Category: Objective Questions

Broadcast Objective Questions and Answers

Broadcast Objective Questions and Answers Pdf Download for Exam Broadcast  Multiple choice Questions. Quiz Broadcast Test Questions

1) The acronym FM stands for

 

A. frequency modes

B. filter modulation

C. frequency modulation

D. filter methodology

E. future mediocrity

Ans: C

 

2) According to studies, the quarter of the hour with the largest listening audience is

A. 0 – 15 min

B. 15 – 30 min

C. 30 – 45 min

D. 45 – 60 min

Ans: A

3) Which scientist is credited with the discovery the existence of radio waves

A. Thomas Edison

B. Heinrich Hertz

C. Ben Franklin

D. Guglielmo Marconi

E. Albert Einstein

Ans:B

4) Which inventor conducted the first radio transmission in the year 1895

A. Thomas Edison

B. Heinrich Hertz

C. Ben Franklin

D. Guglielmo Marconi

E. Albert Einstein

Ans:D

5) Which single event resulted in global acceptance of 24 hour mandatory use of radio for shipping communications

 

A. The ‘War of the Worlds’ broadcast

B. The attack on Pearl Harbor

C. The crash of the Hindenburg Zeppelin

D. The sinking of the S.S. Titanic

E. Hitler’s invasion of Poland

Ans:D

6) Morse Code is what form of radio transmission

 

A. AM (Amplitude modulation)

B. FM (Frequency Modulation)

C. PDM (Pulse Duration Modulation)

D. PCS (Personal Communications Services)

E. PCM (Pulse Code Modulation)

Ans:C

7) FM broadcasts are assigned what radio frequencies by the FCC

 

A. 540 kHz – 1630 kHz

B. 88 MHz – 174 MHz

C. 300 MHz – 3000 MHz

D. 1850 MHz – 1990 MHz

E. 7.25 gHz – 8.4 gHz

Ans:B

8) Line of sight propagation is defined as

 

A. A signal traveling directly from the transmitter antenna to the receiver antenna

B. The ‘dead area’ within the skip zone

C. A signal refracted, or bent back to the earth by the ionosphere

D. A signal traveling along the ground following the curve of the earth

E. None of the above

Ans:A

9) The term ‘Picket Fencing’ is used to describe

 

A. Slats of wood that divide one receiver from another

B. The actuality of direct and reflecting waves first canceling then reinforcing each other, causing fluttering of the transmission

C. The actuality of direct and reflecting waves canceling each other, but not reinforcing, thus causing fluttering of the transmission

D. None of the above

E. All of the above (Your Answer)

Ans:B

10) At night, AM transmissions can be received from great distances because

 

A. There are fewer stations broadcasting

B. There is less traffic on the roads to cause interference

C. The dissipation of the ‘D’ layer of the ionosphere

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Ans:C

11) The type of cable used to send a program from the broadcast amplifier to the transmission antenna is called

 

A. XLR

B. TRS

C. RCA

D. Coaxial

E. TT/Batham

Ans:D

12) Satellite transmissions work on what kind of signal

 

A. AM

B. FM

C. UHF

D. VHF

E. PCM

Ans:E

13) Lavaliere mics are used widely in TV broadcasting because

 

A. They are unidirectional and reject ambient noise

B. They are dynamic and add no bed noise

C. They are small and nonintrusive to the video camera’s view

D. They are unidirectional and reject ambient noise and they are dynamic and add no bed

noise

E. All of the above

Ans:C

14) Omnidirectional mics are used in field recordings for

 

A. Capturing ambiance

B. They are impervieous to the proximity effect.

C. Capturing more than one source at a time

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Ans:D

15) An obstacle of using hand operated ‘booms’ or ‘fish pole’ stands is

 

A. they are illegal in many states

B. The operator’s arms may tire from long use

C. They’re expensive

D. Mic can interfere with the camera view if it drops into frame

E. The operator’s arms may tire from long use AND the mic can interfere with the camera

view if it drops into frame

Ans:E

16) Miking sporting events requires sound pickups from what sources

 

A. Announcers

B. The crowd

C. The action

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Ans:D

17) The process of temporarily lowering the volume of a recording (or any source) in order to speak over it is called

 

A. A quick fade

B. A drop out

C. A donut

D. A hole

E. None of the above

Ans:C

18) What  two factors determine sky-wave propagation between two points?

 

A. the frequency in use

B. the level of humidity in the air

C. the level of ionization

D. the level of humidity in the air & the level of ionization

E. the frequency in use & the level of ionization

Ans:E

19) The highest frequency at which the ionosphere bends radio waves back to Earth is called

 

A. air

B. non-conductive materials

C. space

D. all of the above

E. none of the above

Ans: D

20) VSWR is a measure of an impedance mismatch between

 

A. the antenna and the receiver

B. the transmission line and its load

C. the compressor and the oscillator

D. the antenna and the receiver & the transmission line and its load

E. all of the above

Ans: B

21) The optimum standing wave ratio is

 

A. 1:1

B. 2:1

C. 3:1

D. 4:1

E. 5:1

Ans: A

22) a ‘cart’ is used in broadcast productions for

 

A. P.S.A.’s

B. sound effects

C. commercials

D. all of the above

E. none of the above

Ans: D

23) The largest amount of broadcasting air time is dedicated to

 

A. sit-coms

B. news

C. commercials

D. dramas

E. sporting events

Ans: B

24) A downward 45 degree angle of a D.J.’s vocal mic is used to

 

A. help reduce sibilance

B. help reduce plosives

C. help reduce ambient noise

D. help reduce phase problems from reflected waves

E. help reduce sibilance & help reduce ambient noise

Ans: B

25) ‘Split-Channel’ mixers are used primarily for:

 

A. Film production

B. T.V. production

C. Music production

D. Radio production

E. Radio and T.V. broadcasts

Ans: E

26) DARS brodcast systems use hybrid transmitters known as:

 

A. ICBM Systems

B. POTS Systems

C. ISDN Systems

D. Phased Array Systems

E. IBOC Systems

Ans: E

27) What frequencies are allocated by the FCC for commercial AM transmitions?

 

A. 88Mghz-175Mghz

B. 275Khz-1750Khz

C. 106Mghz-1250Mghz

D. 540Khz-1630Khz

E. 160Khz-1900Khz

Ans:D

28) The communication system used between principal production crew members and the talent is called…

 

A. IFB: Interruptable Foldback System

B. SA: Studio Address System

C. PL: Private Line System

D. SMS: Studio Monitor System

E. CMS: Crew Monitor System

Ans: A

29) XM and Sirius use what type of transmission systems?

