Top 300 First Aid Multiple Choice Questions MCQs Quiz

First Aid MCQs and Answers

First Aid Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam First Aid Multiple choice Questions. Quiz on First Aid Test Questions

1) How many compressions and breaths should you do for each cycle of CPR?

A. 15 compressions, 2 breaths

B. 30 compressions, 5 breaths

C. 30 compressions, 2 breaths

D. 15 compressions, 5 breaths

E. 30 compressions, 15 breaths

Answer: C

2) What causes Anaphylactic shock?

A. Choking

B. Insect sting or spider bites

C. 3rd degree burns

D. Heart attack

E. Stroke

Answer: B

3) What are the symptoms of third degree burn?

A. Charred skin, no pain

B. Charred skin, pain

C. Blisters and pain

D. Red and pain

E. Grey and pain

Answer: A

4) What is the first thing you should do for severe bleeding?

A. Put the victim in the recovery position

B. Direct pressure with clean cloth or hand

C. cover with clean cloth

D. Give oxygen

E. Give him water if conscious Explanation Stop the bleeding as soon as possible

Answer: B

5) Witch of the first aid duties below has the highest priority for you as a Cabin attendant?

A. Re-assure the passenger

B. Arange medical attention

C. Be aware of danger

Answer: C

6) What is the main purpose of the “Route”emergency transportation technique when providing treatment to a passenger?

A. To relocate (move) the passenger

B. To administer rescue breathing

C. To remove a blockage in the victims airway

D. To remove a blockage in the victims airway

E. To treat the absence of a victims breathing

Answer: A

7) What is your FIRST action when examining the condition of a patient?

A. Check for breathing

B. Check for insurance

C. Speak to the victim and shake his shoulders

D. Check for external injuries,

Answer: C

8) What is the main purpose of the “Heimlich” procedure

A. To remove a blockage in the victims airway

B. To treat the absence of a victims breathing

C. To treat an insufficient breathing

Answer: A

9) What’s happens with the carbonic acid dioxide (CO2) produced by the human body?

A. It remains in the body cells

B. It is transferred to the heart muscle

C. It is exhausted via the blood and breathing system

Answer: C

10) What can you do to avoid that a person experiences a short period of uncousciousness “Fainting”

A. Speak to the victim and administer a pain stroke

B. Let the victim remain in its chair

C. Apply fresh air, let the victim lay-down and reassure the victim

Answer: C

11) What applies to a victim with a reduced counsciousness?

A. The victim is still capable to speak

B. The victim is in shock

C. The victim does not react to speaking and shacking

D. The victim is still alert

Answer: A

12) How can you recognize a vein bleeding?

A. Blood flows equally out of the wound

B. Blood flows with pulses out of the wound

C. Blood flows slowly out of the wound

Answer: A

13) Where do you position the knot in the end of the bandages of a emercengy bandage?

A. Always on top of the bandage

B. Crossed over the wound

C. Clearly away from the wound

Answer: C

14) Witch of the items mentioned below can cause a shock?

A. a short periode of unconsciousness “Fainting”

B. a heart attack

C. a feeling of nausea

Answer: B

15) What should yo do for shock?

A. Give the passenger something to drink

B. Let the passenger sleep

C. Give nothing to drink, re-assure the passenger and seek medical assistance

Answer: C

16) What do you do for small cut.

A. Wash with soap and water, cover with a sterile bandage

B. Only cover with a sterile bandage

C. Clean the wound with cotton wool

Answer: A

17) What is included in the CPR procedure?

A. Rescue breathings only

B. Compression of the chest only

C. Rescue breathing and chest compressions

Answer: C

18) What can cause the blood circulation stop?

A. a heart attack

B. a bleeding in the smaller veins

C. a head wound

Answer: A

19)  What do you do if someone suddenly begins to bleed severely?

A. Tell them to lick out the blood

B. Apply pressure to the wound

C. Scream and run

D. Remove foreign object

Answer: B

20) What are the symptoms of Hypothermia?

A. Warm and sweaty

B. Cold and sweaty

C. Cold, tired, shivering and acting abnormally

D. Just very sweaty

Answer: C

21) What is the best treatment of second degree burn?

A. Put Aloe vera lotion on it

B. Water

C. Put ice on the burn

Answer: B

22) How  do you check for breathing?

A. Listen

B. Look for rising chest

C. Feel with the cheek

D. Look, Listen an Feel

Answer: D

23) A nosebleed can be stopped by:

A. Waiting

B. Pinching briefly the nostrils

C. Give something cold to drink

D. Put some cotton wool into the nose

Answer: B

24) Wich of the first aid duties below has the highest priority for you as a Cabin Attendant?

A. Be aware of danger

B. Re-assure the passenger

C. Arrange medical attention

Answer: A

25) What is your FIRST action when examining the condition of a patient?

A. Check for breathing

B. Check for external injuries

C. Speak to the victim and shake his shoulders

Answer: C

26) What is the correct procedure when treating with the AED?

