200+ TOP Pharmacology MCQs with Answers Exam Quiz

Pharmacology Objective Questions

Pharmacology Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students Pharmacology Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Pharmacology Questions are very important for campus placement Interviews.

1.Acetyl salicylate & phenobarbitone are better absorbed from stomach because they are 

a) Weak acids remain non-ionic in gastric pH

b) Weak acids remain ionic in gastric pH

c) Strong acids fully ionized in gastric pH

d) Weak bases which are ionized at gastric pH

Answer: a

2.Chlorpropamide metabolism is enhanced by

a) Ethyl alcohol

b) Diazepam

c) Lorazepam

d) Chloridazepoxide

Answer: a

3.Plasma concentration of d–g at time 0 is 96(g/ml).f t Vi is 2 hours concentration in plasma at 10 hours will be

a) 48

b)24

c)12

d)3

Answer: d

4.The factors contributing to the unequal distribution of d–gs are all except:

a) Heterogenesity of the d–g

b) Binding to plasma proteins

c) Cellular binding

d) Concentration in body fat

e) Blood-brain barrier

Answer: a

5.Protein binding of a d–g helps in

a) Distribution

b) Prolonging half life

c) Limiting metabolism

d) All of the above

Answer: d

6.All of following are examples of prod–gs except

a) Levodopa

b) Enlapril

c) Omeprazole

d) Indomethacin

Answer: d

7.d–g levels should be monitored in the treatment of

a) Diabetes

b) Epilepsy

c) Status Asthmatics

d) Hypertension

Answer: b

8.AH are prod–gs except

a)Enalapril

b) Paracetamol

c) Sulphamethoxazole

d) Trimethoprim

Answer: d

9.Which d–g has a high first pass effect

a) Amiodarone

b) Phenytoin

c) Verapamil

d) Disopyramide

Answer: c

10.AH of the following do not cross the blood brain barrier except

a) Pyridostigmine

b) Neostigmine

c) Physostigmine

d) Ambenonium

Answer: c

11.Secobarbital and ethanol when given together show:

a) Additive sedative action

b) Reduced sedative action

c) Competitive antagonism

d) Chemical antagonism

e) None of the above

Answer: a

12.Administration of sulfonamide may intensify the action of tolbutamide, through:

a) Activation of the islets of pancreas

b) Direct action on the utilization of glucose

c) Synergistic action

d) Competing with tolbutamide in plasma protein binding

Answer: d

13.The major factor in terminating the action of ethanol is

a) Biotransformation

b) Excretion through lungs

c) Excretion unchanged in urine

d)Excretion in feces

e) None of the above

Answer: a

14.The study of dose, distribution, metabolism & excretion of d–gs in the body is known as

a) Pharmacognosia

b) Pharmacodynamics

c) Dose effective study

d) Pharmacotherapy

Answer: b

15.Which of the following is seen in first order kinetics

a) Rate depends upon plasma cone.

b) Rate does not depend on plasma cone.

c) Rate depends upon plasma protein binding

d) Elimination depends upon amount of d–g

Answer: a

16.All of the following pairs of d–g compete for the same receptors except

a) Ranitidine and histamine

b) Metoclopramide and dopamine

c) Dicyclomine and adrenaline

d) Benzhexol and acetylcholine

Answer: c

17.All are true except

a)Acidic d–gs bind to albumin & basic to acid glucoprotein

b)All d–gs have the same binding sites and mev compete for them

c)Increased dosage will cause decrease in free d–g in plasma throughout the therapeutic range

Answer: b

18.  Idiosyncrasy is:

a)A genetically determined abnormal reaction to d–gs

b)A characteristic toxic effect at therapeutic doses

c)An altered physiological state produced by repeated d–g use

d)An immunologically mediated reaction

Answer: a

19.Not metabolized in liver

a)Cimetidine

b) Phenytoin

c) Diazepam

d) Penicillin G

Answer: d

20.The following d–g is not secreted in bile

a) Penicillin

b) Phenolphthalein

c) Novobiocin

d) Erythromycin

Answer: a

21.Alcohol should not be given with

a) Sulphonamides

b) Clonidine

c) Reserpine

d) Metronidazole

Answer: d

22.Methanol causes blindness due to its

a) Hypersensitivity reactions

b) Conjugated products

c) Idiosyncratic reaction

d) Oxidative products

Answer: d

23. The combination of propranolol & nifedipine in essential hypertension is used because  

a) CNS effects of propanolol are prevented

b) Pedal edema of nifedipine is prevented

c)Alteration of serum lipids by propranolol is prevented

d)Reflex sympathetic activity of nifedipine is prevented

Answer: d

24.Which cytochrome is responsible for d–g metabolism?

