Category: Engineering Geology Objective Questions

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Formation and Descriptive Study of Minerals – 01”.

1. Which mineral group is abundantly found in the earth’s crust?
a) Mica group
b) Felspar group
c) Oxide group
d) Silicate group
Answer: b
Clarification: The felspars (The feldspars in American technology) are the most prominent group of minerals making more than fifty percent, by weight, crust of the Earth up to a depth of 30 km.

2. Felspar is found abundantly or in majority in which kind of rock?
a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Metamorphic rocks
d) Fossil rocks
Answer: a
Clarification: Felspars occur chiefly, in the igneous rocks (more than 60 percent) but also occur in good proportion in the metamorphic rocks. Felspars are also found in some sedimentary rocks like arkose and greywacks.

3. The chemical composition of the feldspar group is __________
a) Oxide
b) Aluminates
c) Silicates
d) Aluminosilicates
Answer: d
Clarification: In chemical composition, felspars are chiefly aluminosilicates (also referred as alumosilicates) of Na, K and Ca with the following general formula, WZ₄O₈, in which W=Na, K, Ca and Ba and Z= Si and Al.

4. In the atomic structure, each oxygen atom is shared by how many tetrahedra?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Clarification: At atomic level, the felspars show a continuous three-dimensional network type of structure in which the SiO₄ tetrahedra are linked at all the corners, each oxygen ion begin shared by two adjacent tetrahedral.

5. The crystallographic system shown by felspar group is __________
a) Monoclinic
b) Triclinic
c) Rhomboclinic
d) Monoclinic and triclinic
Answer: d
Clarification: The felspar group of minerals crystallise only in two crystallographic systems: Monoclinic and triclinic. Infact, the plagioclase division of felspars crystallizes only in triclinic system.

6. How many groups are the felspar minerals classified into, on the basis of chemical composition?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Clarification: Felspars are classified both on the basis of their chemical composition and also on their mode of crystallization, Chemically, felspars fall into two main groups: the potash felspars and the soda lime felspars.

7. The felspar minerals are free from __________
a) Iron
b) Iron and manganese
c) Magnesium
d) Iron and magnesium
Answer: d
Clarification: The felspar group minerals are generally light in colour, because of the absence of Fe and Mg. The minerals have lower specific gravity (generally around 2.6), have doubly cleavage and a hardness varying between 6-6.5.

8. What is the chemical composition of Orthoclase?
a) K Al O₈
b) Ca Al Si₃O₈
c) K Al Si₃ O₈
d) Ca Al O₈
Answer: c
Clarification: Orthoclase mineral has the specific gravity around 2.56 to 2.58. Its chemical composition is K Al Si₃O₈. It is the most common and essential constituent of many igneous rocks, especially granite.

9. What is the distinguishing characteristic of microcline and orthoclase?
a) Colour
b) Streak
c) Chemical composition
d) Hardness
Answer: b
Clarification: Both orthoclase and microcline have same colour but microcline gives white streak whereas, orthoclase does not give any streak. Chemical composition and hardness are almost same for both the minerals.

10. Which of the following is not true about plagioclase?
a) It is composed of K mainly
b) It is composed of either Na, Ca, or Al
c) It is of massive or crystalline structure
d) It gives 2 sets of cleavages
Answer: a
Clarification: Plagioclase is usually composed of either Na or Ca or Al or combination of them. K is present in orthoclase and not in plagioclase.

11. Microcline can be easily distinguished from orthoclase.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The microcline mineral is not easily distinguished in hand specimens from orthoclase except when perfectly crystallized.

Engineering Geology Questions and Answers for Aptitude test on “Important Sedimentary Rocks – 03”.

1. The non-clastic sedimentary rock chiefly made of carbonate of calcium is ____________
a) Limestone
b) Sandstone
c) Shale
d) Breccia
Answer: a
Clarification: Limestones are the most common sedimentary rocks from the non-clastic group and are composed chiefly of carbonate of calcium with subordinate proportions of carbonate of magnesium.

2. Distinct texture shown by limestone is ____________
a) Sheeting
b) Lamination
c) Fossiliferous nature
d) Mud cracks
Answer: c
Clarification: In view of the diverse ways in which the limestones are formed, these rocks show a variety of textures. The most important texture feature of limestones is their fossiliferous nature.

