. Committing suicide by consuming acids
C. Throwing of acid on a person
D. Gastric lavage done with Ryle’s tube
Answer: C Throwing of acid on a person
148. Which one of the following is the feature of Sulphuric acid poisoning?
A. Dark tongue with yellowish teeth
B. Blackish tongue with chalky white teeth
C. Bluish line at the junction of the teeth and the gums
D. Sequestration and necrosis of the jaw
Answer: B Blackish tongue with chalky white teeth
149. Putrefaction is retarded by
A. Organophosphorus poison
B. Oxalic acid
C. Carbolic acid
D. Hydrochloric acid
Answer: C Carbolic acid
150. Trousseau’s sign may be seen in…….poisoning.
A. Carbolic acid
B. Oxalic acid
C. Sulphuric acid
D. Hydrochloric acid
Answer: B Oxalic acid
151. Histotoxic anoxia produced by all except
A. Drowning
B. Fire accidents
C. Cyanide poisoning
D. Strangulation
Answer: C Cyanide poisoning
152. In poisoning with hydrocyanic acid, nitrates are given in order to:
A. Reduce cyanide
B. Induce vasodilatation
C. Produce methaemoglobin
D. Oxidize cyanide
Answer: C Produce methaemoglobin
153. After skin contamination, the patient passed into coma with miosis and finally acute nephritis, the poison is:
A. Oxalic acid
B. Nitric acid
C. Hydrocyanic acid
D. Carbolic acid
Answer: C Hydrocyanic acid
154. During post mortem exam odour of bitter almond is found in case of …….poisoning.
A. Hydrocyanic acid
B. Nitric acid
C. Acetic acid
D. Carbolic acid
Answer: A Hydrocyanic acid
155. Gastric lavage with 5% Sodium thiosulfate can be done in…….poisoning.
A. H2SO4
B. HCL
C. HNO3
D. HCN
Answer: D HCN
156. Ophotoxemia refers to
A. Organophosphorous poisoning
B. Heavy metal poisoning
C. Scorpion venom poisoning
D. Snake venom poisoning
Answer: D Snake venom poisoning
157. Elapidaes are
A. Vasculotoxic
B. Neurotoxic
C. Musculotoxic
D. Nontoxic
Answer: B Neurotoxic
158. The most useful bedside test to suggest snake bite envenomation is
A. Prothrombin time
B. 20 min whole blood clotting time
C. International normalized ratio
D. Platelet count
Answer: B 20 min whole blood clotting time
159. Viper venom causes
A. Acute renal failure
B. Dysphagia
C. Nerve paralysis
D. Polycythemia
Answer: A Acute renal failure
160. Haematuria may occur in bite of
A. Krait
B. Cobra
C. Viper
D. Sea snake
Answer: C Viper
161. Lethal dose of krait venom:
A. 3 mg
B. 6 mg
C. 12 mg
D. 15 mg
Answer: B 6 mg
162. Most characteristic feature of elapidae snake envenomation:
A. Bleeding manifestation
B. Rhabdomyolysis
C. Cardiotoxicity
D. Neuro-paralytic symptoms
Answer: D Neuro-paralytic symptoms
163. A girl, otherwise healthy, sleeping on the floor suddenly develops nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, quadriplegia at night. Diagnosis is:
A. Guillain Barre syndrome
B. Krait bite
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Periodic paralysis
Answer: B Krait bite
164. True of poisonous snakes are all, except:
A. Fangs present
B. Belly scales are small
C. Small head scales
D. Grooved teeth
Answer: B Belly scales are small
165. Cholinesterase is seen in venom of:
A. Elapids
B. Vipers
C. Sea snakes
D. All
Answer: A Elapids
166. ………is responsible for spread of snake venom in body.
A. Serine proteases
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Phospholipase A2
D. Fibrinolysin
Answer: B Hyaluronidase
167. 1 ml of anti snake venom neutralizes ……..cobra venom.
A. 0.6mg
B. 0.45mg
C. 0.5mg
D. 0.4mg
Answer: A 0.6mg
168. Neostigmine – Atropine therapy can be given in case of ………bite
A. Elapid
B. Rusells viper
C. Saw scaled viper
D. Sea snake
Answer: A Elapid
169. Muscle paralysis is caused by bite of:
A. Sea snake
B. Krait
C. Mamba
D. Python
Answer: A Sea snake
170. Polyvalent snake vaccines contains immunoglobins against all, except:
A. Ophiophagus hannah
B. Naja naja
C. Daboia rusellii
D. Bungarus caeruleus
Answer: A Ophiophagus hannah
171. False but firm belief about something which is not a fact:
A. Illusion
B. Delusion
C. Hallucination
D. Obsession
Answer: B Delusion
172. False perception without any external stimulus is:
A. Hallucination
B. Delirium
C. Illusion
D. Delusion
Answer: A Hallucination
173. Visual hallucinations are most commonly seen in:
A. Delusional syndrome
B. Mania
C. Delirium
D. OCD
Answer: C Delirium
174. McNaughten rule is concerned with:
A. Civil responsibility in drunken person
B. Criminal responsibility in insane person
C. Professional misconduct by doctors
D. Capacity of a person to make a valid will 205 To plead for insanity in a court of law, the IPC is:
Answer: B Criminal responsibility in insane person
175. Punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to murder is dealt under:
A. Sec. 299 IPC
B. Sec. 300 IPC
C. Sec.302 IPC
D. Sec. 304 IPC
Answer: D Sec. 304 IPC
176. IPC section dealing with dowry death:
A. 307 IPC
B. 304 IPC
C. 304 A IPC
D. 304 B IPC
Answer: D 304 B IPC
177. IPC for grievous injury:
A. Sec. 420
B. Sec. 320
C. Sec. 299
D. Sec. 351
Answer: B Sec. 320
178. Grievous injury includes all, except:
A. Emasculation
B. Loss of 15 days work
C. Permanent disfigurement