 

A. AM

B. FM

C. DARS

D. S-DARS

E. IBOC

Ans: D

30) The primary purpose of radio is to convey information from one place to another through

 

A. air

B. non-conductive materials

C. space

D. all of the above

E. none of the above

Ans: D

31) Sometimes a radio manager, seeing a weakness in a rival station, will:

 

A. Adopt that station’s format, hoping to do it better and lure away listeners

B. Exploit the weakness through an aggressive negative-advertising campaign

C. Avoid using the same music format, fearing that it may be inherently weak

D. Try to develop a network of spies within the rival station to make it weaker

E. None of the above

Ans: A

32) Media corporations are said to be seeking synergy when they:

 

A. Replace their accounting firms with in-house auditors

B. Break ground for broadcast stations in new locations

C. Sell off stations to avoid violating FCC ownership rules

D. Get into carriage battles with local cable systems

E. Acquire companies that can work together in creative ways

Ans: E

33) The TV program credited with (or blamed for) making profitability mandatory in news is:

 

A. PBS’ McNeil-Lehrer News Hour

B. CBS’ 60 Minutes

C. CNN’s Anderson Cooper 360

D. ABC’s 20-20

E. CNBC’s The News with Brian Williams

Ans: B

34) Networks and their affiliates have argued over how much a network has to pay a station in:

 

A. Licensing fees

B. Barter minutes

C. Compensation (comp.)

D. Accounting credits

E. Advertising funds

Ans: C

35) One major breakthrough in the development of the personal computer was the addition of icons and visual links to replace text-based commands in the computer’s operating system. This innovation was called:

 

A. Pulse Code Modulation

B. Quantization

C. Graphic User Interface (GUI)

D. Sampling

E. Data Storage

Ans: C

37) The number of local TV stations in the country from which newscasts flow is about:

 

A. 600

B. 800

C. 1,000

D. 300

E. None of the Above

Ans: B

38) In order to describe the speed of bits flowing in data streams, engineers refer to “bit rates,” which are measured in:

 

A. Frequencies

B. Cycles

C. Hertz

D. Bits per Second (bps)

E. Bytes (kilo, mega, giga)

Ans: D

39) The term “bit” is formed by compressing two terms; they are:

 

A. Binary, Digit

B. Binary, Terminal

C. Basic, Intelligence

D. Broadcast, Digital

E. None of the above

Ans: A

40) On average, TV-news salaries are very low, starting at little more than:

 

A. $18,000 a year

B. $700 a week

C. $20,000 a year

D. $1,500 a month

E. $25,000 a year

Ans: C

41) The Swedish engineer whose design was to rethink analogous waves of energy in terms of dots and dashes was:

 

A. Harry Nyquist

B. Claude Shannon

C. Warren Weaver

D. John Mauchly

E. J. Presper Eckert

Ans: A

42) Overall, the largest sector of U.S. broadcast journalism today is:

A. Public-Radio News

B. Syndicated Radio News

C. Network TV News

D. Local TV news

E. Local Radio News

Ans: D

43) The only true broadcasters in the U.S. system are:

 

A. Fiber-Optics Webs

B. Broadcast Networks

C. Cable Systems

D. Local Stations

E. Internet Sites

Ans: D

44) One tool that many radio stations use to analyze the timing and competitiveness of their programs is the:

 

A. Music Chart

B. Hot Clock

C. Playlist

D. Computer

E. Newsletter

Ans: B

45) A fundamental change from the 1970’s is that big-time television today no longer has:

 

A. News divisions as “loss leaders”

B. African-American correspondents

C. Assignment desks

D. Labor unions

E. Foreign bureaus

Ans: A

46) The broadcast industry rests on a three-legged stool of these economic factors:

 

A. Station, Station Group, Network

B. Broadcaster, Producer, Advertiser

C. Revenue, Payroll, Profit

D. Researcher, Producer, Marketer

E. Broadcaster, Audience, Advertiser

Ans: E

47) This part of the personal computer is important because it translates software applications for the CPU.

 

A. Operating System (OS)

B. Storage Memory

C. Random Access Memory (RAM)

D. Floppy Disk Drive

E. Mouse

Ans: A

48) In the basic transaction in commercial broadcasting,

 

A. Consumers buy programs directly from networks

B. Advertisers sell their products to audiences

C. Advertisers buy shows from production companies

D. Networks buy programs from affiliated stations

E. Broadcasters sell their audiences to advertisers

Ans: E

49) Unlike most countries, the United States began early to allow broadcasting to operate as:

 

A. A national treasure

B. Private enterprise

C. An arm of government

D. The chief entertainer

E. None of the above

Ans: B

50) If a TV network broadcasts a female-oriented sitcom when its top rival is airing a pro football game, that’s usually called:

 

A. Evasive Action

B. Audience Raiding

C. Hammocking

D. Block Tentpoling

E. Counterprogramming

Ans: E

 51) Which advertising medium has the advantage of low costs, flexibility, and effectiveness?

A. Radio

B. Television

C. CD-ROMs

D. Video

Ans:A

52) What advertising medium typically runs for four to six minutes and is used to showcase a property to prospects before they visit?

A. Radio

B. Television

C. CD-ROMs

D. Video

Ans:D

53) What type of advertisement is most successful when it is visual, grabs attention, and has an identity all of its own?

 

A. Radio

B. Television

C. CD-ROMs

D. Video

Ans:B

54) Broadcast faxing is:

 

A. an excellent saturation medium that can enhance a message with visuals.

B. used to get a message to a number of prospects at the same time.

C. a system in which the hospitality firm gives selected travel intermediaries or other target markets a special fax number they may call to receive its latest information at any time.

D. a high-quality presence that can quickly provide new information to consumers.

Ans: B

55) Which of the following is an advantage of Internet advertising?

A. High saturation

B. Long shelf life

C. Quick updates

D. Highly targeted

Ans: C

56) Video brochures have a higher storage capacity than CD-ROMs.

 

A. True

B. False

Ans:B

57) Travel services on the Internet serve as an online directory of properties.

 

A. True

B. False

Ans:A

58) Television advertising is expensive as hotels must pay for both airtime and production.