A. Remove clothing, dry the passengers skin (when necessary) attach electrodes and turn on the AED

B. Call for assistance, turn on the AED and follow the instructions provided by the AED.

C. Dry the passengers skin (when necessary), attach electrodes, start rescue breathing, call for assistance and tun on the AED

Answer: B

27) What are the requirements for a cover bandage?

A. It may not absorb any fluids

B. It may not be older than 1 year

C. It must be sterile

Answer: C

28) What do you have to do when a passenger has no breathing?

A. Start CPR immediately

B. Put the victim in the recovery position

C. Continue with the breathing check

D. Count pulsations

Answer: A

29) What is the purpose of the “Heimlich” procedure?

A. To treat the absence of a victims breathing

B. To remove a blockage in the victims airway

C. To treat an insufficient breathing

D. To re-locate (move) the person

Answer: B

30) How can you recognize a arterial bleeding

A. Blood flows equally out of the wound

B. Blood flows slowly out of the wound

C. Blood flow with pulses out of the wound

Answer: C

31) List what FAST stand for:

A. Face, Arms, Speech an Time

B. Fracture, Arm, Speech and Time

C. Face, Abdomen, Sleep and Time

D. Face, Arms, Speech and Treatment

Answer: A

32) How many compressions and breathings should you do for each cycle of CPR?  (adult)

A. 15 compressions and 2 breaths

B. 15 compressions and 1 breaths

C. 30 compressions and 2 breaths

D. 30 compressions and 1 breaths

E. 5 compressions and 2 breaths

Answer: C

33) A passenger has been stung by a honey bee. The stinger is still under the skin and needs to be removed to prevent anaphylactic shock. What do you do next?

A. Remove the stinger using a pair of sterile tweezers

B. Remove the stinger using a credit card or a butter knife to scrape it out

Answer: A

34) A person is alergic for peanut butter an is going into anaphylactic shock. What do you do next?

A. Have them sit with their head between her knees and have them breathe deeply

B. Give them some water to cool the throat

C. Arrange medical attention

D. Give them some sweet drinks

E. Give them some aspirin immediately

Answer: C,E

35) What does ABC stand for? (more answers)

A. Airway

B. Back

C. Breathing

D. C-Spine

E. Circulation

Answer: A,C,E

36) When performing chest compressions on an adult we press the chest:        

A. 2 – 3 cm

B. 2,5 – 3,5 cm

C. 4 – 5 cm

D. 1- 2 cm

E. 5 – 6 cm

Answer: C

37) When dealing with an unconscious casualty, you should check up to ?? seconds for normal breathing.   

A. maximum 2 seconds for normal breathing

B. maximum 5 seconds for normal breathing

C. maximum 10 seconds for normal breathing

D. maximum 30 seconds for normal breathing

E. maximum 60 seconds for normal breathing

Answer: C

38) Having a  ………………pulse is a sign of medical shock.

A. slow

B. rapid

Answer: B

39) What is a scold?

A. A burn by liquid or gas

B. A burn by fire

C. A break in your leg

D. Being beaten with a stick

Answer: A

40) What do you do when someone breaks an arm?

A. Scream and run

B. Put a plaster on it

C. Use an antisceptic wipe

D. Put the arm in a sling

Answer: D

41) Choose all of the factors in the list below that contribute to date rape:

A. Incompatible verbal and body language

B. Gender stereotypes

C. Hanging out with friends

D. Using straight talk

E. Unclear communication

Answer: A,B,E

43) abuser promise to change

A. tension building phase

B. incident/explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: C

44) the victim believes the abuser will change

A. tension building phase

B. incident/explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: C

45) victim is edgy and tries not to upset the abuser

A. tension building phase

B. incident/explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: A

46) abuser feels sorry and guilty

A. tension building phase

B. incident /explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: C

47) abuser has mood swings and is ver unpredictable

A. tension building stage

B. incident/explosiv stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: A

48) abuser physcially, verbally, or sexually assaults the victim

A. tension building phase

B. incident/explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: B

49) abuser emphasizes how much they love the victim

A. tension building stage

B. incident/explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: C

50) abuser constantly criticizes the victim

A. tension building phase

B. incident/explosive stage

C. honeymoon stage

Answer: A

51) Most poisoning take place in the home

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

52) The risk or rape is higher for women ages 30-40 than for women of other ages

A. true

B. false

Answer: B

53) Most acquaintance rapes involve the use of alcohol on the part of the victim, the assailant or both

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

 

54) kids who are victimzed by bullies tend to get lower grades

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

55) the difference between playful teasing and harassment is the person’s intent

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

56) comments can be considered sexual harassment even if the target welcomes the comments

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

57) the First Responder Law helps protect people hwne they render first aid

A. true

B. false

Answer: B

58) gossiping and spreading rumors is an attempt to damage a person’s reputation

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

59) if someone is having a seizure you should put something in their mouth so they don’t bite their tongue

A. true

B. false

Answer: B

60) harassment is all about power and control

A. true

B. false

Answer: A

300+ [UPDATED] Cash Handling MCQs and Answers [PDF]

