250+ TOP MCQs on Wells and Answers

Civil Engineering Drawing Multiple Choice Questions on “Wells”.

1. An _________ is an underground layer of water-bearing permeable rock, rock fractures or unconsolidated materials (gravel, sand, or silt) from which groundwater can be extracted using a water well.
a) Aquitard
b) Aqifuge
c) Aquiclude
d) Aquifer
Answer: d
Clarification: An aquifer is an underground layer of water-bearing permeable rock, rock fractures or unconsolidated materials (gravel, sand, or silt) from which groundwater can be extracted using a water well. The study of water flow in aquifers and the characterization of aquifers is called hydrogeology.

2. If the impermeable area overlies the aquifer, pressure could cause it to become a confined aquifer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Confined aquifers are those in which an impermeable dirt/rock layer exists that prevents water from seeping into the aquifer from the ground surface located directly above.

3. Shallow or unconfined wells are completed in the uppermost saturated aquifer at that location (the upper unconfined aquifer).
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Unconfined aquifers are those into which water seeps from the ground surface directly above the aquifer.

4. Production or pumping wells, are often smaller diameter wells used to monitor the hydraulic head or sample the groundwater for chemical constituents.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Monitoring wells or piezometers, are often smaller diameter wells used to monitor the hydraulic head or sample the groundwater for chemical constituents. Piezometers are monitoring wells completed over a very short section of aquifer. Monitoring wells can also be completed at multiple levels, allowing discrete samples or measurements to be made at different vertical elevations at the same map location.

5. Drilled wells can be excavated by simple hand drilling methods.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: (augering, sludging, jetting, driving, hand percussion) or machine drilling (rotary, percussion, down the hole hammer). Deeprock rotary drilling method is most common. Rotary can be used in 90% of formation types.
Drilled wells can get water from a much deeper level than dug wells can—often down to several hundred metres.

6. Water wells typically range from 3 to 18 metres (10–60 ft) deep, but in some areas can go deeper than 200 metre.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Water wells typically range from 3 to 18 metres (10–60 ft) deep, but in some areas can go deeper than 900 metres (3,000 ft).

7. Well development is the process of removing fine sediment and drilling fluid from the area immediately surrounding the perforations.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: This increases the well’s ability to produce water and maximize production from the aquifer. If the aquifer formation does not naturally have any relatively coarse particles to form a filter, it may be necessary for the driller to install an artificial filter pack. This pack is placed around the screen or perforations so the well can be developed. For example, this procedure is necessary when the aquifer is composed of fine sand and the individual grains are uniform.

8. Drilled wells are smaller in diameter, usually ranging from 10-20 cm (4-8 in.).
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: These are completed to much greater depths than bored wells, up to several hundred metres. The producing aquifer is generally less susceptible to pollution from surface sources because of the depth. Also, the water supply tends to be more reliable since it is less affected by seasonal weather patterns.

9. Sealing the well protects the well’s producing zone from contamination.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The diameter of the borehole is usually slightly larger than the casing being installed. The space between the borehole and the casing is called the annulus of the well or the annular space. It must be sealed to prevent any surface contamination from migrating downward and contaminating the water supply. A properly sealed annulus also prevents any mixing of poor quality water from upper aquifers with water from the producing aquifer of the well.

10. In the following figure, Part 1 represents?
civil-engineering-drawing-questions-answers-wells-q10,q11 and q12
a) inlet pipe
b) well
c) drainage pipe
d) outlet pipe
Answer: b
Clarification: A water well is an excavation or structure created in the ground by digging, driving, boring, or drilling to access groundwater in underground aquifers. The well water is drawn by a pump, or using containers, such as buckets, that are raised mechanically or by hand.

11. In the following figure, Part 3 represents?
civil-engineering-drawing-questions-answers-wells-q10,q11 and q12
a) rigid wall
b) water storage tank
c) garbage tank
d) water treatment tank
Answer: b
Clarification: A water tank is a container for storing water. Water tanks are used to provide storage of water for use in many applications, drinking water, irrigation agriculture, fire suppression, agricultural farming, both for plants and livestock, chemical manufacturing, food preparation as well as many other uses. Water tank parameters include the general design of the tank, and choice of construction materials, linings. Various materials are used for making a water tank: plastics (polyethylene, polypropylene), fiberglass, concrete, stone, steel (welded or bolted, carbon, or stainless).