A. True

B. False

Ans:A

59) It is important to determine audience demographics and develop targeted ads when advertising on television.

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

60) The Internet is an inherently interactive medium, so it isn’t necessary for a property Website to build in interactivity.

A. True

B. False

Ans: B

61) __________ is the measurement of the opening in a lens of a camera that allows a specific amount of light to be let in.

 

A. composition

B. aperture

C. diffusion

D. focal length

Ans: B

62) _______ is the term for removing and dismantling sets after a production.

 

A. cleanup

B. strike

C. break down

D. load out

Ans: C

63) What do the letters C.C.D stand for?

 

A. charge coupled device

B. crispy creme donuts

C. charge current distribution

D. common cathode disc

Ans: A

64) Dimmer is part of a camera.

 

A. True

B. False

Ans: B

65) Switcher is part of lighting.

 

A. True

B. False

Ans: B

66) F-Stop can be found on the camera.

 

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

67) Match cuts are found in editing.

 

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

68) What is the correct kelvin temperature of indoor videography?

 

A. 5600 Degrees

B. 7200 Degrees

C. 1200 Degrees

D. 3200 Degrees

Ans: D

69) What is the correct exterior kelvin temperature for daytime exterior videography?

 

A. 5600 Degrees

B. 3200 Degrees

C. 7200 Degrees

D. 1200 Degrees

Ans: A

70) What does RGB signify?

 

A. Rig, Ballast, Grid

B. Right, Bright, Great

C. Ring, Bing, Gring

D. Red, Blue, Green

Ans: D

Accounts Receivable Objective Questions & Answers

Dear readers, these Accounts Receivable Multiple choice Questions Pdf Download for Exam Accounts Receivable. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview, normally questions start with some basic concept of the subject and later they continue based on further discussion and what you answer:

1. Accounts receivable (A/R) is one of a series of ________ transactions dealing with the billing of a customer for goods and services he/she has ordered.

A. Accountancy

B. Balance sheet

Ans: A

2: Companies can use their accounts receivable as collateral when obtaining a ________ (asset-based lending) or sell them through factoring.

A. Debt

B. Loan

C. Bond (finance)

D. Credit (finance)

Ans: B

3: In most business entities this is typically done by generating an ________ and mailing or electronically delivering it to the customer, who in turn must pay it within an established timeframe called “creditor payment terms.”

A. Order (business)

B. Accounts payable

C. Invoice

D. Sales

Ans: C

4: Pools or portfolios of accounts receivable can be sold in the capital markets through a ________.

A. Securitization

B. Collateralized debt Obligation

C. Bond (finance)

D. Mortgage-backed security

Ans: A

5: The change in the bad debt provision from year to year is posted to the bad debt expense account in the ________.

A. Cash flow statement

B. Revenue

C. Income statement

D. General ledger

Ans: C

6: On a company’s ________, accounts receivable is the money owed to that company by entities outside of the company.

A. Equity (finance)

B. Accountancy

C. Asset

D. Balance sheet

Ans: D

7: The two methods are not mutually exclusive, and some businesses will have a provision for doubtful debts and will also write off specific debts that they know to be bad (for example, if the debtor has gone into ________.)

A. Liquidator (law)

B. Unfair preference

C. Floating charge

D. Liquidation

Ans: D

8. A firm’s inventory turnover (IT) is 5 times on a cost of goods sold (COGS) of $800,000. If the IT is improved to 8 times while the COGS remains the same, a substantial amount of funds is released from or additionally invested in inventory. In fact,

A. $160,000 is released.

B. $100,000 is additionally invested.

C. $60,000 is additionally invested.

D. $60,000 is released.

Ans: D

9. Ninety-percent of Vogel Bird Seed’s total sales of $600,000 is on credit. If its year-end receivables turnover is 5, the average collection period (based on a 365-day year) and the year-end receivables are, respectively:

A. 365 days and $108,000.

B. 73 days and $120,000.

C. 73 days and $108,000.

D. 81 days and $108,000.

Ans: C

10. If EOQ = 360 units, order costs are $5 per order, and carrying costs are $.20 per unit, what is the usage in units?

A. 129,600 units

B. 2,592 units

C. 25,920 units

D. 18,720 units

Ans: B

11. Costs of not carrying enough inventory include:

A. lost sales.

B. customer disappointment.

C. possible worker layoffs.

D. all of these.

Ans: D

12. Which of the following relationships hold true for safety stock?

A. the greater the risk of running out of stock, the smaller the safety of stock.

B. the larger the opportunity cost of the funds invested in inventory, the larger the safety   stock.

C. the greater the uncertainty associated with forecasted demand, the smaller the safety    stock.

D. the higher the profit margin per unit, the higher the safety stock necessary.

Ans: D

13. Increasing the credit period from 30 to 60 days, in response to a similar action taken by all of our competitors, would likely result in:

A. an increase in the average collection period.

B. a decrease in bad debt losses.

C. an increase in sales.

D. higher profits.

Ans: A

14. The credit policy of Spurling Products is “1.5/10, net 35.” At present 30% of the customers take the discount, 62% pay within the net period, and the rest pay within 45 days of invoice. What would receivables be if all customers took the cash discount? 

A. Lower than the present level.

B. No change from the present level.

C. Higher than the present level.

D. Unable to determine without more information.

Ans: A

15. An increase in the firm’s receivable turnover ratio means that:

A. it is collecting credit sales more quickly than before.

B. cash sales have decreased.

C. it has initiated more liberal credit terms.

D. inventories have increased.

Ans: A

16. Receiving a required inventory item at the exact time needed.

A. ABC

B. JIT

C. FOB

D. PERT

Ans: B

17. EOQ is the order quantity that  over our planning horizon.

A. minimizes total ordering costs

B. minimizes total carrying costs

C. minimizes total inventory costs

D. the required safety stock

Ans: C

18. A B2B exchange is a Internet marketplace that matches supply and demand by real-time auction bidding.

A. buyer-to-business

B. business-to-business

C. business-to-buyer

D. buyer-to-buyer

Ans: B

19. Clark Garrison, Inc. uses an allowance for doubtful accounts. When they write off an uncollectible accounts receivable, total assets will

A)increase

B)decrease

C)remain the same

D)depends on the amount of the receivable

Ans: C

20.  Clark Garrison, Inc. uses an allowance for doubtful accounts. When they recover a previously written off account receivable, total assets will

A)increase

B)decrease

C)remain the same

D)depends on the amount of the receivable

Ans: C

21.  Brook Logan, Inc. uses the balance sheet approach for estimating bad debt expense. At year end, accounts receivable was valued at $200,000 and the allowance for doubtful accounts had a credit balance of $300. The allowance for doubtful accounts is estimated at 1% of accounts receivable. What is the bad debt expense for the year?