Cash Handling Objective Questions and Answers

Cash Handling Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam Cash Handling Multiple choice Questions. Quiz Cash Handling Test Questions

 

1. What is a slide?

A. When you change teller drawers

B. When you switch numbers (56/65)

C. When you add or leave off zeros (correct answer)

Ans: C

Mcqs on Cash Handling

2. You should always verify money received from: (Choose all that apply)

 

A. Another teller (correct answer)

B. The vault (correct answer)

C. Customers (correct answer)

D. Night drop (correct answer)

E. All of the Above

Ans: E

 

3. Some of the features on a bill include: watermarks, micro-printing, security threads and color shifting ink.

 

A. True (correct answer)

B. False

Ans:  A

 

4. When is money considered mutilated? (Choose all that apply)

 

A. Badly Soiled (correct answer)

B. Corner is missing

C. Badly Torn (correct answer)

D. Badly Worn (correct answer)

Ans: A,C,D

 

5. Accuracy is more important than speed.

 

A. True (correct answer)

B. False

Ans:  A

 

6. The goals of con artists are to: (Choose all that apply)

 

A. Distract your attention (correct answer)

B. Get you to make an exception (correct answer)

C. Lower security awareness (correct answer)

D. Skip a necessary procedure (correct answer)

E.       All of the above

Ans: E

 

7. When do you sell mutilated money and to whom?

 

A. Once a month or as requested, to a designated teller (correct answer)

B. Once a month to your manager

C. Once a year to designated teller

Ans: A

 

8. What is the most common reason tellers are out of balance?  

 

A. The job is too hard

B. Computer failure

C. Customers do not complete their forms correctly

D. Lack of concentration (correct answer)

Ans: D

 

9. What should you do when you buy money from the vault or another teller?  

 

A. Place all straps in top drawer

B. Verifythe funds immediately and then re-strap the money and initial the strap. (correct answer)

C. Place your initials on the existing strap

D. Only verify the 20’s, 50’s and 100’s

Ans: B

 

 

10. What is a transposition?

 

A. When you switch numbers (56/65) (correct answer)

B. When you add or leave off zeros

C. When you change teller drawers

Ans: A

 

 

11. What steps must be taken before paying out cash? (Choose all that apply)

 

A. Stay within your limits (correct answer)

B. Count the cash 2-3 times (correct answer)

C. Clear your teller counter (correct answer)

D. Check customer’s identification (correct answer)

E.  All of the above

Ans: E

 

12. How much cash should be in the bank when you take over a shift?

 

A. Cash = $300, Petty Cash Receipts & Cash Paid out Receipts can vary

B. Cash, Petty Cash and Cash Paid Out Recipts can all very – The balance will depend on the shift.

C. If petty cash receipts are less than $50, then Cash will be at $300

D. Cash + Petty Cash Receipts + Cash Paid Out Receipts = $300 (correct answer)

Ans: D

 

13. What special measures must be taken for cash-paying guests at check-in?

 

A. If the guest would like to purchase pay-per-view movies, or make long distance phone calls, collect a $25 deposit.

B. Turn off pay-per-view movies and long distance if they do not want to post a deposit.

C. Copy a current picture ID and staple it to the registration card.

D. Post the cash to their folio (billing screen) immediately.

E. All of the above (correct answer)

Ans: E

 

14. You are personally responsible for your $300 cash drawer and all cash received on your shift. This means that missing cash may be deducted from your wages.

 

A. True (correct answer)

B. False

Ans: A

 

15. What is the Best Practice for preparing a Cash Drawer for the next shift?

 

A. Take out the amount you collected and leave the rest.

B. Count out $300 in smaller bills and coins, to leave the next shift many options for making change. Have the next shift count , and agree to the drawer balance before you leave the area. (correct answer)

C. Leave as few bills in the drawer as possible.

D. Let the next shift count the drawer .

Ans: B

 

16. The Best Practice(s) for preparing a Cash Drop are…

 

A. Record your name and date on the cash drop envelope

B. Record a detailed accounting for each bill denomination and coin denomination.

C. Count twice to ensure accuracy

D. Complete all fields on the Front Desk Cash Drop Sheet and have another Team Member witness your drop.

E. Report missing cash, or extra cash, directly to your supervisor

F. All of the above. (correct answer)

Ans: F

300+ [UPDATED] Adobe Flex MCQs and Answers [PDF]

Adobe Flex Objective type Questions & Answers

Dear readers, these Adobe Flex Multiple choice Questions Pdf Download for Exam Adobe Flex. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview, normally questions start with some basic concept of the subject and later they continue based on further discussion and what you answer:

 

1. Which two statements about Spark and MX components are true?

A. For each MX component, there is a corresponding Spark component

B. For many MX components, there is a corresponding Spark component

C. Spark components implement functionality and appearance in separate classes

D. Spark components are extended to customize layout, just like MX components

E. Spark and MX components CANNOT be used within the same application

Answer: B,C

Mcqs on Adobe Flex

2. Which statement about Spark components is true?

A. SkinnableComponent is a superclass of all Spark components

B. UIComponent is NOT a superclass of Spark components

C. Spark components CANNOT be used in the same application with MX components

D. NOT all Spark components are skinnable

Answer: D

 