12. In the following figure, Part 2 represents?
civil-engineering-drawing-questions-answers-wells-q10,q11 and q12
a) cut-out
b) generator
c) jet pump with pressure switch
d) power source
Answer: c
Clarification: A pump-jet, hydrojet, or water jet is a marine system that creates a jet of water for propulsion. The mechanical arrangement may be a ducted propeller (axial-flow pump), a centrifugal pump, or a mixed flow pump which is a combination of both centrifugal and axial designs. The design also incorporates an intake to provide water to the pump and a nozzle to direct the flow of water out of the pump.

13. __________ wells are constructed when low yielding groundwater sources are found relatively close to the surface, usually under 30 m (100 ft.). These are constructed using a rotary bucket auger.
a) Cap
b) Drilling
c) Bored
d) Surface
Answer: c
Clarification: They are usually completed by perforating the casing (also called cribbing) or using a sand screen with continuous slot openings (Bored Well). One advantage of bored wells is the large diameter of the casing, from 45-90 cm (18-36 in.). It provides a water storage reservoir for use during peak demand periods. A disadvantage of utilizing a shallow groundwater aquifer is that it generally relies on annual precipitation for recharge. Water shortages may occur following long dry periods in summer and extended freeze up during winter months. It can also be more susceptible to contamination from surface land-use activities.

14. There are two primary methods of drilling cable tool and ________
a) Rotary
b) Rotatory
c) Penetrating
d) Insertion
Answer: a
Clarification: Rotary drilled wells are constructed using a drill bit on the end of a rotating drillstem. Drilling fluid or air is circulated down through the drillstem in the hole and back to the surface to remove cuttings. Rotary drilling rigs operate quickly and can reach depths of over 300 m (1000 ft.), with casing diameters of 10-45 cm (4-18 in.).
Cable tool drilled wells are constructed by lifting and dropping a heavy drill bit in the bore hole. The resulting loose material, mixed with water, is removed using a bailer or sand pump. This method, also called percussion drilling, reaches depths up to 300 m (1000 ft.). Well diameters can range from 10-45 cm (4-18 in.). The drilling rate is typically much slower than for a rotary rig, but when aquifers are low yielding, they may be more easily identified using this method.

15. A commercially manufactured, vermin-proof _________ is the only type of cap designed to keep animals, insects and contaminants from entering your well.
a) animal cap
b) security cap
c) danger cap
d) well cap
Answer: d
Clarification: It comes equipped with rubber gaskets and screened vents to ensure vermin stay out and air can circulate through. Coverings for large diameter wells must be custom made because of their larger size. Ideally they should be made of steel, or fibreglass or plastic that is stamped for potable water use.

250+ TOP MCQs on Classification of Timber, Carpenter’s Work and Answers

Civil Engineering Drawing Multiple Choice Questions on “Classification of Timber, Carpenter’s Work”.

1. ___________ is a type of wood that has been processed into beams and planks, a stage in the process of wood production.
a) Log
b) Plank
c) Timber
d) Trees
Answer: c
Clarification: There are two main types of lumber. It may be supplied either rough-sawn, or surfaced on one or more of its faces. Besides pulpwood, rough lumber is the raw material for furniture-making and other items requiring additional cutting and shaping. It is available in many species, usually hardwoods; but it is also readily available in softwoods, such as white pine and red pine, because of their low cost.

2. One among the following is the insect and mollusk which is not responsible for the decay of timber?
a) Marine borers
b) Snake
c) Termites
d) Woodboring beetles
Answer: b
Clarification: Timber decay (rot) is caused by a biological attack within the wood by certain species of fungi. The fungus can lie dormant in the timber for years until the right conditions present themselves. The conditions needed are oxygen, moisture and nutrients, with moisture being the critical component. If moisture is not present in timber, then the fungi will remain dormant, even when oxygen and the nutrients they require are abundant.