A)$1,700

B)$2,000

C)$2,300

D)some other amount

Ans: A

22.  If net credit sales for a given year are $400,000 and the average accounts receivable are $20,000, What is the accounts receivable turnover?

A)20

B)80

C)200

D)50

Ans: A

23.  If net credit sales for a given year are $600,000 and the average accounts receivable is $60,000, what is the average days to collect receivables?

A)10

B)60

C)31

D)36.5

Ans: D

24.  Bath Industries follows a policy of writing off accounts receivable balances when they are more than 120 days old, and all normal collection efforts have failed to result in the collection of the balance owing. On November 30, Bath Industries wrote off an accounts receivable of $450 from Felicity’s Feline Care Company. On December 3, Bath Industries received a cheque from Felicity’s in full payment of the overdue account. Bath Industries will record the receipt by:

A)Debiting Cash, Crediting Accounts Receivable.

B)Debiting Cash, Crediting Allowance for Doubtful Accounts.

C)Debiting Cash and Accounts Receivable, Crediting Allowance for Doubtful Accounts and Accounts Receivable.

D)Debiting Cash, Crediting Uncollectible Accounts Expense.

E)None of the above.

Ans: C

25. Imperial Grocery had net credit sales of $3,150,000 in 1999. It began the year with an accounts receivable balance of $78,200 and ended the year with a balance of $78,700. The accounts receivable turnover is:

A)40.15 times

B)40.28 times

C)40.03 times

D)9.09 times

E)None of the above.

Ans: A

26.  Catering Company borrowed $100,000 on December 5, 2000, by signing a 90-day note payable with annual interest of 9 percent. The amount of interest expense on this note for December 2000 is:

A)$750

B)$641.10

C)$665.75

D)$616.44

E)None of the above.

Ans: B

27.  Meat Packers International Company is the sole employer in the only city in a small province. Recent changes in government subsidies have caused Meat Packers to consider relocating to a larger city in a larger province. Mel Mott, owner of Mel’s Department Store, is concerned as to what will happen to the collectibility of the store’s accounts receivable if Meat Packers relocates and puts most of his customers out of work. This situation is called:

A)A shared characteristic.

B)A concentration of credit risk.

C)The direct write off method.

D)Factoring of Accounts Receivable.

Ans: B

28.  Eastern Trucks sold five trucks to Continental Loggers on November 1 for a total of $175,000. Continental paid $25,000 cash and signed a 12-month note receivable. The face amount of the note was $163,500, which included interest on the note for 12 months. Eastern Trucks prepares adjusting entries annually and plans to amortize straight-line amortization for discount. The adjusting entry made at December 31, by Eastern Trucks year-end, is:

A)Debit Interest Receivable $13,500; Credit Interest Earned $13,500.

B)Debit Interest Receivable $2,250; Credit Interest Earned $2,250.

C)Debit Discount on Notes Receivable $13,500; Credit Interest Earned $13,500.

D)Debit Discount on Notes Receivable $2,250; Credit Interest Earned $2,250.

Ans: D

29.  The due date of a 60-day note receivable signed on April 17 is

A)June 16

B)June 17

C)June 15

D)June 18

E)None of the above.

Ans: A

30.   Accounts receivable are shown on the balance sheet at their net realizable value, which is defined as the balance in the accounts receivable account less the balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts account. When a company writes off an individual’s account as being uncollectible, the net realizable value on the balance sheet:

A)Increases by the amount of the write off.

B)Decreases by the amount of the write off.

C)Stays the same because accounts receivable and allowance for doubtful accounts are not affected by the write off.

D)Stays the same because accounts receivable and allowance for doubtful accounts both decrease by the amount of the write off.

E)None of the above.

Ans: D

31. Allowance for doubtful accounts is a contra-asset.

A)True

B)False

Ans: A

32. The process of classifying accounts receivable by age groups is called a subsidiary ledger.

A)True

B)False

Ans: B

33. A significant portion of receivables due from a group of customers with a shared characteristic that is likely to be affected in a similar manner by changes in economic conditions is referred to as a concentration of credit risk.

A)True

B)False

Ans: A

34. A controlling account is a general ledger account that summarizes the content of a specific subsidiary ledger.

A)True

B)False

Ans: A

35.  A method for accounting for uncollectible receivables in which no expense is recognized until individual accounts are determined to be worthless is the income statement method.

A)True

B)False

Ans: B

36. A person or entity who issues a promissory note is referred to as an issuer.

A)True

B)False

Ans: B

37. When using the balance sheet method of estimated uncollectible accounts, the amount determined to be uncollectible is the amount that will be reported as bad debts expense on the income statement.

A)True

B)False

Ans: B

38. Selling a note receivable prior to its maturity date is referred to as the discount on notes receivable.

A)True

B)False

Ans: B

39. Conservatism avoids overstatement of financial strength and earnings.

A)True

B)False

Ans: A

40. Which is the appropriate way to disclose the credit card expense on the income statement?

a. as an addition to sales

b. as a selling expense

c. as an administrative expense

d. as part of cost of goods sold

Ans: b

41. When a firm writes off a bad debt under the allowance method of accounting for bad debts

a. the realizable value of accounts receivable decreases

b. total net current assets will decrease

c. the cash account will decrease

d. the realizable value of accounts receivable will not change

Ans: d

42. When a firm collects (recovers) an account receivable that was previously written off under the allowance method of accounting for bad debts,

a. the realizable value of accounts receivable will decrease

b. the cash account will decrease by the full amount of the recovery

c. the allowance account will decrease by the amount collected

d. the realizable value of accounts receivable will increase

Ans: a

43. The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account has a year-end credit balance, prior to adjustment, of $450. The bad debts are estimated at 3% of $650,000, the net credit sales. After the appropriate adjusting entry for bad debts, the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts should have a credit balance of

a. $19,500

b. $19,950

c. $19,050

d. $20,400

Ans: b

44. The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account has a year-end credit balance, prior to adjustment of $500. The bad debts are estimated at 7% of $60,000 of outstanding accounts receivable. After the appropriate adjusting entry to recognize the bad debt expense, the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts should have a ___________ credit balance.

