Category: Engineering Geology Objective Questions

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Folds & Folding Basic Terms”.

1. The branch of geology which deals with the morphology, classification, mechanism and causes of development of these rock structures is called as ___________
a) Rock geology
b) Structural geology
c) Basic geology
d) Lithology
Answer: b
Clarification: The basic definition of structural geology is “the branch of geology which deals with the morphology, classification, mechanism and causes of development of these rock structures”. Hence the answer Structural Geology.

2. Stratification can be seen widely in which of the following rocks?
a) Igneous rocks
b) Metamorphic rocks
c) Sedimentary rocks
d) Fossil rocks
Answer: c
Clarification: Most sedimentary rocks are deposited under conditions which favour development of distinct layers piled up one above another, from bottom to top. These layers also called beds or strata.

3. Outcrop is seen on land everywhere on earth.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Solid rocks are not exposed everywhere on the surface of the earth. These are mostly covered with a thick or thin layer of loose deposit called alluvium or in most common language as soil. Hence rock or the outcrop is not seen everywhere on earth.

4. Most widespread rock on earth is _____________
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) All are in equal quantities
Answer: b
Clarification: It is said that sedimentary rocks are superficially the most widespread rocks, forming more than 75% of the exposed surface of the earth.

5. Which of the following about lamination is not true?
a) It is closely related to stratification
b) It is literally paper thin
c) It is a layered structure developed in extremely fine grained igneous rocks
d) It is a layered structure developed in extremely fine grained sedimentary rocks
Answer: c
Clarification: The term lamination is closely related to stratification. It is a layered structure developed in extremely fine grained sedimentary rocks made up of clay and silt. The layers are paper thin literally speaking.

6. The maximum angle of inclination of a layer of a rock with the horizontal is _____________
a) Dip
b) Heave angle
c) Strike
d) Depth
Answer: a
Clarification: The definition of dip is “The maximum angle of inclination of a layer of a rock with the horizontal”. It is expressed both in terms of degree of inclination and direction of inclination.

7. Angle of dip is measured using which instrument?
a) Compass
b) Theodolite
c) Tacheometer
d) Clinometer
Answer: d
Clarification: The direction of dip is determined with a simple compass whereas the angle of dip is determined with an instrument called clinometer, which comes built in with the compass.

8. Which among the following is not a type of dip?
a) Widespread dip
b) Primary dip
c) Secondary dip
d) Local and regional dip
Answer: a
Clarification: The types of dips are primary, secondary, local and regional. Widespread dip is not considered as a dip.

9. The term “intrusion” is basically associated with which type of rock?
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) Not associated with any type of rock
Answer: a
Clarification: Igneous rocks are formed from cooling and crystallization of hot molten material called magma/lava depending on the place of occurrence. The magma gets intruded or injected into the pre-existing rocks of any type- called the host rocks and takes variously shaped forms on cooling. These forms are commonly termed as Intrusion.

10. The dip which involves tectonic forces is _____________
a) Primary dip
b) Secondary dip
c) Local and Regional dip
d) No dip involves tectonic forces
Answer: b
Clarification: Secondary dip is the inclination induced in the strata after its deposition due to the tectonic forces to which such strata have been subsequently subjected. Secondary dips may range in value up to vertical.

11. A coal seam is exposed on a horizontal ground. If it is 30° towards West. Its width of outcrop on a level ground is 360 m. What is its true thickness?
a) 120 m
b) 150 m
c) 160 m
d) 180 m
Answer: d
Clarification: The equation to calculate True thickness is given by
True thickness = Width of outcrop * Sin 30°
By substitution and calculation, we get 180 m.
True thickness = 360 * sin (30°) = 180 m

12. At a dam site, a bed of sandstone is exposed on horizontal ground. If it is 25° towards East. Its width of outcrop on a level ground is 240 m, what is its vertical thickness?
a) 101.9 m
b) 99.9 m
c) 111.9 m
d) 121.9 m
Answer: c
Clarification: Vertical thickness = Width of outcrop * tan (angle of inclination)
Vertical thickness = 240 * tan (25°) = 111.91 m

13. The study of outcrop dimensions doesn’t involve which of the following aspect?
a) Width
b) Thickness and depth
c) Dip and strike
d) Rock composition and type
Answer: d
Clarification: The study of rock composition and type of rock is not done under the outcrop dimensions whereas the rest are thoroughly studied under the topic.

14. Foliation is a primary structure of which type of rock?
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) Not associated with any rock
Answer: c
Clarification: Stratification and lamination are the most common primary structures of sedimentary rocks; crystalline structure is typical of igneous rocks and foliation is a typical primary structure of metamorphic rocks.

