Orthopedics Multiple Choice Questions
1. Peripheral and central chemoreceptors may both contribute to the increased ventilation that occurs as a result of which of the following?
A. A decrease in arterial oxygen content
B. A decrease in arterial blood pressure
C. An increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension
D. A decrease in arterial oxygen tension
Answer: C
2. Wireless capsule endoscopy is done to visualize which of the following condition?
A. Esophageal varices
B. Gastric carcinoma
C. Crohn’s disease
D. Ulcerative colitis
Answer: C
3. Thomas test is used for testing?
A. Hip flexion
B. Knee flexion
C. Hip abduction
D. Hip rotation
Answer: A
4. Indication for surgical compartment release in compartment Syndrome in any compartment is absolute pressure greater than?
A. 15 mm Hg
B. 20 mm Hg
C. 30 mm Hg
D. Varies from compartment to compartment
Answer: C
5. Which of the following is caused by congenital 17 hydroxylase deficiency:
A. Hyperkalaemia
B. Hermaphroditism
C. Hypertension
D. Virilism
Answer: C
6. True about lumbricals is
A. Flex IP joints and extends MCP joint
B. 1st and 2nd supplied by radial nerve
C. 3 and 4 supplied by superficial branch of ulnar
D. Origin from tendons of flexor digitorum profundus
Answer: D
7. In patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy maximum mutations are found in which gene:
A. . β – myosin heavy chain
B. Elastin
C. . α – tropomyosin
D. Troponin T
Answer: A
8. What is the venous haematocrit level at which you will diagnose polycythaemia in a new-born?
A. 55%
B. 60%
C. 65%
D. 70%
Answer: C
9. The significance of difference between proportions can also be tested by
A .‘t’ test
B. Chi square test
C. ANOVA
D. Correlation and regression
Answer: B
10. Which is not true of Tabes dorsalis?
A. Seen in neuro syphilis
B. Paraesthesia is seen
C. Deep tendon reflexes are retained
D. Abdominal pain and visceral symptoms occur
Answer: C
11. Vitamin not deficient in celiac disease is?
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin B 12
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin A
Answer: C
12. A Bone marrow transplant recipient patientdeveloped chest infection. On HRCT ‘Tree in bud appearance’ is seen. Most likely causative agent is:
A. Klebsiella
B. Pneumocystis
C. TB
D. RSV
Answer: B
13. Cause of vasodilatation in spider nevi
A. Estrogen
B. Testosterone
C. Hepatot oxins
D. FSH
Answer: A
14. Strawberry gingivitis seen in
A. Myelocytic infiltration
B. Phenytoin toxicity
C. Wegner granulomatosis
D. Klipel renaunay syndrome
Answer: C
15. Which of the following is true of Wilson’s disease all except
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Serum ceruloplasmin level < 20 mg/d1
C. Urinary coppor excretion < 100 microgram/c11
D. Zinc acetate is used as maintence therapy
Answer: C
16. All are true about thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura except?
A. Micro angiopathic hemolytic anemia
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Normal complement level
D. Grossly abnormal coagulation tests
Answer: D
17. Most common organism associated with reactive arthritis is:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Shigella
C. Chlamydia
D. Yersinia
Answer: C
18. Absence of Corpus callosum leads to
A. Hemiparesis
B. Hemisensory loss
C. Astereognosis
D. No neurological manifestations
Answer: D
19. Water hammer pulse seen in
A. >Aortic stenosis
B. >Aortic regurgitation
C. >Aortic stenosis and Aortic regurgitation
D. >Mitral regurgitation
Answer: B
20. Interstitial nephritis is seen with all except
A. Beta lactam inhibitors
B. INH
C. Diuretics
D. Allopurinol
Answer: B
22. Tension band wiring is indicated in fracture of which of the following ?
A. Fracture humerus
B. Olecranon
C. Fracture tibia
D. Fracture spine
Answer: B
23. Which of the following attitude will be seen in a patient with posterior dislocation of hip?
A. Flexion, Abduction, Internal rotation
B. Flexion, Adduction, Internal rotation
C. Flexion, Abduction, External rotation
D. Flexion, Adduction, External rotation
Answer: B
24. Which of the following is/are true about perthes disease?
1. Avascular necrosis of femoral head
2. Onset before 10 years of age
3. Osteotomy is used for treatment
4. Limb shortening
A. 1,2 true & 3,4 false
B. 2,3 True & 1,4 false
C. 1,2,3 true & 4 false
D. All are true
Answer: D
25. Blount’s disease is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Genu varum
B. Genu Recurvatum
C. Internal Tibial Torsion
D. External Tibial Torsion
Answer: D
26. Brown tumors are seen in:
A. Hypeparathyroidism
B. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
C. Osteomalacia
D. Neurofibromatosis
Answer: A
27. Lift off test is done to assess the function of:
A. Supraspinatus
B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres Minor
D. Subscapularis
Answer: D
28. The most common bone fractured during birth
A. Clavicle
B. Scapula
C. Radius
D. Humerus
Answer: A
29. The malunion of supracondylar fracture of the humerus most commonly leads to:
A. Flexion deformity
B. Cubitus varus
C. Cubitus valgus
D. Extension deformity
Answer: B
30. Treatment of choice in Acute myositis ossificans is:
A. Immobilization of elbow
B. Short wave diathermy
C. Passive movements of arm
D. Active exercises
Answer: A
31. Pulled Elbow is:
A. Disarticulation of elbow
B. Disarticulation of elbow
C. Subluxation of proximal radio ulnar joint
D. None of the above
Answer: C
32. In Monteggia fracture, which is true about ulnar fracture and head of radius
A. Both ulnar fracture and head of radius is displaced posteriorly
B. Both ulnar fracture and head of radius is displaced anteriorly
C. Ulnar fractures is posteriorly and head of radius is displaced anteriorly
D. Ulnar fracture is anteriorly and head of radius is displaced posteriorly
Answer: B
33. The most common complication of intracapsular fracture neck of femur is
A. Mal union
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Non-Union
D. Shortening
Answer: C
34. AVN is seen in which type of # of femur:
A. Intertrochantric #
B. Subcapital #
C. Trans cervical #
D. B AND C
Answer: D
35. Vascular sign of Narath is noticed in
A. Fracture neck of femur
B. Perthes disease
C. Posterior dislocation of hip
D. All of the above
Answer: C
36. Seat belt injury is
A. Tear drop fracture
B. Wedge fracture
C. Chance fracture
D. Whiplash injury
Answer: C
37.Which part of the spine is most commonly affected in Rheumatoid arthritis:
A. Cervical
B. Lumbar
C. Thoracic
D. Sacral
Answer: A
38. Complications of elbow dislocation are all EXCEPT:[March 2004]
A. Vascular injury
B. Median nerve injury
C. Myositis ossificans
D. Radial nerve injury
Answer: D
39. True regarding Monteggia fracture is:[March 2007, March 2013 (a, b, d, f)]
A. Upper ulnar fracture & dislocated radial head
B. Upper radial fracture & dislocated ulna
C. Lower radial fracture & dislocated ulna
D. Lower ulnar fracture & dislocated radius
Answer: A
40. March fracture is fracture of:[September 2007]
A. Calcaneus
B. 2nd metatarsal
C. Distal fibula
D. Proximal tibia
Answer: B
41. Most common type of shoulder dislocation is:
March 2011
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Inferior
D. Superior
Answer: B
42. Felon/ Whitlow is:[September 2012]
A. Midpalamr space infection
B. Terminal pulp space infection
C. Infection of the ulnar bursa
D. Infection of the radial bursa
Answer: B
43. Swan neck deformity is seen in:
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Reiter’s syndrome
Answer: B
44. Perthe’s disease is Osteochondritis of the epiphysis of the:[March 2013 (g)]
A. Capitulum
B. Lunate
C. Femoral head
D. Calacaneal tuberosity
Answer: C
45. Best diagnostic modality to diagnose avascular necrosis is:[March 2007]
A. MRI scan
B. CT scan
C. X-ray
D. USG
Answer: A
46. Cubital tunnel syndrome involves:[March 2013 (c, f)]
A. Radial nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Axillary nerve
Answer: B
47. Foot drop occurs due to the involvement of:[September 2006, March 2013 (b, f g, h)]
A. Sciatic nerve
B. Direct injury to the dorsiflexors
C. Common peroneal nerve palsy
D. All of the above
Answer: D
48. Most common nerve injured in fracture of medial epicondyle of humerus is:[March 2007]
A. Radial nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
Answer: B
49. Waddling gait due to:[March 2009]
A. Bilateral congenital dysplasia of hip
B. Coxa valga
C. CTEV
D. Bilateral coxa valgum
Answer: A
50. Knuckle bender splint is used for:[September 2009]
A. Ulnar nerve palsy
B. Radial nerve palsy
C. Median nerve palsy
D. Axillary nerve palsy
Answer: A
51. Maximum weight that can be given with skeletal traction is:[September 2009]
A. 5 kg
B. 10 kg
C. 15 kg
D. 20 kg
Answer: D
52. Cock up splint is used in treatment of ?
A. Radial nerve palsy
B. Ulnar nerve palsy
C. Median nerve palsy
D. Posterior interosseous nerve palsy
Answer: A
53. Froment’s sign is positive in cases of weakness of ?
A. Thumb adduction
B. Thumb abduction
C. Thumb flexion
D. Thumb extension
Answer: A
54. Most common cause of amputation in India is ?
A. Diabetic gangrene
B. Gas gangrene
C. Road traffic accident
D. Tumors
Answer: C
55. All are true about colles fracture except ?
A. In old age
B. Dorsal shift
C. At cortico-cancellous junction
D. Garden spade deformity
Answer: D
56. Most common type of supra condylar fracture in children ?
A. Posteromedial extension
B. Posterolateral extension
C. Anteromedial flexion
D. Anterolateral flexion
Answer: A
57. Most common joint involved in gout is ?
A. Knee
B. Hip
C. MP joint of great toe
D. MP joint of thumb
Answer: C
58. Which of the following structure are not normally visualized during the arthroscopy of the knee?
A. Meniscus
B. Cruciate ligaments
C. Collateral ligaments
D. Patella articular surface
Answer: C
59. Not a complication of fracture neck of femur ?
A. Non-union
B. Malunion
C. AVN
D. Osteoarthritis
Answer: B
60. Most common site of metastasis in skeleton ?
A. Femur
B. Tibia
C. Vertebrae
D. Skull
Answer: C
61. Perkin’s line on X-ray is used for diagnosis of
A. Perthe’s disease
B. CDH
C. CTEV
D. AVN Hip
Answer: B
62. Which joint is most commonly affected in pseudogout
A. Knee
B. Hip
C. MP joint great toe
D. MP joint thumb
Answer: A
63. Loose body in joint most common site is
A. Knee
B. Hip
C. Elbow
D. Ankle
Answer: A
64. Investigation of choice for entrapment neuropathy is ?
A. CT SCAN
B. Clinical examination
C. Ulrasonography
D. EMG NCV
Answer: D
65. Posterior gliding of tibia on femur is prevented by ?
A. Anterior cruciate ligament
B. Posterior cruciate ligament
C. Medial collateral ligament
D. Lateral collateral ligament
Answer: B
66. Cozen’s test is used for the diagnosis of ?
A. Tennis elbow
B. Golfer’s elbow
C. Base baller’s pitcher elbow
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Answer: A
67. Most common site for the osteoporotic vertebral fracture is ?
A. Dorsolumbar spine
B. Cervical spine
C. Lumbosacral spine
D. Dorsal spine
Answer: A
68. Sunray appearance on X – ray is seen in ?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Osteochondroma
C. Osteoclastoma
D. Chondroblastoma
Answer: A
69. Puttiplat operation is done for ?
A. Elbow instability
B. Shoulder instability
C. Rotator cuff tear
D. Biceps Tendinitis
Answer: B
70. Lachmann’s test is used for ?
A. ACL injury
B. PCL injury
C. MCL injury
D. LCL injury
Answer: A
71. Infection of ulnar bursa is diagnosed by
A. Kanavel’s sign
B. Chowstek’s sign
C. Gower’s sign
D. Ludloff’s sign
Answer: A
72. Ring shaped epiphyses is seen in ?
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Morquios syndrome
C. Zellweger syndrome
D. Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
Answer: A
73. Development of Chondrosarcomas is related with?
A. Maffucci syndrome
B. Felty syndrome
C. a and b both
D. None of the above
Answer: A
74. CASPAR criteria is used in diagnosis of ?
A. Psoriatic arthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Ankyosing spondylitis
D. Reactive synnovitis
Answer: A
75. Drug of choice for the treatment of acute gout in patients in whom NSAIDs are contraindicated is?
A. Colchicine
B. Allopurinol
C. Xyloric acid
D. Paracetamol
Answer: A
76. Causes of painful arc syndrome is/ are ?
A. Supraspinatus tendinitis
B. Subacromial bursitis
C. Fracture of greater tuberosity
D. All the above
Answer: D
77. Fat embolism syndrome is most commonly seen after ?
A. Femur fracture
B. Acetabular fracture
C. Pelvis fracture
D. Calcaneal fracture
Answer: A
78. What about durham pin is true ?
A. It is used to give skeletal traction
B. It has threads in the center of pin
C. It is used to give skeletal traction through calcaneum
D. All the above
Answer: D
79. Z score measures the bone mineral density compred to ?
A. Age, Race and sex matched individuals
B. Race and sex matched individuals
C. Sex matched individuals
D. None of the above
Answer: A
80. Osteoid osteoma consists of
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. Both of above
D. None of the above
Answer: C
81. Most common cause of acute compartment syndrome in children is ?
A. Fracture supracondylar humerus
B. Transphysealhumerus fracture
C. Fracture radius /ulna
D. Fracture shaft humerus
Answer: A
82. Thomas splint is used for immobilizing fractures of ?
A. Femur
B. Tibia
C. Radius
D. Ulna
Answer: A
83. Which of the following is not the extra articular manifestations of ankylosing spondylitis?
A. Acute anterior uveitis
B. Aortic valve disease
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Dilated cardiomyopathy
Answer: D
84. Which of the following deformity is evident in case of erbs palsy?
A. Policeman tip deformity
B. Winging of scapula
C. Claw hand
D. Wrist drop
Answer: A
85. Functional cast bracing not used in fracture of ?
A. Humerus
B. Tibia
C. Ulna
D. Thoracolumbar spine
Answer: D
86. What is not true about pulled elbow?
A. Occurs due to sudden axial pull on extended elbow
B. Forearm is held in pronation and extention
C. Most commonly occurs between 2-5 years of age
D. Treatment is quick pronation and flexion of elbow
Answer: D
87. Heberden node denotes involvement of ?
A. Distal inetrphalangeal joint
B. Proximal interphalangel joint
C. Metacarpophalangeal joint
D. Metatarsophalangeal joint
Answer: A
88. De – quervian’s tenovaginitis involves ?
A. Abductor pollicislongus
B. Extensor pollicisbrevis
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: C
89. The typical deformity in CTEV is ?
A. Ankle equinus
B. Subtalar inversion
C. Forefoot adduction
D. All the above
Answer: D
90. Ortolani test is positive when the examiner hears the ?
A. Clunk of entry on abduction and flexion of hip
B. Clunk of entry on extension and adduction of hip
C. Click of exit on abduction and flexion of hip
D. Click of exit on extension and adduction of hip
Answer: A
91. When do you operate for prolapsed disc ?
A. Busy executive needs quick surgery
B. Only with weakness no pain
C. Severe pain interfering with activity and not relieved by rest and treatment of 8 weeks
D. Patient of PID with difficulty in ambulation
Answer: C
92. Vertebral rotation in scoliosis is checked in
A. Forward bending
B. Backward bending
C. Sideways
D. Without bending
Answer: A
93. Patient comes with crush injury to upper limb, doctor is concerned about gangrene and sepsis what can help decide between amputation and limb salvage?