D. Fracture of bones
Answer: B Loss of 15 days work
179. Scab or crust of abrasion appears brown in:
A. 12-24 hr
B. 2-3 days
C. 4-5 days
D. 5-7 days
Answer: B 2-3 days
180. Brush burn is injury due:
A. Friction
B. Electrocution
C. Steam
D. Burns
Answer: A Friction
181. Blue color of contusion is due to:
A. Bilirubin
B. Haemosiderin
C. Haematoidin
D. De-oxyhemoglobin
Answer: D De-oxyhemoglobin
182. No color change is seen in sub-conjunctival hemorrhage due to:
A. Continuous CO2 supply
B. Little amount of blood is present
C. Continuous O2 supply
D. Color change occurs but not visible to naked eye
Answer: C Continuous O2 supply
183. Split laceration resembles:
A. Incised wound
B. Abrasion
C. Gunshot wound
D. Contusion
Answer: A Incised wound
184. Hesitation cuts are seen in a case of:
A. Homicide
B. Suicide
C. Accident
D. Fall from height
Answer: B Suicide
185. Split lacerations are due to:
A. Blunt object
B. Sharp object
C. Sharp heavy object
D. Pointed object
Answer: A Blunt object
186. In an incised wound, all of the following are true, except:
A. It has clean-cut margins
B. Bleeding is generally less than in lacerations
C. Tailing is often present
D. Length of injury does not correspond with length of blade
Answer: B Bleeding is generally less than in lacerations
187. Incised wounds on genitalia:
A. Homicidal
B. Suicidal
C. Accidental
D. Self-inflicted
Answer: A Homicidal
188. Black gunpowder contains all of the following, except:
A. Potassium nitrate
B. Lead peroxide
C. Charcoal
D. Sulphur
Answer: B Lead peroxide
189. In a firearm injury, blackening seen around the entry wound is due to:
A. Flame
B. Smoke
C. Unburnt powder
D. Hot gases
Answer: B Smoke
190. In a firearm injury, there is burning, blackening, tattooing around the wound, and is circular in shape, the injury is:
A. Close shot entry
B. Close contact exit
C. Contact shot entry
D. Distant shot entry
Answer: A Close shot entry
191. Parkland formula for burns is for:
A. Ringer lactate
B. Glucose saline
C. Normal saline
D. 25% dextrose
Answer: A Ringer lactate
192. Paradoxical undressing is seen in:
A. Hyperthermia
B. Hypothermia
C. Transvestism
D. Immersion syndrome
Answer: B Hypothermia
193. Pugilistic attitude is due to:
A. Lipolysis
B. Protein coagulation
C. Carbohydrate coagulation
D. Lipogenesis
Answer: B Protein coagulation
194. Curling’s ulcer in burns is seen in:
A. Esophagus
B. Stomach
C. Colon
D. Duodenum
Answer: D Duodenum
195. Percentage of surface area of palm of a burn patient:
A. 1%
B. 9%
C. 18%
D. 27%
Answer: A 1%
196. Blister formation in burn is classified as:
A. First degree
B. Second degree superficial
C. Second degree deep
D. Third degree
Answer: B Second degree superficial
197. A dead body is found to have marks like branching of a tree on front of the chest. Most likely cause of death could be:
A. Firearm injury
B. Lightning injury
C. Road traffic accident
D. Bomb blast injury
Answer: B Lightning injury
198. Joule burn is seen in:
A. Blast injuries
B. Electrocution
C. Firearm wounds
D. Lightning stroke
Answer: B Electrocution
199. दंष्ट्रिणो येष्ट्रिषं तेष ं दंिोत्थं…….. मतम्
A. जङ्गमं
B. गरष्ट्रिषं
C. स्थ िरं
D. दूषीष्ट्रिषं
Answer: A जङ्गमं
200. ……….फणी ज्ञेयो
A. मण्डली
B. िैकरंज
C. दिीकरः
D. र ष्ट्रजम न्
Answer: C दिीकरः
201. ………….मण्डल फणः
A. मण्डली
B. दिीकरः
C. र ष्ट्रजम न्
D. िैकरंज
Answer: A मण्डली
202. ष्ट्रिन्दुलेख ष्ट्रिष्ट्रित्र ङ्गः पन्नगः स्य त्तु………
A. दिीकरः
B. र ष्ट्रजम न्
C. िैकरंज
D. मण्डली
Answer: B र ष्ट्रजम न्
203. According to Vagbhata, Sarpa dansha bheda are……in number.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: D 5
204. According to Sushruta, sarpa bheda are. …..
A. 80
B. 60
C. 70
D. 50
Answer: A 80
205. According to Sushruta, Sankhya of nirvisha sarpa is……
A. 10
B. 12
C. 22
D. 26
Answer: B 12
206. Sarvakarmika agada is indicated in…..visha.
A. Loota
B. Sarpa
C. Vruschika
D. Kita
Answer: A Loota
207. ष्ट्रसत िैगष्ट्रन्धको द्र क्ष पयस्य मधुकं मधुis indicated for………
A. Shanka visha
B. Dushi visha
C. Gara visha
D. Kita visha
Answer: A Shanka visha
208. Meghanad agada is indicated in ……..sarpa dansha.
A. Darvikar
B. Rajiman
C. Vaikaranj
D. Mandali
Answer: A Darvikar
209. —–this upavisha is used as an ecbolic for criminal abortion.
A. Dhatura
B. Jaypal
C. Kuchala
D. Eranda
Answer: C Kuchala
210. …… is upavisha used for criminal abortion through inducing general toxicity to body .
A. Strychnine
B. Dhatura metel
C. croton tiglium
D. Calatropis
Answer: D Calatropis
211. ……. is upavisha used for criminal abortion through reflex uterine stimulant.
A. Strychnine
B. Dhatura metel
C. Abrus precatorius
D. croton tiglium
Answer: C Abrus precatorius
212. The action of Croton oil to induce criminal abortion is……
A. Ecbolics
B. Reflex uterine stimulant.
C. Genito-urinary irritant
D. Emmenagogues
Answer: B Reflex uterine stimulant.
213. Plumbago acts as a …….. to induce criminal abortion.
A. Primarily toxic to other systems.
B. Genito-urinary irritant
C. Emmenagogues
D. Ecbolics
Answer: A Primarily toxic to other systems.
214. …… this upvisha is used for criminal abortion.