3. Which type of limestone is non-marine is origin among the following?
a) Chalk
b) Kankar
c) Shelly-limestone
d) Argillaceous limestone
Answer: b
Clarification: Kankar is a common nodular or concretionary form of carbonate material formed by evaporation of subsoil water rich in calcium carbonate just near the soil surface. It is non-marine in origin.

4. The major use of limestone is ____________
a) Primary source material for manufacture of Portland cement
b) Used in metallurgical industries as flux
c) Used as building stone
d) Used as a source of magnesium
Answer: a
Clarification: Limestones and dolomites find important applications in many industries and engineering practice. Thus, limestone is a primary source material for manufacture of Portland cement and for a variety of limes.

5. What is a metamorphosed sedimentary rocks?
a) Shale
b) Limestone
c) Coal
d) Dolomite
Answer: c
Clarification: Coal may broadly be defined as metamorphosed sedimentary rocks of carbonaceous character in which the raw material has mostly been supplied by plants of various groups.

6. The grade of coal with very low calorific value is ____________
a) Peat
b) Lignite
c) Bituminous
d) Anthracite
Answer: a
Clarification: Peat is the lowest grade coal that constitutes of only slightly altered vegetable matter. It may not be even considered as a coal. It has very low calorific value, high percentage of moisture and is rich in volatile matter.

7. The other name for brown coal is ____________
a) Peat
b) Lignite
c) Bituminous
d) Anthracite
Answer: b
Clarification: Lignite is also known as brown coal and forms the poorest grade of coal with calorific value ranging between 6.00-8300 B.th.U.

8. What is the hardness of the lignite grade of coal?
a) 0.5
b) 2.5
c) 5.5
d) 9
Answer: b
Clarification: Lignite is compact and massive in structure with an upper specific gravity of 1.5 and hardness of 2.5 on Mohs’ scale of hardness. Some varieties of lignite may still show to a good extent the traces of original vegetable structure.

9. The highest grade of coal is ____________
a) Peat
b) Lignite
c) Bituminous
d) Anthracite
Answer: d
Clarification: Anthracite is considered the highest grade coal with fixed carbon ranging between 92-98 percent. It has highest calorific value in coals and burns without any smoke, as the volume matter is negligible.

10. A civil engineer has to deal with which rock in the majority of cases?
a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Metamorphic rocks
d) Ultra-basic igneous rocks
Answer: b
Clarification: Sedimentary rocks cover a great part of the crust of the earth; they make up more than 75 percent of the surface area of the land mass. It is with these types of rocks that an engineer has to deal with in majority of cases. It is therefore, essential for a civil engineer to know as much as is possible about the salient features of these rocks.

Engineering Geology for Aptitude test,

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Terminology – 02”.

1. The elastic waves generated at the focus are seismic waves.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: During each earthquake, elastic waves are generated at the focus. These waves are called seismic waves and they travel in all directions with their characteristic velocities.

2. What are the surface waves called as?
a) P-waves
b) S-waves
c) Long waves
d) Transverse waves
Answer: c
Clarification: The L-waves are also called long waves, or surface waves because their journey is confined mainly to the near-surface layers of the Earth.

3. Further classification of L-waves is done into how many types?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Clarification: The L-waves are comparatively sluggish and recorded only after the arrival of the P and S-waves. In character, the surface waves are of two main types- Rayleigh and love waves.

4. Type of L-wave in which the particle is of a complex nature is __________
a) Love waves
b) Shock waves
c) Rayleigh waves
d) Transverse waves
Answer: c
Clarification: Rayleigh waves are the waves in which the displacement of the particle is of a complex nature, partly being in the direction of propagation and partly at right angles to it.

5. Type of L-wave in which the particle is in the direction of propagation is __________
a) Love waves
b) Shock waves
c) Rayleigh waves
d) Transverse waves
Answer: a
Clarification: The Love waves are the waves in which the displacement of the particle is practically horizontal, that is, in the direction of propagation. The love waves tend to create shearing ruptures.

6. Which waves travel faster in non-layered homogeneous structure?
a) Love waves
b) Shock waves
c) Rayleigh waves
d) Transverse waves
Answer: c
Clarification: The velocity of surface waves is controlled by the frequency of waves and the structure of the ground. In the homogeneous non-layered structures, Rayleigh waves travel fast and form the prominent L-waves.