a)P-450

b)C-3b

c)C-3a

d)C-2a

Answer: a

25.  d–gs significantly affected by enzyme induction include the following except:

a) Barbiturate

b) Chlorpromazine

c) Diphenyl hydantoin

d) Warfarin

Answer: b

26.What is a prod–g

a) Drag which increases efficiency of another d–g

b) Metabolic end product

c) Inactive drag which gets activated in the body

d) Drag which competes with another for metabolism

Answer: c

27.  The Alkaline d–g (Amidopyrine) is absorbed from

a) Stomach

b) Proximal small intestine

c) Distal small intestine

d) Colon

Answer: b

28.Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Most drags are absorbed in ionized form

b) Basic drags are generally bound to plasma albumin

c)Microsomal enzymes are located in the mitochondria of hepatic cells

d)Blood brain barrier is deficient at the chemo receptor trigger-zone

Answer: d

29.Substrate concentration & velocity curve indicates

a) Michelis-Mentons equation

b) Inverse relation

c) Zero order kinetics

d) All of the above

Answer: c

30. d–gs mostly cross biological membranes by

a) Passive diffusion

b) Active diffusion

c) Active transport

d) Carrier mediated transport

e) All of the above

Answer: a

31. All the following cross placenta except

a) Warfarin

b) Heparin

c) Phenindione

d) Morphine

Answer: b

32.  The d–g, which interferes with metabolism of theophylline

a) Gentamicin

b) Penicillin

c) Erythromycin

d) Sulfonamide

Answer: c

33.  Km value indicates

a) Purity of enzyme

b) Physiological role

c) Half life enzyme d–g complex

d) Affinity

Answer: c

34.All of following d–gs are metabolized in body by acetylation except:

a) INH

b) Hydralazine

c) Procainamide

d) Dilantin

Answer: d

 

35.All are explained on pharmacogenetic conditions except

a) G6PD deficiency

b) Warfarin insensitivity

c) Adenosine deaminase deficiency

d) Malignant hyperthermia

Answer: c

36.Most common indication for therapeutic monitoring of plasma levels of a d–g is

a) Hit & run d–gs

b) d–gs with irreversible action

c) Narrow therapeutic range

d) Failure of response

Answer: c

37. Which of the following d–gs do not cross the placenta

a) Dilantin

b) Diazepam

c) Acinocoumarin

d) Heparin

Answer: d

38.TVi of a d–g can determine all the following

a) Closing interval

b) Elimination time

c) Steady Plasma Concentration

d) Therapeutic dosage

Answer: d

39.Zero order kinetics is seen with

a) Phenytoin

b) Phenobarbital

c) Erythromycin

d) Digoxin

Answer: a

40.d–g which crosses the placental barrier is:

a) Phenytoin

b) Diazepam

c) Corticosterioids

d) All of the above

Answer: d

41.The following d–gs are excreted in the bile except:

a) Erythromycin

b) Novobiocin

c) Chloramphenicol

d) Rifampicin

Answer: c

42.The Combination of amoxycillin + clavulanic acid is used because

a) It broadens the spectrum of amoxycillin

b) It decreases the side effect of amoxycillin

c) It decreases the toxicity of clavulanic acid

d) It increases the oral bio availability of amoxycillin

Answer: a

43.   Flushing occurs when alcohol is taken along with

a) Phenformin

b) Chlorpropamide

c) Glibenclamide

d) Tolbutamide

Answer: b

44. Which of the following avoids first pass effect of d–gs

a) Oral ingestion

b) Rectal Suppository

c) Intra venous injection

d) Intra-arterial injection

Answer: d

45. All are pro d–gs except

a) Sulindac

b) Codeine

c) Talampicillin

d) Chlorpromazine

Answer: d

46.The elimination of following d–gs is dose dependant except

a) Phenytoin

b) Salicylate

c) Theophylline

d) Chlorpromazine

Answer: d

47.d–g which interferes with metabolism of theophylline is:

a) Erythromycin

b)Gentamicin

c) Penicillin

d) Furazolidone

Answer: a

48.What is the interaction of pheno barbiton and warfarin

a) Displacement of warfarin from binding site

b) Decreased absorption of warfarin

c)Increased metabolism of warfarin

d) Decreased metabolism of warfarin

Answer: c

49.Therapeutic index of a d–g is an indicator of

a) Potency

b) Safety

c) Toxicity

d) Efficacy

Answer: c

50.Zero order kinetics are seen in all except

a) Salicylate

b) Atenolol

c) Barbiturates

d) Ethanol

Answer: c

51.All of the following are protein bound except:

a) Propranolol

b) Atenolol

c) Phenylbutazone

d) Warfarin

Answer: b

52.Pick the true statement:

a)Amox- Clavulanic, Clavulanic increases amox activity

b)Sublactum is used in treatment of Leprosy

c) Aztreonam is a metabolite of clarithromycin

d)Cilastatin imipenam- cilastatin prevents hydrolysis of imipenam

Answer: b

53.d–g absorbed by active transport is

a) Propranolol

b) Ergotamine

c) Levodopa

d) Amantidine

Answer: c

54.Following are the true receptors, except one

a) Beta adrenergic receptors

b) Na-K-ATP ase

c) Phosphodiesterase

d)Plasma proteins

Answer: d

 

55.Which of the following is not a dose related reaction:

a) Myocardial Irritation of Quinidine

b) Hypoglycemia of tolbutamide

c)Digitalis induced arrythmia

d) d–g fever of sulpha

Answer: d

56.Theophylline levels in blood are increased by:

a) Erythromycin

b) Ciprofloxacin

c) Smoking

d) Digitalis

Answer: a

57.What is the advantage of sublingual route of administration of d–gs

a) Prevents first pass effect

b) Easy to administer

c) Lipid soluble

d) Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity

Answer: a

58.Ciprofloxacin increases the toxicity of theophylline by

a) Inhibiting metabolism

b) Decreasing excretion

c) Decrease seizure threshold

d) Promote absorption

Answer: b

59.Elimination after 4 half lives in first order kinetics is

a) 84%

b)93%

c)80.5%

d)4.75%

Answer: b

60.All the following induce hepatic enzymes except

a) Rifampicin

b) Phenytoin

c) Barbiturates

d) Tolbutamide

Answer: d

61.Which of the following shows high first pass metabolism:

a) Propranolol

b) Phenobarbitone

c) Phenylbutazone

d) Phenytoin

e)Reflex esophagitis

Answer: a

62.Enterohepatic circulation is seen in

a) Ampicillin

b) Benzylpenicillin

c) Norfloxacin

d) Streptomycin

Answer: d

63.Least half life is for which hormone

a) Nor adrenaline

b) Renin

c) Aldosterone

d) Thyroxine

Answer: a

64.Not a prod–g

a) Lisinopril

b) Enalapril

c) Ramipril

d) Famotidine

Answer: a

65.No physical dependence is seen in:

a) Dextropropoxyphene

b) Fortwin

c) Fluoxetine

d) Alprax

Answer: c

66.Slow channel syndrome is due to

a) Accumulation of Na + ions in channels

c) Accumulation of Mg++ ions in channels

b) Accumulation of K+ ions in channels

d) Accumulation of Ca++ ions in channels

Answer: d

67.  First dose phenomenon is a characteristic side effect on initiation of antihypertensive therapy with

a) Minoxidil

b)Clonidine

c) Metroprolol

d) Prazosin

Answer: b

68. Serum level of d–g is monitored when the patient is on

a) Lithium

b) Haloperidol

c) Diazepam

d) Acetazolamide

Answer: a

69.L-Dopa is

a) Converted to methyl dopa in the body

b) Antagonised by riboflavine

c) Antagonized by nicotinic acid

d) Combined with carbidopa for enhanced effect

Answer: d

70.All the following statements regarding treatment of parkinson’s disese are correct except

a)Levodopa is usually administered alone (KAR93)

b)Amantadine is effective in the treatment of early disease

c)Bromocryptine is a useful dopamine receptor agonist

d)Patient may require medication every 2 hours

Answer: a

71.Which statement about clonidine is false

a)Useful in the management of opiate withdrawal syndrome

b)Claimed to have prophylactic value in migraine

c) It is alpha-2 receptor stimulant

d) It is safe on abrupt termination of treatment

Answer: d

72.Ipratropium bromide is

a) Bronchoselective anticholinergic

b) Used as mydriatic

c)A selective MI anticholinergic useful in peptic ulcer

d) An antiparkinsonism d–g

Answer: a

73.Beta blocker which has less first pass metabolism and more excretion through kidney is 

a) Propranolol

b)Sotalol

c)Bisprolol

d) Nadolol

Answer: b

74. Which statement is false of Domperidone

a) Chemically related to haloperidol

b) Pharmacologically related to metoclopramide

c)Extra pyramidal symptoms are common

d)It counteracts the emetic action but not the therapeutic effect in parkinsonism