3. There are two main natural forces responsible for causing defects in timber: abnormal growth and ____________________
a) rupture of tissues
b) insects
c) frost
d) rain
Answer: a
Clarification: Rupture of tissue includes cracks or splits in the wood called “shakes”. “Ring shake”, “wind shake”, or “ring failure” is when the wood grain separates around the growth rings either while standing or during felling. Shakes may reduce the strength of a timber and the appearance thus reduce lumber grade and may capture moisture, promoting decay. Eastern hemlock is known for having ring shake. A “check” is a crack on the surface of the wood caused by the outside of a timber shrinking as it seasons.

4. _______________ is a skilled trade in which the primary work performed is the cutting, shaping and installation of building materials.
a) Masonry
b) Plumber
c) Architecture
d) Carpentry
Answer: d
Clarification: Carpenters traditionally worked with natural wood and did the rougher work such as framing, but today many other materials are also used and sometimes the finer trades of cabinetmaking and furniture building are considered carpentry. Carpentry in the United States is almost always done by men. With 98.5% of carpenters being male, it was the fourth most male-dominated occupation in the country in 1999, and there were about 1.5 million positions in 2006. Carpenters are usually the first tradesmen on a job and the last to leave.

5. A _______________ is a carpenter who does fine and detailed work specializing in the making of cabinets made from wood, wardrobes, dressers, storage chest, and other furniture designed for storage.
a) Scenic carpenter
b) Log builder
c) Trim carpenter
d) Cabinetmaker
Answer: d
Clarification: A cabinet is a box-shaped piece of furniture with doors and/or drawers for storing miscellaneous items. Some cabinets standalone while others are built in to a wall or are attached to it like a medicine cabinet. Cabinets are typically made of wood, coated steel, or synthetic materials. Commercial grade cabinets, which differ in the materials used, are called casework.

6. The vertical timbers include _______ and wall studs.
a) logs
b) sheds
c) posts
d) plank
Answer: c
Clarification: A wall stud is a vertical framing member in a building’s wall of smaller cross section than a post. They are a fundamental element in frame building. A column or pillar in architecture and structural engineering is a structural element that transmits, through compression, the weight of the structure above to other structural elements below. In other words, a column is a compression member.

7. Wood contains water in three forms- vapour, bound or hygroscopic water and ____________
a) contact water
b) capillary water
c) free water
d) bulk water
Answer: c
Clarification: Free water: The bulk of water contained in the cell lumina is only held by capillary forces. It is not bound chemically and is called free water. Free water is not in the same thermodynamic state as liquid water: energy is required to overcome the capillary water. Furthermore, free water may contain chemicals, altering the drying characteristics of wood.
Bound or hygroscopic water: Bound water is bound to the wood via hydrogen bond. The attraction of wood for water arises from the presence of free hydroxyl (OH) groups in the cellulose hemicelluloses and lignin molecules in the cell wall. The hydroxyl groups are negatively charged. Because water is a polar liquid, the free hydroxyl groups in cellulose attract and hold water by hydrogen bonding.
Vapor: Water in cell lumina in the form of water vapour is normally negligible at normal temperature and humidity.

8. Rough lumber is supplied in standard sizes, mostly for the construction industry.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Clarification: Finished lumber is supplied in standard sizes, mostly for the construction industry- primarily softwood, from coniferous species, including pine, fir and spruce (collectively spruce-pine-fir), cedar, and hemlock, but also some hardwood, for high-grade flooring. It is classified more commonly made from softwood than hardwoods, and 80% of lumber comes from softwood.

9. Dimensional lumber is lumber that is cut to standardized width and depth, specified in inches.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Carpenters extensively use dimensional lumber in framing wooden buildings. Common sizes include 2×4 (pictured) (also two-by-four and other variants, such as four-by-two in Australia, New Zealand, and the UK), 2×6, and 4×4. The length of a board is usually specified separately from the width and depth. It is thus possible to find 2×4s that are four, eight, and twelve feet in length.