15. The dip of a layer measured in the direction that is at the right angle to strike is _____________
a) True dip
b) Apparent dip
c) Straight dip
d) Normal dip
Answer: a
Clarification: When the dip of a layer is measured in a direction that is essentially at right angles to the strike of that particular layer, then it is called true dip. When the dip of a layer is measured in any other direction, which is not at right angles to its strike direction, it is called an apparent dip.

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Recognition of Faulting”.

1. What is the criteria for a covered surface to be said a fault?
a) Polished surface
b) Grooves
c) Striations
d) Polished surface, grooves and striations
Answer: d
Clarification: An exposed or covered surface may be suspected of being a faulted surface if it polished, and carries grooves and striations.

2. What is the reason for abrupt termination?
a) Breaking of strata into blocks
b) Movement of the disrupted blocks away from each other
c) Breaking of strata into blocks and movement of disrupted blocks away from each other
d) Movement of the disrupted blocks towards each other
Answer: c
Clarification: A group of beds or some veins or dykes may abruptly terminate along a surface in a given region. This may generally be due to breaking of the strata into blocks and movement of the disrupted blocks away from each other.

3. What is indicative of faulting?
a) Repetition
b) Omission
c) Repetition and omission
d) Cracking
Answer: c
Clarification: When in the field the same layer or rock is encountered more than once in a certain section, that is, it is repeated in space, faulting is indicated. Similarly, omission of certain of beds in some directions as proved by thorough study of stratigraphy of the region, is also indicative of faulting.

4. Disruption of beds due to faulting results in their ___________
a) Displacement
b) Settling
c) Inclination
d) Change in their composition
Answer: a
Clarification: Disruption of the beds due to faulting generally results in their displacement, which may be determined in terms of slip, separation, offset and gap etc.

5. What kind of evidence the physiographic features provide?
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Certain
d) Uncertain
Answer: b
Clarification: Some physiographic features may serve as indirect evidence of faults. Among them, the most important are: aligned springs and offset streams.

6. The important physiographic evidence studied is ___________
a) Aligned spring
b) Offset stream
c) Mountain range
d) Offset stream and aligned spring
Answer: d
Clarification: Some physiographic features may serve as indirect evidence of faults. Among them, the most important are: aligned springs and offset streams.

7. The resistance to stresses of rocks depend upon ___________
a) Cohesive strength only
b) Internal friction only
c) Cohesive strength and internal friction
d) Hardness
Answer: c
Clarification: Any rock on or below the crust may withstand all the operating stresses up to a limit, which depends upon its cohesive strength and internal friction.

8. When are the normal stresses formed?
a) Maximum stress is horizontal
b) Maximum stress is vertical
c) Maximum stress is inclined at certain angle other than right angle
d) Intermediate stress is vertical
Answer: b
Clarification: In highly oversimplified situation, the type of fault likely to form is related to stress field operating in a given area. Thus, talking in terms of the three principal stresses, normal faults would form when, the maximum stress is vertical.

9. What is the assumed nature of the rock for the study?
a) Isotropic
b) Anisotropic
c) Uniform
d) Non-uniform
Answer: a
Clarification: a
Clarification: In all the idealized situations, it is assumed that the rocks are isotropic in character and the Mohr-Coulomb Law of rock failure holds good in those cases.

10. What is the cause for compressive force?
a) Vertical tension
b) Horizontal tension
c) Vertical compression
d) Shear
Answer: b
Clarification: Gravity or normal faults are believed to be caused under the influence of horizontal tension whereas thrust faults are the result of compressive forces that may throw the rocks into severe type of folding before actual development of faults.

11. A fracture is formed perpendicular to the axis plane of a fold.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Clarification: A fracture is formed parallel to the axis plane of a fold where the shearing strength of the beds is overcome by the shearing stresses responsible for the development of the fold.

Engineering Geology Question Bank on “Formation and Descriptive Study of Minerals – 05”.

1. What is the chemical composition of Baryte?
a) BaSO₄
b) CaSO₄
c) BaCO₃
d) CaCO₃
Answer: a
Clarification: Baryte is found in massive and crystalline structures or forms and their basic chemical composition is barium sulphate (BaSO₄).

2. What is the use of corundum?
a) Used as an abrasive
b) Used as precious gemstones
c) Used as Construction materials
d) Used as abrasive and precious gemstones
Answer: d
Clarification: Corundum is used as both abrasive and also as precious gemstones. The former is due its high hardness of about 9 and the latter is due its appearance, and the names of some common semi-precious gemstones are ruby, emerald, sapphire etc.

