300+ TOP MCQs on Down Syndrome and Answers

NEET Biology is the vey important paper in the medical entrance exam. Here, you will discover the NEET Biology MCQs and Answers for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Biology objective questions on air pollution . NEET Biology Down Syndrome Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Down Syndrome :

1. One of this trait is not seen in a person with Down syndrome
(a) High muscle tone
(b) Small stature
(c) Upward slant eye
(d) Short neck

Answer

Answer: (a)

2. The number of chromosomes a child with Down syndrome has is
(a) 45
(b) 46
(c) 47
(d) 48

Answer

Answer: (c)

3. Down syndrome is caused due to
(a) bacterial infection
(b) a chromosomal abnormality
(c) Viral infection
(d) lack of oxygen supply to the brain during birth

Answer

Answer: (b)

4. Which of these traits is not linked with Down syndrome?
(a) Oily skin
(b) Hypotonicity
(c) Simian Crease
(d) Brachycephaly

Answer

Answer: (a)

5. This assessment finding would enable a nurse to suspect the presence of Down syndrome in a newborn
(a) Single palmar crease and hypotonia
(b) Short palpebral tissues and flat maxillary area
(c) Prominent scalp veins and a high-pitched cry
(d) Persistent postnatal growth lag and Microcephaly

Answer

Answer: (a)

6. Down syndrome is

(b) Chromosomal
(c) dominant
(d) recessive

Answer

Answer: (b)

7. A disease which may result from Down syndrome
(a) Cancer
(b) Cellulitis
(c) Celiac disease
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c)

8. Generally, a person with Down syndrome has an IQ of
(a) 20-30
(b) 40-50
(c) 60-70
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b)

9. The chances of an offspring to have Down syndrome __________ with the mother’s age
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) is not influenced
(d) there is no correlation

Answer

Answer: (b)

10. There are several variations of Down syndrome with Trisomy 21 accounting for close to 95% of all cases recorded. There is another form of the syndrome that occurs when a segment of the 21st chromosome detaches to attach itself to another chromosome. Its name is
(a) Displacement
(b) Transportation
(c) Translocation
(d) Relocation

Answer

Answer: (c)

300+ TOP MCQs on Bryophyta and Answers

NEET Biology is the vey important paper in the medical entrance exam. Here, you will discover the NEET Biology MCQs and Answers for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Biology objective questions on air pollution . NEET Biology Bryophyta Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Bryophyta :

1. Which among the following is also known as bog moss?
(a) Riccia
(b) Sphagnum
(c) Marchantia
(d) Funaria

Answer

Answer: (b)

2. The thalloid plant body is found in
(a) Marchantia
(b) Sphagnum
(c) Funaria
(d) Salvinia

Answer

Answer: (a)

3. In some of the liverworts, spore dispersal is aided by
(a) elaters
(b) peristome teeth
(c) indusium
(d) calyptra

Answer

Answer: (a)

4. Peat moss is used for transporting plants to distant places because
(a) it is hygroscopic
(b) it reduces transpiration
(c) it is easily available
(d) it serves as a disinfectant

Answer

Answer: (a)

5. Find the true statement about bryophytes
(a) they have chloroplasts
(b) they have archegonia
(c) they are thalloid
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d)

6. In mosses, meiosis takes place during
(a) gamete formation
(b) antheridia and archegonia formation
(c) spore germination
(d) spore formation

Answer

Answer: (d)

7. A characteristic feature of bryophytes is
(a) a dominant and parasitic sporophyte
(b) a dominant and spore-producing gametophyte
(c) a small sporophyte phase, which is dependent on the gametophyte
(d) sporophytes stay for a longer duration

Answer

Answer: (c)

8. The antherozoids of Funaria are
(a) monociliated
(b) biciliated
(c) multiciliated
(d) aciliated

Answer

Answer: (b)

9. All the plants like fern and mosses, which produce spores are grouped under
(a) bryophytes
(b) cryptogams
(c) thallophytes
(d) sporophytes

Answer

Answer: (b)