A. Aconite
B. Abrus precatorius
C. Nerium odorum
D. Dhatura metel
Answer: B Abrus precatorius
215. …… this upvisha is used as a reflex uterine stimulant for criminal abortion
A. oil of Eranda
B. oil of tansy
C. oil of turpentine
D. oil of jaypal
Answer: A oil of Eranda
216. Dais use …… upavisha for the preparation of abortion stick.
A. Kaner
B. Kuchala
C. Dhatur
D. Eranda
Answer: A Kaner
217. Usually juice of —— is applied on abortion stick
A. Ekshu
B. Ulmus fulva
C. Bhallatak
D. Snuhi
Answer: C Bhallatak
218. Usually —–stick is used as an abortion stick in India.
A. Chitrak
B. Mango
C. Bamboo
D. Papaya
Answer: A Chitrak
219. The fundus of parous uterus is usually tend to be ……..
A. higher than the line of fallopian tube
B. at the line of fallopian tube
C. lower than the line of fallopian tube
D. Distant from fallopian tube
Answer: A higher than the line of fallopian tube
220. In the nulli-parous uterus the length of body is …… the length of cervical segment.
A. less
B. equal
C. twice
D. thrice
Answer: B equal
221. The silvery –white marks on abdomen in delivered women is named as ……
A. Striae gravidarum
B. Linea nigra
C. Lineae ablicantes
D. Scar mark of delivery
Answer: C Lineae ablicantes
222. ——- is mandatory to carry clinical forensic examination.
A. Day light
B. Consent
C. Assistant
D. well ventilated room
Answer: B Consent
223. The sequence of medico-legal examination should be—–
A. General physical examination— Examination of specific area— consent—reference to specialist
B. consent — General physical examination—Examination of specific area–reference to specialist
C. reference to specialist–general physical examination— Examination of specific area— consent
D. consent– Examination of specific area– General physical examination–reference to specialist
Answer: B consent — General physical examination—Examination of specific area–reference to specialist
224. In pregnancy the Braxton Hicks sign can be detected by……..onward
A. 16 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 10 weeks
D. 8 weeks
Answer: A 16 weeks
225. Amenorrhea is a ……. Sign of pregnancy.
A. Positive
B. Confirmative
C. Probable
D. Presumptive
Answer: D Presumptive
226. Among the presumptive signs of pregnancy …… is most important in medicolegal point of view.
A. Chandwik sign
B. Linea nigra
C. Quickening
D. Montegomery’s follicle
Answer: C Quickening
227. For medicolegal examination rapid and comparatively accurate probable confirmation of pregnancy can be done with…..
A. Uterine souffle
B. Ballotment test
C. Hegar sign
D. Immunoassay test
Answer: D Immunoassay test
228. In 8-14 weeks the……..of embryo allows accurate estimation of age.
A. Gestational sac with defined white ring
B. Fetal heart reaction
C. crown ramp length
D. Fetal echo
Answer: C crown ramp length
229. Softening and compressibility of lower uterine segment is named as……sign.
A. Chandwick
B. Ballottement
C. Hegar’s
D. Broxton Hick
Answer: C Hegar’s
230. Following is not the ground of abortion under MTP Act…..
A. Therapeutic ground
B. Eugenic ground
C. Humanitarian ground
D. unwanted pregnancy
Answer: D unwanted pregnancy
231. Permission of ….. is necessary for legal termination of pregnancy from 12 to 20 weeks.
A. 1st class magistrate
B. Civil surgeon
C. two medical officers
D. Panel of five medical officers
Answer: C two medical officers
232. The most effective method recommended by WHO to carry MTP in 1st trimester is…..
A. Antiprogesterones
B. combination of prostaglandin & antiprogesterones
C. Prostaglandin
D. Langali mool
Answer: B combination of prostaglandin & antiprogesterones
233. Cupping method is used for …..
A. induction of criminal abortion
B. diagnosis of pregnancy
C. diagnosis of sterility
D. treatment of hemorrhage
Answer: A induction of criminal abortion
234. The main culprit involved in rapid development of sepsis in criminal abortion is…….
A. E. coli
B. Staphylococci
C. C. Welchii
D. Steptococcci
Answer: C C. Welchii
235. In PM examination of criminal abortion if cause of death is…….. pre-autopsy radiology of chest and abdomen is recommended.
A. Heamorrhage
B. Air embolism
C. vagal inhibition
D. Sepsis
Answer: B Air embolism
236. Presence of ……. under microscope in the cells of placental site is sure sign of pregnancy.
A. Chorionic villi
B. enlarged endometrium
C. red blood cells
D. Pus cells
Answer: A Chorionic villi
237. At ….. week gallbladder of foetus contain bile.
A. 24th week
B. 22th week
C. 20th week
D. 28th week
Answer: D 28th week
238. Flouting of lung pieces even after removal of tidal air by squeezing, indicative of ……
A. still birth
B. live birth
C. dead born
D. premature birth
Answer: B live birth
239. The specific gravity of un-respired lung is…..
A. 1.04
B. 2.04
C. 1.94
D. 0.94
Answer: A 1.04
240. Presence of extraneous material in distal respiratory passage strongly suggestive of ……
A. still birth
B. live birth
C. dead born
D. premature birth
Answer: B live birth
241. The weight of infant lung after respiration is……
A. 80-90gm
B. 60-70gm
C. 30-40gm
D. 20-30gm
Answer: C 30-40gm
242. ……. appearance is a specific sign of respired lung in PM finding of suspected case of infanticide.