a. $4,200

b. $3,200

c. $3,700

d. $5,200

Ans: a

45. Which accounting principle or concept permits the direct write-off method of accounting for bad debts?

a. full-disclosure principle

b. business entity concept

c. matching principle

d. materiality principle

Ans: d

46. A firm using the allowance method of accounting for bad debts expense has recovered a bad debt that was written off one year ago. The appropriate journal entry to record the recovery would include a

a. credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account

b. debit to the Bad Debt Expense account

c. credit to the Bad Debt Expense account

d. debit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account

Ans: a

47. On July 18, a firm received from one of its customers, Algo Rythym, a written promise to pay the firm $1,200, at 12% interest, on September 17, for merchandise that Algo had purchased from the firm. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Algo is the payee of the note

b. the firm is the maker of the note

c. the firm is the endorser of the note

d. Algo is the maker of the note

Ans: d

48. A 90-day, 11%, promissory note that is dated June 13 will have a maturity date of

a. September 11

b. September 10

c. September 9

d. September 8

Ans: a

49. The interest on a $1,500, 15%, 4-month note is

a. $7.50

b. $75.00

c. $1,575.00

d. $225.00

Ans: b

50. Which of the following is not true with regard to a $3,000, 14%, 90-day note that is dishonored?

a. an account receivable is charged with the maturity value of the note

b. the Interest Earned account is credited

c. the Notes Receivable account is credited for the maturity value

d. interest may be charged on the outstanding balance

Ans: c

51. A $10,000, 12%, 60-day note receivable is received on January 12. The note is discounted at 12% on January 18. The maturity value of the note is

a. $10,000

b. $10,100

c. $10,200

d. $11,200

Ans: c

52. A $10,000, 12%, 60-day note receivable is received on January 12. The note is discounted at 12% on January 18. The proceeds of the note will be

a. $10,000.00

b. $10,016.40

c. $10,184.60

d. $11,200.00

Ans: b

53. This File is use to enter billing rates and ceilings for each labor category on T&M contracts  and to enter labor hour budgets by category for all types of contract.

 

A. T&M Billing Rates File

B. Labor Category File

C. Contract Workforce File

Ans: a

 

54. Select which applies – this Revenue Basis option in Contract Master File, billings must be computed and posted to GL before you compute the revenue.

 

A. Normal Method

B. Based on Billings

C. Based on GL

Ans: b

55. This is used to initialize some or all of the year-to-date current year’s billing amounts for CPFF and Fixed Price Contract.

 

A. Prior Year’s Billable Data

B. Current Year’s Billable Data

C. Billng Master File

Ans: b

56. True or False. Billings can be computed as frequently as required.

 

A. True

B. False

Ans: a

 

57. This details the timesheet dates, hours, billed amounts, billing rate and labor category of each employee who has charged to a specific contract within a range of timesheet dates. This is also use as supporting document for T&M billing.

 

A. Labor Detail by Category

B. T&M Supporting Schedule

C. Certificate of Performance – Labor

Ans: b

 

58. All prior year billing amounts for T&M contracts, including billings in the current year, should be entered in Current Year’s Billable Data file.  True or False 

 

A. True

B. False

Ans: b

59. Check which applies if you do not wish the provisional billing rate percentage to appear on the billings for the contract/task.

 

A. Suppress none

B. Suppress provisional billing rates

C. Suppress all

Ans: b

 

60. This is a three-line billing description that will print at the top of the bill. This description includes prime and other contract number, billing address and contract/task name.

 

A. Header Information

B. Contract Information

C. Budget Information

Ans: a

61. Where does the address that prints on bills defaults from?

 

A. GL Control File

B. Contract Control File

C. AR Control File

Ans: A

62. On June 1, $800 of goods are sold with credit terms of 1/10, n/30. How much should the seller expect to receive if the buyer pays on June 8?

A. $720

B. $784

C. $792

D. $800

Ans: C

63. On June 1, $800 of goods are sold with credit terms of 1/10, n/30. On June 3 the customer returned $100 of the goods. How much should the seller expect to receive if the buyer pays on June 8?

A. $692

B. $693

C. $700

D. $792

Ans: B

64. With credit terms of 2/10, n/30, the annual interest rate for paying in 10 days instead of 30 days is closest to

A. 2%

B. 24%

C. 30%

D. 36%

Ans: D

65. A company estimates that $20,000 of its $500,000 of accounts receivable will be uncollectible. Its Allowance for Doubtful Accounts presently has a credit balance of $8,000. The adjusting entry will include a ___________________ to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts.

A. debit of $12,000

B. credit of $12,000

C.debit of $28,000

D. credit of $28,000

Ans: B

66. A company estimates that $20,000 of its $500,000 of accounts receivable will be uncollectible. Its Allowance for Doubtful Accounts presently has a credit balance of $18,000. The adjusting entry will include a ____________________ to Bad Debts Expense. 

A. debit of $2,000

B. credit of $2,000

C. debit of $38,000

D. credit of $38,000

Ans: A

67. Accounts receivable are reported on the balance sheet at their fair market value.

A. True

B. False

Ans: B

68. Under the allowance method the write-off of an account receivable leaves the net realizable value of the accounts receivable unchanged. 

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

69. The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is written off at the end of the fiscal year.

A. True

B. False

Ans: B

70. The direct write-off method violates the matching principle. 

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

71. Notes receivable are reported at their net realizable value. 

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

72. In determining an optimal credit extension policy, which of the following controllable variables should a company’s financial manager consider?

a. Collection effort, credit standards, and multilateral netting.

b. Credit standards, credit terms, and collection effort.

c. Credit terms, credit standards, and inventory cycle.

d. Credit terms, credit standards, and lead time.

Ans: B

73. ________ are criteria a company uses to screen credit applicants in order to determine which of its customers should be offered credit and how much.

a. Carrying costs

b. Ordering costs

c. Credit standards

d. Stockout costs

Ans: C

74. The quality of credit extended to customers is a multidimensional concept involving which of the following?

a. Average collection period.

b. Bad-debt loss ratio.

c. a and b.

d. None of the above.

Ans: C

75. Which of the following is not a commonly used method to collect payments on past due accounts?

a. Sending notices.

b. Taking legal action.

c. Determining the applicant’s credit worthiness.

d. Employing a collection agency.

