250+ TOP MCQs on Drawings and Report and Answers

Highway Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Drawings and Report”.

1. The index map shows __________
a) Topography
b) Soil
c) Area of the site
d) Plan
Answer: a
Clarification: Index map is used for general topography. They are usually prepared in 32*20 cm map.

2. Detailed size drawings are prepared in which sheet?
a) A1
b) A2
c) A3
d) A4
Answer: b
Clarification: The detailed plans of drawings are prepared in A2 sheets. They are usually 60*42cm in size.

3. The cross sections should be drawn for every __________
a) 10m
b) 20m
c) 50m
d) 100m
Answer: d
Clarification: The cross section should be drawn for every 100m or wherever there is an abrupt change in the level.

4. The approximate cost of construction evaluated for the project is called __________
a) Project report
b) Project feasibility
c) Estimate
d) Detailed project report
Answer: c
Clarification: The approximate cost of a project before the construction is called an estimate.

5. The report that includes all the works including soil, bridges, topography, material studies and drainage studies is called as __________
a) Feasibility report
b) Detailed project report
c) Survey report
d) Primary report
Answer: b
Clarification: Detailed project report or DPR is the report that is created after all the surveys and estimates have been prepared for a final review.

6. The planning, design and construction of either a network of new roads or road link is called __________
a) Highway project
b) Highway estimate
c) Highway interlinking
d) Highway design
Answer: a
Clarification: The highway project includes planning, designing and execution of new roads or providing links between existing roads, the design is for geometry and interlinking word is not so appropriate and estimate is prepared for every highway.

7. Highway should be planned for __________
a) Present requirements
b) Traffic developments
c) Traffic studies
d) Present requirements and future requirements
Answer: d
Clarification: A highway should be planned such that the present and future requirements of the highway are satisfied.

8. The New highway project is divided into how many stages?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: The new highway project is divided into (i) Selection of route, alignment and geometric design. (ii) Collection of materials (iii) Construction stages including quality control.

250+ TOP MCQs on Traffic Regulation and Control and Answers

Highway Engineering test on “Traffic Regulation and Control”.

1. To reduce the conflict points which method is preferable?
a) Restricting the entry in one side
b) Widening of the roads
c) Use of traffic signals
d) Diverting the traffic

Answer: c
Clarification: In this case, use of traffic signals is advisable as it will be useful to control the traffic up to a certain extent; if it becomes heavy, then diverting may be another option which is not convenient.

2. One of the disadvantages of traffic signals is?
a) Provide orderly moment at intersection
b) The quality of the traffic flow improves
c) Traffic handling capacity increases
d) The rear end collision increases

Answer: d
Clarification: The rear end collisions are common in very highly populated cities, if there is a sudden stoppage of vehicles there is a chance of rear end collision.

3. The traffic signals that are installed for pedestrians are called __________
a) Traffic control signals
b) Pedestrian signals
c) Special traffic signals
d) Automatic signals

Answer: b
Clarification: The signals that are installed for pedestrians are called as pedestrian signals; they are useful when there is no person to control the traffic.

4. The clearance time for amber is usually __________
a) 0.5sec
b) 1sec
c) 1.5sec
d) 3sec

Answer: d
Clarification: The clearance time for amber may be assumed as 2sec to 4 sec, in most of the cities it is assumed as 3 seconds.

5. In trial cycle method, the average time headway is assumed as __________
a) 2sec
b) 2.5sec
c) 3sec
d) 3.5sec

Answer: b
Clarification: The average headway in the trial cycle method is assumed as 2.5sec for 15 minutes of trial cycle.

6. The number of cycles for a trial period of 45 sec is?
a) 20
b) 22
c) 25
d) 30

Answer: a
Clarification: Number of cycles=900/45
=20.

7. If the number of cycles in trial cycle method is 20, for traffic of 170 on one road and 160 on other road, then calculate the total green time in sec.
a) 38
b) 39
c) 40
d) 41

Answer: d
Clarification: Green time on 1st road=170*2.5/20
=21.25
Green time on 2nd road=160*2.5/20
=20
Total green time=41 sec.

8. In approximate method of signals, the average time taken to cross by the pedestrian is?
a) 4sec
b) 5sec
c) 6sec
d) 7sec

Answer: d
Clarification: In approximate method, the time taken is assumed as the crossing time and initial time taken to cross, which should not be less than 7sec.

9. There is a traffic flow of 250 vehicles on road A and 200 vehicles on road B, if the green signal time on road A is 15 sec, then the green signal time of road B is?
a) 10sec
b) 11sec
c) 12sec
d) 13sec

Answer: b
Clarification: From the relationship,
Ga/Gb=na/nb
Ga/Gb=250/200
Gb=12sec.