A. Uniform reddish-brown
B. Rosy coloured
C. Mottled
D. Spongy
Answer: C Mottled
243. Dense, firm, non-crepitant and liver like lung is a characteristic feature of……. lung
A. Un-respired lung
B. respired lung
C. Injured lung with pointed weapon
D. pneumonia affected
Answer: A Un-respired lung
244. The highest point of position of diaphragm in un respired newborn is…..rib.
A. 4th-5th
B. 6th-7th
C. 5th-6th
D. 3rd-4th
Answer: A 4th-5th
245. The loss of alignment and over-riding of cranial bones is called as ……
A. Spalding sign
B. Chandwich sign
C. Hegar’s sign
D. Ploucquet’s sign
Answer: A Spalding sign
246. The important evidence of attainment of maturity in foetus is presence of ossification center in the ……
A. lower end of humerus
B. lower end of femur
C. upper end of humerus
D. upper end of femur
Answer: B lower end of femur
247. The presence of maceration is important sign for diagnosis of …….
A. Still born
B. Dead born
C. Live born
D. full term born
Answer: B Dead born
248. Infant life preservation act 1929 have fixed the …. of gestation for the onset of viability.
A. 36 weeks
B. 28 weeks
C. 40 weeks
D. 20 weeks
Answer: B 28 weeks
249. Combination of sinking and flouting of some lung pieces of even after removal of tidal air by squeezing, indicative of ……
A. a) external efforts of artificial respiration
B. No respiration
C. established respiration
D. Feeble respiration
Answer: D Feeble respiration
250. Expanded respired lung of live birth may sink due to……in Hydrostatic test.
A. Atelectasis
B. Putrefactive gases
C. Artificial respiration
D. obstruction in pulmonary circulation
Answer: A Atelectasis
251. Hydrostatic test is recommended in presence of …….
A. signs of intrauterine maceration
B. separated umbilical sign with cicatrisation of umbilicus
C. stomach contain milk
D. evidence of oedema of lungs in histology
Answer: D evidence of oedema of lungs in histology
252. ……..is not the legally accepted evidence of live birth
A. expanded lungs
B. cicatrization of umbilicus
C. Food in stomach
D. air in gastrointestinal tract
Answer: D air in gastrointestinal tract
253. A space occupying blood clot beneath the periosteum of skull is called as …
A. subgaleal haematoma
B. cephalo-haematoma
C. skull heamatoma
D. caput succedaneum
Answer: B cephalo-haematoma
254. A transient congestion and oedema in the scalp tissue on presenting region of head is called as……
A. subgaleal haematoma
B. cephalo-haematoma
C. caput succedaneum
D. skull heamatoma
Answer: C caput succedaneum
255. The cephalo-haematoma gets resolved in ……
A. 1 to 4 days
B. 5 to 8 days
C. 6 to 10 days
D. 12 to 15 days
Answer: D 12 to 15 days
256. In neonate the portion of umbilical cord attached to child gets shivered, mummified and falls off within….
A. 12-24 hrs
B. 48 -72 hrs
C. 36-48 hrs
D. 5 -6 days
Answer: D 5 -6 days
257. The neonatal red blood cells disappear from the peripheral circulation within ….
A. 12 hrs
B. 24 hrs
C. 48 hrs
D. 72 hrs
Answer: B 24 hrs
258. …… is a common and difficult to prove mode to cause infanticide.
A. Head injuries
B. Strangulation
C. Smothering
D. poisoning
Answer: C Smothering
259. The penalty for violation of PC&PNDT Act 1994 by RMP is proved for second offence is …….
A. imprisonment for 3 yrs & fine upto 10,000/-
B. removal of name from register for 5yrs
C. imprisonment for 3 yrs & fine upto
D. permanent removal of name from 50,000/- register
Answer: D permanent removal of name from 50,000/- register
260. Sec 318 is related to……
A. Criminal abortion
B. grievous injury
C. dowry case
D. concealment of birth
Answer: D concealment of birth
261. The penalty for violation of PC&PNDT Act 1994 by RMP is proved for first offence is ……..
A. imprisonment for 3 yrs & fine upto 10,000/-
B. removal of name from register for 5 yrs
C. imprisonment for 3 yrs & fine upto 50,000/-
D. permanent removal of name from register
Answer: B removal of name from register for 5 yrs
262. In suspected infanticide the displacement of Wharton’s jelly is suggestive of attempt of …
A. Head injuries
B. Strangulation
C. Smothering
D. poisoning
Answer: B Strangulation
263. In precipitated labour ……is not seen in infant.
A. Caput succedaneum
B. head injury
C. fracture in skull
D. hematoma
Answer: A Caput succedaneum
264. …….does not falls under the criteria of primary identification data.
A. Age
B. Sex
C. Finger print
D. Stature
Answer: C Finger print
265. The skull of Negroids are…….
A. Meso-cephalic
B. Brachy-cephalic
C. Dalico-cephalic
D. Mono-cephalic
Answer: C Dalico-cephalic
266. The cephalic index of Caucasians is …….
A. 75-80
B. 70-75
C. 80-85
D. 65-70
Answer: A 75-80
267. Short upper and lower extremities are the characteristic of ……..
A. Indians
B. Negroids
C. Caucasians
D. Mangoloids
Answer: D Mangoloids
268. Proportionately longer leg than thigh is characteristic of…….
A. Indians
B. Negroids
C. Caucasians
D. Mangoloids
Answer: B Negroids
269. Brachial index is an indices measured from…..
A. skull
B. long bone of upper extremities
C. long bone of lower extremities
D. long bone of upper & lower extremities
Answer: B long bone of upper extremities
270. Crural index is an indices measured from…..
A. skull
B. long bone of upper extremities
C. long bone of lower extremities
D. long bone of upper & lower extremities
Answer: C long bone of lower extremities
271. The Blumen Back’s classification of race is based on ….
A. colour of skin
B. colour of hair
C. colour of iris
D. Indices of bone
Answer: A colour of skin
272. The cephalic index of Indians is……
A. 75-80
B. 80-85
C. 65-70
D. 70-75
Answer: A 75-80
273. In highly decomposed body identification of….. is possible.
A. Prostate
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Thyroid
Answer: A Prostate
274. The accuracy of sex determination from whole skeleton is…..
A. 90%
B. 95%
C. 98%
D. 100%
Answer: D 100%
275. The accuracy of sex determination from skull and pelvic bone is…..
A. 90%
B. 95%
C. 98%
D. 100%
Answer: C 98%
276. The sex can be determined from pelvic bone alone with accuracy of…..
A. 90%
B. 95%
C. 98%
D. 100%
Answer: B 95%
277. ……bone is not useful in determination of sex
A. Sacrum
B. Mandible
C. Sternum
D. Clavicle
Answer: D Clavicle
278. 22] In male the obturator foramen is ……..