A. MESS
B. Guliton score
C. Gustilo Anderson classification
D. ASIA guidelines
Answer: A
94. Inability to pronate forearm is due to injury to which nerve ?
A. Ulnar
B. Radial
C. Median nerve
D. Musculocutaneous
Answer: C
95. High stepping gait is seen in ?
A. CTEV
B. Common peroneal nerve palsy
C. Polio
D. Cerebral palsy
Answer: B
96. Sectoral sign is positive in ?
A. Avascular necrosis of femur head
B. Osteoarthritis of hip
C. Protrusio acetabuli
D. Slipped capital femoral epiphyses
Answer: A
97. Garden’s classification used for which fracture?
A. Surgical neck humerus
B. Shaft humerus
C. Neck of femur
D. Shaft femur
Answer: C
98. One of the common fractures that occur during boxing by hitting with a closed fist is ?
A. Monteggia fracture dislocation
B. Galeazzi fracture dislocation
C. Bennett’s fracture dislocation
D. Smith’s fracture
Answer: C
99. Causes of Carpal tunnel syndrome are all except?
A. DM
B. RA
C. Leprosy
D. Gout
Answer: C
100. Radiological factors indicating an unstable pelvis are all except ?
A. Posterior sacroiliac complex displacement by > 1 cm
B. Avulsion fracture of sacral or ischial end of the sacrospinous ligament
C. Avulsion fractures of the L5 transverse process
D. Isolated disruption of pubic symphysis with pubic diastasis of 2 cm.
Answer: D
101. Most common complication of mid shaft humerus fracture is ?
A. Radial nerve palsy
B. Median nerve palsy
C. Nonunion
D. Malunion
Answer: A
102. Deformity of hip in stage of tubercular synovitis stage is ?
A. Flexion, abduction external rotation
B. Flexion, adduction internal rotation
C. Flexion adduction external rotation
D. Flexion abduction internal rotation
Answer: A
103. Needle shaped crystals negatively birefringent on polarized microscopy is characteristic of which crystal associated arthropathy?
A. Gout
B. CPPD
C. Neuropathic arthropathy
D. Hemophilic arthropathy
Answer: A
104. Which of the following is not a feature of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Heberden nodes
B. Swan neck deformity
C. Ulnar deviation of fingers at metacarpopalyngeal joint
D. Symmetric reduction of joint space
Answer: A
105. Keinbock’s disease is osteochondritis of ?
A. Scaphoid
B. Lunate
C. Calcaneum
D. Tibial tuberosity
Answer: B
106. Metaphyseal fracture touching physis but not crossing it, comes under which type of Salter Harris physeal injury?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: B
107. Motorcyclist’s fracture is ?
A. Stellate fracture across base of skull
B. Transverse fracture across base of skull
C. Lamina fracture of CI vertebra
D. Spinous process fracture of C7 vertebra
Answer: B
108. Which among the following is not a feature of Unhappy triad of 0′ Donoghue?
A. ACL injury
B. Medial meniscus injury
C. Medial collateral ligament injury
D. Fibular collateral ligament injury
Answer: D
109. Which is the commonest true benign bone tumor?
A. Osteoid osteoma
B. Hemangioma
C. Osteochondroma
D. Enchondroma
Answer: A
110. Which of the following is true about hallux valgus?
A. Great toe points laterally
B. Great toe points medially
C. Lateral angulation of the 1 stmetatarsophalyngeal joint
D. Dorsal angulation of the lstmetatarsophalyngeal joint
Answer: A
111. Jaipur foot was invented by ?
A. P. K. Sethi
B. S. K. Verma
C. B. L. Sehgal
D. H. R. Gupta
Answer: A
112. Test used for prolapsed lumbar intervertebral disc is
A. Active straight leg raising test
B. Lasegue test
C. Thomas test
D. Apley’s grinding test
Answer: B
113. Lumbar canal stenosis presents as ?
A. Claudication
B. Scoliotic deformity
C. Kyphotic deformity
D. Radiculopathy
Answer: A
114. Callus formation is seen between what duration of fracture healing ?
A. 0 – 2 weeks
B. 2 – 4 weeks
C. 4 – 12 weeks
D. 12 – 16 weeks
Answer: C
115. In osteogenic sarcoma predominant histological finding is ?
A. Giant cells
B. Osteoid forming tumor cells
C. Fibroblastic proliferation
D. Chondroblasts
Answer: B
116. Osteoporosis is characterized by all the following except ?
A. Decreased bone mineral density
B. Decreased Serum Calcium, phosphorus and alkaline phosphatase is seen
C. Glucocorticoids can cause osteoposis
D. Dorsolumbar spine is the most coomon site of osteoporotic fracture
Answer: B
117. Arthritis involving DIP, PIP, 1st carpometacarpal with sparing of MCP and wrist joints is typical of ?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Psoriatic arthritis