3. Which approach allows you to specify a layout for a Spark container?

A. Each Spark container class defines a specific layout, so you must choose the Spark container corresponding to the layout you desire

B. You must specify a CSS layout style corresponding to the id of the Spark container 

C. You must specify a value of “absolute”, “horizontal” or “vertical” within the layout attribute of the Spark container

D. You must specify one of the Spark layout classes within the layout attribute of the Spark container

Answer: D

 

4. Which statement comparing Spark and MX layouts are true?

A. Spark layouts use layout classes, while MX layouts do not

B. Spark and MX share the same layout attribute values

C. Spark layouts do NOT support absolute positioning, unlike MX layouts

D. Spark components do NOT have default layouts, so a layout must be specified

Answer: A

 

5. You want to create a sub class of LayoutBase. Which method must be overridden to specify positioning?

A. layout()

B. measure()

C. commitProperties()

D. updateDisplayList()

Answer: D

 

6. You want to create a custom layout to display a number of images in a carousel. Which superclass should you extend to create your custom layout?

A. HorizontalLayout

B. VerticalLayout

C. LayoutBase

D. TileLayout

Answer: C

 

7. Given the following code

Adobe 9A0-182 Exam

Which will allow you to set the content that will be displayed in the control?

A. myTextInput.label

B. TextInput.label

C. myTextInput.text

D. TextInput.text

Answer: C

 

8. Which property of the NumericStepper gives you access to the number that is displayed?

A. text

B. value

C. index

D. number

Answer: B

 

9. You want to use a field to capture a single line of typed input, with an approximate width of 30 characters. Which statement should you use?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

 

10. Which two statements about the Spark DataGrid are true? (Choose two.)

A. The Spark DataGrid is implemented as a skinnable wrapper around the SparkGrid

B. The Spark DataGrid is a skinnable component that uses a Grid control as a skin part

C. The component requires a dataField property

D. The component requires a dataField property

E. The component must be implemented to enable Spark DataGrid scrolling

Answer: A,B

 

11. Which properly defines an ItemRenderer for a Spark DataGrid column?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: A

 

12. Which property of the Group component allows you to specify which orientation its children will have?

A. layout

B. position

C. direction

D. orientation

Answer: A

 

13. Which Spark container will allow you to display its children with a horizontal orientation?

A. HBox

B. VBox

C. VGroup

D. HGroup

Answer: D

 

14. Which components can a Spark Group take as child objects?

A. Components that derive from the Component class

B. Components that implement the IVisualElement interface

C. Components that derive from the GraphicElement class

D. Components that implement the IUIComponent interface

Answer: D

 

15. Which one of the following is true about the typicalItem property?

A. By defining a typicalItem, a container does not have to size each child as it is drawn on the screen

B. The typicalItem may only be used with the Spark Grid and Spark DataGrid

C. If no typicalItem is used, by default a control will use the last item in the dataProvider as the typical data item

D. The typicalItem is defined inline, and not as an object to which the typicalItem is bound

Answer: A

 

16. Which two sets of skin classes does the Flex framework provide for the Spark Form and Spark FormItem controls? (Choose two.)

A. Default horizontal layout

B. Stacked

C. Default vertical layout

D. Basic

E. Sequential

Answer: A,B

 

17. You want to create a CSS rule that styles the Spark TextInput component. Your CSS document has the following namespace declaration: @namespace s “library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark”; Which correctly declares a CSS rule for the Spark TextInput component?

A. s|TextInput {}

B. s-TextInput {}

C. spark|TextInput {}

D. spark-TextInput {}

Answer: A

 

18. Which declaration uses the correct syntax to define a style namespace for the components in the components.view package?

A. namespace|comp components.view.*

B. namespace comp “components.view.*”

C. @namespace comp components.view.*

D. @namespace comp “components.view.*”

Answer: D

 

19. You want to create a drop shadow on the Spark label myLabel. Which syntax is correct?

A. myLabel.setStyle(dropShadow, “true”);

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D

 

20. Which two choices will allow you to apply a skin to a component at compile time? (Choose two.)

A. Use the setStyle method in a Script block

B. Use the skin attribute in the MXML used to instantiate the component

C. Use the skinClass attribute in the MXML used to instantiate the component

D. Use the skin property in the CSS attached to the application

E. Use the skinClass style in the CSS attached to the application

Answer: C,E

 

21. Which two classes can be extended to create a skin? (Choose two.)

A. ComponentSkin

B. Skin

C. SkinSpark

D. SkinClass

E. SparkSkin

Answer: B,E

 

22. Which MXML attribute specifies the visual implementation that a Spark component will display?

A. skin

B. skinClass

C. layout

D. displayClass

Answer: B

 

23. You have created a SparkSkin class for a Button component called ButtonSkin in the skins package. Which MXML statement correctly applies this skin class to a Spark Button?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

 

24. You want to animate the x, y, and alpha properties of an object in your application. Which Spark Effect class can handle animating multiple properties?