10. Independent male and female gametophytes are present in
(a) Pinus
(b) mustard
(c) castor
(d) Sphagnum

Answer

Answer: (d)

300+ TOP MCQs on Self Evaluation Test – Human Health and Disease and Answers

NEET Biology is the vey important paper in the medical entrance exam. Here, you will discover the NEET Biology MCQs and Answers for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Biology objective questions on air pollution . NEET Biology Self Evaluation Test – Human Health and Disease Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Self Evaluation Test – Human Health and Disease :

1. RBC count is low in anaemia and
(a) Myxoedema
(b) Influenza
(c) Typhoid
(d) Leukemia

Answer

Answer: (d)

2. A child is suffering from Kwashiorkor and if this child is compared with other marasmus children then what additional symptoms are present in Kwashiorkor child?
(a) wasted muscles
(b) decrease in body weight
(c) impaired physical growth
(d) oedema

Answer

Answer: (b)

3. Chronic anaemia and multiple sclerosis are
(a) hereditary diseases
(b) allergic diseases
(c) autoimmune diseases
(d) hormonal diseases

Answer

Answer: (c)

4. Which one of the following statements is correct about T-lymphocytes in mammals?
(a) these are originated in lymphoid tissues
(b) these are produced in thyroid
(c) they scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris
(d) there are three main types – cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells

Answer

Answer: (a)

5. The antibody dependent cytotoxicity is seen in
(a) Non-compatible-blood transfusion
(b) generalise anaphylaxis
(c) local anaphylaxis
(d) immune complex reaction

Answer

Answer: (a)

6. Mast cells secrete a protein which causes the dilation of blood vessels. The protein is
(a) Histamine
(b) Pyrogens
(c) Interferon
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a)

7. Parkinson’s disease is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Dopamine
(b) GABA
(c) Acetylcholine
(d) Endorphins

Answer

Answer: (a)

8. Gaucher’s disease is linked with
(a) malnutrition
(b) abnormal fat metabolism
(c) abnormal protein metabolism
(d) abnormal carbohydrate metabolism

Answer

Answer: (b)

9. LSD is obtained from
(a) Papaver somniferum
(b) Claviceps purpurea
(c) Cannabis sativa
(d) Erythroxylon coca

Answer

Answer: (b)

10. Infectious proteins are present in
(a) Prions
(b) Gemini viruses
(c) satellite viruses
(d) viroids

Answer

Answer: (a)

300+ TOP Conservation of Natural Resources MCQs & Answers

NEET Biology is the vey important paper in the medical entrance exam. Here, you will discover the NEET Biology MCQs and Answers for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Biology objective questions on air pollution . NEET Biology Conservation of Natural Resources Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Conservation of Natural Resources :