10. If the amber time at a signal is 3 sec and the green signal time is 25sec, find the red signal time?
a) 22sec
b) 21sec
c) 28sec
d) 29sec

Answer: c
Clarification: The total red time is the sum of green time and amber time, so total red time=25+3=28sec.

11. Which of the traffic signal method is based on saturation flow?
a) Trial cycle method
b) Webster method
c) IRC method
d) Approximate method

Answer: b
Clarification: The saturation flow is the maximum flow which occurs on the peak hours and it is the maximum flow, in absence of data it is assumed as 1600PCU.

12. On a 2 phase road, the saturation flow on road A is 1000 and normal flow is 250,whereas on road B the saturation flow is 1500 and normal flow is 500,the total red time is 10 sec, find optimum cycle length.
a) 35sec
b) 36sec
c) 37sec
d) 38sec

Answer: c
Clarification: Ya=250/1000=0.4
Yb=500/1500=0.3
Y=Ya+Yb=0.7
C0=1.5*L+5/ (1-Y)
C0=1.5*14+5/ (1-0.7)
C0=87sec.

13. Which type of traffic island can be used for reduction of conflict point?
a) Divisional Island
b) Channelized Island
c) Pedestrian Loading Island
d) Rotary Island

Answer: d
Clarification: The major conflicting points can be mostly reduced by rotary islands, which are mostly used near major traffic intersections.

14. The indicators that may be marked for visible outline of the road is called __________
a) Roadway indicator
b) Roadway delineator
c) Roadway line
d) Roadway markings

Answer: b
Clarification: The indicators that are marked for the visible outline are called as roadway indicators, they are of 3 types they are roadway indicator, hazard makers and object markers.

15. The guide posts are usually of height?
a) 0.6m
b) 0.7m
c) 0.8m
d) 2.0m

Answer: c
Clarification: The guide posts are usually of height 0.8-1.2m and they are placed at 45 degree angle for clear visibility.

250+ TOP MCQs on Factors Affecting Design and Performance of Flexible Pavements and Answers

Highway Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers on “Factors Affecting Design and Performance of Flexible Pavements”.

1. The number of factors considered for flexible pavement is ______________
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Five
Answer: d
Clarification: The design factors that are considered are wheel load, soil, climate, pavement layer, drainage.

2. The contact pressure is given by _____________
a) Pa
b) a/P
c) P/A
d) PA
Answer: c
Clarification: The contact pressure is given by P/A, where P is wheel load and A is area of contact.

3. The distribution of circular load was obtained by _____________
a) Wester guard
b) Boussinesq
c) McAdam
d) Taylor
Answer: b
Clarification: The stress distribution for the circular load was obtained by Boussinesq, in which he assumed homegenous and elastic material.

4. What is the last step in the design of flexible pavement?
a) Design of sub grade
b) Design of base
c) Design of mix
d) Design of the pavement thickness
Answer: d
Clarification: The last step in the design of the pavement is design of pavement thickness, after design of mix, design of sub grade, sub base and base.

5. If one or more wheels act as a single load then it is called as _____________
a) EASEL
b) EQWL
c) EQML
d) EQVL
Answer: a
Clarification: If one or more wheels act as a single load then it is called as an equivalent single wheel load.

6. The pressure in pneumatic tyres should not exceed _____________
a) 10Kg/cm2
b) 9.5Kg/cm2
c) 9Kg/cm2
d) 8Kg/cm2
Answer: b
Clarification: The maximum tyre pressure in pneumatic tyre is 9.5kg/cm2.

7. The revised legal load of HCV in India in tonnes is _____________
a) 8.17
b) 9.17
c) 10.2
d) 11.2
Answer: c
Clarification: The maximum legal load in India is considered after revision as 10.2 tonnes, before it was 8.17 tonnes only.

8. The legal load considered in the benklemen beam method is _____________
a) 8.17
b) 9.17
c) 10.2
d) 11.2
Answer: a
Clarification: The maximum legal load in benklemen beam method is considered as 8.17 tonnes or 8170 kg.

9.The load dispersion is assumed at an angle of _____________
a) 45°
b) 60°
c) 75°
d) 90°
Answer: a
Clarification: The angle of the dispersion is assumed as 45° in the ESWL for the ease of construction and calculation.

10. The equivalent wheel load factors are calculated by using _____________
a) First power law
b) Second power law
c) Third power law
d) Fourth power law
Answer: d
Clarification: The load factor follows the fourth power law for the calculation of VDF and load factor.

11. What is the standard wheel load in Ewl factor?
a) 4080 kg
b) 9160 kg
c) 8170 kg
d) 5100 kg
Answer: a
Clarification: The load is considered for only one wheel which is 4080kg, it is considered as the half of the legal load.

12. The rate of growth in traffic in urban areas is assumed as _____________
a) 7.5%
b) 8.0%
c) 8.5%
d) 9.0%
Answer: a
Clarification: The rate of growth in traffic for urban areas is assumed as 7.5%, it may also vary depending on the requirement.

