200+ TOP Immune Response MCQs and Answers

Immune Response Interview Questions

Dear Readers, Welcome to Immune Response Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students Immune Response Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Immune Response Questions are very important for campus placement Interviews.

1. Which of the following immune cells would have an especially low count in a patient with advanced AIDS?

A. Killer T lymphocytes

B. Helper T lymphocyte

C. B lymphocytes

D. None of these

Answer: B

2. In cellular immunity, T lymphocytes are responsible for the recognition and killing of foreign invaders. The cells are

A. cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL)

B. killer T cells

C. both (a) and (b)

D. none of the above

Answer: C

3. Plasma cells produce thousands of __________ that are released into the bloodstream.

A. antigens

B. antibodies

C. helper T cells

D. virus fragments

Answer: B

4. If a person is vaccinated against a disease sometime in the past, which of the following is currently in your body?

A. The disease organism itself and antigens for the disease organism

B. A very high level of antibodies against the disease antigens

C. Memory B lymphocytes for the antigen of this disease organism

D. All of the above

Answer: D

5. What is a protein produced by host cells infected by viruses?

A. Interferon

B. Histamine

C. Antiserum

D. Vaccine

Answer: A

6. Polysaccharides on the surface of infecting microorganisms can also activate complement directly in the absence of

A. antibody via the alternative pathway

B. antigen via the alternative pathway

C. antibody via metabolic pathway

D. none of the above

Answer: A

7. Antibodies bound to an invading microorganism activate the complement system via

A. classical pathway

B. metabolic pathway

C. Embden Meyerhof pathway

D. Entner-Doudoroff pathway

Answer: A

8. The immune response to a booster vaccine is called a(n)

A. cellular response

B. innate response

C. primary response

D. secondary response

Answer: D

9. Immunological memory is due to

A. short lived macrophage that can recognize specific pathogens

B. long lived B cells that secrete a specific antibody

C. long lived B cells that secrete a specific antigen

D. short lived helper T cells that signal macrophage to divide

Answer: B

11. What are the solutions prepared from weakened or dead microorganisms, viruses, or toxins that provide some immunity from diseases?

A. Vaccines

B. Histamines

C. D–gs

D. Antibiotics

Answer: A

12. During exposure to a foreign invader, there are more __________ present in the vertebrate body than before exposure

A. antibodies

B. lymphocytes

C. macrophages and antigens

D. all of these

Answer: D

13. To elicit the antibodies to mouse MHC I, it should be injected into a

A. goat

B. mouse of the same genetic background (strain)

C. mouse of a different strain

D. rat

Answer: A

14. To detect a humoral immune response to influenza virus, it is possible to measure

A. cytotoxicity of virus-infected cells in tissue culture

B. dividing T cells in the draining lymph nodes

C. plasma cytokine levels

D. serum antibody titer

Answer: D

15. Which of the following is in the lymph nodes of a person battling a cold virus?

A. Huge numbers of white blood cells

B. Trapped viruses that have been roaming the body

C. Lymph ducts that enter and exit the nodes and Lymph fluid

D. All of the above

Answer: D

16. Immunogenicity

A. depends on the ability of the native antigen to be presented by MHC

B. is usually a property of self antigens such as eye tissue

C. is not a property of antibodies

D. is not a property of haptens

Answer: D

200+ TOP Nitrogen Metabolism Interview Questions with Answers

Nitrogen Metabolism Interview Questions with Answers

Nitrogen Metabolism Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students Nitrogen Metabolism Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Nitrogen Metabolism Questions are very important for campus placement Interviews.

1. How many molecules of ATP are hydrolysed to form two molecule of ammonia?

A. 10
B. 5
C. 16
D. 15
Answer: C
 
Interview Questions On Nitrogen Metabolism

2. The nitrogen atoms of urea produced in the urea cycle are derived from

A. nitrate
B. ammonia and aspartic acid
C. nitrite
D. ammonia
Answer: B
 

3. The products of urea cycle are

A. 1 molecule of urea, 1 molecule of ammonia, 1 molecule of ATP and 1 molecule of fumaric acid
B. 1 molecule of fumaric acid, 1 molecule of urea, 1 molecule of AMP, 2 molecules of ADP
C. 1 molecule of aspartic acid, 1 molecule of ammonia, 1 molecule of fumaric acid, 1 molecule of ATP
D. None of the above
Answer: B
 

4. Nitrate reduction can be carried out by

A. only microorganism
B. plant and microorganism
C. only plants
D. none of these
Answer: B
 

5. Which of the following is used as carbon atom source while producing urea in the urea cycle?

A. Arginine
B. Aspartic acid
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Glucose
Answer: C
 

6. Which of the following amino acid do not fall under the category of essential amino acid?

A. Histidine
B. Leucine
C. Glycine
D. Methionine
Answer: C
 

7. Urea cycle converts

A. ammonia into a less toxic form
B. ketoacids into amino acids
C. amino acids into ketoacids
D. none of these
Answer: A

 

200+ TOP Virus Interview Questions with Answers

Virus Interview Questions with Answers

Virus Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students  Virus Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type  Virus Questions are very important for campus placement Interviews.

1. Which of the following disinfectant is effective against viruses?

A. Hydrogen peroxide

B. Hypochlorite

C. Formaldehyde

D. All of these

Answer: D

Interview Questions On Virus

2. Viruses largely lack metabolic machinery of their own to generate energy or to synthesize

A. protein

B. carbohydrate

C. alcohol

D. all of these

Answer: A

 

3. Viruses require __________ for growth.

A. bacteria

B. plants

C. animals

D. living cells

Answer: D

 

4. Reverse transcriptase is a useful enzyme to have when

A. an RNA virus converts its RNA to DNA

B. there are no host cells present

C. nutrients are scarce

D. spikes are forming in the new virus

Answer: A

 

5. The sequence of nucleic acid in a variety of viruses and viral host, will find more similarities

A. among different viruses than between viruses and their hosts

B. among different viral hosts than among different viruses

C. among different viral hosts than between viruses and their hosts

D. between viruses and their hosts than among different viruses

Answer: D

 

6. When a virus enters a cell but does not replicate immediately, the situation is called

A. lysogeny 

B. fermentation

C. symbiosis 

D. synergism

Answer: A

 

7. Usually viruses are separated into several large groups based primarily on

A. nature of the host

B. nucleic acid characteristics

C. capsid symmetry

D. diameter of the viroin or nucleocapsid

Answer: A

 

8. The first step in infection of a host bacterial cells by a phage is

A. adsorption 

B. absorption

C. penetration 

D. replication

Answer: A

 

9. Which of the following viruses has not been associated with human cancer?

A. Hepatitis C virus

B. Hepatitis B virus

C. Varicella-Zoster virus

D. Herpes simplex virus type 2

Answer: C

 