A. Oval
B. Triangular
C. Rectangular
D. Square
Answer: A Oval
279. In female length of body of sternum is ….. the length of manubrium.
A. Less than twice
B. equal to
C. more than twice
D. twice
Answer: A Less than twice
280. In male upper border of manubrium is at the level of……..
A. lower margin of second thoracic vertebra
B. lower margin of third thoracic vertebra
C. upper margin of second thoracic vertebra
D. lower margin of first thoracic vertebra
Answer: A lower margin of second thoracic vertebra
281. The diameter of glenoid cavity of female scapula is……
A. more than 3.5 cm
B. less than 3.5cm
C. 3.5 cm
D. none
Answer: B less than 3.5cm
282. ….pattern of sex chromosomes are frequently visible under microscope.
A. XX
B. XY
C. XXY
D. XO
Answer: A XX
283. The spherical compact masses having drumstick appearance present in neutrophils are called as……
A. Barr bodies
B. Davidson bodies
C. Montegmeries tubercle
D. Negri bodies
Answer: B Davidson bodies
284. The planoconvex masses situated inside the nucleus is called as…..
A. Barr bodies
B. Davidson bodies
C. Montegmeries tubercle
D. Negri bodies
Answer: A Barr bodies
285. In female Davidson bodies are seen in…..
A. 15%
B. 10%
C. 3%
D. 1%
Answer: C 3%
286. In Turner’s syndrome the sex chromosomal pattern is…..
A. XY
B. XXY
C. XX
D. X0
Answer: D X0
287. A female with short structure, webbed neck & sterility is seen in….
A. Turner’s syndrome
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Gonadal agenesis
D. pseudo hermaphrodites
Answer: A Turner’s syndrome
288. In gonadal agenesis the pattern of sex chromosome is….
A. XY
B. XXY
C. XX
D. 00
Answer: D 00
289. An anatomically male with XXY chromosome pattern is seen in……
A. Turner’s syndrome
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Gonadal agenesis
D. Pseudo hermaphrodites
Answer: B Klinefelter’s syndrome
290. When ovaries and testis both are present in an individual that condition is labeled as……
A. True hermaphrodites
B. Pseudo hermaphrodites
C. Turner’s syndrome
D. Klinefelter’s syndrome
Answer: A True hermaphrodites
291. The germination of deciduous teeth starts in maxilla by…..
A. 4th /5th intrauterine month
B. 6th /7th extrauterine month
C. 4th /5th extrauterine month
D. 6th /7th intrauterine month
Answer: A 4th /5th intrauterine month
292. ….. formula is used to estimate age of infant from teeth.
A. Boyde’s
B. Mile’s
C. Gustafson’s
D. Point
Answer: A Boyde’s
293. Other than age the teeth also helps to determine…….
A. Sex
B. Blood group
C. race
D. All
Answer: D All
294. …….is most reliable long bone used to estimate age of a person.
A. femur
B. humerus
C. skull
D. tibia
Answer: A femur
295. As per Barcroft the pathological condition where oxygen is prevented from reaching the lungs is known as…..
A. Anoxic anoxia
B. Stagnant anoxia
C. Anemic anoxia
D. Histotoxic anoxia
Answer: A Anoxic anoxia
296. As per Barcroft the pathological condition where available oxygen cannot be utilized by tissues is known as…..
A. Anoxic anoxia
B. Stagnant anoxia
C. Anemic anoxia
D. Histotoxic anoxia
Answer: D Histotoxic anoxia
297. In …..poisoning the tissue gets poisoned leading to extracellular histotoxic anoxia.
A. Chloroform
B. Halothane
C. Cyanide
D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: C Cyanide
298. ..….. affects the entry of oxygen in the tissues due to decrease in cell membrane permeability.
A. Chloroform
B. Carbon dioxide
C. cyanide
D. Carbon monoxide
Answer: A Chloroform
299. In ….poisoning the end product of cellular respiration cannot be removed.
A. Chloroform
B. Cyanide
C. Halothane
D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: D Carbon dioxide
300. The bond of carboxyhaemoglobin leads to …….
A. Anoxic anoxia
B. Anemic anoxia
C. Stagnant anoxia
D. Histotoxic anoxia
Answer: B Anemic anoxia
301. Death in house fire is mostly contributed to …..
A. Carbon dioxide poisoning
B. Burns
C. Carbon monoxide poisoning
D. Traumatic asphyxia
Answer: C Carbon monoxide poisoning
302. The typical ……colour in area of hypostasis is evident in carbon monoxide poisoning.
A. cherry pink
B. Bluish purple
C. brownish black
D. Greenish
Answer: A cherry pink
303. Foetus is more vulnerable to Carbon monoxide poisoning than adult because……
A. Greater content of haemoglobin
B. lower partial pressure of oxygen
C. Tendency to cause greater tissue hypoxia
D. All
Answer: D All
304. Bilateral necrosis of basal ganglia & globus pallidus are typically seen in delayed death from…..
A. CO poisoning
B. CO2 poisoning
C. drowning
D. hanging
Answer: A CO poisoning
305. Accidental deaths occur near lime kilns due to…… poisoning
A. CO
B. barbiturate
C. CO2
D. Cyanide
Answer: C CO2
306. Blood saturation of…. Gas has no diagnostic value in medicolegal cases.
A. CO
B. NO2
C. CO2
D. Cyanide
Answer: C CO2
307. In smothering ….. finding has great evidential value.
A. presence of foreign material in nostrils and deeper respiratory passage
B. petechial hemorrhages on forehead
C. Cyanosis of lips and ear lobes
D. Crescentic abrasion marks on face
Answer: A presence of foreign material in nostrils and deeper respiratory passage
308. Cause of accidental asphyxia death in ‘born in caul’ is…….
A. choking
B. smothering
C. gagging
D. strangulation
Answer: B smothering
309. In smothering ….. finding has great evidential value.
A. Bruising in inner aspect of lips
B. petechial hemorrhages on forehead
C. Cyanosis of lips and ear lobes
D. Crescentic abrasion marks on face
Answer: A Bruising in inner aspect of lips
310. Bruising in inner aspect of lips is a very important evidential finding in……
A. choking
B. smothering
C. gagging
D. strangulation
Answer: B smothering
311. The blockage of internal upper respiratory passage by liquid medium is called as…..
A. Smothering
B. Drowning
C. Mugging
D. Gagging
Answer: B Drowning
312. The cause of death in ‘café coronary’ case is ……
A. cardiac arrest due to vagal inhibition
B. Alcohol intoxication
C. cardiac arrest by myocardial infarction
D. choking by swallowen food
Answer: A cardiac arrest due to vagal inhibition
313. The method of homicidal smothering and traumatic asphyxia is renowned as….
A. Lynching
B. Café coronary
C. Burking
D. Postural asphyxia
Answer: C Burking
314. Pink colored Postmortem hypostasis is confined to head, neck and front of upper part of chest indicative of….. as cause of death.