13. The constant value used in the calculation of CSA is _____________
a) 365
b) VDF
c) LDF
d) N
Answer: a
Clarification: Except the value of 365, all the other constant vary depending on the lane, vehicle and traffic.

14. The presence of moisture content causes _____________
a) Swelling
b) Shrinkage
c) Alternate swelling and shrinkage
d) Frost
Answer: a
Clarification: The presence of moisture content in any water absorbed soil causes the swelling of soil and ultimately gives rise to cracks.

15. Which frost heave is dangerous?
a) Unlike frost heave
b) Like frost heave
c) Uneven frost heave
d) Even frost heave
Answer: c
Clarification: The frost heave which is caused in cold temperatures raises the edges of the pavement, if they are uneven then it is very dangerous.

To practice all areas of

250+ TOP MCQs on Soil-Cement Stabilization and Answers

Highway Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Soil-Cement Stabilization”.

1. In soil cement stabilisation the bond is imparted between cement and __________
a) Water
b) Fine aggregate
c) Coarse aggregate
d) Soil
Answer: d
Clarification: In the soil cement stabilisation, the bond is imparted between hydrated cement and compacted soil.

2. Making of solid into fine powder is called __________
a) Powdering
b) Crushing
c) Pulverising
d) Refining
Answer: c
Clarification: The crushing of the solid into the fine powder is called as pulverising, mostly pulverised materials are used.

3. The chemical that can harm the hydrated cement is __________
a) Calcium sulphate
b) Calcium di sulphate
c) Calcium tri sulphate
d) Magnesium sulphate
Answer: d
Clarification: The magnesium sulphate is a very strong chemical and it may even effect the hydrated cement reducing its strength.

4. The increase of cement causes __________
a) Increase in weight
b) Increase in void ratio
c) Increase in strength
d) Increase in porosity
Answer: c
Clarification: The increase in cement causes the increase in strength and durability, and of water is added then it’s strength decreases.

5. Presence of unpulverised dry lumps reduce the __________
a) Strength
b) Durability
c) Strength and durability
d) Water content
Answer: c
Clarification: The strength and durability of the soil are badly affected by the unpulverised powder.

6. If compaction efforts increase, then __________
a) Dry density increase
b) Dry density decrease
c) Wet density increase
d) Wet density decrease
Answer: a
Clarification: If compaction efforts increase, then dry density increases and wet density doesn’t change.

7. The high temperature in soil cement stabilisation accelerates __________
a) Strength
b) Dry density
c) Shear
d) Compaction
Answer: a
Clarification: The higher temperature leads to rapid drying of the sample, which leads to the gain in strength.

8. The additive not used in soil cement stabilisation is?
a) Sodium hydroxide
b) Sodium carbonate
c) Calcium chloride
d) Sugar
Answer: d
Clarification: Sugar is a retarder and it should not be used in soil cement stabilisation, whereas other chemicals like calcium chloride and sodium carbonate can be used.

9. The BIS for soil cement stabilisation is based on __________
a) British
b) ASTM
c) PCA
d) British and ASTM
Answer: d
Clarification: The BIS method is based on both British and ASTM for the soil cement stabilisation.

10. What is the soil samples are prepared in a mould of diameter?
a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 20 cm
Answer: a
Clarification: The samples are tested in a sample of diameter 5 cm and height 10 cm, by compacting them into the mould.

11. The graph between cement content and compressive strength is plotted for how many days of curing?
a) 3 days
b) 5 days
c) 7 days
d) 9 days
Answer: c
Clarification: The graph is plotted for cement content and compressive strength for a curing period of 7 days.

12. What is the maximum brushing loss for A6 A7 soil type?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 10
Answer: c
Clarification: The PCA recommends a loss of not more than 7% for soil type of A6 and A7, after 12 cycles of freeze and thaw.

13. The plasticity index of soil cement base course should be less than __________
a) 28
b) 18
c) 38
d) 48
Answer: b
Clarification: From practical considerations, the results obtained tell that the plasticity index should be less than 18.

14. How many methods are available for the construction of a soil cement base course?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: The two available methods are mix in place method, plant mix method.

15. The degree of pulverisation is checked by sieve of __________
a) 10 mm
b) 6.25 mm
c) 4.75 mm
d) 2.36 mm
Answer: c
Clarification: The degree of pulverisation is checked by the sieve passing through 4.75 mm and it should exceed 50%.

250+ TOP MCQs on Surface Drainage System for Roads and Answers

Highway Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Surface Drainage System for Roads”.

1. How many components are present in the surface drainage system?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: The surface drainage system consists of three components they are camber, side drains and cross drains.