Answer: A
118. Sunderland classification is used for ?
A. Nerve injury
B. Muscle injury
C. Tendon injury
D. Ligament injury
Answer: A
119. Index finger infection spreads to ?
A. Thenar space
B. Mid palmar space
C. Hypothenar space
D. Flexion space
Answer: A
120. Pipkin’s classification system is used for ?
A. Fracture femur head
B. Fracture femur shaft
C. Fracture proximal tibia
D. Fracture calcaneum
Answer: A
121. Tinel sign is seen in ?
A. Nerve degeneration
B. Nerve regeneration
C. Muscle degeneration
D. Muscle regeneration
Answer: B
122. Dinner fork deformity is seen in?
A. Colle’s fracture
B. March fracture
C. Lateral condyle fracture
D. Supracondylar fracture
Answer: A
123. Tennis elbow is characterized by ?
A. Tenderness over the medial epicondyle
B. Tendinits of common extensor origin
C. Tendinitis of common flexor origin
D. Painful flexion and extension
Answer: B
124. False about osteoarthritis is ?
A. Involves synovial joints
B. Progressive softening of the articular cartilage
C. It is an inflammatory arthritis
D. Marginal osteophytes are produced
Answer: C
125. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is seen in
A. Medial condyle # humerus
B. Lateral condyle # humerus
C. Humerus shaft fracture
D. Fracture shaft radius
Answer: B
126. Ankle sprain due to forced inversion of a plantar flexed foot is due to injury to
A. Anterior talofibular ligament
B. Posterior talofibular ligament
C. Calcaneofibular ligament
D. Posterior fibres of deltoid
Answer: A
127. Gallows traction is used for fracture:
A. Shaft femur
B. Neck femur
C. Shaft tibia
D. Tibial tuberosity
Answer: A
128. True about ankylosing spondylitis are all except ?
A. Affects males
B. 3 0-40yrs
C. 90% HLA-B5
D. Bamboo spine
Answer: C
129. In extension type of supracondylar fracture, the usual displacement
A. Anterolateral
B. Anterolateral
C. Posteromedial
D. Posterolateral
Answer: D
130. In Articular cartilage, most active chondrocytes are seen in ?
A. Zone 1
B. Zone 2
C. Zone 3
D. Zone 4
Answer: C
131. Most common cause of neuropathic joint ?
A. Leprosy
B. ) Tabes dorsalis
C. Diabetes
D. Nerve injury
Answer: C
132. Most common nerve used for nerve conduction study in H reflex ?
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Tibial nerve
D. Peroneal nerve
Answer: C
133. Moth eaten bone is ?
A. Osteoid osteoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Eosinophilic granuloma
D. Chondromyxoid fibroma
Answer: B
134. Commonest ligament injured in ankle injury ?
A. Anterior talofibular ligament
B. Calcaneofibular ligament
C. Posterior talofibular ligament
D. Spring ligament
Answer: A
135. Flexor tendon graft repair graft is taken from ?
A. Plantaris
B. Palmaris longus
C. Extensor digitorum
D. Extensor indicis
Answer: D
136. Insal-Salvati index is used for ?
A. Olecranon
B. Patella
C. Talus
D. Scaphoid
Answer: B
137. Intramembranous ossification is seen in which bones?
A. Pelvis
B. Long bones
C. Maxilla
D. None
Answer: C
138. Radiological sign in case of Perthe’s disease ?
A. Epiphyseal calcification
B. Organized calcification
C. Lateral subluxation femur head
D. Restriction of abduction
Answer: B
139. True about proximal fragment in supratrochantric fracture is ?
A. Flexion
B. Abduction
C. External rotation
D. All the above
Answer: D
140. Anterolateral arthroscopy of knee is for ?
A. To see patella femoral articulation
B. To see the posterior cruciate ligament
C. To see the anterior portion of lateral meniscus
D. To see the periphery of the posterior horn of medial
Answer: A
141. Dripping Candle Wax lesion on spine ?
A. Metastasis
B. TB spine
C. Osteopterosis
D. Melorheostosis
Answer: D
142. Cause of Coxa vera ?
A. Congenital
B. Perthe’s disease
C. SCFE
D. All of the above
Answer: A
143. Bunion is commonly seen at ?
A. Great toe MTP joint
B. Medial malleolus
C. Lateral Malleolus
D. Shin of tibia
Answer: A
144. Most common type of shoulder dislocation is ?
A. Preglenoid
B. Subcoracoid
C. Subclavicular
D. Posterior
Answer: A
145. Pencil in cup deformity is seen in ?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Ankylosing spondylitis
C. AVN
D. Psoriatic arthritis
Answer: D
146. All are true about aneurismal bone cyst except ?
A. Eccentric
B. Expansile & lytic
C. Treated by simple curettage
D. Metaphysis of long bones
Answer: C
147. Painful arc syndrome is caused by impingement of ?
A. Sub acromial bursa
B. Sub deltoid bursa
C. Rotator cuff tendon
D. Biceps tendon
Answer: C
148. The father of joint replacement surgery is ?
A. Manning
B. Girdlestone
C. Charnley
D. Ponseti
Answer: C
149. Halopelvic traction is used for correcting which deformity
A. Spine
B. Pectus Carinatum
C. Spondyloptosis
D. Coxa Vara
Answer: A
150. Game keepers thumb is ?
A. Thumb metacarpophalangeal joint ulnar collateral ligament rupture
B. Thumb metacarpophalangeal joint radial collateral ligament rupture
C. Thumb interphalangeal joint ulnar collateral ligament rupture
D. Thumb interphalangeal joint radial collateral ligament rupture
Answer: A
151. Von-Rosen’s sign is positive in ?
A. Perthe’s disease
B. SCFE
C. DDH
D. CTEV
Answer: C
152. Which of the following is not a diarthrosis ?
A. Elbow joint
B. Interphalangeal joint
C. Skull sutures
D. Hip joint
Answer: C
153. Block vertebrae are seen in ?
A. Paget’s disease
B. Leukaemia
C. TB
D. Klippel – Feil syndrome
Answer: D
154. Bulge sign in knee joint is seen after how much fluid accumulation ?
A. 100m1
B. 400m1
C. 200m1
D. <30 ml
Answer: D
155. Splint used in CTEV after correction ?
A. Bohler-Brown splint
B. Thomas splint
C. Dennis Brown splint
D. None of the above
Answer: C
156. Which of the following is least likely associated with vascular injury ?
A. Fracture supracondylar femur
B. Fracture supracondylar humerus
C. Fracture shaft of femur
D. Fracture shiaft humerus
Answer: D
157. Turn-buckle cast is used for ?
A. Fracture shaft humerus
B. Fracture shaft femur
C. Scoliosis
D. Cervical spine injury
158. Frozen pelvis is seen in ?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Potts disease
C. Actinomycosis
D. Reiters disease
Answer: B
159. All are true about chronic osteomyelitis except ?
A. Reactive new bone formation
B. Cloaca is an opening in involucrum
C. Involucrum is dead bone
D. Sequestrum is hard and porus
Answer: C
160. Ischial bursitis is also known as ?
A. Clergyman’s knee
B. Housemaid’s knee
C. Weaver’s bottom
D. Students elbow
Answer: A
161. Articular cartilage, true is ?
A. Very vascular structure
B. Surrounded by thick perichondrium
C. Has no nerve supply
D. Fibrocartilage
Answer: C
162. Essex lopresti lesion in upper limb
A. Injury to interosseous membrane
B. Radial head and DER fracture
C. Radial shaft
D. Radial shaft and radio-ulnar joint fracture
Answer: A
163. Brodie’s abscess is ?
A. Acute osteomyelitis
B. Subacute osteomyelitis
C. Chronic osteomyelitis
D. Septic arthritis
Answer: C
164. Fracture of proximal forearm cast position is ?
A. Pronated flexion
B. Neutral position
C. Supinated position
D. Position does not matter
Answer: C
165. Which of the following movements is restricted in Perthe’s disease
A. Adduction & external rotation
B. Abduction & external rotation
C. Adduction & internal rotation
D. Abduction & internal rotation
Answer: D
166. Windswept deformity in foot is seen in ?
A. Rickets
B. RA
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Scurvy
Answer: B
167. True Supracondylar fracture of femur?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
Answer: A
168. All are true about menisci of knee joint except
A. Lateral meniscus covers more articular surface of tibiab) Lateral meniscus is more mobile
C. Lateral meniscus is more prone to injury
D. Lateral meniscus is semicircular
Answer: C
169. Garden spade deformity is seen in ?
A. Barton’s fracture
B. Colle’s fracture
C. Smith’s fracture
D. Bennet’s fracture
Answer: C
170. Dignostic sign of a fracture
A. Abnormal mobility at fracture site
B. Pain at the fracture site
C. Tenderness
D. Swelling
Answer: A
171. Fracture neck femur cause of nonunion?
A. Injury to blood supply with shearing stress
B. Poor nutrition of the patient
C. Smoking
D. Old age and osteoporosis
Answer: A
172. Exsanguinating blood loss in?
A. Closed humerus fracture
B. Closed tibia fracture
C. Open femur fracture
D. Open humerus fracture
Answer: C
173. Which of the following is an orthopedic emergency?
A. Intraarticular fracture