A. Animate

B. AnimateProperty

C. AnimateFilter

D. AddAction

Answer: A

 

25. Which declaration properly sets the x property in a state named detail?

A. detail.x=”0″

B. detail:x=”0″

C. x:detail=”0″

D. x.detail=”0″

Answer: D

 

26. Which two approaches could be used to show a component only within a specified Spark view state? (Choose two)

A. Set the includeIn attribute on that component’s MXML declaration and specify the name of the state

B. Set the excludeFrom attribute on that component’s MXML declaration and specify the names of all other states

C. Use the AddChild class within the State’s MXML declaration, and specify the component declaration within AddChild

D. Set the state attribute on that component’s MXML declaration and specify the value of the state 

E. Set the includeIn attribute within the root element of the component

Answer: A,B

 

27. What must you do extend Event class?

A. invoke the superclass constructor within your custom constructor

B. define an Event metadata keyword within your custom Event class

C. override the clone() method of the parent class

D. define an object to contain all contain all custom properties passed to the event

Answer: A

 

28. You aredefining a User class with username and password properties to encapsulate data. Which design pattern is being utilized?

A. Observer

B. Factory

C. ValueObject

D. Mediator

Answer: C

 

29. You have a created a custom component called MyComp.Which two statements could be used to create an instanceof MyComp? (Choosetwo)

A.

B. MyComp

C. var comp:M/Comp = new MyComp();

D. var comp MyComp = new DisplayObject();

E. var comp:MyComp = createClass(“MyComp”);

Answer: A,C

 

30. You want to play a transition effect whenever you press the enter key. Which of thefollowing riggers will you use?

A. focuslnEffect

B. hideEffect

C. creationComplete Effect

D. moveEffect

Answer: A

 

31. Which of the following containers is used to arrange its children in a single vertical stack,or column?

A. ViewStack

B. VBox

C. TabNavigator

D. Accordion

Answer: B

 

32. Which of the following metadata tags is used to define the allowed data type of eachelement of an array?

A. [Bindable]

B. [DefaultProperty]

C. [Deprecated]

D. [ArrayElementType]

Answer: D

 

300+ [UPDATED] WCF MCQs and Answers [PDF]

Best WCF Objective Questions and Answers

WCF Objective Questions Pdf Download for Exam WCF MCQs. These objective type WCF questions are very important for campus placement test and job interviews. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many IT companies. 

1. Which of the following is NOT true?

                 A) A WCF Service can be consumed by Windows applications

B) A WCF Service can be consumed by Web applications

C) A WCF Service can perform calculations

D) A WCF Service cannot return a dataset

Ans: D

MCQs on WCF

2. WCF services can communicate with _______.

A) all programming languages

B) XML

C) only the languages included with Visual Studio .NET

D) multiple platforms and multiple languages

Ans: D

3. The standard method for storing data that can be transferred easily from one machine or platform to another is _______.

A) XML

B) SOAP

C) WSDL

D) WCF

Ans: A

4. One of the advantages of using _______ is that data are transmitted in a text format rather than a binary format.

A) XML

B) SOAP

C) WSDL

D) WCF

Ans: A

 

5. Data that is in _______ format can pass through many firewalls that _______ cannot penetrate.

A) binary, text

B) text, binary

C) SOAP, WCF

D) WCF, SOAP

Ans:B

 

6. _______ is a popular standard that includes a set of rules for handling requests and responses including class names, method names, and parameters.

A) XML

B) WCF

C) WSDL

D) SOAP

Ans:D

 

7. The information about the names of the methods, the parameters that can be passed, and the values that are returned from the functions is controlled in some Web services by a description specified in _______.

A) XML

B) SOAP

C) WSDL

D) WCF

Ans:B

8. Always end your URI (or URL) with a ________ to avoid an extra trip to the server to determine that it is a site rather than a directory.

A) hyphen

B) slash

C) backslash

D) double slash

Ans:B

 

9. A resource on the Web is uniquely identified by its URI, which means _______.

A) Uniform Resource Identifier

B) Universal Registered Identifier

C) Uniform Registered Identifier

D) Universal Resource Identifier

Ans:A

 

10. To add a WCF Service, select the solution name in the Solution Explorer and select _______ from File menu.

A) Add / New Solution

B) Add / New Web Site

C) Add / New Service

D) Add / New Library

Ans:B

 

 

11. You have created a new service based on Windows Communication Foundation and also a client application to test the service. You want add an endpoint in the web.config file of the client application to use the new service. Which values should you include in you service element of the web.config file?

A. Address

B. Contract

C. Binding

D. All of these

Answer: D

 

12. A service contract specifies what an endpoint communicates to the outside world. At a more concrete level, it is a statement about a set of specific messages organized into basic message exchange patterns (MEPs), such as request/reply, one-way, and duplex. Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Contract specification:

A. The data types of messages

B. The specific protocols and serialization formats

C. The location of the operations

D. The frequency of messages per second

Answer: D

 

13. Services are groups of operations. To create a service contract you usually model operations and specify their grouping. In Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) applications, developers define the operations by creating a method and marking it with the which attribute?