Ans: C

76. Information for evaluating the creditworthiness of a customer is available form a variety of sources, including

a. banks.

b. credit reporting organizations.

c. financial statements submitted by the customer.

d. All of the above.

Ans: D

77. Which of the following is part of the five C’s of capital?

a. Character, capital and conditions.

b. Capital, conditions, and cash discount.

c. Capital, collateral, and credit period.

d. None of the above.

Ans: A

78. Manufacturing firms generally hold three types of inventory:

a. raw material, stockout, and finished goods.

b. work-in-process, finished goods, and just-in-time inventory.

c. Just-in-time inventory, raw materials inventory, and finished goods inventory.

d. Raw materials, work-in-process, and finished goods inventories.

Ans: D

79. Which of the following is not an inventory related cost?

a. Ordering costs.

b. Variable costs.

c. Stockout prices.

d. Carrying costs.

Ans: B

 

80. The basic EOQ model makes a number of assumptions, including:

a. fluctuating demand.

b. uncertain lead times.

c. zero lead-time.

d. None of the above.

Ans: C

81. Probabilistic inventory control models require consideration of the possibility of ________.

a. stockouts

b. seasonal dating

c. an inventory cycle

d. carrying costs

Ans: A

82. Rich Corporation’s annual carrying costs are 25 percent of the inventory value. The product cost is $85 a unit and they can replenish inventory instantaneously. The cost of placing an order is $55. If Rich Corporation plans to sell 5,000 units next year, what should be their economic order quantity?

a. 5,000 units.

b. 114 units.

c. 81 units.

d. 161 units.

Ans: D

83. Wing Corporation’s annual carrying costs are 25 percent of the inventory value. The product cost is $65 a unit. The cost of placing an order is $100, and the EOQ is 785 units. If the corporation plans to sell 50,000 units next year, what should be the total annual ordering and carrying costs?

a. $12,748

b. $31,882

c. $6,442

d. $2,506,378

Ans: A

84. The basic EOQ model assumes that orders to replenish the inventory of an item are filled instantaneously.

a. True

b. False

Ans: A

85. If the lead-time is constant and known with certainty, the optimal order quantity and the time when an order should be placed are not affected.

a. True.

b. False.

Ans: B

86. The amount of information a business can collect on a credit application is limited only by the cost consideration.

a. True.

b. False.

Ans: B

87. Under the Allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts, an adjusting entry is made each period debiting Bad Debts Expense and crediting

a.  Accounts Receivable

b.  Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

c.  Cash

d.  None of these

Ans: b

88. The dollar amount for the adjusting entry referred to in item 1 could be considered:

a.  the actual amount of bad debts expense incurred in the previous period.

b.  the total of the accounts actually written off this period.

c.  an estimate of the accounts likely to become uncollectible in the near future.

d.  the cash paid out to collection agencies to put pressure on non-paying customers.

Ans: c

89. The estimate of bad debts can be based on either a percentage of net sales, or:

a.  a percentage of aged receivables.

b.  a percentage of actual bad debts deemed uncollectible last period.

c.  a percentage of next month’s anticipated sales.

d.  None of these

Ans: a

90. Johnson has Accounts Receivable of $100,000 and Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $5,000; its sales this year were $300,000. The cash realizable value of the receivables is:

a.  $200,000

b.  $100,000

c.  $95,000

d.  None of these

Ans: c

91. When an account is written off, Accounts Receivable will be credited. Under the Allowance method, the debit will go to:

a.  Bad Debts Expense

b.  Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

c.  Cash

d.  None of these

Ans: b

92. If a VISA card is accepted from the customer for payment, the debit should be to:

a. Accounts Receivable.

b. Sales.

c. Cash

d.  None of these.

Ans: c

93. Johnson receives a 3-month 6% note from a customer in the amount of $1,000. At maturity, the note will have earned how much interest?

a.  $60

b.  $5

c.  $15

d.  None of these

Ans: c

94. Johnson receives a 60-day note on June 2. The maturity date of the note will be:

a.  June 30

b.  August 1

c.  July 30

d.  None of these

Ans: b

95. Accounts Receivable turnover is calculated by dividing:

a.  Net credit Sales by Average Accounts Receivable

b.  Average Accounts Receivable by Net Sales

c.  Average Accounts Receivable by Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

d.  None of these

Ans: a

96. Johnson computes bad debts as a percentage of sales. If 2% of sales amounts to $2,000 and the Allowance account currently has a balance of $900, the bad debts adjustment should be in the amount of:

a.  $2,000

b.  $2,900

c.  $1100

d.  None of these

Ans: a

97. Warren computes bad debts as a percent of accounts receivable. The ADA account has a credit balance of $900. If an aging reveals that bad debts are estimated at $3000, the bad debts adjustment should be in the amount of:

a.  $2100

b.  $3900

c.  $3000

d.  None of these

Ans: a

98.  The adjustment for accruing interest on a note receivable requires a debit to Interest Receivable and a credit to:

a.  Notes Receivable

b.  Cash

c.  Interest Revenue

d.  None of these

Ans: c

 

99. All of the following statements are true regarding bad debts expense except

a. When using the income statement method, we concentrate on percentage of net credit sales.

b. When using the balance sheet method, the percentage of net credit sales is not considered.

c. Calculation of bad debts expense is required at least once a year when a company has receivables.

d. All of the above are correct.

Ans: d

100. All of the following are valid bad debts expense assumptions except

a. percentage of receivables method

b. direct write off method

c. percentage of sales method

d. treat bad debts as unusual items that do not often occur

Ans: d

Best LoadRunner Multiple choice Questions and Answers

LoadRunner Objective Questions Pdf Download for Exam LoadRunner MCQs. These objective type LoadRunner questions are very important for campus placement test and job interviews. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many IT companies.

1. What is the programming term for a series of statements grouped together to perform a specific task

A. Variable 

B. Function 

C. Select operator 

D. Statement 

Ans: B

2. You want to create a Microsoft Word document for your web (HTTP/HTML) script that provides a list of transactions, rendezvous, parameters and step descriptions. How can this be accomplished?