B. Septic arthritis
C. Fracture lateral condyle humerus
D. Fracture neck femur
Answer: B
174. Aeroplane splint is used in ?
A. Radial nerve injury
B. Ulnar nerve injury
C. Brachial plexus injury
D. Scoliosis
Answer: C
175. Commonest malignant tumor of skeletal system ?
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Metastasis
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Chondrosarcoma
Answer: B
176. Poor prognostic indicator of Pott’s paraplegia
A. Early onset
B. Active disease
C. Healed disease
D. Wet lesion
Answer: C
177. Picture frame vertebra is seen in ?
A. Paget’s disease
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Osteoporosis
D. Ankylosing spondylitis
Answer: A
178. Barton’s fracture is ?
A. Fracture distal end humerus
B. Extra-articular fracture distal end radius
C. Intra-articular fracture distal end radius
D. Intra-articular fracture distal end radius with carpal bone
subluxation
Answer: A
179. Short 4th metacarpal is a feature of
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
D. Scleroderma
Answer: C
180. Most common site of osteochondritis dessicans ?
A. Lateral part of the medial femoral condyle
B. Medial part of the medial femoral condyle
C. Lateral part of the lateral femoral condyle
D. Medial part of the lateral femoral condyle
Answer: A
181. All are common sites of primary for bone metastasis except
A. Breast
B. Breast
C. Brain
D. Brain
Answer: C
182. Madelung’s deformity involves
A. Humerus
B. Proximal ulna
C. Distal radius
D. Carpals
Answer: C
183. Common causes of vertebra plana
A. TB
B. Eosinophilic granuloma
C. Metastasis
D. All of the above
Answer: A
184. DISC prolapse is common at all site except ?
A. L4 – L5
B. L5 – S1
C. C6 – C7
D. T3 – T4
Answer: D
185. Aspirated synovial fluid in septic arthritis will have?
A. Clear color
B. High viscosity
C. Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D. None of the above
Answer: C
186. Which can cause loose body in the joint
A. RA
B. Ankylosing spondylitis
C. OA
D. SLE
Answer: C
187. Salter’s pelvic osteotomy is done for treatment of ?
A. CTEV
B. SCFE
C. DDH
D. None
Answer: C
188. All are features of Paget’s disease except ?
A. Defect in osteoclasts
B. Common in female
C. Can cause deafness
D. Can cause osteosarcoma
Answer: B
189. Deformity in transient synovitis of Hip ?
A. Abduction
B. Flexion
C. External rotation
D. All of the above
Answer: D
190. Rocker bottom foot is due to ?
A. Overtreatment of CTEV
B. Malunited fracture calcaneum
C. Horizontal talus
D. Neural tube defect
Answer: A
191. Hangman’s fracture is ?
A. Subluxation of C5 over C6
B. Fracture dislocation of C2
C. Fracture dislocation of ankle joint
D. Fracture of odontoid
Answer: B
192. Most common cause of kyphotic deformity ?
A. Trauma
B. Osteoporosis
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Rickets
Answer: B
193. Saturday night palsy is which type of nerve injury?
A. Neuropraxia
B. Axonotemesis
C. Neurotemesis
D. Complete section
Answer: A
194. Common fractures in children are all except ?
A. Lacteral condyle humerus
B. Supracondylar humerus
C. Fracture of hand
D. Radius-ulna fracture
Answer: C
195. Most common site of myositis ossificans ?
A. Knee
B. Elbow
C. Shoulder
D. Wrist
Answer: B
196. Thurston Holland sign is seen in ?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: B
197.Which part of scaphoid fracture is most susceptible to avascular necrosis?
A. Distal 1/3rd
B. Middle 1/3rd
C. Proximal 1/3rd
D. Scaphoid Tubercle
Answer: C
198. Pott’s puffy tumor:
A. Subperiosteal abscess of frontal bone
B. Subperiosteal abscess of ethmoid bone
C. Mucocele of frontal bone
D. Mucocele of ethmoid bone
Answer: A
199. Scissor gait is seen in which of the following condition:
A. Polio
B. Cerebral palsy
C. Hyperbilirubinemia
D. Hyponatremia
Answer: B
200. Most common joint involved in septic arthritis:
A. Knee
B. Hip
C. Shoulder
D. Elbow
Answer: A
201. Painful arc syndrome pain is felt during ?
A. Mid abduction
B. Initial abduction
C. Full range of abduction
D. Overhead abduction
Answer: A
202. True about Tenosynovitis of finger ?
A. Fingers held in mild extension / Extension deformity at the involved fingers.
B. Tenosynovitis of little finger will spread to thumb rather than ring finger.
C. With involvement of little finger the infection can spread to the index finger.
D. Treatment is conservative.
Answer: B
203. The last deformity to be corrected by Ponseti’s method for CTEV is
A. Heel Varus
B. Equinus
C. Foot Adduction
D. Cavus
Answer: B
204. Ossification centre of scaphoid appears at
A. 1-6 months
B. 1 to 2 years
C. 2 to 4 years
D. 4 to 6 years
Answer: D
205.Which of the following is the most metabolically active part of long bone?
A. Epiphysis
B. Metaphysis
C. Diaphysis
D. Physis
Answer: D
206. Iliotibial band contracture in patients of poliomyelitis will lead to
A. Flexion at hip and knee
B. Flexion at hip, extention at knee
C. Extention at hip flexion at knee
D. Extention at hip and knee
Answer: A
207. Management of displaced non comminuted intercondylar humerus fracture is
A. Open reduction internal fixation
B. Above elbow plaster slab application
C. Olecranon pin traction
D. External fixation
Answer: A
208. Jumpers knee
A. Apophysitis of patellar tendon as it inserts in patella
B. Apophysitis of patellar tendon as it inserts in tibia
C. Apophysitis of quadriceps tendon as it inserts in patella
D. Apophysitis of hamstring tendon as it inserts in tibia
Answer: A
209. Proximal tibial epiphysis fuses at
A. 12 – 14 years
B. 14 – 16 years
C. 16 – 18 years
D. 18 – 20 years
Answer: C
210. What is the treatment for patient with hypertrophic non-union with deformity at fracture site?
A. No treatment required
B. Fixation only
C. Bone grafting only
D. Fixation with bone grafting
Answer: B
211. Chauffeur fracture is
A. Extra – articular fracture of styloid process
B. Intra – articular fracture of styloid process
C. Intra – articular fracture of base of 1st metacarpal
D. Extra – articular fracture of base of 1st metacarpal
Answer: B
212. Which of the following is not true about Galeazzi fracture dislocation?
A. Fracture of distal third of radius and dislocation of distal radioulnar joint
B. Results from fall on outstretched hand
C. The distal end of ulna dislocates volarly after disruption of distal radio – ulnar joint
D. Radius is angulated medially and anteriorly
Answer: C
213. Which of the following is not true about Jefferson’s fracture?
A. It is a burst fracture of the ring of atlas vertebra
B. It is the most common type of atlas fracture
C. Fracture definition is particularly clear on CT Scan image
D. It is associated with injury elsewhere in spine in 25% of the
cases
Answer: D
214. Which of the following shoulder movements is/ are weak in patients of supraspinatus tear?
A. Abduction
B. Adduction
C. External rotation
D. Internal rotation
Answer: A
215. Most mobile segment of vertebral column is
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
Answer: A
216. Which of the following is not true about impingement syndrome?
A. It is the tendinitis caused by inflammation of the rotator cuff tendons
B. Supraspinatus tendon is most often involved
C. Shoulder abduction in the arc of 60 – 120 degrees is particularly painful
D. Surgical decompression of the subacromial space is frequently indicated
Answer: D
217. Most dangerous type of odontoid fracture as per Anderson and D’ Alonzo classification and its respective management is
A. Type I – immobilization in rigid collar
B. Type II – screw fixation
C. Type III – halo vest immobilization
D. Type IV – ope reduction internal fixation
Answer: B
218. Increased Q angle predisposes to
A. Medial patellar subluxation
B. Lateral patellar subluxation
C. Superior patellar subluxation
D. Inferior patellar subluxation
Answer: B
219. False about osteogenesis imperfecta is
A. Defective collagen formation
B. Associated with cataract formation
C. Autosomal dominant
D. Known as Brittle bone disease
Answer: B
220. Shentons line is seen in X ray of
A. Antero-posterior pelvis with both hips
B. Antero-posterior shoulder
C. Lateral cervical spine
D. Lateral lumbosacral spine
Answer: A
221. A patient presents with wrist trauma. On investigations patient is diagnosed to have a sprained wrist, without any evidence of fracture. There is tenderness in anatomical snuffbox. Which ligament is commonly involved