10. Laminated veneer lumber (LVL) comes in 1 (frac{3}{4}) inch thicknesses with depths such as 9 (frac{1}{2}), 11 (frac{7}{8}), 14, 16, 18, and 24 inches, and are often doubled or tripled up.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: They function as beams to provide support over large spans, such as removed support walls and garage door openings, places where dimensional lumber is insufficient, and also in areas where a heavy load is bearing from a floor, wall or roof above on a somewhat short span where dimensional lumber is impractical.

11. Wood with less than 25% moisture (dry weight basis) can remain free of decay for centuries.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Fungi attack timber when these conditions are all present:
-The timber moisture content is above 25% on a dry-weight basis
-The environment is sufficiently warm
-Oxygen (O2) is present.

12. The seasoning of lumber is typically either kiln- or air-dried.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Wood drying (also seasoning lumber or wood seasoning) reduces the moisture content of wood before its use. When the drying is done in a kiln, the product is known as kiln-dried timber or lumber, whereas air drying is the more traditional method.

13. Green carpentry is a specialization in the use of green timber.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Clarification: Green carpentry is the specialization in the use of environmentally friendly, energy-efficient and sustainable sources of building materials for use in construction projects. They also practice building methods that require using less material and material that has the same structural soundness.

14. Carpenters normally framed post-and-beam buildings until the end of the 19th century; now this old fashioned carpentry is called timber framing.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Timber framing and “post-and-beam” construction are traditional methods of building with heavy timbers, creating structures using squared-off and carefully fitted and joined timbers with joints secured by large wooden pegs. It is commonplace in wooden buildings from the 19th century and earlier. If the structural frame of load-bearing timber is left exposed on the exterior of the building it may be referred to as half-timbered, and in many cases the infill between timbers will be used for decorative effect.

15. Box frame is a simple timber frame made of straight vertical and horizontal pieces with a common rafter roof without purlins.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The term box frame is not well defined and has been used for any kind of framing other than cruck framing. The distinction presented here is the roof load is carried by the exterior walls. Purlins are also in a simple timber frame.

250+ TOP MCQs on Orientation of Building and House Planning and Answers

Civil Engineering Drawing Multiple Choice Questions on “Orientation of Building and House Planning”.

1. The building orientation determines the amount of radiation it receives.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Building orientation refers to the way a building is situated on a site and the positioning of windows, rooflines, and other features.

2. In the equatorial location, if solar heat gain is to be avoided, the main windows should face East or West.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: In the equatorial location, if solar heat gain is to be avoided, the main windows should face north or south. At the higher latitude, an orientation away from the Equator would receive the least sunshine, but here it may be desirable to have some solar heat gain in winter, when the sun is low- so an orientation towards the Equator may be preferable.

3. It is also advised to place unconditioned spaces (garages, closets and other buffer places) in the east and west sides.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Orientation for taking advantage of breezes in warm and humid climate and for prevention of hot winds in hot and dry climates is important but not as critical as orientation for solar heat control.

4. In winter, much more radiation falls on the horizontal surface than on the north face.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: This is because the sun is much higher in the sky, so that the angle of incidence favours the horizontal surface.

5. Daylighting is the practice of placing windows, other openings, and reflective surfaces so that sunlight (direct or indirect) can provide effective internal lighting.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Energy savings can be achieved from the reduced use of artificial (electric) lighting or from passive solar heating. Artificial lighting energy use can be reduced by simply installing fewer electric lights where daylight is present or by automatically dimming/switching off electric lights in response to the presence of daylight – a process known as daylight harvesting.

6. During the winter, ACH may range from 0.50 to 0.41 in a tightly air-sealed house to 1.11 to 1.47 in a loosely air-sealed house.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: For residential buildings, which mostly rely on infiltration for meeting their ventilation needs, a common ventilation rate measure is the air change rate (or air changes per hour) the hourly ventilation rate divided by the volume of the space (I or ACH; units of 1/h).
ASHRAE now recommends ventilation rates dependent upon floor area, as a revision to the 62-2001 standard, in which the minimum ACH was 0.35, but no less than 15 CFM/person (7.1 L/s/person). As of 2003, the standard has been changed to 3 CFM/100 sq. ft. (15 l/s/100 sq. m.) plus 7.5 CFM/person (3.5 L/s/person).