A. ServiceContractAttribute

B. DataMemberAttribute

C. DataContractAttribute

D. OperationContractAttribute

Answer:  D

 

14. You’ve created a new class in your .NET project that contains a wide variety of operations grouped together to form part of a Server Contract. You now need to add an attribute to the class to define it as a service contract. Which attribute should you use?

A. OperationContractAttribute

B. DataMemberAttribute

C. DataContractAttribute

D. ServiceContractAttribute

Answer: D

 

15. Both classes and interfaces represent a grouping of functionality and, therefore, both can be used to define a WCF service contract. However, it is recommended that you use interfaces because they directly model service contracts. Without an implementation, interfaces do no more than define a grouping of methods with certain signatures. Which of the following is a benefit of using interfaces to define Service Contracts?

A. Service contract interfaces can extend any number of other service contract interfaces.

B. You can modify the implementation of a service contract by changing the interface implementation, while the service contract remains the same

C. A single class can implement any number of service contracts by implementing those service contract interfaces.

D. All of these

Answer: D

 

16. You have created a new class which will be the basis for a Service Contract. You have used ServiceContractAttribute and OperationContractAttribute to decorate the class and the methods. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using classes instead of interfaces for Service Contracts?

A. Speed

B. All of these are disadvantages

C. Simplicity

D. Multiple Inheritance

Answer: D

 

17. Which of the following is TRUE regarding service operations and references to objects?

A. Objects must be serializable

B. You can’t return values from service operations

C. Objects are passed as references

D. You can’t pass parameters to service operations

Answer: A

 

18. You’ve created a new class and decorated it with the DataContractAttribute so that it forms a Data Contract for WCF. This class contains several attributes that you want to make available as part of the Data Contract. Currently these attributes are declared as private. What do you need to do to ensure these attributes are serializable?

A. Add the DataMemberAttribute and change the type to public

B. Add the DataContractAttribute to the attribute

C. Change the type to internal

D. Add the DataMemberAttribute or change the type to public

Answer: D

 

19. A developer has designed a service that contains a method called TakeAction which is decorated with the following attribute: [OperationContractAttribute(IsOneWay=true)] Another client application will invoke the TakeAction operation and continue processing after WCF writes the message to the network. What must the developer of the TakeAction method do to ensure the client action can call this method?

A. Use object as the return type

B. Use FaultException as the return type

C. Remove all parameters from the method signature

D. Use void as the return type

Answer: D

 

20. The signature of a service operation dictates a certain underlying message exchange pattern (MEP) that can support the data transfer and the features an operation requires. You want to adopt a pattern that supports the sending and receiving of messages by both the service and client. Which patter should you choose?

A. one-way

B. none of these

C. request/reply

D. duplex

Answer: D

 

21. Study the following line of code: OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel(); The ICalendarDuplexCallback interface is defined as the CallbackContract property in the Service Contract. In which class should you use this line of code?

A. Client

B. You should never use this

C. Both

D. Service

Answer: D

 

22. A client application interacts with a new Service that calculates interest rates for the banks customers. The Service Contract contains BasicHttpBinding as the binding type in the endpoint configuration. The service contains some methods that return sensitive information such as customers names and addresses. You want to ensure that these methods are encrypted. What should you do?

A. Set the ProtectionLevel to None in the ServiceContractAttribute

B. Set the ProtectionLevel in the OperationContractAttribute to EncryptAndSign for each of the sensitive methods

C. Nothing, all messages will be encrypted and signed already

D. Set the ProtectionLevel to Sign in the ServiceContractAttribute

Answer: B

 

23. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the WSHttpBinding class?

A. Provides WS-Addressing

B. Provides un-encrypted messages by default

C. Provides reliable messaging

D. Provides transactions

Answer: B

 

24. In Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) applications, which of the following is FALSE regarding Sessions?

A. Messages delivered during a session are processed in the order in which they are received

B. They are explicitly initiated and terminated by the receiving application

C. There is no general data store associated with a WCF session

D. Sessions correlate a group of messages into a conversation

Answer: B

 

25. The instancing behaviour (set by using the System.ServiceModel.ServiceBehaviorAttribute.InstanceContextMode property) controls how the InstanceContext is created in response to incoming messages. You have created a new WCF service and set the InstanceContextMode to PerCall. What is the behaviour of the InstanceContext in this mode?

A. A new InstanceContext is created for each call

B. A new InstanceContext is created for each channel

C. A new InstanceContext is created for all calls

D. A new InstanceContext is never created

Answer: A

 

26. When configuring a WCF service using Visual Studio, you can use either a Web.config file or an App.config file to specify the settings. The choice of the configuration file name is determined by the hosting environment you choose for the service. Where does the endpoint configuration element lie in a .NET configuration file?