A. Drowning
B. Hanging
C. Traumatic asphyxia
D. Postural asphyxia
Answer: A Drowning
315. The assessment of difference of level of chloride in right and left side of heart is known as ……
A. Swann test
B. Hegar’s test
C. Diatom test
D. Gettler’s test
Answer: D Gettler’s test
316. The chloride content of left side of heart in fresh water drowning is ….. than right side of heart.
A. lower
B. equal
C. higher
D. 25% higher
Answer: A lower
317. Development of cutis anserina is a Post mortem finding seen in……
A. Drowning
B. Thermal injury
C. Burking
D. Hanging
Answer: A Drowning
318. Contact flattening is reflection of ……..
A. Rigor mortis
B. Algor mortis
C. Primary relaxation
D. Livor mortis
Answer: A Rigor mortis
319. The most frequently found pattern of figure print is……
A. Loop
B. Arch
C. Whorl
D. Composite
Answer: A Loop
320. Study of measurement of various parts of human body is called as……
A. Bertillon system
B. Poroscopy
C. Galton system
D. Podogram
Answer: A Bertillon system
321. With ……technique comparison of pores of two figure prints is studied.
A. Dactylography
B. Birtillon’s system
C. Poroscopy
D. Galton system
Answer: C Poroscopy
322. The raise in temperature after death is called as…..
A. Algor mortis
B. Livor mortis
C. Postmortem caloricity
D. Rigor mortis
Answer: C Postmortem caloricity
323. The intraocular tension after death becomes nil after ….. hrs.
A. 1 hr
B. 0.5hr
C. 1.5 hr
D. 2hr
Answer: D 2hr
324. ……….is the earliest sign of death.
A. loss of ocular tension
B. Changes in retina
C. Taches Noire Scleroitiques
D. Haziness of cornea
Answer: B Changes in retina
325. The marked low blood pH can be detected during stage of …….
A. Primary relaxation
B. Rigor mortis
C. secondary relaxation
D. cadaveric spasm.
Answer: B Rigor mortis
326. The most favorable condition for development of mummification is……
A. hot and dry atmosphere
B. hot and moist atmosphere
C. body submerged in water
D. well ventilated room
Answer: A hot and dry atmosphere
327. ……..has evidential value of antemortem origin indicating last act before death.
A. Cadaveric spasm
B. rigor mortis
C. heat stiffening
D. cold stiffening
Answer: A Cadaveric spasm
328. Rigor mortis first appears in voluntary muscles of……
A. Neck
B. eye
C. Heart
D. face
Answer: B eye
329. Rigor mortis develops in a foetus beyond ……intrauterine life.
A. 180 days
B. 280 days
C. 210 days
D. 250 days
Answer: C 210 days
330. Cherry red coloured Post-mortem staining is seen in…….poisoning
A. HCN
B. NaCN
C. KCN
D. CO
Answer: A HCN
331. The rate of cooling in…..medium is maximum.
A. body in coffin
B. water
C. Grave
D. air
Answer: B water
332. Feather test is performed for confirmation of stoppage of function of ……
A. Lungs
B. Heart
C. Brain
D. Liver
Answer: A Lungs
333. What are the causative agents of inflammatory diarrohea?
A. Shigella
B. Salmonella
C. E.coli
D. All
Answer: D All
334. ….. is not the content of lytic cocktail which is used in Scorpion sting treatment.