10. The viral nucleocapsid is the combination of

A. genome and capsid

B. capsid and spikes

C. envelope and capsid

D. capsomere and genome

Answer: A

 

11. Edward Jenner began inoculating humans with material from __________ lesions.

A. Smallpox

B. Avianpox

C. Cowpox

D. Chickenpox

Answer: C

 

12. The viruses in an attenuated vaccine

A. have no genome

B. continue to replicate

C. are usually larger than bacteria

D. is altered with chemicals

 

Answer: B

 

13. Enveloped viruses have a __________ shape.

A. icosahedral

B. helical

C. roughly spherical

D. complex

Answer: C

 

14. The envelope of which of the following viruses is derived from the host cell nucleus?

A. Paramyxoviruses

B. Retroviruses

C. Orthomyxoviruses

D. Herpesviruses

Answer: D

 

15. Which of the following is semi-continuous (diploid) cell line?

A. HeLa

B. HEp-2

C. WI-38

D. KB

Answer: C

 

16. Plant viruses may be cultivated in

A. tissue culture

B. cultures of separated cells

C. whole plants

D. all of these

Answer: D

 

17. The oncogene theory refers to

A. how chemicals inactivate viruses when applied

B. how viruses replicate in host cells

C. how viruses transform normal cells into tumor cells

D. none of these

Answer: C

 

18. In cell culture, measles virus may lead to

A. nuclear pyknosis

B. transformation of cells

C. syncytium formation

D. rounding and aggregation of cells

Answer: C

 

19. A change from lysogeny to lysis is generally induced by

A. ultraviolet light

B. chemicals

C. irradiation

D. all of these

Answer: A

 

20. The viral DNA is removed from the host’s chromosomes and the lytic cycle occurs. The process is called

A. spontaneous induction

B. inductive infection

C. resultant induction

D. spontaneous infection

Answer: A

 

21. The lysogenic state is governed by the activity of the regulatory region of the lambda phage genomes; this region is termed as

A. immunity repressor

B. immunity operon

C. operon repressor

D. none of these

Answer: B

 

22. The capsomeres consist of a number of proteins subunits or molecules called

 

A. protomers

B. caproprotein

C. procapsid

D. none of these

 

Answer: A

 

23. In order for a virus to replicate

 

A. the capsid must enter the host cell cytoplasm

B. the host cell must be undergoing mitosis

C. the genome must be released in the cytoplasm

D. the host cell must lack a cell membrane

 

Answer: C

 

24. Which of the following viruses belong to family Flaviviridae?

 

A. Rubella virus

B. Yellow fever virus

C. Hepatitis C virus

D. All of these

 

Answer: D

 

25. Which of the following viruses show/s transformation of infected cells?

 

A. Hepatitis B virus

B. Human T cell lymphotronic virus type I

C. Epstein-Barr virus

D. All of these

 

Answer: D

 

26. Which of the following may affect proteins and nucleic acids, but not viruses?

 

A. Denaturation

B. Enzyme treatment

C. Pressure

D. All of these

 

Answer: D

 

27. The viral DNA of the temperate phage, instead of taking over the functions of the cell’s genes, is incorporated into the host DNA and becomes a prophage in the bacterial chromosome, acting as a gene. This happens in

 

A. lysogeny

B. spontaneous induction

C. lytic phase

D. none of these

 

Answer: A

 

28. Which of the following statements is not true of viruses?

 

A. Viruses have been successfully grown in pure cultures in test tubes

B. All viruses are obligatory intracellular parasites

C. All viruses have either DNA or RNA as their genetic material

D. Viruses probably arose from small fragments of cellular chromosomes

 

Answer: A

 

29. Which of the following viruses belong/s to family caliciviridae?

 

A. Hepatitis B virus

B. Hepatitis D virus

C. Hepatitis E virus

D. All of these

 

Answer: C

 

30. In the simplest capsid, there is a capsomere at each of the 12 vertices; this capsomere, which is surrounded by five other capsomeres, is termed a

 

A. penton

B. polyhedra

C. icosahedral

D. helical

 

Answer: A

 

VIRUSES Questions with Answers ::

 

31. The size of viruses is usually measured in

 

A. centimeters

B. micrometers

C. nanometers

D. millimeters

 

Answer: C

 

32. The temperate phage that have no site specificity for insertion and may even be able to insert multiple copies of their DNA into a single bacterial chromosome is

 

A. ? phage enzyme

B. ? DNA

C. Phage Mu

D. Phage Mn

 

Answer: C

 

33. Enzyme neuraminidase is carried by which of the following viruses?

 

A. Human immunodeficiency virus

B. Epstein-Barr virus

C. Influenza virus

D. Adenovirus

 

Answer: C

 

34. Lysozyme (an endolysin) which will lyse the bacterial cell, releasing the mature virions is present in

 

A. immediate early phage genes

B. late genes

C. delayed early genes

D. all of these

 

Answer: B

 

35. Which of the following is continuous cell line?

 

A. HeLa

B. HEp-2

C. KB

D. All of these

 

Answer: D

 

36. The repressor protein, since the cell is resistant to lysis from externally infecting phage, is also called

 

A. immunity repressor

B. immunity operon

C. operon repressor

D. none of these

 

Answer: A

 

37. Which of the following virus is susceptible to chloroform?

 

A. Herpes

B. Influenza

C. Measles

D. All of these

 

Answer: D

 

38. Group E phages have

 

A. single stranded DNA

B. double stranded DNA

C. single stranded RNA

D. double stranded DNA

 

Answer: C

 

39. The temperate phage possesses a gene that codes for a repressor protein which makes the cell resistant to lysis initiated by

 

A. the prophage

B. lytic infection by other viruses

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. none of these

 

Answer: C

 

40. The bacterial viruses having head made up of large capsomeres, but no tail is morphologically classified as

 

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Answer: D

 

41. The most complex type of bacterial viruses having hexagonal head, a rigid tail with a contractile sheath and tall fibers is morphologically classified as

 

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Answer: A

 

42. Which of the following is not true of virions?

 

A. Reproduce independently

B. Contain DNA

C. Contain RNA

D. Are extracellular

 

Answer: A

 

43. Bacteriophages have been used widely in genetic research, since they are the smallest and simplest biological entities capable of

 

A. self-replication

B. duplication

C. self-duplication

D. multiplication

 

Answer: A

 

44. Lesions on chorioallantoic membrane are produced by

 

A. Herpes B virus

B. Vaccinia virus

C. Herpes simplex virus

D. all of these

 

Answer: D

 

45. Which one is not useful in the treatment of viruses except

 

A. acyclovir

B. interferon

C. penicillin

D. antibodies

 

Answer: C

 

46. The infected cells continue to reproduce themselves as well as the virus, and the mature virions are extruded from the cell surface continuously over a long period of time. This type of release mechanism is called a