A. System.ServiceModel – bindings – endpoint

B. System.ServiceModel – services – service – endpoint

C. System.ServiceModel – endpoint

D. System.ServiceModel – behaviors – behavior – endpoint

Answer: B

 

27. The System.ServiceModel.Channels namespace contains the DeliveryFailure enumeration. DeliveryFailure specifies the possible types of delivery failure for a message read from the queue. Which of the following elements is a valid DeliveryFailure?

A. BadSignature

B. AccessDenied

C. ReceiveTimeout

D. All of these

Answer: D

 

28. Which class in WCF represents the unit of communication between endpoints in a distributed environment?

A. RequestContext

B. Message

C. Binding

D. ChannelBase

Answer: B

 

 

28. Windows Communication Formats (WCF) is Microsoft’s technology for communicating between applications on the same computer system, on a network, or across the 

 A) True

 B) False

Ans: B

29. It is possible for a single application to be both a client and a service.

 A) True

 B) False

 

Ans: A

30. WCF cannot communicate with other platforms that support SOAP and simple XML.

 A) True

 B) False

 

Ans: B

31. An endpoint indicates where messages can be sent (address).

 A) True

 B) False

Ans: A

32. Data that is in binary format can pass through any firewall.

 A) True

 B) False

 

Ans: B

33. WSDL contains information about the names of the methods, the parameters that can be passed, and the values that are returned from the functions.

 A) True

 B) False

Ans: A

 

34. For technical specifications, the industry standard term URL is preferred to URI.

 A) True

 B) False

Ans: B

35. The transport protocol used by SOAP is HTTP.

 A) True

 B) False

Ans: A

36. To rename a Web Service you need to change only the name in the Solution Explorer.

 A) True

 B) False

Ans: B

37. When a new project is added to a WCF Service solution, the projects are saved independently.

 A) True

 B) False

Ans: A

300+ TOP MCQs on Transformation and Hosts and Answers

Genetic Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Transformation and Hosts”.

1. How will we choose which transformation method is to be used?
a) It depends on the available conditions for the reaction to take place
b) It depends on the efficiency which is required to be obtained
c) All the transformation methods can be used equivalently
d) Each reaction has been assigned a particular transformation method
Answer: b
Explanation: The choice of transformation method to be used is based upon the efficiency which is desired in the reaction which has to take place.

2. The cell in which the recombinant molecules are propagated is termed as __________
a) host
b) vector
c) plasmid
d) carrier
Answer: a
Explanation: Hosts are the cells which are used for propagation of recombinant molecules. The choice of a correct host is very important.

3. Some mutations are present which assist the uptake of DNA. Which of the statement is incorrect for it?
a) deoR is such a mutation which assists the uptake of DNA
b) It is a transcriptional regulator
c) It is having DNA binding activity
d) It controls the expression of a set of genes involved ribonucleoside catabolism
Answer: d
Explanation: There are various factors which affect the uptake of DNA by the cells. deoR is an example of such a mutation which assists the uptake of DNA. It is a transcriptional regulator and is having DNA binding activity. It controls the expression of a set of genes involved in deoxyribonucleoside catabolism.

4. Endogenous DNA-degrading system is not essential in determining transformation efficiency.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Endogenous DNA-degrading system is essential in determining the transformation efficiency.

5. Which of the following is true for K strain for E. coli?
a) It contains restriction-modification system which is encoded by hsDMRS locus
b) hsDR encodes for endonuclease which is responsible for cleaving the DNA sequence containing –AACGCNNTGC-
c) Cleavage is carried out when the second A is non methylated
d) hsDR mutation can be used for cleavage of incoming unprotected DNA
Answer: a
Explanation: It consists of K restriction-modification system which is encoded by hsDMRS locus. hsDR encodes for endonuclease which is responsible for cleaving the DNA sequencing containing –AACNNNNNNGTGC-. Cleavage takes place only in the case when the second A and the A opposite to T in the second strand is methylated. This mutation can be used to avoid cleavage of incoming unprotected DNA.

6. Methylation dependent restriction system (MDRS) are included in which class of restriction enzymes?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) They are the product of mcrA, mcrB or mrr loci
Answer: d
Explanation: MDRS don’t come under the general classification of type I-III. They are the product of mcrA, mcrB and mrr loci. It would degrade DNA containing methylcytosine (mcrA, mcrB) or methyladenine (mrr).

7. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to dam and dcm genes?
a) Their enzymes are responsible for methylation of DNA
b) Dam protein methylates cytosine in –GATC-
c) Dcm methylates cytosine in-CCAGG- and –CCTGG- sequences
d) The extent of methylation also has effects on the efficiency with which the other restriction enzymes cleave the DNA in vitro
Answer: b
Explanation: The enzymes of dam and dcm genes are responsible for mrthylation of DNA. Dam protein methylates adenine in –GATC- and dcm methylates cytosine in –CCAGG- and –CCTGG- sequences. The extent of methylation also has effects on the efficiency with which the other restriction enzymes cleave DNA in vitro.

8. How many recombination systems are present in E. coli?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: There are mainly three recombination systems in E.coli. They are the products of recBCD, recE and recF genes.