7. The magnitude of the quake is based on what aspect of the wave?
a) Amplitude
b) Frequency
c) Time period
d) Intensity
Answer: a
Clarification: Magnitude is the term expressing the rating of an earthquake on the basis of amplitude of seismic waves recorded as seismograms.

8. Ritcher magnitude is the log to 10th base of maximum seismic amplitude recorded at what distance from epicenter?
a) 10 km
b) 50 km
c) 100 km
d) 200 km
Answer: c
Clarification: The Ritcher magnitude is the logarithm to the base 10 of the maximum seismic wave amplitude recorded on a seismograph at a distance of 100 km from the epicenter of a particular earthquake.

9. The term expressing the qualitative effect of earthquake is __________
a) Amplitude
b) Frequency
c) Time period
d) Intensity
Answer: d
Clarification: Intensity is another term expressing rating of an earthquake, though broadly in a qualitative manner, on the basis of its effects on living and non-living things of the region visited by it.

Tricky Engineering Geology Questions and Answers on “Rocks as Materials for Construction – 02”.

1. Granites have poor fire resistance.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Many otherwise sound building stones like granites and other coarse grained igneous rocks are poor in fire resistance. These may become unsuitable for use in heat intensive situations.

2. Ease with which stone can be extracted and dressed is called __________
a) Consistency
b) Workability
c) Easability
d) Permeability
Answer: b
Clarification: By workability of a stone is understood the ease in the effort and the economy with which it can be extracted from its natural place of occurrence and finally given a proper shape called dressing.

3. Which of the following is not true about granite?
a) Very high crushing strength
b) Low absorption values
c) Takes good polish
d) High absorption values
Answer: d
Clarification: Granites show very high crushing strength, low absorption value, least porosity, interlocking texture, variety of appealing colours and capacity to get brilliant polish.

4. Limestone can be used as facing stones at situations where __________
a) Air is polluted with industrial gases
b) Along sea coasts where sea water-rich winds can attack them
c) Less chemical exposure and mild weather
d) The place has very harsh weather
Answer: c
Clarification: Use of limestone as facing stones, even if quite strong, should be avoided in situations where- the air is polluted with industrial gases, such as in industrial towns; along sea coasts where sea-water-rich winds can attack them directly.

5. The resistance offered by a stone against rubbing action is called __________
a) Rubbing resistance
b) Abrasive resistance
c) Frictional resistance
d) Shear resistance
Answer: b
Clarification: Abrasive is more a qualitative than quantitative property and may be broadly defined as the resistance, which a stone offers to rubbing action of one kind or another.

6. Which of the following is not a desirable of a road stone?
a) Hydrophobic in nature
b) Sufficient hardness and toughness
c) Durability at the place of use
d) Hydrophilic in nature
Answer: d
Clarification: Following are most important properties a good road stone should possess- sufficient hardness and toughness; durability at the place of use; cementation capacity; non-swelling or hydrophobic property.

7. The property which defines the resistance of stone to rubbing and grinding action under the wheel of the traffic is called __________
a) Abrasive resistance
b) Crushing resistance
c) Hardness
d) Specific gravity
Answer: c
Clarification: Hardness is defined as the resistance of stone to rubbing and grinding action under the wheel of the traffic as also due to mutual attrition. It is known that the aggregates of roads and pavements undergo repeated shaking movements under the traffic load.

8. Marble does not take polish.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Marbles have sufficient strength to beam building loads and at the same time can be given any desirable shape because of their low hardness. Marble can take a brilliant polish.

9. Common bitumen is generally of which nature?
a) Anionic
b) Cationic
c) Neutral charge
d) No charge
Answer: a
Clarification: Common bitumen is generally anionic in character. Any aggregate having electrolytic property will behave as hydrophobic or water repelling and vice-versa. This holds well in aggregates.

10. The basic igneous rock which is dark coloured and has been extensively used as road materials is __________
a) Granite
b) Gabbro
c) Basalt
d) Syenite
Answer: c
Clarification: Basalts are dark coloured basic igneous rocks that have been extensively used as road materials in areas of their occurrence. The rock is generally characterised with a crushing strength between 2000-3000 kg/cm2 and also with great toughness.

11. The test which is conducted by an indirect method usually is __________
a) Compressive strength test
b) Shear strength test
c) Bending strength test
d) Tensile strength test
Answer: d
Clarification: The tensile strength of rock samples may be determined directly or indirectly. The direct method would require elaborate means to avoid bending while applying tensile forces. Hence usually indirect methods are used to find out the tensile strength of the stones.