 

A. productive infection

B. inductive infection

C. resultant infection

D. all of these

 

Answer: A

 

47. What kind of embryo is often used for viral assays?

 

A. Mouse

B. Rat

C. Cat

D. Chicken

 

Answer: D

 

48. The envelope of an enveloped virus is derived from

 

A. the mitochondrion of the cell

B. the cell membrane

C. the endoplasmic reticulum of the cell

D. none of these

 

Answer: B

 

49. The most popular indirect method of counting virus particles is by

 

A. hemagglutination assay

B. plaque-assay

C. counting plaque-forming units

D. colony counting

 

Answer: A

 

50. Which of the following viruses belong to family Hepadnaviridae?

 

A. Hepatitis A virus

B. Hepatitis B virus

C. Hepatitis D virus

D. All of these

 

Answer: B

 

51. Inclusion bodies of measles virus are

 

A. intracytoplasmic

B. intranuclear

C. both (a) and (b)

D. none of these

 

Answer: C

 

52. The most efficient way to enclose a space is within a/an

 

A. sphere

B. cube

C. icosahedron

D. helix

 

Answer: C

 

53. Which of the following is an example of rod-shaped viruses having their capsomeres arranged helically and not in the stacked ring?

 

A. Bateriophage M13

B. Bateriophage MV-L2

C. Bateriophage T2

D. Bateriophage T4

 

Answer: A

 

54. During the first 10 minutes after injection of phage DNA, no phage can be recovered by disrupting the infected bacterium. This is termed as

 

A. eclipse period

B. rise period

C. latent period

D. burst size

 

Answer: A

 

55. The function of a viral capsid is

 

A. protection against the viral genome from physical and enzymatic destruction

B. providing binding sites that enable the virus to attach to specific receptor sites on the host cell

C. serving as a vehicle of transmission from one host to another

D. all of the above

 

Answer: D

 

56. Which of the following oncogenic viruses was first detected?

 

A. Rous sarcoma virus.

B. Epstein-Barr virus

C. Herpes simplex virus type 2

D. Human T cell leukaemia virus

 

Answer: A

 

57. The yield of phage per bacterium is called the

 

A. eclipse size

B. latent size

C. burst size

D. none of these

 

Answer: C

 

58. Which of the following viruses are relatively thermostable?

 

A. Human immunodeficiency virus

B. Rubella virus

C. Hepatits A virus

D. Influenza virus

 

Answer: C

 

59. The time from infection until lysis is called as

 

A. eclipse period

B. rise period

C. latent period

D. burst size

 

Answer: C

 

60. Virus reproduces in living cells by

 

A. replication

B. duplication

C. multiplication

D. all of these

 

Answer: A

 

61. Which of the following virus is enveloped?

 

A. Adeno

B. Herpes

C. Polio

D. None of these

 

Answer: B

 

62. Which of the following viruses can rescue adenovirus in simian cells?

 

A. Rabies

B. Vaccinia

C. Simian virus 40

D. Cytomegalovirus

 

Answer: C

 

63. The phage components begin to assemble into mature phages only after the synthesis of

 

A. structural protein

B. nucleic acid

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. amino acids

 

Answer: C

 

64. Which of the following bacteriophage is said to have banal symmetry?

 

A. T2

B. T4

C. T6

D. all of these

 

Answer: D

 

65. Which of the following statements is correct?

 

A. Up to 10% of human tumours have a viral risk factor

B. Up to 40% of human tumours have a viral risk factor

C. Up to 30% of human tumours have a viral risk factor

D. Up to 20% of human tumours have a viral risk factor

 

Answer: D

 

66. Which of the following are obligate intracellular parasites?

 

A. Chlamydia

B. Viruses

C. Rickettsia

D. All of these

 

Answer: D

 

67. Viruses can be purified based on their size and density by using

 

A. gradient centrifugation

B. differential centrifugation

C. precipitation

D. none of these

 

Answer: A

 

68. The extracellular phage number increases until a constant titer at the end of the multiplication cycle. This time interval is termed as

 

A. eclipse period

B. rise period

C. latent period

D. burst size

 

Answer: B

200+ TOP Pharmacology MCQs with Answers Exam Quiz

Pharmacology Objective Questions

Pharmacology Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students Pharmacology Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Pharmacology Questions are very important for campus placement Interviews.

1.Acetyl salicylate & phenobarbitone are better absorbed from stomach because they are 

a) Weak acids remain non-ionic in gastric pH

b) Weak acids remain ionic in gastric pH

c) Strong acids fully ionized in gastric pH

d) Weak bases which are ionized at gastric pH

Answer: a

2.Chlorpropamide metabolism is enhanced by

a) Ethyl alcohol

b) Diazepam

c) Lorazepam

d) Chloridazepoxide

Answer: a

3.Plasma concentration of d–g at time 0 is 96(g/ml).f t Vi is 2 hours concentration in plasma at 10 hours will be

a) 48

b)24

c)12

d)3

Answer: d

4.The factors contributing to the unequal distribution of d–gs are all except:

a) Heterogenesity of the d–g

b) Binding to plasma proteins

c) Cellular binding

d) Concentration in body fat

e) Blood-brain barrier

Answer: a

5.Protein binding of a d–g helps in

a) Distribution

b) Prolonging half life

c) Limiting metabolism

d) All of the above

Answer: d

6.All of following are examples of prod–gs except

a) Levodopa

b) Enlapril

c) Omeprazole

d) Indomethacin

Answer: d

7.d–g levels should be monitored in the treatment of

a) Diabetes

b) Epilepsy

c) Status Asthmatics

d) Hypertension

Answer: b

8.AH are prod–gs except

a)Enalapril

b) Paracetamol

c) Sulphamethoxazole

d) Trimethoprim

Answer: d

9.Which d–g has a high first pass effect

a) Amiodarone

b) Phenytoin

c) Verapamil

d) Disopyramide

Answer: c

10.AH of the following do not cross the blood brain barrier except

a) Pyridostigmine

b) Neostigmine

c) Physostigmine

d) Ambenonium

Answer: c

11.Secobarbital and ethanol when given together show:

a) Additive sedative action

b) Reduced sedative action

c) Competitive antagonism

d) Chemical antagonism

e) None of the above

Answer: a

12.Administration of sulfonamide may intensify the action of tolbutamide, through:

a) Activation of the islets of pancreas

b) Direct action on the utilization of glucose

c) Synergistic action

d) Competing with tolbutamide in plasma protein binding

Answer: d

13.The major factor in terminating the action of ethanol is

a) Biotransformation

b) Excretion through lungs

c) Excretion unchanged in urine

d)Excretion in feces

e) None of the above

Answer: a

14.The study of dose, distribution, metabolism & excretion of d–gs in the body is known as

a) Pharmacognosia

b) Pharmacodynamics

c) Dose effective study

d) Pharmacotherapy

Answer: b

15.Which of the following is seen in first order kinetics

a) Rate depends upon plasma cone.