A. Chlopromazine
B. Promethazine
C. Naloxone
D. Pethidine
Answer: C Naloxone
335. . “In Scorpion sting treatment” Alpha blockers are used to
A. Antagtonize the effect of catecholamines
B. Reduce preload, after load and blood pressure
C. Increase insulin secretion
D. All of the above
Answer: D All of the above
336. Which of the following is type of Autopsy?
A. Clinical
B. Medicolegal
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C Both
337. Objectives for Autopsy are
A. To determine the cause of death
B. To determine identity of deceased.
C. To check the viability of foetus
D. All
Answer: D All
338. Authority to carry out Autopsy in case of ‘death in prison’ is
A. Police sub Inspector
B. Station House officer
C. Executive Magistrate class1
D. ACP
Answer: C Executive Magistrate class1
339. Which of the following is pre requisite to perform Autopsy?
A. PIR
B. Dead Body Challan
C. Hospital record
D. All
Answer: D All
340. Lacerations around lips and cheeks indicates
A. Gagging
B. Throttling
C. Bansdola
D. Burking
Answer: A Gagging
341. How many types of incisions are taken in Autopsy?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 10
D. 5
Answer: B 4
342. In deaths due to compression of neck ….. is open first.
A. Abdomen
B. Neck
C. Head
D. Thorax
Answer: C Head
343. During Autopsy of spine and spinal cord, cord is removed by
A. Cutting the cord at regular intervals
B. By removing the cord along with the spine
C. Separating at foramen Magnum
D. Both A and B.
Answer: C Separating at foramen Magnum
344. External examination of corpse shall be preferably
A. Head to toe
B. Toe to head
C. From right side
D. From left side
Answer: A Head to toe
345. Examination of extremities is done for –
A. Varicosity
B. Defence wounds
C. Length
D. All
Answer: D All
346. ‘Y’ shaped incision is taken as
A. Mastoid process to manubrium sterni
B. Thyroid cartilage to pubic symphysis
C. Anterior axillary fold to xiphisternum
D. From shoulders to manubrium sterni
Answer: D From shoulders to manubrium sterni
347. Flattened contour of thorax is seen in corpse with
A. Petechieal Haemorrhages
B. Fracture of ribs
C. Fracture of Sternum
D. Emphysema
Answer: C Fracture of Sternum
348. Which of the following is not examined in the corpse where the death is due to compression of neck?
A. Hyoid bone
B. Digastric muscle
C. Thyroid cartilage
D. Carotids
Answer: B Digastric muscle
349. Overdistension of right side of heart is suggestive of
A. Fat embolism
B. Clot
C. Air embolism
D. Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
Answer: C Air embolism
350. Napthalene is not absorbed and metabolized as
A. Alpha Napthol
B. Beta Napthol
C. Gamma Napthol
D. Napthol quinines
Answer: C Gamma Napthol
351. Haemolytic crisis is seen in
A. Mercury
B. Lead
C. Copper
D. Napthalene
Answer: D Napthalene
352. Glue sniffer’s rash is seen in
A. Phosphorus
B. Lead
C. Volatile substance
D. Hydrocarbons
Answer: C Volatile substance
353. How many types of Vruschika are mentioned by Sushruta?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B 3
354. In case of Manda Visha Vrschika which oil is used for sechan?
A. Veertarvadi Gana siddha Taila
B. Asanadi Gana siddha Taila
C. Vidaryadi Gana siddha Taila
D. Vishagna siddha Taila
Answer: C Vidaryadi Gana siddha Taila
355. [email protected] …… Pa`yaaoijat: ÈÈ
A. ]drPa`doSao
B. ]ÉPa`doSao
C. ]raoPa`doSao
D. payaudoSao
Answer: D payaudoSao
356. Examination of the dead body is carried out in
A. Ultra violet light
B. Moonlight
C. Commercial lamps
D. Natural light
Answer: D Natural light
357. Clothes of corpse gives inference about
A. Occupation
B. Religion
C. Ethnicity
D. All
Answer: D All
358. How many types of scorpion are present in India?
A. 98
B. 99
C. 100
D. 101
Answer: B 99
359. Visha prasar in Alarka visha is due to
A. Lalastrav
B. Raktastrav
C. Dansha
D. Shukrastrav
Answer: C Dansha
360. Visha Adhishthan in Alarka visha is
A. Lalastrav
B. Tundasthi
C. Nakha
D. Sweda
Answer: A Lalastrav
361. …… is the lakshan of Unmat Chatushpad
A. Prastrastalangul hanuskandho
B. Atilalavan
C. Anyonyabhidhavati
D. All
Answer: D All
362. Which is not the sthanik lakshan of Unmat Chatushpad Dansha?
A. Trushna
B. Supti
C. Kleda
D. Vikunchanam
Answer: A Trushna
363. dMSaavadarNaM Saaof is the lakshan of
A. Sarpa Dansha
B. Alarka Dansha
C. Mooshak Dansha
D. Loota
Answer: B Alarka Dansha
364. Exhumation is very rare in
A. India
B. Scotland
C. France
D. Germany
Answer: A India
365. Objectives of Exhumation are
A. Identification
B. Second Autopsy
C. Establishing cause of death
D. All
Answer: D All
366. Which is not the precautionary measure to carry out exhumation?
A. Orders from DM
B. Draining water and Vegetation shall not be collected
C. Shall be done in early morning hours to maintain privacy
D. Identification of Grave
Answer: B Draining water and Vegetation shall not be collected
367. During Exhumation what is not to be done?
A. Sprinkling of disinfectants
B. Collecting the debris
C. Clicking the photograph of coffin
D. Identification of coffin
Answer: A Sprinkling of disinfectants
368. Which of the following is required for second Autopsy (Exhumation)?
A. First Autopsy report
B. Hospital record
C. PIR
D. All
Answer: D All
369. Which of the following is not the determinants of toxicity of Hydrocarbons?
A. Volatility
B. Ductility
C. Viscosity
D. Surface tension
Answer: B Ductility
370. Toxicity of Petroleum distillates is inversely proportional to
A. Volatility
B. Viscosity
C. Boiling Point
D. Fluidity
Answer: C Boiling Point
371. Fatal Dose of Kerosene on ingestion is
A. 10 ml
B. 50ml
C. 2 ml
D. 20ml
Answer: A 10 ml
372. Maximum allowable concentration of Kerosene in air is
A. 100 ppm
B. 500 ppm
C. 800 ppm
D. 1000 ppm
Answer: B 500 ppm
373. Specific feature appearing on ingestion of Benzene and Toluene is
A. Vomiting
B. Diarrohoea
C. Haemetemesis
D. Colicky pain
Answer: C Haemetemesis
374. In case of Hydrocarbons toxicity, Bronchospasm occurs when
A. Poison enters the URT
B. Poison enters LRT
C. Poison is in Nasopharynx
D. Poison enters oesophagus
Answer: B Poison enters LRT
375. In Hydrocarbon toxicity, CNS depression occurs due to
A. CNS Toxicity
B. Pulmonary Toxicity
C. GI Toxicity
D. Systemic Toxicity
Answer: B Pulmonary Toxicity
376. Intravenous injection of Kerosene will produce
A. Cyanosis
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Both A and B
D. None
Answer: C Both A and B
377. Emesis is indicated in the treatment of which poisons?