9. Disablement is also done in plasmids. Choose the correct statement.
a) The strains carrying out the recombinant plasmids should not escape outside
b) Preferred strains are having mutations which allow their growth in wild
c) Mutations confer prototrophy
d) If the recombinants escape outside, there is no such harm
Answer: a
Explanation: Disablement is also done in plasmids, in order to ensure that the recombinant plasmids don’t escape outside. If they escape outside, it causes contamination. Preferred strains are having mutations which don’t allow their growth in the wild. Mutations confer autotrophy. Autotrophy is the condition of the introduction of particular metabolites in the medium because they are not synthesized. The opposite of autotrophy is called as prototrophy.

10. endA mutation is often induced in host molecules. Choose the correct statement.
a) It activates the gene for DNA-specific endonuclease
b) It enhances the yield of plasmid DNA preparations only
c) It enhances the quality of plasmid DNA preparations only
d) It enhances both the quality and yield of plasmid DNA preparations
Answer: d
Explanation: endA mutation is often induced in host molecules. It inactivates the gene for DNA-specific endonuclease. It enhances both the yield and quality of plasmid DNA.

11. lacZΔM15 represents __________
a) fully present lacZ gene
b) it is not required in alpha complementation
c) it represents the lacZ gene with M15 mutation
d) it is partially deleted lacZ gene which is needed for alpha complementation
Answer: d
Explanation: The representation is for a partially deleted lacZ gene and it is very important for alpha complementation.

12. The correct statement with respect to lacIq is __________
a) It is a mutant of lac repressor gene and decreases the level of repressor
b) It doesn’t control the lacZ gene
c) It is important for the vectors to replicate in a low copy number
d) It doesn’t titrate out the repressor produced by wild type Lac-I gene
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a mutant of lac repressor gene and decreases the level of repressor. It controls the lacZ gene and it is important for the vectors to replicate with a high copy number. It titrates out the repressor produced by wild-type lac-I gene.

300+ TOP MCQs on Expression in Vivo and Answers

Genetic Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Expression in Vivo”.

1. If overexpression of proteins takes place, they become toxic at times. In such a case _______ colonies are recovered after ______ with the recombinant plasmid.
a) few, translation
b) few, transformation
c) no, transformation
d) no, translation
Answer: c
Explanation: At times, overexpression of proteins takes place. It leads to toxicity. In such a case, no colonies are recovered after transformation with the recombinant plasmid. It is so because no colonies survive because of overexpression of the protein.

2. Ribosome binding site in E.coli is composed of which sequence primarily?
a) -GAGG-
b) -CTCC-
c) -ATGG-
d) -CGTT-
Answer: a
Explanation: Ribosome binding site is responsible for initiating translation. It is composed of –GAGG- sequence primarily.

3. Translation starts at first _____ codon in the mRNA downstream from the ribosome binding site.
a) ACG
b) AUG
c) UAC
d) CAG
Answer: b
Explanation: Translation starts at first AUG codon in the mRNA downstream from the ribosome binding site. It is the start codon.

4. Expression of cloned sequences in E.coli requires a promoter, a ribosome binding site and an initiation codon.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Expression of cloned sequences in E. coli requires a promoter, a ribosome binding site and an initiation codon. Initiation codon is the start codon AUG.

5. If an expression vector contains all three, viz. a controllable promoter, a ribosome binding site and an initiation codon, then a hybrid protein is produced. The _______ region of hybrid protein is encoded by vector and the rest is expressed by the sequence inserted.
a) N terminal
b) C terminal
c) Both N & C terminal
d) Middle
Answer: a
Explanation: If all three elements are present, then a hybrid protein is formed. The N terminal region of the hybrid protein is encoded by the vector and the rest is expressed by the sequence inserted.

6. Proteins synthesized by carrying out a translation of the vector region and continuing it in the insert region is called as _____________
a) hybrid protein
b) fusion protein
c) combination protein
d) insert protein
Answer: b
Explanation: At times, translation of vector is carried out and is continued in the insert. Proteins produced by this method are known as fusion proteins.

7. It is also possible to generate a fusion protein in which ______ is encoded by the vector.
a) N terminal
b) C terminal
c) Both N and C terminal
d) Middle region
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally, N terminal is encoded by the vector. But at times it is also possible to generate a fusion protein by encoding C terminal.

8. Which of the following is present in E. coli rrnB operon for rRNA?
a) Initiation codon
b) Termination codon
c) Both initiation and termination codon
d) Both are absent
Answer: c
Explanation: Initiation codon is present in all expression vectors, but few are also having termination codons. It is necessary to stop high levels of transcription.

9. Termination codon is required for stopping high levels of transcription of other regions such as _______ which might interfere with ___________ of the vector.
a) origin, replication
b) end, replication
c) end, stability
d) origin, stability
Answer: d
Explanation: Termination codon is required for stopping high levels of transcription of other regions such as origin. Other regions might interfere with the stability of the vector.

10. In fusion proteins, the reading frame in a vector is out of phase with the insert.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Fusion proteins are the proteins produced by carrying the translation in vector region and then continuing it in insert region. Hence, to carry out this, the reading frame should be in phase.