b) Rate does not depend on plasma cone.

c) Rate depends upon plasma protein binding

d) Elimination depends upon amount of d–g

Answer: a

16.All of the following pairs of d–g compete for the same receptors except

a) Ranitidine and histamine

b) Metoclopramide and dopamine

c) Dicyclomine and adrenaline

d) Benzhexol and acetylcholine

Answer: c

17.All are true except

a)Acidic d–gs bind to albumin & basic to acid glucoprotein

b)All d–gs have the same binding sites and mev compete for them

c)Increased dosage will cause decrease in free d–g in plasma throughout the therapeutic range

Answer: b

18.  Idiosyncrasy is:

a)A genetically determined abnormal reaction to d–gs

b)A characteristic toxic effect at therapeutic doses

c)An altered physiological state produced by repeated d–g use

d)An immunologically mediated reaction

Answer: a

19.Not metabolized in liver

a)Cimetidine

b) Phenytoin

c) Diazepam

d) Penicillin G

Answer: d

20.The following d–g is not secreted in bile

a) Penicillin

b) Phenolphthalein

c) Novobiocin

d) Erythromycin

Answer: a

21.Alcohol should not be given with

a) Sulphonamides

b) Clonidine

c) Reserpine

d) Metronidazole

Answer: d

22.Methanol causes blindness due to its

a) Hypersensitivity reactions

b) Conjugated products

c) Idiosyncratic reaction

d) Oxidative products

Answer: d

23. The combination of propranolol & nifedipine in essential hypertension is used because  

a) CNS effects of propanolol are prevented

b) Pedal edema of nifedipine is prevented

c)Alteration of serum lipids by propranolol is prevented

d)Reflex sympathetic activity of nifedipine is prevented

Answer: d

24.Which cytochrome is responsible for d–g metabolism?

a)P-450

b)C-3b

c)C-3a

d)C-2a

Answer: a

25.  d–gs significantly affected by enzyme induction include the following except:

a) Barbiturate

b) Chlorpromazine

c) Diphenyl hydantoin

d) Warfarin

Answer: b

26.What is a prod–g

a) Drag which increases efficiency of another d–g

b) Metabolic end product

c) Inactive drag which gets activated in the body

d) Drag which competes with another for metabolism

Answer: c

27.  The Alkaline d–g (Amidopyrine) is absorbed from

a) Stomach

b) Proximal small intestine

c) Distal small intestine

d) Colon

Answer: b

28.Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Most drags are absorbed in ionized form

b) Basic drags are generally bound to plasma albumin

c)Microsomal enzymes are located in the mitochondria of hepatic cells

d)Blood brain barrier is deficient at the chemo receptor trigger-zone

Answer: d

29.Substrate concentration & velocity curve indicates

a) Michelis-Mentons equation

b) Inverse relation

c) Zero order kinetics

d) All of the above

Answer: c

30. d–gs mostly cross biological membranes by

a) Passive diffusion

b) Active diffusion

c) Active transport

d) Carrier mediated transport

e) All of the above

Answer: a

31. All the following cross placenta except

a) Warfarin

b) Heparin

c) Phenindione

d) Morphine

Answer: b

32.  The d–g, which interferes with metabolism of theophylline

a) Gentamicin

b) Penicillin

c) Erythromycin

d) Sulfonamide

Answer: c

33.  Km value indicates

a) Purity of enzyme

b) Physiological role

c) Half life enzyme d–g complex

d) Affinity

Answer: c

34.All of following d–gs are metabolized in body by acetylation except:

a) INH

b) Hydralazine

c) Procainamide

d) Dilantin

Answer: d

 

35.All are explained on pharmacogenetic conditions except

a) G6PD deficiency

b) Warfarin insensitivity

c) Adenosine deaminase deficiency

d) Malignant hyperthermia

Answer: c

36.Most common indication for therapeutic monitoring of plasma levels of a d–g is

a) Hit & run d–gs

b) d–gs with irreversible action

c) Narrow therapeutic range

d) Failure of response

Answer: c

37. Which of the following d–gs do not cross the placenta

a) Dilantin

b) Diazepam

c) Acinocoumarin

d) Heparin

Answer: d

38.TVi of a d–g can determine all the following

a) Closing interval

b) Elimination time

c) Steady Plasma Concentration

d) Therapeutic dosage

Answer: d

39.Zero order kinetics is seen with

a) Phenytoin

b) Phenobarbital

c) Erythromycin

d) Digoxin

Answer: a

40.d–g which crosses the placental barrier is:

a) Phenytoin

b) Diazepam

c) Corticosterioids

d) All of the above

Answer: d

41.The following d–gs are excreted in the bile except:

a) Erythromycin

b) Novobiocin

c) Chloramphenicol

d) Rifampicin

Answer: c

42.The Combination of amoxycillin + clavulanic acid is used because

a) It broadens the spectrum of amoxycillin

b) It decreases the side effect of amoxycillin

c) It decreases the toxicity of clavulanic acid

d) It increases the oral bio availability of amoxycillin

Answer: a

43.   Flushing occurs when alcohol is taken along with

a) Phenformin

b) Chlorpropamide

c) Glibenclamide

d) Tolbutamide

Answer: b

44. Which of the following avoids first pass effect of d–gs

a) Oral ingestion

b) Rectal Suppository

c) Intra venous injection

d) Intra-arterial injection

Answer: d

45. All are pro d–gs except

a) Sulindac

b) Codeine

c) Talampicillin

d) Chlorpromazine

Answer: d

46.The elimination of following d–gs is dose dependant except

a) Phenytoin

b) Salicylate

c) Theophylline

d) Chlorpromazine

Answer: d

47.d–g which interferes with metabolism of theophylline is:

a) Erythromycin

b)Gentamicin

c) Penicillin

d) Furazolidone

Answer: a

48.What is the interaction of pheno barbiton and warfarin

a) Displacement of warfarin from binding site

b) Decreased absorption of warfarin

c)Increased metabolism of warfarin

d) Decreased metabolism of warfarin

Answer: c

49.Therapeutic index of a d–g is an indicator of

a) Potency

b) Safety

c) Toxicity

d) Efficacy

Answer: c

50.Zero order kinetics are seen in all except

a) Salicylate

b) Atenolol

c) Barbiturates

d) Ethanol

Answer: c

51.All of the following are protein bound except:

a) Propranolol

b) Atenolol

c) Phenylbutazone

d) Warfarin

Answer: b

52.Pick the true statement:

a)Amox- Clavulanic, Clavulanic increases amox activity

b)Sublactum is used in treatment of Leprosy

c) Aztreonam is a metabolite of clarithromycin

d)Cilastatin imipenam- cilastatin prevents hydrolysis of imipenam

Answer: b

53.d–g absorbed by active transport is

a) Propranolol

b) Ergotamine

c) Levodopa

d) Amantidine

Answer: c

54.Following are the true receptors, except one

a) Beta adrenergic receptors

b) Na-K-ATP ase

c) Phosphodiesterase

d)Plasma proteins

Answer: d

 