2. If the canal and drain at same level then the cross drainage structure is called __________
a) Aqueduct
b) Siphon aqueduct
c) Level crossing
d) Aquiclude
Answer: c
Clarification: If the canal and the drainage both are at the same level then the drainage structure is called level crossing.

3. What is the value of camber on earth roads?
a) 4%
b) 3%
c) 2%
d) 1.7%
Answer: d
Clarification: The value of the camber is recommended as 1.7% for the earth roads, for paved it may be up to 4%.

4. Which is the most preferred shape of drainage?
a) Rectangular
b) Trapezoidal
c) Triangular
d) Circular
Answer: b
Clarification: The trapezoidal shape is the most preferred shape of the drainage because of it’s simplicity and ease.

5. The longitudinal drain may be provided if the cross slope is more than __________
a) 1.0%
b) 2.0%
c) 3.0%
d) 4.0%
Answer: d
Clarification: The longitudinal drain should be provided only if the cross slope exceeds 4.0%, if it doesn’t exceed then it may not be necessary.

6. The rural roads are provided with __________
a) RCC drains
b) Trapezoidal drains
c) Kutcha drains
d) No drainage
Answer: c
Clarification: The rural roads are mostly provided with the Kutcha drains, because of less population they are given the least importance.

7. Which type of drainage most advisable in cutting?
a) Longitudinal drainage
b) Side drains
c) Deep drainage
d) No drainage
Answer: c
Clarification: The most advisable type of the drainage in the cutting is open deep drainage because it is the most convenient type in cutting, remaining types can also be used if there is no alternative.

8. The water may be collected in __________
a) Catch pits
b) Longitudinal drains
c) Kerb
d) Filter sand
Answer: a
Clarification: The water from the rainfall is collected in a typical type of catch pit, and then it is forwarded to the drains.

9. If the span exceeds 6m then the bridge is called __________
a) Culvert
b) Minor bridge
c) Major bridge
d) Truss
Answer: b
Clarification: If the span is less than 6m it is called as a culvert, and if it is between 6 to 15m it’s a minor bridge, and if total span is 60m it’s a major bridge.

10. The relationship between specific yield specific retention and porosity is __________
a) Specific yield+specific retention= porosity
b) Specific yield-specific retention= porosity
c) Specific yield/specific retention=porosity
d) Specific yield*specific retention=porosity
Answer: a
Clarification: Porosity is the sum of specific yield and specific retention, specific yield is the ratio of volume of draw down to volume of water stored, and specific retention is the amount of water retained.

250+ TOP MCQs on Highway Projects and Answers

Highway Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Highway Projects”.

1. A part of land that is acquired during the initial stages of construction for future expansion is called ____________
a) Kerb
b) Footpath
c) Right of way
d) Camber
Answer: c
Clarification: Right of way is a part occupied either by the highway or railway by paying some compensation to the owners for future expansion which may have kerb, footpath and camber.

2. Which method is recommended by IRC for flexible pavements?
a) CBR
b) IRC 6
c) IRC 21
d) IRC 58
Answer: a
Clarification: The CBR method is recommended by IRC because it gives very reliable accuracy as the test depends on soil characteristics, IRC 6,21 and 58 are the code books for various pavement design.

3. Inspection of the site is done in which survey?
a) Preliminary
b) Secondary
c) Reconnaissance
d) Final report
Answer: c
Clarification: The reconnaissance survey includes the inspection of the site, soil, material and construction materials.

4. Road roughness is tested by ___________
a) Bump integrator
b) RTRRMS
c) GIS
d) UI
Answer: a
Clarification: The road roughness is tested by bump integrator which is measured in mm/km and is classified into various types based on unevenness index value.

5. To minimize the cost of the project the most suitable method is ___________
a) CPM
b) PERT
c) CPM and PERT
d) Normal distribution curves
Answer: a
Clarification: CPM is mostly used in major projects, CPM is cost oriented whereas PERT is useful only for research purposes, normal distribution curve is followed by CPM.

6. The highly flooded areas should be re aligned by ___________
a) Providing additional thickness of the pavement
b) Providing suitable layers of pavement
c) Providing appropriate camber
d) Providing higher geometric specifications
Answer: a
Clarification: The existing road can be re aligned only by providing a thickness of pavement because the camber cannot be changed, so the additional thickness is the only option available.

7. Embankments are provided on a highway near ___________
a) Important cities
b) Religious structure
c) Railway tracks and highly flooded area
d) Costly structures
Answer: c
Clarification: The embankments are provided mostly near the highly flooded area, embankments near the railway tracks may be provided or may not be required it depends on the railway track.

8. The drawing for re alignment shows the existing road, proposed re alignment, contours and all other features it is called as ___________
a) Plan
b) Elevation
c) Cross section
d) Longitudinal section
Answer: a
Clarification: The plan shows all the above features, whereas the sections show existing roads, ground elevation, beginning and end of transition curves.