Answer: c

75.Which of the following causes rise in systolic as well as diastolic BP for prolonged period:

a) Ephedrine

b) Epinephrine

c) Dopamine

d) Norepinephrine

Answer: d

76. Amphetamine is used in

a) Narcolepsy

b) Psychosis

c) Anxiety disorders

d) Obsessive compulsive neurosis

Answer: a

77.d–g of choice in phenothiazine induced parkinsonism is

a) Levodopa

b) Haloperidol

c) Metoclopramide

d) None of the above

Answer: a

78.All of the following are adverse effects of phenothiazines except

a) Rigidity and tremor

b) Menstrual irregularities

c) Cholestatic jaundice

d) Systolic hypertension

Answer: d

79. Which antiepileptic d–g does not act as GABA agonist?

a) Phenytoin

b) Sodium valproate

c) Diazepam

d) Phenbarbitone

Answer: a

80. Which phenothiazine has the least extra pyramidal effect

a) Thioridazine

b) Chlorpromazine

c) Triflupromazine

d) Fluphenazine

Answer: a

81.  Dopamine is:

a) Alpha and beta agonist

b) Beta agonist

c) A beta blocking agent

d) Alpha blocking agent

Answer: a

82.  I.V. fluphenzine decanoate is d–g of choice in:

a) Simple Schizophrenia

b) Hebephrenic Schizophrenia

c) Catatonic Schizophrenia

d) Paranoid Schizophrenia

Answer: a

83. Bromocriptine is

a) A partial agonist of dopamine

b) A partial antagonist of dopamine

c) Used in the treatment of parkinsonism

d) Used to reduce GH secretion in acromegaly

e) All except b are correct

Answer: e

84.In an acute attack of migraine, the d–g of choice is

a) Ergotamine tartrate

b) Methysergide

c) Propranolol

d) Caffeine

Answer: a

85.The ganglion blocking d–gs act by

a)Competing with acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions

b)Preventing release of acetylcholine

c) Preventing nerve conduction in post ganglionic segment

d)Preventing catecholamine release or inactivating it

Answer: b

86.Not an antidepressant

a) Amitryptilline

b) Fluoxetin

c) Trazodone

d) Pimozide

Answer: d

87.Beta blocker are used in all, except

a) Variant angina

b) Mild hypertension

c) Glaucoma

d) Thyrotoxicosis

Answer: a

88.Which of the following is the longest acting newer antihistamine:

a) Mequitazine

b) Loratidine

c) Astemizole

d) Terfenadine

Answer: c

89. Phenylephrine is useful for all of the following except

a) Anaphylactic shock

b) Mydriasis

c) Nasal decongestant

d) Artial tachycardia

Answer: a

90. B-Blockers are contra indicated in

a) Hypertension

b) Congestive cardiac failure

c) Anxiety states

d) Hyperthyroidism

Answer: b

91.d–g of choice in motion sickness is

a) Metoclopramide

b) Transdermal scopalamine

c) Diphenhydramine

d) Chlorpromazine

Answer: b

92.All increase dopaminergic transmission except

a) Bromocriptine

b) Metoclopramide

c) Chlorpromazine

d) Reserpine

Answer: b

93. Which antiepileptic d–g in therapeutic doses causes least sedation?

a) Primidone

b) Clonazepam

c) Phenytoin

d) Phenobarbitone

Answer: c

94.Tianeptin is

a) 5-HT antagonist

b) Nor adrenaline uptake inhibitor

c) 5-HT reuptake enhancer

d) Dopamine antagonist

Answer: c

95.The following are recognized effects of propranolol except

a) Increases microcoronary blood flow

b) Decrease in heart rate

c) Decrease in cardiac output

d) Reduction in ventricular systolic pressure

Answer: a

96.Nicotinic receptors are seen in

a) Skeletal muscle

b) Visceral smooth muscle

c) Cardiac muscle

d) Salivary glands

Answer: a

97.Antiemitic used to prevent aspiration in emergency surgery

a) Ondansetrone

b) Promethazine

c) Metoclopromide

d)Ranitidine

Answer: b

98.d–gs which increase GABA levels in brain

a) Diazepam

b) Phenobarbitone

c) Sodium valproate

d) Carbamazepine

Answer: c

 99.Midazolam as compared to diazepam is:

a) Less cerebroprotective

b) More cerebroprotective

c) Same as diazepam

d) No cerebroprotective effect

Answer: a

100. Which is a 5HT-receptor agonist?

a) Ondansetron

b) Ketanserine

c) Sumatriptan

d) Risperidone

Answer: c