55.Which of the following is not a dose related reaction:

a) Myocardial Irritation of Quinidine

b) Hypoglycemia of tolbutamide

c)Digitalis induced arrythmia

d) d–g fever of sulpha

Answer: d

56.Theophylline levels in blood are increased by:

a) Erythromycin

b) Ciprofloxacin

c) Smoking

d) Digitalis

Answer: a

57.What is the advantage of sublingual route of administration of d–gs

a) Prevents first pass effect

b) Easy to administer

c) Lipid soluble

d) Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity

Answer: a

58.Ciprofloxacin increases the toxicity of theophylline by

a) Inhibiting metabolism

b) Decreasing excretion

c) Decrease seizure threshold

d) Promote absorption

Answer: b

59.Elimination after 4 half lives in first order kinetics is

a) 84%

b)93%

c)80.5%

d)4.75%

Answer: b

60.All the following induce hepatic enzymes except

a) Rifampicin

b) Phenytoin

c) Barbiturates

d) Tolbutamide

Answer: d

61.Which of the following shows high first pass metabolism:

a) Propranolol

b) Phenobarbitone

c) Phenylbutazone

d) Phenytoin

e)Reflex esophagitis

Answer: a

62.Enterohepatic circulation is seen in

a) Ampicillin

b) Benzylpenicillin

c) Norfloxacin

d) Streptomycin

Answer: d

63.Least half life is for which hormone

a) Nor adrenaline

b) Renin

c) Aldosterone

d) Thyroxine

Answer: a

64.Not a prod–g

a) Lisinopril

b) Enalapril

c) Ramipril

d) Famotidine

Answer: a

65.No physical dependence is seen in:

a) Dextropropoxyphene

b) Fortwin

c) Fluoxetine

d) Alprax

Answer: c

66.Slow channel syndrome is due to

a) Accumulation of Na + ions in channels

c) Accumulation of Mg++ ions in channels

b) Accumulation of K+ ions in channels

d) Accumulation of Ca++ ions in channels

Answer: d

67.  First dose phenomenon is a characteristic side effect on initiation of antihypertensive therapy with

a) Minoxidil

b)Clonidine

c) Metroprolol

d) Prazosin

Answer: b

68. Serum level of d–g is monitored when the patient is on

a) Lithium

b) Haloperidol

c) Diazepam

d) Acetazolamide

Answer: a

69.L-Dopa is

a) Converted to methyl dopa in the body

b) Antagonised by riboflavine

c) Antagonized by nicotinic acid

d) Combined with carbidopa for enhanced effect

Answer: d

70.All the following statements regarding treatment of parkinson’s disese are correct except

a)Levodopa is usually administered alone (KAR93)

b)Amantadine is effective in the treatment of early disease

c)Bromocryptine is a useful dopamine receptor agonist

d)Patient may require medication every 2 hours

Answer: a

71.Which statement about clonidine is false

a)Useful in the management of opiate withdrawal syndrome

b)Claimed to have prophylactic value in migraine

c) It is alpha-2 receptor stimulant

d) It is safe on abrupt termination of treatment

Answer: d

72.Ipratropium bromide is

a) Bronchoselective anticholinergic

b) Used as mydriatic

c)A selective MI anticholinergic useful in peptic ulcer

d) An antiparkinsonism d–g

Answer: a

73.Beta blocker which has less first pass metabolism and more excretion through kidney is 

a) Propranolol

b)Sotalol

c)Bisprolol

d) Nadolol

Answer: b

74. Which statement is false of Domperidone

a) Chemically related to haloperidol

b) Pharmacologically related to metoclopramide

c)Extra pyramidal symptoms are common

d)It counteracts the emetic action but not the therapeutic effect in parkinsonism

Answer: c

75.Which of the following causes rise in systolic as well as diastolic BP for prolonged period:

a) Ephedrine

b) Epinephrine

c) Dopamine

d) Norepinephrine

Answer: d

76. Amphetamine is used in

a) Narcolepsy

b) Psychosis

c) Anxiety disorders

d) Obsessive compulsive neurosis

Answer: a

77.d–g of choice in phenothiazine induced parkinsonism is

a) Levodopa

b) Haloperidol

c) Metoclopramide

d) None of the above

Answer: a

78.All of the following are adverse effects of phenothiazines except

a) Rigidity and tremor

b) Menstrual irregularities

c) Cholestatic jaundice

d) Systolic hypertension

Answer: d

79. Which antiepileptic d–g does not act as GABA agonist?

a) Phenytoin

b) Sodium valproate

c) Diazepam

d) Phenbarbitone

Answer: a

80. Which phenothiazine has the least extra pyramidal effect

a) Thioridazine

b) Chlorpromazine

c) Triflupromazine

d) Fluphenazine

Answer: a

81.  Dopamine is:

a) Alpha and beta agonist

b) Beta agonist

c) A beta blocking agent

d) Alpha blocking agent

Answer: a

82.  I.V. fluphenzine decanoate is d–g of choice in:

a) Simple Schizophrenia

b) Hebephrenic Schizophrenia

c) Catatonic Schizophrenia

d) Paranoid Schizophrenia

Answer: a

83. Bromocriptine is

a) A partial agonist of dopamine

b) A partial antagonist of dopamine

c) Used in the treatment of parkinsonism

d) Used to reduce GH secretion in acromegaly

e) All except b are correct

Answer: e

84.In an acute attack of migraine, the d–g of choice is

a) Ergotamine tartrate

b) Methysergide

c) Propranolol

d) Caffeine

Answer: a

85.The ganglion blocking d–gs act by

a)Competing with acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions

b)Preventing release of acetylcholine

c) Preventing nerve conduction in post ganglionic segment

d)Preventing catecholamine release or inactivating it

Answer: b

86.Not an antidepressant

a) Amitryptilline

b) Fluoxetin

c) Trazodone

d) Pimozide

Answer: d

87.Beta blocker are used in all, except

a) Variant angina

b) Mild hypertension

c) Glaucoma

d) Thyrotoxicosis

Answer: a

88.Which of the following is the longest acting newer antihistamine:

a) Mequitazine

b) Loratidine

c) Astemizole

d) Terfenadine

Answer: c

89. Phenylephrine is useful for all of the following except

a) Anaphylactic shock

b) Mydriasis

c) Nasal decongestant

d) Artial tachycardia

Answer: a

90. B-Blockers are contra indicated in

a) Hypertension

b) Congestive cardiac failure

c) Anxiety states

d) Hyperthyroidism

Answer: b

91.d–g of choice in motion sickness is

a) Metoclopramide

b) Transdermal scopalamine

c) Diphenhydramine

d) Chlorpromazine

Answer: b

92.All increase dopaminergic transmission except

a) Bromocriptine

b) Metoclopramide

c) Chlorpromazine

d) Reserpine

Answer: b

93. Which antiepileptic d–g in therapeutic doses causes least sedation?

a) Primidone

b) Clonazepam

c) Phenytoin

d) Phenobarbitone

Answer: c

94.Tianeptin is

a) 5-HT antagonist

b) Nor adrenaline uptake inhibitor

c) 5-HT reuptake enhancer

d) Dopamine antagonist

Answer: c

95.The following are recognized effects of propranolol except

a) Increases microcoronary blood flow

b) Decrease in heart rate

c) Decrease in cardiac output

d) Reduction in ventricular systolic pressure

Answer: a

96.Nicotinic receptors are seen in

a) Skeletal muscle

b) Visceral smooth muscle

c) Cardiac muscle

d) Salivary glands

Answer: a

97.Antiemitic used to prevent aspiration in emergency surgery

a) Ondansetrone

b) Promethazine

c) Metoclopromide

d)Ranitidine

Answer: b

98.d–gs which increase GABA levels in brain

a) Diazepam

b) Phenobarbitone

c) Sodium valproate

d) Carbamazepine

Answer: c

 99.Midazolam as compared to diazepam is:

a) Less cerebroprotective

b) More cerebroprotective

c) Same as diazepam

d) No cerebroprotective effect

Answer: a

100. Which is a 5HT-receptor agonist?

a) Ondansetron

b) Ketanserine

c) Sumatriptan

d) Risperidone

Answer: c

200+ TOP Embryology Interview Questions with Answers

Embryology Interview Questions

1. What is the cell division process directly related to the embryonic growth?

The embryonic growth depends directly on mitosis. Through this type of cell division, the zygote divides itself giving birth to a series of cells that by mitosis too compose differentiated tissues and organs until the formation of a complete individual.

2. What is the function of the vitellus in the vertebrate egg? How are these eggs classified according to the amount of vitellus within them?

Vitellus (yolk) is the nutritive material that accumulates in the cytoplasm of the egg (zygote) with the function of nourishing the embryo. According to the amount of vitellus in them, the vertebrate eggs are classified as oligolecithal (little yolk), centrolecithal, or heterolecithal (more yolk diffusely distributed) and telolecithal (more yolk concentrated in one end of the egg).

3. What are the animal pole and the vegetal pole of the vertebrate egg?

The animal pole of a telolecithal egg is the portion of the egg with little vitellus, it is opposite to the vegetal pole that is the region where the yolk is concentrated.

Image Diversity: animal and vegetal poles

4. What are the four initial stages of the embryonic development?

The four initial stages of the embryonic development are the morula stage, the blastula stage, the gastrula stage, and the neurula stage.

5. What is the cell division during the first stage of the embryonic development called? How is this stage characterized?

The cell division in the first stage of the embryonic developments is called cleavage, or segmentation. In this stage, mitosis occurs from the zygote forming the new embryo.

6. What are the cells produced in the first stage of the embryonic development called?

The cells that resulted from the cleavage (the first stage of the embryonic development) are called blastomeres. In this stage the embryo is called morula (similar to a “morus”, mulberry).

Image Diversity: morula

7. After the morula stage what is the next stage? What is the morphological feature that defines that stage?

After passing the morula stage in which the embryo was a compact mass of cells, the next stage is the blastula stage. In the blastula stage, the compactness is lost and an internal cavity filled with fluid appears inside, the blastocele.

Image Diversity: blastula

8. After the blastula stage what is the following stage of the embryonic development? How is the passage from blastula to the next stage called?

The blastula turns into gastrula in a process known as gastrulation.

Image Diversity: gastrula

9. What is gastrulation? How during gastrulation are the first two germ layers formed? Which are these germ layers?

Gastrulation is the process through which a portion of the blastula wall undergoes invagination inside the blastocele forming a tube called archenteron (primitive intestine). The cells of the inner side of the tube form the endoderm (germ layer) and the cells of the outer side form the ectoderm (another germ layer). It is the beginning of the tissue differentiation in the embryonic development.

10. What are the archenteron and the blastopore? What is the stage of the embryonic development in which these structures are formed? What are the destinations of the archenteron and of the blastopore?

Archenteron is the tube formed during gastrulation by means of invagination of the blastula wall inside the blatocele. It is the origin of the gastrointestinal tract. Blastopore is the opening of the archenteron to the exterior. The blastopore gives birth to one of the extremities of the digestive tube: the mouth in protostome beings, or the anus in deuterostome beings.

11. How is the mesoderm (third germ layer) of triploblastic animals formed?

The mesoderm appears from differentiation of endodermal cells that cover the dorsal region of the archenteron.

12. What are the three types of germ layers that form tissues and organs in animals?

The three germ layers are the ectoderm, the mesoderm, and the endoderm.

Image Diversity: germ layers

13. How are animals classified according to the germ layers present in their embryonic development?

Cnidarians are diploblastic, i.e., they present only endoderm and ectoderm. With the exception of poriferans, all remaining animals are triploblastic. Poriferans do not present differentiated tissue organization and so they do not classify regarding germ layers (although sometimes they are mentioned as diploblastic).

14. How does the embryo turn from gastrula into neurula? How is the neural tube formed? What is the embryonic origin of the nervous system in vertebrates?

The neurula stage is characterized by the appearing of the neural tube along the dorsal region of the embryo. The growing of mesoderm in that region induces the differentiation of ectodermal cells just above. These cells then differentiate forming the neural tube. Therefore, the origin of the nervous system is the ectoderm (the same germ layer that gives birth to the skin).

Image Diversity: neurula

15. What is notochord? How is this structure formed?

Notochord is a rodlike structure that forms the supporting axis of the embryo and gives birth to the vertebral column in vertebrates. It is formed by differentiation of mesodermal cells.

16. What is coelom? To which structures do coeloms give birth? Are all animals coelomate?

Coeloms are cavities delimited by mesoderm. Coeloms originate the cavities where the internal organs of the body are located, like the pericardial cavity, the peritoneal cavity, and the pleural cavity. Besides coelomate animals, there are acoelomate animals, like platyhelminthes, and pseudocoelomate animals, like nematodes.

Image Diversity: coelom

17. What is the germ layer from which the coeloms originate?

The coeloms are originated from mesoderm.

18. What are pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum?

Pleura are the membrane that covers the lungs and the inner wall of the chest; pericardium is the membrane that covers the heart; peritoneum is the membrane that covers most organs of the gastrointestinal tract and part of the abdominal cavity. All these membranes delimit coeloms (internal cavities).