A. Gasoline
B. Benzene
C. Kerosene
D. None
Answer: D None
378. Which is not the Post Mortem appearance in case of Hydrocarbons poisoning?
A. Acute Gastroenteritis
B. Pulmonary Oedema
C. Hypoplasia of Bone marrow
D. Chalky white appearance of gastric mucosa
Answer: D Chalky white appearance of gastric mucosa
379. Napthalene is used in
A. Pesticide industry
B. Insulating material on electric wires
C. Dye industry
D. All
Answer: D All
380. Napthalene is classified as
A. Irritant poison
B. Somniferous
C. Household Poison
D. Both A and C
Answer: D Both A and C
381. Which symptom is seen in intial stage of Napthalene ingestion?
A. Hemolytic crisis
B. Pallor
C. Strangury
D. Mild Jaundice
Answer: C Strangury
382. Napthalene toxicity if left untreated, leads to
A. Jaundice
B. Acute Nephritis
C. Optic Neuritis
D. All
Answer: D All
383. Magnesium sulphate is used for
A. Bowel emptying
B. Induction of Emesis
C. Maintaining the Hydration
D. None
Answer: B Induction of Emesis
384. In case of Napthalene poisoning, NaHCO3 is administered for
A. Maintaining the acidity of urine and preventing the precipitation of acid Haematin and blocking of Renal tubules
B. Maintaining the acidity of urine and preventing the precipitation of Uric acid and blocking the Renal Tubules
C. Maintaining the Alkalinity of urine and preventing the precipitation of acid Haematin and blocking of renal tubules
D. Maintaining of Alkalinity of urine and preventing the formation of Urea and blocking of calyx.
Answer: C Maintaining the Alkalinity of urine and preventing the precipitation of acid Haematin and blocking of renal tubules
385. Hydrocortisone in Napthalene poisoning is useful for
A. Pallor
B. Haemolysis
C. Strangury
D. Vomiting
Answer: B Haemolysis
386. Rhabdovirus is –
A. RNA virus
B. Neurotrophic filtrable virus
C. Bullet shaped
D. All
Answer: D All
387. Pathway of Rhabdovirus in animals is
A. From Mouth via afferent nerves to brain
B. From Brain via efferent nerves to Salivary Glands
C. From Salivary glands via afferent nerves to Brain
D. None
Answer: B From Brain via efferent nerves to Salivary Glands
388. Rhabdovirus on reaching CNS leads to
A. Encephalitis
B. Myelitis
C. Parkinsonism
D. Both A and B
Answer: D Both A and B
389. Incubation period of Rabies virus varies according to
A. Age
B. Site of Bite
C. Both A and B
D. None
Answer: C Both A and B
390. Which of the following is not the stage of development of clinical feature of rabies?
A. Premonitory stage
B. Stage of irritability or Excitement
C. Stage of Paralysis
D. Stage of Narcosis
Answer: D Stage of Narcosis
391. Rabies is detected by
A. X- Ray of the affected part
B. CT scan
C. MRI of the affected part
D. Presence of Negri Bodies
Answer: D Presence of Negri Bodies
392. Dose of HDCV
A. 1.5 IU IV
B. 2.5 IU IM
C. 2 IU IM
D. 2.5 IU IV
Answer: D 2.5 IU IV
393. Schedule for PVRV (VERORAB) is
A. Pre Exposure 3 doses, Post Exposure 5 doses
B. Pre Exposure 2 doses, Post Exposure 5 doses
C. Pre Exposure 3 doses, Post Exposure 4 doses
D. Pre Exposure 5doses, Post Exposure 3 doses
Answer: A Pre Exposure 3 doses, Post Exposure 5 doses
394. Which are the 2 I.D. regimen for immunization in rabies?
A. Oxford Regimen and Harvard Regimen
B. Oxford Regimen and Boston Regimen
C. Thai Regimen and Harvard Regimen
D. Oxford Regimen and Thai Regimen
Answer: D Oxford Regimen and Thai Regimen
395. Which statement is not true
A. RIG can be administered upto 7 days after administration of Potent tissue culture vaccine.
B. Beyond 7 days RIG is not indicated as antibody response to vaccination
C. RIG shall be infiltered and around the wound even if it has begun to heal
D. None
Answer: D None
396. Which of the following statements regarding wound in case of animal bite is not true?
A. Wash the wound with the plain water.
B. Wash the wound with soap in the running water
C. Irrigate virucidal agents,apply Povidone, cut and debride and do suturing.
D. Irrigate virucidal agents,apply Povidone, cut and debride and don’t suture, keep open.
Answer: C Irrigate virucidal agents,apply Povidone, cut and debride and do suturing.
397. According to Charak, Dushivisha keetadashta laskhana is
A. Kandu
B. Daha
C. Visarpa
D. All
Answer: D All
398. According to Sushrut, How many types of Loota Visha are Sadhya and Asadhya?
A. 10 Sadhya, 6 Asadhya
B. 8 Sadhya, 8 Asadhya
C. 9 Sadhya, 7 Asadhya
D. 12 Sadhya, 4 Asadhya
Answer: B 8 Sadhya, 8 Asadhya
399. How many types of Dushivisha Mooshak are there according to Charak?
A. 10
B. 14
C. 18
D. 20
Answer: C 18
400. Visha Adhisthan of Mooshak is
A. Shukra
B. Lala
C. Nakha
D. Danta
Answer: A Shukra
401. How many types of Krukalasaka are there according to Sushrut?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: B 5
402. How many types of Manduka are considered by Acharya Sushrut?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: D 8
403. Which of the following is not the symptom of Savisha Jalauka Dansha according to Charak?
A. Kandu
B. Shotha
C. Jwara
D. Pipasa
Answer: D Pipasa
404. According to Sushrut, How many types of Mashak are there?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 10
D. 5
Answer: D 5
405. Types of Makshika according to Sushrut
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: B 6
406. Which Makshika dansha is regarded as Pranahar according to Charak?
A. Sthagika
B. Kantarika
C. Pingala
D. Krushna
Answer: A Sthagika
407. Ucchitinga are also named as Ushtradhoomak and Ratrika by
A. Sushrut
B. Vagbhat
C. Yogratnakar
D. Chakrapani
Answer: B Vagbhat
408. According to Charak, Sheetopchar is not done in which 2 Visha badha
A. Rajimant Sarpa and Vrushchika
B. Vrushcika and Ucchitinga
C. Vrushchika and Jalauka
D. Jalauka and Matsya
Answer: B Vrushcika and Ucchitinga
409. Rabies virus has neurotropism to
A. GABA receptors
B. Acetylcholine
C. Serotonin
D. All
Answer: D All
410. Panchakapitha ghrut destroys the poisons of
A. All types of Vruschika
B. All types of Mooshak
C. All types of Matsya Visha
D. All types of Jalauka
Answer: B All types of Mooshak
411. According to Sushrut, which poison if left untreated becomes similar to Dushivisha ?
A. Matsya
B. Keeta
C. Jalauka
D. Mooshak
Answer: D Mooshak
412. While biting, Formic acid is secreted by
A. Rats
B. Fish
C. Leech
D. Ants
Answer: D Ants
413. According to Vagbhat, How many Visha Adhishthan are there in Loota (Spider)?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Answer: C 8