A. Create a Business Process Report in VuGen 

B. Create a Microsoft Word Report from Analysis 

C. Select the option to export .usr file to a Microsoft Word document 

D. Copy the information in the .usr file, and paste it into a Microsoft Word document 

Ans: A

 

3. Which operator is used for AND?

A. || 

B. — 

C. && 

D. ++ 

Ans: C

 

4. What is the programming term for different values at different times?

A. Variable 

B. Function 

C. Select operator 

D. Constant 

Ans: A

 

5. What is the purpose of the strcat function?

A. Joins two strings 

B. Compares two strings 

C. Returns the length of a string 

D. Copies one string to another string 

Ans: A

 

6. Which function marks the ending of a measurement of elapsed time?

A. lr_end_transaction 

B. web_end_transaction 

C. lr_complete_transaction 

D. web_complete_transaction 

Ans: A

 

7. Which function allows you to capture dynamic values returned from the server?

A. web_reg_find 

B. web_reg_save_find 

C. web_reg_save_value 

D. web_reg_save_param 

Ans: D

 

8. What is the output of the following code snippet?

A. 7 

B. 8 

C. 9 

D. 10 

Ans: A

 

9. Which type of script is a higher level that records in Browser or Context Sensitive mode when using the web protocol in VuGen?

A. URL 

B. HTML 

C. ANSI C 

D. Winsock 

Ans: B

 

10. You have created several new Auto Correlation rules. A new tester on your team is preparing to record a group of scripts on the same application on his workstation. What can you do to provide the tester with the correlation rules?

A. You do not need to do anything. Auto Correlation rules are global and are available to all testers using the same Controller machine 

B. Under the File menu, you select Zip Operations, then export to a zip file. You have the new tester import the file into his script. 

C. The Auto Correlation rules are saved in the script main folder. You create a share so the other tester has access to the script main folder 

D. You export the Auto Correlation rules to a .cor file, and then have the new team member import the .cor file into his Auto Correlation rules

Ans:  D 

 

11. What must you do before attempting to automatically correlate after recording?

A. Enable the Auto Correlation feature 

B. Play back the script at least one time 

C. Ensure the snapshots are visible in the Tree view 

D. Add the web_auto_correlation function to the global.h section 

Ans: B 

 

12. For debugging purposes, you would like to show a browser during replay. Where do you enable this option?

A. General options 

B. Playback options 

C. Run-time settings 

D. Recording options 

Ans: A

 

13. When performing a manual correlation, where do you search for the dynamic value?

A. Script view 

B. Recording Log 

C. Tree view -> Client Request 

D. Tree view -> Server Response 

Ans: D 

 

14. When do you need to add correlation to your script?

A. Prior to every test run 

B. Any time you need to vary user input data 

C. Any time there are multiple page loads in a script 

D. Any time dynamic data returned from the server appears in the script

Ans:  D

 

15. What is the purpose of the atoi function?

A. Retrieves the length of a string 

B. Concatenates two string values 

C. Converts a string to an integer value 

D. Converts an integer to a string value 

Ans: C

 

16. What is the programming term for a value that cannot be changed?

A. Variable 

B. Select operator 

C. Constant 

D. Statement 

Ans: C

 

17. Where should you add a web_reg_save_param function to a script?

A. In the global.h section 

B. Before the step that contains the dynamic value 

C. Before the step that retrieves the dynamic value 

D. At the beginning of the action section that contains the dynamic value 

Ans: C 

 

18. You want to emulate a call center for an airline. All representatives login in the morning, perform their business processes, and log out at night. In one day, a representative will Create 40 flight reservations, Modify 10 flight reservations, and Sea 

A. Create – 67% Search – 16% Block0 – 17% Search Modify 

B. Create – 57% Search – 29% Block0 – 14% Search Modify 

C. Create – 57% Search – 29% Modify – 14% 

D. Create – 67% Search – 16% Modify – 17% 

Ans: A

 

19. Which function allows you to register a search for a text string for the next Action function?

A. web_reg_text 

B. web_reg_find 

C. web_reg_save_find 

D. web_reg_save_param 

Ans: B

 

20. You want to have your script always check for the following text on every page: “Sorry. Portlet is currently unavailable. Please try again later”. What is the most efficient way to accomplish this?

A. Create a ContentCheck rule for the text 

B. Add an Environment Check for the text 

C. Add a text area checkpoint on every page 

D. Add a verification checkpoint on every page 

Ans: A

 

21. Which section in a VuGen script is executed only one time, during Vuser initialization?

A. Login 

B. Action 

C. vuser_init 

D. vuser_end 

Ans: C

 

22. During which stage is it recommended that the visual cues for verification be established?

A. During the scripting stage 

B. During the planning stage 

C. During the recording stage 

D. During the execution stage 

Ans: B

 

23. Which function marks the beginning of a measurement of elapsed time?

A. lr_start_transaction 

B. lr_begin_transaction 

C. web_start_transaction 

D. web_begin_transaction 

Ans: A 

 

24. You want to have each step in your script measured as a transaction in the Controller and not shown in the Replay Log in VuGen. How can you accomplish this?

A. Enable the automatic transaction in the Run-time settings 

B. Manually add transactions to each step from the Tree view 

C. Add a transaction to each page, using the transactions sub-task 

D. Select the option from the Tools menu to add transaction to each step in the Script view 

Ans: A

 

25. You want to send a message to the log file, Replay Log, and Controller Output window. Which function should you use?

A. lr_log_message 

B. lr_error_message 

C. lr_set_debug_level 

D. lr_vuser_status_message 

Ans: B

 

26. What is used as an end-to-end measurement of time elapsed when one or more steps in a business process have been completed?

A. Action 

B. Function 

C. Component 

D. Transaction 

Ans: D

 

27. Which web protocol recording level generates the web_submit_form function?

A. ICA 

B. URL 

C. RDP 

D. HTML 

Ans: D

 

28. Which arithmetic operator is used to increment the value of a variable by one?

A. || 

B. — 

C. && 

D. ++ 

Ans: D

 

29. One reason for parameterizing data in a script is to vary one value for an object when another object on the application changes. A common example is username and password. Varying the username requires you to change the password. What is this type of 

A. Data Caching 

B. Date Constraint 

C. Unique Constraint 

D. Data Dependency 

Ans: D

 

30. Where do you define an Auto Correlation rule?

A. Test settings 

B. General options 

C. Run-time settings 

D. Recording options 

Ans: D

 

31. Which run-time setting node is available to all protocols?

A. General 

B. Browser 

C. Network 

D. Internet Protocol

Ans:  A

 

32. What is the first stage of load testing process?

A.  Plan the load test 

B.  Create the scenario 

C.  Execute the scenario 

D.  Create VuGen scripts 

Ans: A

 

33. When analyzing a technical aspect of a system under test, which group is a helpful source of information?

A.  End users 

B.  Functional experts 

C.  Application experts 

D.  Corporate executives 

Ans: C

 

34. Which file type has an extension .lrr?

A.  Script 

B.  Results 

C.  Analysis 

D.  Scenario 

Ans: B

 

35. You are a LoadRunner expert consultant and have been assigned to a client that needs to performance test an application that has not yet been released. How can you obtain information about the application anticipated load?