Image Diversity: pleura pericardium peritoneum

19. After the neurula stage and from its ventral portion to the dorsal how can the morphology of the embryo be described?

In a schematic longitudinal section of the embryo after the neurula stage, the outermost layer of cells is the ectoderm. In the ventral region comes the archenteron tube formed of endodermal cells. In both sides of the embryo, coeloms delimited by mesoderm are present. In the central region above the archenteron and in the middle of the coeloms there is the notochord. In the dorsal region just above the notochord lies the neural tube.

20. What are somites?

Somites are differentiated portions of mesodermal tissue longitudinally distributed along the embryo. The somites originate the muscle tissue and portions of the connective tissues.

Image Diversity: somites

21. What are histogenesis and organogenesis?

Histogenesis is the process of tissue formation in the embryonic development. Organogenesis is the process of organ formation. Before histogenesis and organogenesis the primitive embryonic structures have been already formed: germ layers, neural tube, notochord, coeloms, somites.

22. What are twins? Genetically what are the two types of twins that can be generated?

Twins are simultaneously generated (within the mother’s uterus) offspring. Twins classify according to zygosity as monozygotic or as dizygotic twins.

Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, are those originated from one single fertilized ovum (therefore from one single zygote); monozygotic twins are genetically identical, i.e., they have identical genotypes and are necessarily of the same se-. Dizygotic twins, also known as fraternal twins, are those generated from two different ova fecundated by two different sperm cells; so they are not genetically identical and they are not necessarily of the same se-.

Image Diversity: twins

23. What is polyembryony?

Polyembryony is the phenomenon in which a single embryo in its initial embryonic stage divides itself forming many new individuals of the same se- and genetically identical. This is the way, for example, in which reproduction takes place in armadillos of the genus Dasypus. Polyembryony is an example of natural “cloning”.

24. What are extra embryonic membranes?

Extra embryonic membranes are membranous structures that appear paralleling the embryo and play important roles in the embryonic development. They form from the embryo but do not become part of the individual organism after its birth.

25. What are the extra embryonic membranes present in vertebrates?

The extra embryonic membranes that may be present in vertebrates are the yolk sac, the amnion, the chorion, the allantois and the placenta.

26. Are the extra embryonic membranes the same in all vertebrates?

The presence of each extra embryonic membrane varies according to the vertebrate class.

In fishes and amphibians, only the yolk sac is present. In reptiles and aves besides the yolk sac, there are also the amnion, the chorion and the allantois. In placental mammals besides all these membranes, the placenta is present too.

27. How is the yolk sac formed? What is the function of the yolk sac?

The yolk sac is formed from the covering of the vitellus by some cells originated from the primitive gut.

The yolk sac stores vitellus, the main nourishment source of nonplacental embryos.

Image Diversity: yolk sac

28. Which is the extra embryonic membrane whose function is to store nitrogen wastes of the embryo? Is this function present in placental mammalian embryos?

The allantois is the extra embryonic membrane whose function is to store excretes of the embryo.

In placental mammals, the allantois is present but it does not exert that function since the embryonic wastes are collected by the mother’s body through the placenta.

Image Diversity: allantois

29. Why can the allantois be considered an adaptation to terrestrial life?

The allantois is an adaptation to dry land because in embryos of oviparous terrestrial beings, like reptiles and birds, the metabolic residuals cannot be immediately excreted to the aquatic surrounds (as fishes and amphibian larvae do). It was necessary then the appearing of a structure capable of storing the embryonic excretes until hatching.

30. What is the difference between amnion and chorion?

Amnion is the membrane that covers the embryo. Chorion is the membrane that covers the amnion, the yolk sac, and the allantois. The space delimited by the chorion and the amnion is called amniotic cavity and it is filled with aminiotic fluid. The amniotic cavity has the functions of preventing desiccation of the embryo and of protecting it against mechanical shocks.

Image Diversity: amnion chorion

31. Why can the amnion also be considered an adaptation to terrestrial life?

The amnion is also an adaptation to dry land since one of its functions is to prevent desiccation of the embryo.

32. What is the chorioallantois membrane present in the embryonic development of reptiles and birds? How does this membrane participate in the energetic metabolism of the embryo?

The chorioallantois membrane is formed by juxtaposition of some regions of the chorion and the allantois. Since it is porous, the chorioallantois membrane allows the passage of gases between the embryo and the exterior thus making aerobic cellular respiration possible.

33. In which type of animals does the placenta exist? What is its main function?

True placenta is present in placental mammals.

The placenta is formed from the chorion of the embryo and from the mother’s endometrium. Its main function is to allow the exchange of substances between the fetus and the mother’s body.

Image Diversity: placenta placental mammals

34. What are the main substances transferred from the mother to the fetus through the placenta and from the fetus to the mother?

From the mother to the fetus the main transferred substances through the placenta are water, oxygen, nutrients, and antibodies. From the fetus to the mother, metabolic wastes including urea (nitrogen waste), and carbon dioxide are transferred.

35. Is there exchange of cells between the mother and the fetus through the placenta?

Under normal conditions, there is no passage of cells across the placenta during gestation. The placenta has a smooth mucosa separating the richly vascularized region in contact with the mother’s endometrium from the umbilical cord in contact with the fetal blood. This barrier is known as placental barrier. Although permeable to some substances (selective permeability), the placental barrier forbids the passage of cells.

Image Diversity: umbilical cord placental barrier

36. What are the endocrine functions of the placenta?

The placenta has endocrine function since it secretes the hormones progesterone and estrogens that maintain the endometrium (internal covering of the uterus) and prevent menses during pregnancy. The placenta also secretes other important hormones for pregnancy regulation.

37. What is the function of the umbilical cord?

The umbilical cord is a set of blood vessels that connect the fetus with the placenta. In the fetus, one extremity of the cord inserts into the center of the abdominal wall (the later scar of this insertion is the umbilicus).

38. What are the three types of germ layers that form tissues and organs in animals?

The three germ layers are the ectoderm, the mesoderm, and the endoderm.

39.  How is the mesoderm (third germ layer) of triploblastic animals formed?

The mesoderm appears from differentiation of endodermal cells that cover the dorsal region of the archenteron.

40. What are the archenteron and the blastopore? What is the stage of the embryonic development in which these structures are formed? What are the destinations of the archenteron and of the blastopore?

Archenteron is the tube formed during gastrulation by means of invagination of the blastula wall inside the blatocele. It is the origin of the gastrointestinal tract. Blastopore is the opening of the archenteron to the exterior. The blastopore gives birth to one of the extremities of the digestive tube: the mouth in protostome beings, or the anus in deuterostome beings.