1. Which of the following is an example of major oil?

A. Grape fruit oil

B. Corn oil

C. Almond oil

D. None of these

Answer: B

2. Almond oil is

A. major oil

B. nut oil

C. citrus oil

D. All of these

Answer: B

3. Which of the following is an example of citrus oil?

A. Almond oil

B. Peanut oil

C. Lemon oil

D. Rapeseed oil

Answer: C

4. Which part of melon and ground seed are used for oil extractions?

A. Seeds

B. Leaves

C. Fruits

D. None of these

Answer: A

5. Which of the following plants are used for producing biofuels?

A. Castor

B. Rapeseed

C. Jatropha

D. All of these

Answer: D

6. Camellia sinensis is the botanical name of

A. pea

B. coffee

C. tea

D. None of these

Answer: C

7. Tea belongs to the family

A. Malvaceae

B. Theaceae

C. Rutaceae

D. Thalamiflorae

Answer: B

8. Which of the following part of India is used for cultivation of tea?

A. Asom

B. Darjeeling

C. J &K

D. Both
A. and B.

Answer: D

9. Botanical name of coffee is

A. Coffea arabica

B. Camellia sinensis

C. Pisum sativum

D. None of these

Answer: A

10. Which of the following plant belong to family-Rubiaceae?

A. Amaranthus

B. Pea

C. Coffee

D. Banana

Answer: C

11. Which of the following part of plant is used for coffee production?

A. Leaves

B. Stems

C. Seeds

D. Flowers

Answer: C

12. Cotton is a

A. hard fibre

B. surface fibre

C. soft fibre

D. None of these

Answer: B

13. Which of the following plant is used for obtaining sunnhemp fibres?

A. Cannabis

B. Boehmeria

C. Crotalaria

D. Linum

Answer: C

14. Agave is used for obtaining

A. coir

B. sisel hemp

C. manila hemp

D. None of these

Answer: B

15. Belladona is obtained from

A. Atropa

B. Aconitum

C. Ferula

D. Withania

Answer: A

16. Which of the following part of holy basil is used for obtaining drugs?

A. Root

B. Stem

C. Leaves

D. Flowers

Answer: C

17. Quinine is a drug obtained from bark of which of the following plant?

A. Adhatoda

B. Crocus

C. Cinchona

D. None of these

Answer: C

18. Opium is obtained from

A. Papaver

B. Emblica

C. Cinchona

D. Ocimum

Answer: A

19. Corn oil is a type of

A. nut oil

B. citrus oil

C. major oil

D. None of these

Answer: C

20. Coffee is cultivated in which part of India?

A. Eastern area

B. Western area

C. Southern area

D. Northern area

Answer: C

21. Which of the following is not a domain of sustainable development?

A. Economics

B. Politics

C. Psychology

D. Culture

Answer: C

22. Which of the following is the fundamental domain of sustainable domain?

A. Economics

B. Politics

C. Culture

D. All of these

Answer: A

23. Politics deals with the . of good habit.

A. proliferation

B. marketing

C. Both
A. and (b)

D. None of these

Answer: A

24. Triticum aestivum is the botanical name of

A. wheat

B. maize

C. rice

D. pea

Answer: A

25. Most widely cultivated crop is

A. rice

B. pea

C. wheat

D. maize

Answer: C

26. Largest wheat producing country is

A. China

B. India

C. USA

D. South Africa

Answer: C

27. Wheat is sown in which of the following months?

A. May-June

B. April-May

C. Oct-Nov

D. Jan-March

Answer: C

28. The carbohydrate % in wheat is

A. 65-74%

B. 60-65%

C. 90-95%

D. 100%

Answer: A

29. Botanical name of rice is

A. Pisum sativum

B. Oryza sativa

C. Triticum aestivum

D. None of these

Answer: B

30. Which of the following is the centre of origin of rice?

A. India and China

B. Australia

C. Brazil

D. Africa

Answer: A

31. Rice is cultivated in which of the following area of India?

A. Himalayan region

B. Coastral region

C. Plain region

D. None of these

Answer: B

32. Pusa is a variety of

A. wheat

B. maize

C. rice

D. banana

Answer: C

33. Legumes are used for obtaining

A. carbohydrates

B. oils

C. protein

D. fibres

Answer: C

34. Glycine max is the botanical name of

A. pea

B. soybean

C. gram

D. maize

Answer: B

35. Saccharum officinarum is the botanical name of

A. maize

B. barley

C. sugarcane

D. banana

Answer: C

300+ TOP MCQs on Hardy Weinberg Law and Answers

NEET Biology is the vey important paper in the medical entrance exam. Here, you will discover the NEET Biology MCQs and Answers for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Biology objective questions on air pollution . NEET Biology Hardy Weinberg Law Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Hardy Weinberg Law :

1. In the Caucasian population of the US, 1 in 2500 babies is affected by a recessive condition – cystic fibrosis. In this population, the frequency of the dominant allele is
(a) 0.02
(b) 0.36
(c) 0.56
(d) 0.98

Answer

Answer: (d)

2. A sampled “a” population has 36% of homozygous recessive genotype (aa). Then the frequency of allele “a” is
(a) 0%
(b) 20%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%

Answer

Answer: (c)