7. Orientations of up to 60° west of north and 45° east of north still allow good passive sun control.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

8. The ideal orientation for living areas are within the range 15°W–20°E of true or ‘solar’ north.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: It allows standard eaves overhangs to admit winter sun to heat the building and exclude summer sun with no effort from the occupants and no additional cost.
Poor orientation can exclude winter sun as well as cause overheating in summer by allowing low angle east or west sun to strike glass surfaces, creating a greenhouse effect where it’s not required. Choose a house that has good orientation or can be easily adapted for better orientation.

9. You can achieve good passive solar performance at minimal cost if you have a right ____________
a) Area
b) Location
c) Space
d) Site

Answer: d
Clarification: Where possible, choose a site that can accommodate north-facing daytime living areas that flow to outdoor spaces with similar orientation. In tropical areas, northerly solar access is not desirable: sites that allow maximum exposure to cooling breezes and designs that draw or funnel them through the building are preferable.

10. _________ roofs have vertical roof glass facing away from the equator side of the building to capture diffused light (not harsh direct equator-side solar gain).
a) Clerestory
b) Sawtooth
c) Translucent
d) Curved

Answer: b
Clarification: The angled portion of the glass-support structure is opaque and well insulated with a cool roof and radiant barrier. The sawtooth roof’s lighting concept partially reduces the summer “solar furnace” skylight problem, but still allows warm interior air to rise and touch the exterior roof glass in the cold winter, with significant undesirable heat transfer.

11. __________ is a large open space located within a building. It is often used to light a central circulation or public area by daylight admitted through a glass roof or wall.
a) Atrium
b) Solarium
c) Translucent walls
d) Skylights

Answer: a
Clarification: Atria provide some daylight to adjacent working areas, but the amount is often small and does not penetrate very far. The main function of an atrium is to provide a visual experience and a degree of contact with the outside for people in the working areas. The daylighting of successive storeys of rooms adjoining an atrium is interdependent and requires a balanced approach.

12. A tube structure which is placed into a roof and admits light to a focused area of the interior is _________
a) Solar panel
b) Tubular daylighting device
c) Heliostats
d) Solarium

Answer: b
Clarification: TDDs use modern technology to transmit visible light through opaque walls and roofs. The tube itself is a passive component consisting of either a simple reflective interior coating or a light conducting fiber optic bundle. It is frequently capped with a transparent, roof-mounted dome “light collector” and terminated with a diffuser assembly that admits the daylight into interior spaces and distributes the available light energy evenly (or else efficiently if the use of the lit space is reasonably fixed, and the user desired one or more “bright-spots”).

250+ TOP MCQs on Projection of Straight Lines and Answers

Civil Engineering Drawing Multiple Choice Questions on “Projection of Straight Lines”.

1. A straight line is the ___________ distance between two points.
a) shortest
b) longest
c) half
d) infinite

Answer: a
Clarification: As we know lines are formed by points and shortest line which can be formed is the straight line between two points. Hence, the projections of a straight line may be drawn by joining the respective projections of its ends which are points.

2. A line is a geometric primitive that has no ____________
a) length
b) point
c) direction
d) thickness

Answer: d
Clarification: A point has no length or width. It has no thickness. Point is a mark of position. A point specifies the exact location. Point is denoted by a dot (.) and is named by an alphabet. Line is composed of infinite points and so here it can be said that a line also does not have thickness.

3. A line may not be __________
a) parallel to both the planes
b) parallel to one plane and perpendicular to the other
c) parallel to one plane and inclined to the other
d) perpendicular to both the planes

Answer: d
Clarification: The question is asking about a single line and if a line is perpendicular to both the planes it will never be resembled as a line i.e. it can’t be a single line. If it becomes perpendicular to the planes it will become perpendicular to itself thus forming two lines, as the single to will itself make 90 angle it can’t be further called as a single line.