A.  Estimate how the application will be used 

B.  Obtain the necessary information from web logs 

C.  Look in the application’s database to determine the anticipated load 

D.  Consult with the business experts to determine the anticipated load 

Ans: D

 

36. Which LoadRunner component runs the vuser that generates the load?

A.  VuGen 

B.  Analysis 

C.  Controller 

D.  Load Generator/host 

Ans: D

 

37. You are running a 3-tier web application. With which component must the load generator(s) communicate?

A.  VuGen 

B.  Analysis 

C.  Controller 

D.  Database server 

Ans: C

 

38. Which statement is an example of a conceptual goal?

A.  The application’s update function should still work under heavy load 

B.  The update transaction must attain 200 concurrent users during peak time 

C.  The search transaction should respond within 5 seconds during normal usage 

D.  The login transaction should respond within 4 seconds or less during heavy usage 

Ans: A

 

39. Which term defines the end-to-end measurement of time when one or more steps are completed?

A.  Transaction. 

B.  Action section 

C.  Business Process 

D.  Business Verification.

Ans:  A

 

40. During the analysis of a scenario, you realize that the hits per second become flat as Vusers continue to increase. What is likely to cause?

A.  A bandwidth problem 

B.  A database server problem 

C.  A web server connection problem 

D.  An application server connection problem 

Ans: C

 

41. Which scenario type helps you plan for future growth and provides a safety factor with the application?

A.  Debug 

B.  Full Load 

C.  Top Time 

D.  Scalability 

Ans: C

 

42. What is an example of a stress test?

A.  Purchasing at an e-commerce site 

B.  Updating orders on a client/server system 

C.  Viewing upcoming flight itineraries on a flight reservation application 

D.  Displaying the home page immediately after a marketing promotion has been run 

Ans: D

 

43. What is the first indication of a performance problem?

A.  The network delay time is above 15ms. 

B.  The DNS is not resolving the machine name. 

C.  The Web server’s available memory drops below 1 GB. 

D.  The end user experiences higher than expected response time 

Ans: D

 

44. You are meeting a new LoadRunner customer. The application under test is a call center application used by the customer representatives. The representatives are located in Phoenix, AZ and Columbus, OH. A large customer base resides in Flagstaff, AZ an

A.  Phoenix, AZ 

B.  Flagstaff, AZ 

C.  Cincinnati, OH 

D.  Washington, DC 

Ans: A

 

45. Which file defines the Vusers to execute, the number of Vusers to run, the goals of the test, the computer that hosts the Vusers, and the conditions under which to run the load test?

A.  Script 

B.  Group 

C.  Session 

D.  Scenario 

Ans: D

 

46. What is an external data source?

A.  User ID 

B.  Password 

C.  E-mail address 

D.  Purchase order number 

Ans: D

 

47. What are the main types of service level agreements available in the Controller and Analysis?

A.  Per Time Interval 

B.  Errors per Second 

C.  Average Hits per Run 

D.  Average Throughput per Run 

Ans: A

 

48. Which performance test objective is met when determining the cause of performance degradation?

A.  Reliability 

B.  Regression 

C.  Acceptance 

D.  Bottleneck identification 

Ans: D

 

49. What is NOT an advantages of using automated load tests over manual load tests?

A.  Repeatability 

B.  Easier to scale 

C.  Improved validity 

D.  Increased hardware resources 

Ans: D

 

50. Which tool is used to manage and maintain a scenario?

A.  VuGen 

B.  Analysis 

C.  Controller 

D.  Load generator 

Ans: C

 

51. Which Analysis graph details transaction response times throughout the test?

A.  Transactions per Second 

B.  Average Transaction Response Time 

C.  Transaction Response Time Under Load 

D.  Transaction Response Time (distribution) 

Ans: B

 

52. Which types of reports can be automatically generated in the Analysis tool?

A.  Adobe PDF 

B.  MS Excel 

C.  MS Word 

D.  Crystal Report 

Ans: A

 

53. Which graph can analyze each web page component’s relative server and network time?

A.  Throughput 

B.  Windows Resources 

C.  Time to First Buffer Breakdown 

D.  Transaction Performance Summary 

Ans: C

 

54. What does the image shown in the exhibit represent?

A.  Auto Correlation 

B.  Service Level Agreement 

C.  Transaction Performance Summary 

D.  Transaction Response Time (distribution)

Ans:  B

 

55. Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to focus on a specific measurement within your graph?

A.  Drill Down 

B.  Apply Filter 

C.  Merge Graphs 

D.  Auto Correlate 

Ans: A

 

56. Which Analysis graph identifies web pages that take the most time; isolates where time is spent; and helps in identifying DNS resolution, SSL, and connection issues?

A.  Windows Resource 

B.  Network Delay Time 

C.  Time to First Buffer Breakdown 

D.  Page Download Time Breakdown 

Ans: D

 

57. You are running a test and notice that during the ramp up, the response times are beginning to drastically increase. How can you instruct LoadRunner to stop ramping up Vusers and hold the current number?

A.  Press the STOP button on the Controller’s main window 

B.  Press the PAUSE button on the Interactive Schedule graph 

C.  Select the option to wait for the current iteration to end before stopping 

D.  Select the Vusers in the Ready state from the Vusers window and click the STOP button 

Ans: B

 

58. During the run of a scenario, which LoadRunner component stores the performance monitoring data?

A.  Analysis 

B.  Controller 

C.  File server 

D.  Load generator/host 

Ans: B

 

59. Which scenario allows LoadRunner to automatically manage the Vusers?

A.  Manual 

B.  Goal-oriented 

C.  User-Defined 

D.  Session 

Ans: B

 

60. Which scenario execution run is used to verity the load limit before more resources are required?

A.  Debug 

B.  Full Load 

C.  Top Time 

D.  Scalability 

Ans: D