3. The semi-precious gemstone not belonging to corundum is _______________
a) Ruby
b) Sapphire
c) Diamond
d) Oriental emerald
Answer: c
Clarification: Some common forms of corundum used as precious or semi-precious gemstones are ruby, sapphire, oriental emerald and oriental topaz. Diamond is a completely different mineral and is not considered to be a form of corundum.

4. Pick the correct statement about talc.
a) It has very high hardness
b) It is not used in the manufacture of talcum powders
c) It is has lowest hardness
d) It is found in igneous rocks
Answer: c
Clarification: Talc mineral which is basically made of magnesium has the lowest hardness among the minerals which is equal to 1.

5. The ferro-magnesium mineral which occurs in ultra-basic igneous rocks is __________
a) Magnesite
b) Olivine
c) Baryte
d) Corundum
Answer: b
Clarification: Olivine is a type of ferro-magnesium mineral which is found in the ultra-basic igneous rocks. Magnesite is also found in the ultra-basic igneous rocks but do not belong to the ferro-magnesium group.

6. What is the diaphaneity of pure gypsum?
a) Opaque
b) Transparent
c) Translucent
d) Opaque or transparent
Answer: c
Clarification: Gypsum is found usually in translucent and sometimes in opaque forms. In its pure form it is found in translucent form.

7. Pick the wrong statement about talc.
a) It is a very soft mineral
b) It is used in talcum powders
c) It is usually white or green in colour
d) It is also used as precious gemstones
Answer: d
Clarification: Talc has hardness number of about 1, used in talcum powders and is usually found in white or green colour. But it is not considered as a precious gemstone.

8. Augite mainly consists of __________
a) Fe
b) Fe and Mn
c) Fe and Ca
d) Fe and Mg
Answer: d
Clarification: Augite is a ferro-magnesium mineral and hence its basic and main composition is Fe and Mg. It is usually found in black colour.

9. What is the form or structure of asbestose?
a) Massive
b) Flaky
c) Tabular
d) Globular
Answer: b
Clarification: Asbestose is always found in the flaky or sometimes rarely in columnar form. Else it is not found in any other form or structure.

10. What is the colour and streak of olivine respectively?
a) White and green
b) Olive green and white
c) Yellow and green
d) Green and no streak
Answer: b
Clarification: The olivine mineral is found in olive green colour and hence its name. The streak given by olivine is white.

11. What is the streak given by garnet?
a) White
b) Black
c) Grey
d) No colour
Answer: d
Clarification: Garnet is one of the very few ferro-magnetic minerals which do not give any streak. They are usually dark grey in colour.

12. What is the form or structure of corundum?
a) Tabular, flaky
b) Schistose, columnar
c) Hexagonal, columnar
d) Globular, tabular
Answer: c
Clarification: The corundum is always found in the hexagonal, columnar crystals. The columnar crystals are of appreciable size of about 8 to 10 mm and are not uncommon.

To practice Engineering Geology Question Bank,

Engineering Geology Assessment Questions and Answers on “Structures of Metamorphic Rocks – 02”.

1. What are the rocks showing granulose structure called?
a) Granolites
b) Granulites
c) Granilites
d) Granites
Answer: b
Clarification: The individual grains may be irregular in outline but are interlocking. Foliation is absent or negligible. Rocks with granular structure are termed as granulites.

2. The cleavage also called slaty cleavage is __________
a) Flow cleavage
b) Fracture cleavage
c) Fine cleavage
d) Medium cleavage
Answer: a
Clarification: Flow cleavage is also called flow cleavage because of its development in slates. This cleavage is developed during metamorphism by parallel arrangement of highly cleavable flaky and platy minerals.

3. The cleavage involving microfractures is __________
a) Flow cleavage
b) Fracture cleavage
c) Fine cleavage
d) Medium cleavage
Answer: b
Clarification: Fracture cleavage is developed due to parallel orientation of very fine structures, often called microfractures, that may be developed in minerals of a rock undergoing dynamic metamorphism.

4. It is easy to distinguish two types of cleavages in hand specimen.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: It is often difficult to distinguish between two types of cleavage in hand specimen. The cleavage structure is of great importance in field mapping of metamorphic rocks as it provides very useful information about structural feature like folding.

5. Slaty cleavage is result of which metamorphism of clays and shales?
a) Thermal
b) Dynamic
c) Thermodynamic
d) Barometric
Answer: b
Clarification: Traces of bedding planes may be found as relict structures in some slates. The slaty cleavage is the result of severe type of dynamic metamorphism of clays and shales.