To practice Tricky questions and answers on all areas of Engineering Geology,

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Geological Work of Atmosphere-01”.

1. Which of the following about weathering is not true?
a) It is a natural process
b) Mechanical disintegration is involved
c) Chemical decomposition is involved
d) It is a rapid process
Answer: d
Clarification: Weathering is defined as, a natural process of in-situ mechanical disintegration and or chemical decomposition of the rocks of the crust of the Earth by certain physical and chemical agencies of the atmosphere. It is a very slow process.

2. The process that is not considered under mechanical weathering is _______
a) Carbonation
b) Temperature variation
c) Unloading
d) Insolation
Answer: a
Clarification: Carbonation is a chemical weathering process whereas the rest viz., temperature variation, unloading, insolation are processes of mechanical weathering.

3. What is the change in volume when water freezes?
a) 10% decrease
b) 20% increase
c) 20% decrease
d) 10% increase
Answer: d
Clarification: It is said that water on freezing undergoes an increase in its volume by about ten per cent. This is expansion is accompanied by the exertion of pressure.

4. The form of rock not found by freezing-thawing cycle is ________
a) Angular
b) Sub angular
c) Spherical
d) Irregular
Answer: c
Clarification: The frost formed fragments are angular, sub angular, irregular in outline and remain spread over the parent rock having flat surface or flat slopes. Spherical form or outline of rock doesn’t come into picture here.

5. The processes by which Scree deposits are formed are ________
a) Chemical attack
b) Exposure to sunlight
c) Water movement
d) Heaving and rolling
Answer: d
Clarification: If the original surface forms a significant slope, as is commonly the case in the hilly and mountainous regions, the frost fragments get heaved up from the crevices and cavities and then roll down the slope under the influence of gravity. Finally, the fragments accumulate at the base as heaps commonly called as Scree deposits.

6. What are the slopes covered by Scree called?
a) Scree slope
b) Frost slope
c) Talus slope
d) Trist slope
Answer: c
Clarification: The slopes covered by frost formed scree are often referred to as Talus slopes.

7. Where can one find the process of exudation occur?
a) Plains
b) Seashore
c) Hills
d) Waterfalls
Answer: b
Clarification: Exudation is a process similar to frost action but in this case disintegration takes place due to the formation of sodium chloride etc., within the cavities of rocks thereby causing disintegration. This process is seen in good measure in porous rocks near seashore.

8. The stress developed in the top layers of the rocks which disintegrate due to repeated variations in temperatures is ________
a) Tensile stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Shear stress
d) Bending stress
Answer: a
Clarification: Repeated variations in temperature experienced by a body of rock gradually break it into smaller pieces, especially in the top layers, by development of tensile stresses developing from alternate expansion and contraction.

9. Which of the following facts about Exfoliation is false?
a) It is the phenomenon of peeling off of curved shells from rocks
b) The change is accompanied by chemical weathering
c) Internal structure of the rock is affected
d) It occurs in thick or layered rocks.
Answer: c
Clarification: The internal structure of the rock is not affected due to the process of exfoliation. The phenomenon of peeling off occurs only in the layered or thick rocks and is accompanied by chemical weathering, mostly near the margins and develop curved surfaces. So basically surface is affected and not the internal structure.

10. The large-scale development of fracturing in confined rock masses occurs under which process?
a) Frost action
b) Unloading
c) Unfolding
d) Insolation
Answer: b
Clarification: The process of mechanical weathering where large-scale development of fracturing in confined rock masses is attributed to removal of the overlying rock cover due to prolonged erosional work of other agencies is called unloading.

11. The formation of sheets and subsequently joints occurs in which of the following processes?
a) Frost action
b) Insolation
c) Flow of water
d) Unloading
Answer: d
Clarification: The rock masses under the effect of unloading remain confined from sides but due to relief of pressure from above, they expand upwards; consequently joints develop in them parallel to the uncovered surface dividing them into sheets.

12. Scree deposits can occur in hilly regions only.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The above statement is true because, for scree deposits to be formed, the rock fragments have to heave up and also roll down the slope under the influence of gravity.