4. When a line is parallel to a plane, the projection of the line on to that plane will be its ______ length.
a) shortened
b) true
c) enlarged
d) point

Answer: b

5. When a line is parallel to one plane and inclined to the other, the projection of the line on the plane to which it is parallel will show its __________ length.
a) shortened
b) true
c) enlarged
d) false

Answer: b

6. When the Projection of a line is parallel to both HP and VP its length will be _______
a) shortened
b) false
c) enlarged
d) true

Answer: d

7. In a case when a line is perpendicular to HP & parallel to VP then what figure will be projected on HP?
a) Point
b) Line
c) Square
d) Inclined line

Answer: a

8. A line AB, 90 mm long is inclined at 30° to HP and parallel to VP. The line is 80 mm in front of VP. The lower end A is 30 mm above HP. The upper end B is 50 mm in front of the right PP. The right profile plane will show a _________ projection.
a) point
b) small
c) true
d) false

Answer: d

9. If the apparent and the true inclinations of a line with HP are equal, the line is ____________
a) parallel to horizontal plane
b) parallel to vertical plane
c) parallel to profile plane
d) inclined to both reference plane

Answer: b
Clarification: When the line is parallel to the vertical plane and perpendicular to HP then it will form a point projection on the HP and so the apparent and the true inclination will be same of the line as it will resemble a point projection.

10. If the front view of a line is parallel to the xy line, its perpendicular length can be ___________
a) front view
b) top view
c) side view
d) no front view

Answer: d
Clarification: Since in both these cases line will be parallel to both the planes and so no perpendicular will fall on any of them hence neither top nor front views will be formed.

11. The point at which the line intersects the VP, extended if necessary, is known as ____________
a) profile trace
b) horizontal trace
c) vertical trace
d) auxiliary trace

Answer: c
Clarification: If a line is parallel to any of the plane, it has no trace upon that plane. For example: If the line is parallel to horizontal plane then that line will not meet H.P and hence there will be no Horizontal Trace and only Vertical Trace.

12. If top view of a line is a point, its front view is ____________
a) parallel to xy line and of true length
b) parallel to xy line and of apparent length
c) perpendicular to xy line and of true length
d) perpendicular to xy line and of apparent length

Answer: c
Clarification: When the line is parallel to the vertical plane and perpendicular to HP then it will form a point projection on the HP and so the apparent and the true inclination will be same of the line as it will resemble a point projection.

250+ TOP MCQs on Office, Shop Building and Answers

Civil Engineering Drawing Multiple Choice Questions on “Office, Shop Building”.

1. A ______________ may be included in an estimate to provide for unknown costs which are indicated as likely to occur by experience, but are not identifiable.
a) approximate
b) improbability
c) contingency
d) certainty
Answer: c
Clarification: When using an estimate which has no contingency to set a budget or to set aside funding, a contingency is often added to improve the probability that the budget or funding will be adequate to complete the project. Being unable to complete a project risks public ridicule. See cost contingency for more information. The estimate or budget contingency is not intended to compensate for poor estimate quality, and is not intended to fund design growth, owner changes, or anything else unrelated to delivering the scope as defined in the estimate documentation. Generally more contingency is needed for earlier estimates due to the higher uncertainty of estimate accuracy.

2. Generally for any construction project, three parties are involved namely owner, design professionals and construction professionals.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: In some cases the design professional and construction professional are from the same company or they form a team through a joint venture for providing service to the owner in the project. It is the responsibility of each party involved in the project to estimate the costs during various stages of the project. An early estimate helps the owner to decide whether the project is affordable within the available budget, while satisfying the project’s objectives.

3. The total project cost consists of two components namely front cost and indirect cost.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The total project cost consists of two components namely direct cost and indirect cost. Direct cost includes cost of materials, equipment and labour associated with each item of work and also includes cost of subcontracted works. Indirect costs are the costs which are not associated with each item of work rather these costs are calculated for the entire construction work and includes overhead costs (both job office or site office overhead and general head office overhead), contingency i.e. cost for any unforeseen work and profit.