A. Scapholunate ligament
B. Radial collateral ligament
C. Lunotriquetral ligament
D. Ulnar collateral ligament
Answer: A
222. Palpable femur head on per rectal exam is a feature of which of the following conditions?
A. Posterior hip dislocation
B. Anterior hip dislocation
C. Central hip dislocation
D. Inferior hip dislocation
Answer: C
223. Popliteal artery injury is commonly seen in which type of traumatic knee dislocation?
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Medial
D. Lateral
Answer: B
224. Kocher manoeuver is used for
A. Shoulder reduction
B. Elbow reduction
C. Ankle dislocation
D. Knee dislocation
Answer: A
225. Treatment of scaphoid fracture
A. Conservative
B. Compression Screws
C. Compression Plating
D. Traction
Answer: A
226. All of the following are true regarding fracture of lateral condyle of humerus except
A. Usually seen at 6 – 10 years of age
B. Results in Gun stock deformity
C. Cubitus valgus occurs
D. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is seen
Answer: B
227. Most common complication of fracture of tibia
A. Infection
B. Compartment syndrome
C. Delayed union
D. Vascular injury
Answer: C
228. Which of the following is not true about ACL injury?
A. It is a component of the 0′ Donoghue triad
B. ACL is intrasynovial
C. ACL is important for proprioceptive function
D. Anterior drawer test is the most sensitive test
Answer: D
229. Cubitus valgus develops as complication of
A. Jupitor fracture
B. Smiths fracture
C. Malgaigne fracture
D. Staddle fracture
Answer: A
230. X-ray appearance of sequestrum is
A. Unnatural radiodense fragments
B. Osteopenic fragment
C. Fragment with honeycomb loculated appearance
D. Radiolucent area with speckled calcification
Answer: A
231. Continuous fixed traction is provided by
A. Thomas splint
B. BB splint
C. Hamilton Russel
D. Gallows
Answer: A
232. Cobra head plate is used for
A. Hip arthrodesis
B. Knee arthrodesis
C. Elbow arthrodesis
D. Ankle arthrodesis
Answer: A
233. A 20 year old male presents with history of gradual onset pain and swelling in left knee since 6 months. Now since last 1 month patient has started limping while walking and also has flexion deformity of knee. Ultrasonography shows presence of synovial thickening. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Tuberculosis of knee
B. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
C. Synovial sarcoma
D. Hemarthrosis
Answer: A
234. Locking compression plating for is commonly indicated in the following fracture types
A. Periarticular fractures
B. Transverse or oblique fractures of long bones
C. Intertrochanteric fractures
D. Fracture of long bones
Answer: A
235. Tuberculosis of spine most commonly affects which vertebral segment?
A. Upper dorsal
B. Lower dorsal
C. Lumbar
D. Cervical
Answer: B
236. Dunlop traction is a type of traction used in management of
A. Fracture humerus
B. Fracture radius
C. Fracture femur
D. Fracture Tibia
Answer: A
237. Which of the following is not true about the management of potts paraplegia?
A. Chemotherapy is the mainstay of conservative management
B. Paraplegia not improving with conservative treatment even after 3 – 6 months is an indication for operative intervention
C. Decompression via anterolateral approach is most preferred
D. Posterior fusion and instrumentation can be used to correct the deformity
Answer: C
238. First radiological sign for active tubercular arthritis is
A. Localized osteoporosis
B. Sclerosis
C. Joint space reduction
D. Osteophytes
Answer: A
239. 33 yr old female presents with a slow growing bony mass along the distal femur cortex in the metaphyseal region with an appreciable gap between the cortex and tumor without any cortical invasion. What is the usual treatment for the same?
A. Local resection
B. Amputaion
C. Chemotherapy
D. Radiotherapy
Answer: A
240. Which is intramendullary tumor among carcinoma of bone
A. Classical Osteosarcoma
B. Parosteal osteosarcoma
C. Periosteal osteosarcoma
D. None of the above
Answer: A
241. Age group affected by osteosarcoma A. Upto 10 years
B. 10 – 20 years
C. 30 – 40 years
D. Older than 45 years
Answer: B
242. Ankle reflex is affected in prolapsed intervertebral disc at what level?
A. L3 – L4
B. L4 – L5
C. L5 – S1
D. S1 – S2
Answer: C
243. CTEV shoe true is
A. It is the same as normal shoe
B. It has straight medial border
C. It has medical shoe raise
D. It has heel with extra length
Answer: B
244. Most commonly lesion associated with pathological fracture in hand is
A. Enchondroma
B. Metastases
C. Osteoid osteoma
D. Osteochondroma
Answer: A
245. All are features of inflammatory arthritis except?
A. Morning stiffness
B. X-ray showing sclerosis
C. Elevated ESR
D. Weight gain
Answer: B
246. All are true about Marie – strumpell disease except :
A. Most commonly involves the sacro – iliac joints
B. Enhesitis is common
C. More common in males
D. Roentgenogram is the most sensitive investigation
Answer: D
247. Which of the following is not true about the tests for hip instability in neonates?
A. Ortolanis test has two parts
B. They are performed at 2 – 3 days of birth
C. In ortolanis test examiners fingers rest on the greater trochanter
D. In barlows test examiners thumb is placed in the groin
Answer: A
248. Oncogenic osteomalacia is mediated by
A. Phosphatonin
B. Calcitonin
C. Interleukin 2
D. Interleukin 6
Answer: A
249. Which of the following is/are feature/s of sprengels deformity?
A. Elevated shoulder on affected side
B. Smaller than usual scapula
C. Short neck
D. All the above
Answer: D
250. Which of the following is true about CTEV
A. It is more common in females
B. Right foot is usually more affected than the left
C. Talus is displaced medial and plantarwards
D. Tibia usually shows lateral torsion
Answer: C
251. Which of the following is not true about the manipulation methods to correct CTEV?
A. Involves serial casting and below knee plaster casting
B. In kites method deformities are corrected sequentially adduction → inversion → equinus
C. Ponseti’s technique has success rate of 90 – 98%
D. Ponseti’s method of correction involves cavus —> adduction –> heel varus —> equinus
Answer: A
252. Psoriatic arthritis most commonly involves which joint
A. Distal interphalangeal joint
B. Proximal interphalangeal joint
C. Wrist joint
D. Metacarpophalangeal joint
Answer: A
253. Which of the following is the management for neglected case of CTEV in a patient > 10 years of age?
A. Triple arthrodesis
B. Ankle arthrodesis
C. Jess fixation
D. Ponseti casting
Answer: A
254. Which of the following is not true about SCFE?
A. Males are affected more frequently
B. Extension is restricted
C. Commonly occurs during adolescence
D. Varus, adduction and external rotation deformities are present
Answer: B
255. Genu recurvatum is seen in
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Rickets
D. All the above
Answer: D
256. Calcification in osteosarcoma is due to presence of
A. Osteoid matrix
B. Osteoblasts
C. High calcium levels in serum
D. High calcitonin
Answer: A
257. Osteoclasts have all of the following except
A. Bone resorption
B. Receptor for parathormone
C. Ruffledborder
D. RANK ligand
Answer: B
258. PTH acts directly on which cells ?
A. Osteoclasts
B. Osteocytes
C. Osteoblasts
D. Macrophages
Answer: C
259. Most vascular zone of the bone is
A. Metaphysis
B. Diaphysis
C. Epiphysis
D. Medullary Cavity
Answer: A
260. Snapping knee syndrome is due to involvement of
A. Pes Anserinus
B. Quadrieps Tendon
C. Gastrocnemius origin
D. lateral collateral ligament
Answer: A
261. Flexor Digitorum Profundus tendon avulsion injury leads to
A. Jersey Finger
B. Mallet Finger
C. Gamekeepers Thumb
D. Boutonierre Deformity
Answer: A
262. K nail can be used for all of the following fractures excePt
A. Isthmic femur shaft fractures
B. Intertrochanteric fractures
C. Low subtrochanteric fractures
D. Distal femur shaft fractures
Answer: B
263. Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus is
A. Extensor and ulnar deviator ofthe wrist
B. Extensor and radial Deviator of the wrist
C. Injured in Posterior interosseus nerve injury
D. Weak extensor of the wrist
Answer: B
264. A child presented to an orthopaedic clinic with a limp. The surgeon suspected him to have a fixed fledon deformity of the hip. Which test should the surgeon perform to confirm his finding?
A. Thomas test
B. Trendelenburgs test
C. Nelatons test
D. Telescoping test
Answer: A
265. Trigger Finger Involves Which joint ?
A. Proximal Interphalngeal joint
B. Distal Interphalngeal foint
C. Metacarpophalangeal joint
D. Carpometacarpal joint
Answer: C
266. Effect of hypoparathyroidisrn on bones include
A. Brown tumours
B. Subperiosteal Resorption of Bone
C. Multiple Cysts in Bone
D. NoneoftheAbove
Answer: D
267. Bone transport can be used in the management of
A. Gap non union
B. Deformity Correction
C. Communited shaft femur fracture
D. Avscular Necrosis of Femoral Head
Answer: A
268. AII of the following are true regarding application of POP Cast except
A. Putting the Plaster roll in warm water hastens setting time
B. It is anhydrous Calcium phosphate
C. It can applied in presence of extreme swelling
D. Gangrene is known complication of a tight plaster cast
Answer: B
269. In uncemented arthroplasty of the hip , the stem remains attached to the bone by
A. Bone Ingrowth/ ongrowth over the surface of the stem
B. Mechanical bonding between the stem and bone
C. Press fitting of the stem in the tight canal
D. Adhesion between the stem and bone due to ashesive properties ofthe stem
Answer: A
270. During perfoming a total hip replacement, the surgeon found destruction of the articular cartilage and rnultiple wedge shaped subchondral depressions. What is this called ?