13. Identify the part labelled as “A” in the below diagram.

a) Weathered rock
b) Parent rock
c) Rolled down rock
d) Powdered rock
Answer: b
Clarification: The part labelled is the parent rock and is yet to undergo weathering. It is the solid rock mass and the other parts above and beside the parent rock are called the weathered rocks.

14. In Kara Qum desert, the rocks are exposed to what temperatures in summer and winter respectively?
a) 70-80° C and -10° C
b) 20-30° C and -1° C
c) 40-50° C and 0° C
d) 25-35° C and -3° C
Answer: a
Clarification: Studies have shown that in desert like Kara Qum, rocks are exposed to as high temperatures as 70-80° C in summer and are then cooled down to -10° C in winter. Such repeated variations in temperature experienced by a body of rock gradually break it into smaller pieces.

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Classification of Faults – 03”.

1. The phenomenon not associated with imbricate structures is ___________
a) Series of thrust blocks occur in close proximity
b) Thrust blocks are piled up one above another
c) All fault surfaces dip in the same direction
d) Thrust blocks aren’t piled up one above another
Answer: d
Clarification: When a series of thrust faults occur in close proximity, thrust blocks are piled up one above another and all the fault surfaces dip in same direction. The resulting interesting structure is known as an imbricate structure.

2. In the Himalayan Mountains, many well defined nappe zones have been recognized.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: In the Himalayan Mountains, many well defined nappe zones have been recognized among which may be mentioned the Kashmir Nappe, the Nappe zone of Shimla Himalayas and the Nappes of the Garhwal Himalayas.

3. Most common term used for strike-slip faults is ___________
a) Slip fault
b) Transform fault
c) Tranlational fault
d) Hinge fault
Answer: b
Clarification: There are some other terms used for strike slip faults such as lateral faults, transverse faults, wrench faults and transform faults. Of these, the transform faults are very common and denote strike slip faults specially developed in oceanic ridges.

4. The type of fault where the faulted blocks have been moved against each other in horizontal direction is ___________
a) Reverse fault
b) Hinge fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Vertical fault
Answer: c
Clarification: Strike-slip faults are defined as the faults in which faulted blocks have been moved against each other in an essentially horizontal direction. The fault plane is almost vertical and net slip may be measured in great distances.

5. Which fault is developed in oceanic ridges?
a) Wrench faults
b) Transform faults
c) Lateral faults
d) Transverse faults
Answer: b
Clarification: The transform faults are very common and denote strike slip faults specially developed in oceanic ridges.

6. San Andres fault is the best example of which type of fault?
a) Strike-slip fault
b) Vertical fault
c) Normal fault
d) Reverse fault
Answer: a
Clarification: The best example of a strike-slip fault is the great San Andres fault of California. It extends for almost about 1000 km in an NW-SE direction.

7. Identify the type of fault from the figure below.

a) Vertical fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Hinge fault
Answer: b
Clarification: From the figure it is clear that the hanging wall has moved up with respect to the foot wall and hence clearly it is a reverse fault.

8. If the left block appears to have moved towards the observer, then which type of fault does it belong to?
a) Left-handed fault
b) Right-handed fault
c) Enecholon fault
d) Radial fault
Answer: a
Clarification: Strike-slip faults are further distinguished into right handed or left handed depending on the direction of movement of the block with respect to an observer: it is a left-handed fault if the left block appears to have moved towards the observer and a right handed fault if the right block seems to have moved towards the observer.

9. What are pivotal faults called as?
a) Reverse faults
b) Radial faults
c) Hinge faults
d) Normal faults
Answer: c
Clarification: Hinge faults are also called as pivotal or rotational faults. A hinge fault is characterised by a movement of the disrupted blocks along with a medial point called the hinge point.

10. The movement of blocks in hinge faults is ___________
a) Translational
b) Rotational
c) Lateral
d) Sliding
Answer: b
Clarification: The movement in hinge fault, is rotational rather translational.

11. Which is the rare type of fault?
a) Vertical fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Thrust fault
d) Hinge fault
Answer: d
Clarification: In hinge faults, the amount of displacement increases away from the hinge point. These are rather rare type of faults.

12. What is the displacement range of strata in San Andres fault?
a) 10 km to 100 km
b) 20 km to 80 km
c) 50 km to 200 km
d) 100 km to 500 km
Answer: c
Clarification: The strata is believed to have suffered displacement varying between 50 km to 200 km in the San Andres fault in California.