3. 360 out of 1000 individuals in a population have a genotype of AA while 480 have Aa genotype. The rest 160 belong to aa. Frequency of allele A in this population is
(a) 0.7
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.4

Answer

Answer: (b)

4. A gene locus has two alleles A and a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population is
(a) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(b) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(c) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
(d) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)

Answer

Answer: (a)

5. What does p2 in the below mentioned Hardy-Weinberg equation indicate?
(p+q)2 = p2 + 2pq + q2

(a) individuals that are heterozygous dominant
(b) individuals having a lethal allele
(c) individuals that are homozygous dominant
(d) individuals that are homozygous recessive

Answer

Answer: (c)

6. 25 individuals in a population are homozygous dominant, then the individuals that are expected to be homozygous recessive are
(a) 100
(b) 75
(c) 50
(d) 25

Answer

Answer: (d)

7. Consider a population of sheep to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The allele for black wool(w) has an allele frequency of 0.81 while the allele for white wool(W) has an allele frequency of 0.19. Then the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population is
(a) 4%
(b) 15%
(c) 31%
(d) 66%

Answer

Answer: (c)

8. This condition is essential for a population to be in the Hardy-weinberg equillirbirum
(a) random mating
(b) no mutations
(c) large population
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d)

9. This statement describes the Hardy-Weinberg law the best
(a) it is impossible to predict expected allele frequencies mathematically
(b) in large populations, dominant alleles become more prevalent
(c) allele frequency changes over a period of time in a large population
(d) mechanism of inheritance in a large population does not change allele frequency

Answer

Answer: (d)

10. This is true of the population which are included in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
(a) entities migrate constantly
(b) populations should be limited and small
(c) mating is random
(d) process of natural selection is occurring

Answer

Answer: (c)

300+ TOP MCQs on Coelom and Answers

NEET Biology is the vey important paper in the medical entrance exam. Here, you will discover the NEET Biology MCQs and Answers for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Biology objective questions on air pollution . NEET Biology Coelom Multiple Choice Questions

MCQs on Coelom :

1. Find the correct match
(a) Molluscs – acoelomate
(b) Platyhelminthes – coelomate
(c) Aschelminthes – pseudocoelomate
(d) Insects – pseudocoelomate

Answer

Answer: (c)

2. The fluid that comes out of earthworm while piercing it (without damaging its gut) is
(a) slimy mucous
(b) excretory fluid
(c) hemolymph
(d) coelomic fluid

Answer

Answer: (d)

3. Which of the following is not true about Annelida?
(a) Ventral nerve cord
(b) Closed circulatory system
(c) Segmentation
(d) Pseudocoelom

Answer

Answer: (d)

4. How platyhelminthes differ from annelids?
(a) bilateral symmetry
(b) pseudocoel
(c) body cavity is absent
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b)

5. Where does true coelom present in the body?
(a) between mesoderm and endoderm (body wall)
(b) between body wall and ectoderm
(c) mesoderm and ectoderm
(d) ectoderm and endoderm

Answer

Answer: (a)

6. The body cavity found in echinoderms and chordates is
(a) haemocoel
(b) enterocoelom
(c) pseudocoelom
(d) schizocoelom

Answer

Answer: (b)

7. Which of the following develops into pseudocoelom?
(a) Archenteron
(b) Blastocoel
(c) Embryonic mesoderm
(d) Blastopore lip

Answer

Answer: (b)

8. Which of the following has haemocoel?
(a) Earthworm
(b) Hydra
(c) Cockroach
(d) Nereis

Answer

Answer: (c)

9. Common characteristics of coelenterates and sponges are
(a) triploblastic and pseudocoelomate
(b) triploblastic and acoelomate
(c) diploblastic and acoelomate
(d) monoblastic and acoelomate

Answer

Answer: (c)

10. The characteristic feature of Ascaris is
(a) pseudocoelom and no metamerism
(b) true coelom and no metamerism
(c) pseudocoelom and metamerism
(d) true coelom and metamerism

Answer

Answer: (a)