A. Osteolysis
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Osteonecrosis
D. Osteogenesis
Answer: C
271. Sudden dorsiflexion of foot may lead to which of the following injuries
A. Anterior talofibular ligament injury
B. Tendo Achilles avulsion injury
C. Rupture of deltoid ligament
D. Tarsal tunnel syndrome
Answer: B
272. Salter Harris classification is used for
A. Supracondylar humerus fractures in children
B. Estimation of growth of the physes
C. Physeal injuries
D. Severity of degloving injuries to the limb
Answer: C
273. Milwaukee Brace is used in
A. Congenital Kyphosis
B. Scheurmanns Disease
C. Adolescentldiopathic Scoliosis
D. Spondylolisthesis
Answer: A
274. Vertebra Plana is seen in all except
A. Histioctosis X
B. Leukemia
C. Excessive use of systemic steroids
D. Scheurmanns Disease
Answer: D
275. What is luxatio erecta ?
A. Anterior Dislocation of the shoulder joint
B. Inferior Dislocation of the shoulder joint
C. Anterior Dislocation of the HIP joint
D. Posterior Dislocation of Hip joint
Answer: B
276. Which of the following casts/splints is used for fracture shaft humerus ?
A. Hanging casts
B. Knuckle bender splint
C. Aeroplane Splint
D. Above elbow cast
Answer: A
277. Three point bony relationship of the elbow is disturbed in
A. Supracondylar Fracture of the humerus
B. Fracture lateral condyle of the humerus
C. Monteggia Fracture dislocation
D. Fracture of Proximal Radius
Answer: B
278. Hamilton Ruler test sign is positive in which of the above mentioned conditions ?
A. Anterior dislocation of shoulder
B. Acrornioclavivular joint dislocation
C. Posterior dislocation of shoulder
D. luxatio erecta
Answer: A
279. Cubitus Valgus Deformity is commonly seen in which of the following conditions
A. Malunited Lateral Condylar fracture of Humerus
B. Malunited Supracondylar Fracture of Humerus
C. Posterior dislocation ofelbow
D. Fracture medial condyle of humerus
Answer: A
280. AVN following transcervical neck femur fractures occurs due to damage to which of the following blood vessels ?
A. Lateral retinacular branch of lateral circumflex femoral artery
B. Lateral retinacular branch of medial circumflex femoral artery
C. Medial retinacular branch of lateral circumflex femoral artery
D. Obdurator artery
Answer: A
281. Lockingoftheknee involves
A. External rotation of femur with the foot offthe ground
B. Internal rotation of the tibia with the foot on the ground
C. Contraction of popliteus
D. Internal rotation of femur with foot on the ground
Answer: D
282. Fracture neck of femur in 80 year old male sustained 1 weekback The treatment of choice is
A. Hemiarthroplasty
B. ExcisionarthroPlastY
C. Closed reduction and fixation with three cancellous screws
D. Longitudinal skin traction for 6 weeks
Answer: A
283. Which of the following fractures of the neck of femur are associated with maximal compromise in blood supply ?
A. Intertrochantericfractures
B. Basicervical fracture
C. Trans cervical fracture
D. Sub Capital fractures
Answer: D
284. Tinels sign is seen in
A. Avascular necrosisof scaPhoid
B. Kienbock s Disease
C. lst carpometacarpal joint arthritis
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Answer: D
285. Which of the following is used as a substitute for wrist extensors in radial nerve PalsY?
A. Pronator Teres
B. Palmaris Longus
C. Flexor Digitorum SuPerficialis
D. Flexor Digitorum Profundus
Answer: A
286. Most common cause of ca4ral tunnel syndrome is ?
A. Pregnancy
B. Idiopathic
C. Alcoholism
D. Occupational-Excessive use of vibratory instruments
Answer: B
287. A 45 year old carpenter with a blunt trauma to his arm sustained a fracture following which he developed wrist drop, loss of extension at fingers and loss of sensations on the lateral aspect of the wrist joint. Which of the following is true ?
A. Patient has an injury to the median nerve
B. He should have also lost extension of the forearm
C. Patient has injured the radial nerve in the spird groove
D. There is combined involvement of the radial nerve and median nerve
Answer: C
288. In which of the following deformities is the distal interphalangeal joint extended ?
A. Boutonniere deformity
B. Swan neck deformity
C. Z deforrnity
D. Claw Hand
Answer: A
289. Club foot clinically present as what deformity ?
A. Calcaneovalgus
B. Equinovarus
C. Equino Cavovarus
D. Calcaneovarus
Answer: C
290. 4 year old child presented to the clinic with a history of fall on outstretched hand. Radiographs revealed a broken anterior cortex with an intact posterior cortex Of the radius with an exaggerated bowing of the radius. The fracture sustained is known as
A. Torus Fracture
B. Greenstick fracture
C. Galleazi Fracture
D. Monteggia Frtacture Dislocation
Answer: B
291. Greenstick/ Nightstick fractures are seen in
A. Children
B. Elderly
C. Youngadults
D. Common in all age groups
Answer: A
292. Who devised correction of CTEV by serial castinga
A. Ignasio Ponseti
B. Gerhardt Kuntscher
C. Gavril Ilizarov
D. Hugh Owen Thomas
Answer: A
293. Osteosclerosis is a feature of which of the followinga
A. Rickets
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Pagets Disease
D. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Answer: C
294. All of the following are true regarding Pagets Disease except
A. Pelvis is the most common site
B. Cranial nerve involvement may be seen
C. High output cardiac failure is one of the complications
D. It may progress to a secondary chondrosarcoma
Answer: D
295. Commonest site of occurrence of chondrosarcoma is
A. Pelvis
B. Ribs
C. Femur
D. Proximal tibia
Answer: A
296. Onion peel appearance on Xray is seen in which of the following conditions ?
A. Ewings Sarcoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Giant cell tumour
D. Eosinophilic granuloma
Answer: A
297. Hammer toe deformity is seen in
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Fracture distal phalanx ofgreat toe