3. For cost estimating _________ serves as an important framework for organized collection project cost data and preparing the cost estimates at different levels.
a) WCS
b) WPS
c) WMS
d) WBS
Answer: d
Clarification: For cost estimating, work breakdown structure (WBS) serves as an important framework for organized collection project cost data and preparing the cost estimates at different levels. It is a technique that involves the hierarchical breakdown of the project into different work elements at successive levels and defines the interrelationships between them.

4. The estimate which prepared using any rough method to get the approximate cost construction anticipated in a project is called an ______________ estimate.
a) approximate
b) precise
c) exact
d) rough
Answer: a
Clarification: The approximate estimate is done in order to find out an approximate cost in very short time before starting the project. The estimation is made before selecting the final specification and design of the project. This method is also known as preliminary or rough estimate.

5. Which method is not adopted for volume calculating?
a) From cross-section
b) From spot level
c) From contour
d) From plan
Answer: d
Clarification: Volume can be measured by a contour map, but the volume calculated by this method is approximate. It cannot be compared with the volume calculated by the cross-section method. As the full ground irregularities are not predicted by contours, and also as the contour intervals are not small, volume calculated from contours is likely to be an approximate one. To calculate volume by this method, general recommendations of contour interval is a maximum of 2 meters for a regular ground surface, and 0.5 meter for an irregular topography.

6. The measurement is not made in square metres in case of ____________
a) D.P.C. (Damp proof course)
b) Form works
c) R.C. chhajjas
d) Concrete Jaffries
Answer: c
Clarification: A chhajja is the projecting or overhanging eaves or cover of a roof, usually supported on large carved brackets.It forms part of the architecture of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh. In Rajasthan they are particularly large.

7. Which option is not considered as the duty of quantity surveyor?
a) Preparing bill of quantities (Taking off, squaring, Abstracting and billing), taking little amount for personal use as being quantity surveyor
b) Preparing bills for part payments at intervals during the execution of work
c) Preparing bill of adjustment in the case of variations ordered during the execution of work
d) Giving legal advice in case of court proceedings
Answer: a
Clarification: Quantity surveyor duties typically include: Conducting feasibility studies to estimate materials, time and labour costs. Preparing, negotiating and analysing costs for tenders and contracts. Advising on a range of legal and contractual issues. No amount can be kept by anyone without any prior permission of the concerned authority.

8. Which is not the essential quality of a good surveyor?
a) The quality surveyor must be well versed with the drawings of work
b) He should be able to read the drawing correctly and bill the quantities accurately
c) He should have a thorough knowledge of the construction procedure to be adopted, the various items of works involved in the execution and the different materials to be used in the work
d) Oral representation of schedule to be priced by tenderor
Answer: d
Clarification: He should be able to prepare written schedule to be priced by tenderor for better understanding, for future proof, easy in showing the work to multiple people etc.

250+ TOP MCQs on Earthwork and Estimation and Answers

Civil Engineering Drawing Multiple Choice Questions on “Earthwork and Estimation”.

1. ___________ is the application of controlled amounts of water to plants at needed intervals.
a) Cultivation
b) Plantation
c) Watering
d) Irrigation
Answer: d
Clarification: Irrigation helps grow agricultural crops, maintain landscapes, and revegetate disturbed soils in dry areas and during periods of inadequate rainfall. Irrigation also has other uses in crop production, including frost protection, suppressing weed growth in grain fields and preventing soil. In contrast, agriculture that relies only on direct rainfall is referred to as rain-fed or dry land farming.

2. Name the type of irrigation, which is the oldest form of irrigation and has been in use for thousands of years.
a) Sub-surface irrigation
b) Surface irrigation
c) Canal irrigation
d) Rainwater irrigation
Answer: b
Clarification: In surface (furrow, flood, or level basin) irrigation systems, water moves across the surface of an agricultural lands, in an order to wet it and infiltrate into the soil. Surface irrigation can be subdivided into furrow, borderstrip or basin irrigation. It is often called flood irrigation when the irrigation results in flooding or near flooding of the cultivated land.