6. Schistose is resulted due to __________
a) Recrystallization
b) Reforming
c) Reorientation
d) Recrystallization and reorientation
Answer: d
Clarification: Schistose results due to combines effect of heat and pressure during metamorphism involving both recrystallization and reorientation of platy minerals as irregular layers or bands.

7. The term including both cleavage and schistosity is __________
a) Foliation
b) Fracture
c) Parting
d) Reverbrance
Answer: a
Clarification: Foliation is a broader term explaining layered structure in metamorphic rocks and is often understood to include cleavage and schistosity. However, foliation in particular expresses segregation of minerals in an alternating manner.

8. Foliation generally results due to which metamorphism?
a) Dynamic
b) Thermal
c) Thermodynamic
d) Barometric
Answer: c
Clarification: Foliation generally results due to thermodynamic metamorphism in coarse-grained igneous rocks like granites and sandstones and metamorphic rocks like schists.

Engineering Geology Assessment Questions,

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Types of Mass Movements”.

1. What is the downgrade movement of mass along no definite surface called?
a) Flowage
b) Sliding
c) Subsidence
d) Earthquake
Answer: a
Clarification: By flowage is understood a downgrade movement of mass along no definite surface of failure. Mass involved in this type of failure is primarily unconsolidated or loosely packed or rendered so by natural processes.

2. In which type of flowage, failure is not easily perceptible?
a) Rapid failure
b) Quick failure
c) Slow failure
d) Moderate failure
Answer: c
Clarification: Flowage is further distinguished into slow and rapid flowage. In the slow flowage, failure is not easily perceptible. The ground may be moving downslope at such low rates as few centimeters a year or even less.

3. In which type of flowage, failure is easily visible?
a) Rapid failure
b) Quick failure
c) Slow failure
d) Moderate failure
Answer: a
Clarification: In rapid flowage, however, the movement of failing mass may be easily visible and the mass may travel a few metres or more a day. The conditions causing flowage in the two classes may be closely related or entirely different.

4. What is a type of mass failure in which a superficial mass fails by moving as a whole along a definite surface of failure called?
a) Flowage
b) Sliding
c) Subsidence
d) Earthquake
Answer: b
Clarification: A true landslide is a type of mass failure in which a superficial mass fails by moving as a whole along a definite surface of failure. The surface of failure may be planar or semi-circular in outline.

5. What is the characteristic of the mass above and below a landslide respectively?
a) Both stable
b) Both unstable
c) Unstable and stable
d) Stable and unstable
Answer: c
Clarification: It is often characteristic of a landslide that the mass above the failure surface is unstable whereas the material lying below this surface is generally stable.

6. What type of landslide may undergo landslide?
a) Rock fragments
b) Loose soil
c) Whole blocks
d) Any type of mass
Answer: d
Clarification: Sliding may involve material of any composition, shape and of varying degree of consolidation: Loose soil, rock fragments and whole blocks or slabs of rock.

7. What is the character of the surface of shear in hard, brittle and coherent mass?
a) Curved
b) Planar
c) Circular
d) Undulated
Answer: b
Clarification: When the mass involved is hard, brittle and coherent, such as massive igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic rocks, shear surfaces are broadly planar in character.

8. What is the character of the surface of shear in loose, inherently weak rocks?
a) Curved
b) Planar
c) Circular
d) Undulated
Answer: a
Clarification: In unconsolidated deposits, loose, inherently weak rock masses and weathered top surface, sliding commonly takes place along curved shear surfaces.

9. Type of landslide where surface of failure is planar is __________
a) Translational
b) Rotational
c) Rock toppling
d) Longitudinal
Answer: a
Clarification: The surface of failure is generally planar in character, speed of failure is quite rapid and the nature of mass involved in failing may be rock mass, rock slabs, debris and soil cover or even a mixture of all of them.

10. What is the characteristic sloping surface in rotational slides?
a) Curved
b) Planar
c) Circular
d) Undulated
Answer: a
Clarification: In rotational slides, the failing surface is generally curved in character and the speed of failure is also quite rapid. Because of the nature of the failing surface, the movement of the mass takes the form of a sort of rotation, rather than translation.

11. Type in which falls are involved rather than sliding is __________
a) Translational sliding
b) Rotational sliding
c) Rock toppling and falls
d) Subsidence
Answer: c
Clarification: Rock toppling and falls are grouped along with slides although there may be little or no sliding involved in their failure.