C. Bunion
D. Osteochondritis
Answer: A
298. Pion fracture is
A. Bimalleolar
B. Trimalleolar
C. Distal femur Intraarticular
D. Distal tibia Intraarticular
Answer: D
299. Late complication of elbow dislocation
A. Median nerve injury
B. Brachial artery injury
C. Myositis ossificans
D. All of the above
Answer: C
300. Which arthritis causes no periosteal reaction
A. Psoriatic athritis
B. Reactive arthritis
C. Neropathic arthritis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: D
301. Proximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis
A. One part
B. Two part
C. Three part
D. Four part
Answer: D
302. Most common muscle damaged in rotator cuff
A. Supraspinatus
B. Infraspinatus
C. Subscapularis
D. Teres minor
Answer: A
303. True about supracondylar fracture of humerus
A. Common in adults
B. Extension type most common
C. Flexion type is most common
D. None
Answer: B
304. What is seen on x-ray with posterior elbow dislocation
A. Coronoid process posterior to humerus
B. Coronoid process anterior to humerus
C. Coronoid process below humerus
D. None
Answer: A
305.In posterior dislocation of elbow, most prominent part
A. Coronoid
B. Radial head
C. Olecranon
D. None
Answer: C
306. Most common complication of lateral condyle humerus fracture
A. Malunion
B. Nonunion
C. VIC
D. Median nerve injury
Answer: B
307. Most common complication of Cones #
A. Malunion
B. Avascular necrosis
C. Finger stiffness
D. Rupture of EPL tendon
Answer: C
308. Most common complication of fracture neck of femur
A. Malunion
B. AVN
C. Nonunion
D. Arthritis
Answer: B
309. Which of the following describes grade 2 fracture neck femur?
A. Incomplete fracture, medial trabeculae intact
B. Complete fracture with undisplaced neck
C. Complete fracture with ischemic head
D. Moderate displacement of neck, vascularity damaged
Answer: B
310. Treatment of choice for fracture neck femur in a 40 years old female
A. Multiple screw fixation
B. Bipolar hemiarthroplasty
C. THR
D. None
Answer: A
311. Talus is supplied by
A. Anterior tibial artery
B. Posterior tibial artery
C. Dorsal pedis artery
D. All
Answer: D
312. Posterior scalloping of vertebrae is not seen
A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Astrocytoma
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Ependymoma
Answer: C
313. In cervical spine injury, first to be done
A. Trun head
B. Maintain airway
C. Immobilization of spine
D. None
Answer: B
314. In scoliosis degree of deformity is calculated by
A. Cobbs method
B. Hamburger method
C. Haldane method
D. Milwaukee method
Answer: A
315. Partial anterior dislocation of one segment of the spine over another is
A. Spondylosis
B. Spondylolisthesis
C. Kyphosis
D. Scoliosis
Answer: B
316. In EMG/NCV study, H. reflex correlates with
A. L3 radiculopathy
B. L4 radiculopathy
C. L5 radiculopathy
D. SI radiculopathy
Answer: D
317. In axillary nerve paralysis, all the following are true except
A. Deltoid muscle is wasted
B. Extension of shoulder with arm abducted to 90 degrees is impossible
C. Small area of numbness is present over the shoulder region
D. Patient cannot initiate abduction
Answer: D
318. Carpal tunnel syndrome all are present except
A. Ulnar nerve dysfunction
B. Tinel sign
C. Phalens sign
D. Pain & paraesthesia of wrist
Answer: A
319. Fairbank triangle is seen in
A. CDH
B. Congenital coxa vara
C. Perthe’s disease
D. SCFE
Answer: B
320. Dysplastic hip in a child, investigation of choice
A. X-ray
B. MRI
C. USG
D. CT Scan
Answer: C
321. Primary pathology in CDH
A. Large head of femur
B. Shallow acetabulum
C. Excessive retroversion
D. Everted limbus
Answer: B
322. In neglected cases of CTEV, joint fused are
A. Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular and talocalcaneal
B. Tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
C. Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
D. None of the above
Answer: A
323. Osteonerosis is seen in all except
A. Fracture neck femur
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Perthe’s disease
D. Paget’s disease
Answer: D
324. After chronic use of steroids severe pain in right hip with immobility is due to
A. Avascular necrosis
B. Perthes disease
C. Hip dislocation
D. Osteoarthritis
Answer: A
325. In elbow, osteochondritis usually involves
A. Olecranon
B. Trochlea
C. Radial head
D. Capitulum
Answer: D
326. Most common organism causing infection after open fracture
A. Pseudomonas
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Klebsiella
D. Gonococcus
Answer: A
327. Septic arthritis is diagnosed by
A. X-ray
B. Joint aspiration
C. USG
D. MRI
Answer: B
328. Sequestrum is best defined as
A. A piece of dead bone
B. A piece of dead bone surrounded by infected tissue
C. A piece of bone with poor vascularity
D. None
Answer: B
329. Cloacae are present in
A. Sequestrum
B. Involucrum
C. Normal bone
D. Myositis
Answer: B
330. Complication of joint TB
A. Fibrous ankylosis
B. Bony ankylosis
C. Normal healing
D. None
Answer: A
331. False about Pott’s spine
A. Commonest at dorsolumbar junction
B. Always heals by chemotherapy
C. Back pain is an early symptom
D. There is disc space narrowing on x-ray
Answer: B
332. Apparent lengthening is seen in which stage of TB Hip
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. None
Answer: A
333. Tuberculosis spine; most common site is
A. Sacral
B. Cevical
C. Dorsolumbar
D. Lumbosacral
w
Answer: C
334. Anterolateral decompression is done for
A. Spinal tuberculosis
B. Chest TB
C. Hand TB
D. Foot TB
Answer: A
335. Tumor with maximum bone matrix
A. Osteoid osteoma
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Enchondroma
D. None
Answer: A
336. Which of the following is true about Giant cell tumor
A. Usually presents as a lytic lesion with sclerotic rim
B. Always beingn
C. Epiphyseal origin
D. Seen in age less than 15 years
Answer: C
337. Striated vertebra is seen in
A. TB spine
B. Haemangioma
C. Chordoma
D. Metastasis
Answer: B
338. Metastasis not found in
A. Femur
B. Humerus
C. Fibula
D. Spine
Answer: C
339. Periosteal reactions is seen in
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Syphilis
C. Tumor
D. All
Answer: D
340. Volkmanns contracture, which artery is involved
A. Radial
B. Brachial
C. Ulnar
D. Interosseus
Answer: B
341. Cast syndrome is due to
A. Above elbow cast
B. Below elbow cast
C. Hip Spica
D. Above knee cast
Answer: C
342. Heterotopic ossification occurs in
A. Bone
B. Joint
C. Soft tissue
D. None
Answer: C
343. Felon most common complication
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Subungual hematoma
C. Infective arthritis
D. None
Answer: A
344. Most common bone for which nailing is done
A. Radius
B. Ulna
C. Tibia
D. Humerus
Answer: C
345. Why fracture shaft femur is early stabilised
A. To prevent blood loss
B. ARDS
C. Non union
D. Compartment syndrome
Answer: A
346. Drug used in osteoarthritis
A. Methotrexate
B. Glucosamine
C. Sulfasalizine
D. All
Answer: B
347. Pannus is seen in
A. OA
B. RA
C. Gout
D. None
Answer: B
348. Sausage digits is seen in
A. Lyme arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. None
Answer: C
349. Green stick fracture is
A. Fracture in adults
B. Complete fracture
C. Incomplete fracture
D. Fracture spine
Answer: C
350. Resorption of distal phalanx is seen in
A. Scleroderma
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Reiter’s syndrome
D. All
Answer: D
351. Foot drop is caused by injury to which nerve involvement:
A. Femoral nerve
B. Tibial nerve
C. Common peroneal nerve
D. Sciatic nerve
Answer: C
352. Muscles affected in De quervain tenosynovitis
A. Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
B. Adductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
C. Abductor pollicis longus and Flexor pollicis brevis
D. Adductor pollicis longus and Flexor pollicis brevis
Answer: A
353. What is meant by Perilunate dislocations ?
A. Lower radius, scaphoid and lunate and capitate all in same plane
B. Lower radius, scaphoid and capitate in alignment, lunate alone out of plane
C. Lower radius, scaphoid and Lunate in alignment ,capitate alone is out of plane
D. Both lunate and capitate are out of plane
Answer: B
354. Fallen fragment sign
A. Simple bone cyst
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Adamantinoma
D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
Answer: A
355. You are posted as an intern in causality. Which among the following patients with fracture will be your 1st priority to call ortho PG and inform?
A. Patient’s finger is blackening
B. Patient can’t extend his arm
C. A 10 cm abrasion
D. Intra articular fracture of Elbow Joint
Answer: A
356. In Rheumatoid arthritis, which type of cells are prominently present ?
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. Macrophages
D. Dendritic cells
Answer: C
357. 8th and 9th rib costal cartilage forms which type of joint?
A. Costochondral joint
B. Interchondral joint
C. Synovial joint
D. Costovertebral joint
Answer: C
358. Tom smith septic arthritis is
A. Acute Gonococcal arthritis
B. Smallpox arthritis
C. Septic arthritis of infancy
D. Chronic pyogenic arthritis
Answer: C
359. A woman developed pain and crawling sensation on her legs at night. Clinical history of restless leg syndrome. Drug of choice?.
A. Pramipexole
B. Gabapentin
C. Vitamin B12
D. Iron tablets
Answer: A
360. History of Arthritis involving 1st MCP joint, other PIP & DIP joints, spares wrist and ankle. What could be the diagnosis
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Gout
Answer: A
361. 12 yr old Child admitted to ICU with blunt trauma and femur fracture- Pao2 60% despite 100%o2 and rebreather mask, CXR shows lung fields clear but the patient remains confused. What is most likely the diagnosis
A. Pulmonary contusion.
B. Fat embolism syndrome.
C. Hypovolaemic shock.
D. Pulmonary embolism.
Answer: B
362. A 4 yr old child while playing suddenly spun around his elbow from her servant maid’s hand and now continuously crying not allowing anyone to touch his elbow. He is keeping his elbow extended .what is most likely the diagnosis
A. Radial head fracture
B. Pulled elbow
C. supra condylar fracture
D. Elbow dislocation
Answer: B