3. ____________ sometimes also called as localized irrigation, low volume irrigation, or trickle irrigation.
a) Macro-irrigation
b) Surface irrigation
c) Micro-irrigation
d) Farrow irrigation
Answer: c
Clarification: It is a system where water is distributed under low pressure through a piped network, in a pre-determined pattern, and applied as a small discharge to each plant or adjacent to it. Traditional drip irrigation using individual emitters, subsurface drip irrigation (SDI), micro-spray or micro-sprinkler irrigation, and mini-bubbler irrigation all belong to this category of irrigation methods.

4. Name the system, where water falls drop by drop just at the position of roots and water is delivered at or near the root zone of plants, drop by drop.
a) Pipe irrigation
b) Drop irrigation
c) Drip irrigation
d) Sprinkler
Answer: c
Clarification: This method can be the most water-efficient method of irrigation, if managed properly, evaporation and runoff are minimized. The field water efficiency of drip irrigation is typically in the range of 80 to 90 percent when managed correctly.

5. ___________ is the injection of fertilizers, soil amendments, and other water-soluble products into an irrigation system.
a) Fertilization
b) Hybridization
c) Fertigation
d) Modification
Answer: c
Clarification: The two terms are sometimes used interchangeably however chemigation is generally a more controlled and regulated process due to the nature of the chemicals used. Chemigation often involves pesticides, herbicides, and fungicides, some of which pose health threat to humans, animals, and the environment.

6. In __________ irrigation, water is piped to one or more central locations within the field and distributed by overhead high-pressure sprinklers or guns.
a) sprinkler
b) drip
c) shallow
d) rotary
Answer: a
Clarification: A system utilizing sprinklers, sprays, or guns mounted overhead on permanently installed risers is often referred to as a solid-set irrigation system. Higher pressure sprinklers that rotate are called rotors and are driven by a ball drive, gear drive, or impact mechanism. Rotors can be designed to rotate in a full or partial circle.

7. Subirrigation has been used for many years in field crops in areas with high water tables.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: It is a method of artificially raising the water table to allow the soil to be moistened from below the plants’ root zone. Often those systems are located on permanent grasslands in lowlands or river valleys and combined with drainage infrastructure. A system of pumping stations, canals, weirs and gates allows it to increase or decrease the water level in a network of ditches and thereby control the water table.

8. Subsurface Textile Irrigation (SSTI) is a technology designed specifically for subirrigation in only desert sands and heavy clays.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Subsurface Textile Irrigation (SSTI) is a technology designed specifically for subirrigation in all soil textures from desert sands to heavy clays. A typical subsurface textile irrigation system has an impermeable base layer (usually polyethylene or polypropylene), a drip line running along that base, a layer of geotextile on top of the drip line and, finally, a narrow impermeable layer on top of the geotextile.

9. Around 30% of wastewater produced globally remains untreated, causing widespread water pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Around 90% of wastewater produced globally remains untreated, causing widespread water pollution. Increasingly, agriculture uses untreated wastewater as a source of irrigation water. Cities provide lucrative markets for fresh produce, so are attractive to farmers.

10. Water use efficiency in the field can be determined as follows:
Field Water Efficiency (%) = (Water Transpired by Crop x Water Applied to Field) % 100.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Clarification: Field Water Efficiency (%) = (Water Transpired by Crop %Water Applied to Field) x 100.

11. Irrigation with saline or high-sodium water may improve the soil structure owing to the formation of fertile soil.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Clarification: Irrigation with saline or high-sodium water may damage soil structure owing to the formation of alkaline soil.

12. What does IWMI stand for?
a) International Water Management Institute
b) International Weather Management Institute
c) Irrigation Water Management Institute
d) International Waste Management Institute
Answer: a
Clarification: The International Water Management Institute IWMI is a non-profit research organisation with headquarters in Colombo, Sri Lanka, and offices across Africa and Asia. Research at the Institute on improving how water and land resources are managed, with the aim of underpinning food security and reducing poverty while safeguarding vital environmental processes.