12. Sinking or settling of the ground in almost vertical direction naturally is called __________
a) Flowage
b) Sliding
c) Avalanche
d) Subsidence
Answer: d
Clarification: Subsidence is defined as sinking or settling of the ground in almost vertically downward direction which may occur because of the removal of natural support from the underground or due to compaction of the weaker rocks under the load from overlying mass.

13. What movements is observed in all cases of subsidence?
a) Horizontal
b) Shearing
c) Vertical
d) Inclined movement
Answer: c
Clarification: The net result in each case is that the surface material is natural ground or artificial fill- suffers a sinking downward movement.

14. In which type of slide, weather conditions play a very important role?
a) Translational sliding
b) Rotational sliding
c) Rock toppling and falls
d) Subsidence
Answer: c
Clarification: In rock toppling and falls, the weather conditions play a very important role compared to other types of sliding. The precipitation, frost action leads to changes in the rocks and lead to rock toppling and falling.

15. Translational sliding is quite common in slopes made up of __________
a) Rocks
b) Cohesive soils
c) Rocks and non-cohesive soils
d) Rocks and cohesive soils
Answer: d
Clarification: In translational slides, the sliding is quite rapid and the nature of mass involved in failing may be a rock, rock slabs, debris etc. These slides are quite frequent on slopes made up of rocks and cohesive soils.

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Works of Streams and Rivers – 01”.

1. What is the stage when the bankfull stage is crossed?
a) Overflow stage
b) Flood stage
c) Dead stage
d) Excess stage
Answer: b
Clarification: Normally, the river flows much below bankfull stage; abnormally; however, the bankfull, the stage may be crossed when the river is said to be in a flood stage.

2. The distance water travels in a unit time is __________
a) Speed
b) Unit speed
c) Velocity
d) Acceleration
Answer: c
Clarification: Velocity is defined as the distance water travels in a unit time within its channel.

3. What is the term defining the capacity of a river to transport the material?
a) Gradient
b) Competence
c) Flow type
d) Fluvial
Answer: b
Clarification: Competence defines the capacity of a river to transport the material and is represented by the largest size of a particle that can be transported at a given velocity.

4. The term which is a function of cross-sectional area of the channel and flow velocity is __________
a) Gradient
b) Competence
c) Discharge
d) Stream line
Answer: c
Clarification: Discharge is defined as the volume that passes at a given point in the channel in a unit time. It is a function of cross-sectional area of the channel and flow velocity.

5. The mechanical loosening and removal of the material from the rocks due to pressure exerted by the running water is called __________
a) Gradient
b) Weathering
c) Hydraulic action
d) Cavitation
Answer: c
Clarification: Hydraulic action is the mechanical loosening and removal of the material from the rocks due to pressure exerted by the running water. The higher velocity, the greater is the pressure of the running water and hence greater is its capacity to bodily move out parts of the rock.

6. Which among the following is not true about cavitation?
a) It occurs everywhere
b) It is distinct process
c) It is a rare process
d) It is observed where river water acquires exceptionally high velocity
Answer: a
Clarification: Cavitation is a distinct and rare type of hydraulic action performed by running water. It is particularly observed where river water suddenly acquires exceptionally high velocity such as at the location of a waterfall.

7. There is a spontaneous change from liquid to vapour state and back to liquid state at the point of fall of waterfall.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: It is known that where stream velocity exceeds 12m/sec, the water pressure developed at the impinging points equals vapour pressure and there is spontaneous change from liquid to vapour state and back to liquid state at that point.

8. What is the principal method of stream erosion and involves wearing away of the bedrocks?
a) Hydraulic action
b) Abrasion
c) Attrition
d) Corrosion
Answer: b
Clarification: Abrasion is the principal method of stream erosion and involves wearing away of the bedrocks and rocks along the banks of a stream or river by the running water with the help of sand grains, pebbles and gravels and all such particles that are being carried by it as load.

9. The term for wear and tear of the load sediments being transported by a moving natural agency through the process of mutual impacts is __________
a) Hydraulic action
b) Abrasion
c) Attrition
d) Corrosion
Answer: c
Clarification: Attrition is the term used for the term for wear and tear of the load sediments being transported by a moving natural agency through the process of mutual impacts and collisions which they suffer during their transport.

10. Factor which doesn’t affect velocity is __________
a) Gradient of the channel
b) Volume of the water in the stream
c) Type of water flowing
d) Roughness of the channel
Answer: c
Clarification: The velocity of a stream itself depends on: the gradient of the channel; the roughness of the channel along the base and the sides; the volume of the load in the stream at a given place.