41. What is gastrulation? How during gastrulation are the first two germ layers formed? Which are these germ layers?

Gastrulation is the process through which a portion of the blastula wall undergoes invagination inside the blastocele forming a tube called archenteron (primitive intestine). The cells of the inner side of the tube form the endoderm (germ layer) and the cells of the outer side form the ectoderm (another germ layer). It is the beginning of the tissue differentiation in the embryonic development.

42. After the blastula stage what is the following stage of the embryonic development? How is the passage from blastula to the next stage called?

The blastula turns into gastrula in a process known as gastrulation.

43. After the morula stage what is the next stage? What is the morphological feature that defines that stage?

After passing the morula stage in which the embryo was a compact mass of cells, the next stage is the blastula stage. In the blastula stage, the compactness is lost and an internal cavity filled with fluid appears inside, the blastocele.

44. What are the cells produced in the first stage of the embryonic development called?

The cells that resulted from the cleavage (the first stage of the embryonic development) are called blastomeres. In this stage the embryo is called morula (similar to a “morus”, mulberry).

45. What is the cell division during the first stage of the embryonic development called? How is this stage characterized?

The cell division in the first stage of the embryonic developments is called cleavage, or segmentation. In this stage, mitosis occurs from the zygote forming the new embryo.

46. What are the four initial stages of the embryonic development?

The four initial stages of the embryonic development are the morula stage, the blastula stage, the gastrula stage, and the neurula stage.

47. What are the animal pole and the vegetal pole of the vertebrate egg?

The animal pole of a telolecithal egg is the portion of the egg with little vitellus, it is opposite to the vegetal pole that is the region where the yolk is concentrated.

48. What is the function of the vitellus in the vertebrate egg? How are these eggs classified according to the amount of vitellus within them?

Vitellus (yolk) is the nutritive material that accumulates in the cytoplasm of the egg (zygote) with the function of nourishing the embryo. According to the amount of vitellus in them, the vertebrate eggs are classified as oligolecithal (little yolk), centrolecithal, or heterolecithal (more yolk diffusely distributed) and telolecithal (more yolk concentrated in one end of the egg).

49. What is the cell division process directly related to the embryonic growth?

The embryonic growth depends directly on mitosis. Through this type of cell division, the zygote divides itself giving birth to a series of cells that by mitosis too compose differentiated tissues and organs until the formation of a complete individual.

50. How are animals classified according to the germ layers present in their embryonic development?

Cnidarians are diploblastic, i.e., they present only endoderm and ectoderm. With the exception of poriferans, all remaining animals are triploblastic. Poriferans do not present differentiated tissue organization and so they do not classify regarding germ layers (although sometimes they are mentioned as diploblastic).

51. How does the embryo turn from gastrula into neurula? How is the neural tube formed? What is the embryonic origin of the nervous system in vertebrates?

The neurula stage is characterized by the appearing of the neural tube along the dorsal region of the embryo. The growing of mesoderm in that region induces the differentiation of ectodermal cells just above. These cells then differentiate forming the neural tube. Therefore, the origin of the nervous system is the ectoderm (the same germ layer that gives birth to the skin).

52. What is notochord? How is this structure formed?

Notochord is a rodlike structure that forms the supporting axis of the embryo and gives birth to the vertebral column in vertebrates. It is formed by differentiation of mesodermal cells.

 

53. What is coelom? To which structures do coeloms give birth? Are all animals coelomate?

Coeloms are cavities delimited by mesoderm. Coeloms originate the cavities where the internal organs of the body are located, like the pericardial cavity, the peritoneal cavity, and the pleural cavity. Besides coelomate animals, there are acoelomate animals, like platyhelminthes, and pseudocoelomate animals, like nematodes.

54. What is the germ layer from which the coeloms originate?

The coeloms are originated from mesoderm.

55. What are pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum?

Pleura are the membrane that covers the lungs and the inner wall of the chest; pericardium is the membrane that covers the heart; peritoneum is the membrane that covers most organs of the gastrointestinal tract and part of the abdominal cavity. All these membranes delimit coeloms (internal cavities).

56. After the neurula stage and from its ventral portion to the dorsal how can the morphology of the embryo be described?

In a schematic longitudinal section of the embryo after the neurula stage, the outermost layer of cells is the ectoderm. In the ventral region comes the archenteron tube formed of endodermal cells. In both sides of the embryo, coeloms delimited by mesoderm are present. In the central region above the archenteron and in the middle of the coeloms there is the notochord. In the dorsal region just above the notochord lies the neural tube.

57. What are somites?

Somites are differentiated portions of mesodermal tissue longitudinally distributed along the embryo. The somites originate the muscle tissue and portions of the connective tissues.

58. What are histogenesis and organogenesis?

Histogenesis is the process of tissue formation in the embryonic development. Organogenesis is the process of organ formation. Before histogenesis and organogenesis the primitive embryonic structures have been already formed: germ layers, neural tube, notochord, coeloms, somites.

200+ TOP Streptococcus Interview Questions with Answers

Streptococcus Interview Questions with Answers

StreptococcusObjective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students Streptococcus Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Streptococcus Questions are very important for campus placement Interviews.

 

1. The bacteria involved in the production of dental caries is/are

A. Streptococcus mutans

B. S sanguis

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. Streptococcus pyogenes

Answer: C

Interview Questions On Streptococcus

2. Which of the following test indicates the susceptibility to streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin?

A. Schick test

B. Disk test

C. ASO test

D. Precipitation test

Answer: B

 

3. Which of the following condition is non-suppurative sequelae of Streptococcus pyogenesinfections?

A. Acute rheumatic fever

B. Acute glomerulonephritis

C. Erythema nodosum

D. All of these

Answer: D

 

5. Streptococcus pyogenes can be differentiated from other haemolytic Streptococci on the basis of

A. Bacitracin sensitivity

B. Erythromycin sensitivity

C. Aminoglycosides sensitivity

D. Penicillin sensitivity

Answer: A

 

6. Streptolysin O is

A. antigenic

B. oxygen-labile

C. heat-labile

D. all of these

Answer: D

 

7. Cell wall protein of Streptococcus pyogenes crossreacts with human

A. synovial fluid

B. cardiac valves

C. myocardium

D. vascular intima

Answer: C

 

8. Individuals suffering from primary atypical pneumonia have agglutinins to

A. Streptococcus MG

B. S avium

C. S mutans

D. Enterococcus faecalis

Answer: A

 

9. Which of the following test(s) may establish retrospective diagnosis of streptococcal infection?

A. Anti-DNase B test

B. ASO test

C. Streptozyme test

D. All of these

Answer: D

 

10. The bacterial sore throat is caused by

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Haemophilus spp

C. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Answer: C

 

11. Crystal violet blood agar is a selective medium for

A. ß-haemolytic streptococci

B. Staphylococcus aureus

C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer: A