Physical Pharmaceutics 2 Multiple Choice Questions
1. An example for colloidal systems is:
A. clays and gels
B. ointments and pastes
C. solutions of soaps and proteins
D. suspensions and emulsions
Answer: C. solutions of soaps and proteins
2. The criterion to call a system ‘colloid’ is
A. a fine state of subdivision of dispersed phase
B. dispersed particles are in the size range of 1 nm to 1 µm
C. interface is very extensive
D. the presence of dispersed phase in a dispersion medium
Answer: B. dispersed particles are in the size range of 1 nm to 1 µm
3. Solutions of proteins and starch in water are the examples of the colloidal type:
A. hydrophilic
B. hydrophobic
C. lyophilic
D. lyophobic
Answer: A. hydrophilic
4. Electrodialysis method is employed in the colloidal chemistry for the purpose of :
A. Indentification
B. preparation
C. Purification
D. Stabilization
Answer: C. Purification
5. Silica gel is an example for the type of gel:
A. dilatants
B. elastic
C. rigid
D. thixotropic
Answer: C. rigid
6. Which of the following DO NOT form colloid spontaneously?
A. association
B. lyophilic
C. lyophobic
D. micellar
Answer: C. lyophobic
7. Sulphur sol is an example of colloidal type:
A. Association
B. hydrophilic
C. lyophilic
D. lyophobic
Answer: D. lyophobic
8. Thixotropic type of behavior is shown by the gel:
A. bentonite
B. pectin
C. silica
D. starch
Answer: A. bentonite
9. In the determination of size, shape and structure of colloidal particles, which one of the following CANNOT be used?
A. electron microscope
B. instrument measuring light scattering
C. Langmuir film balance
D. ultramicroscope
Answer: D. ultramicroscope
10. Surfactant solutions are termed as association colloids when their concentrations are:
A. insufficient to saturate the bulk phase
B. insufficient to saturate the interface
C. less than critical micellar concentration (cmc)
D. more than cmc
Answer: D. more than cmc
11. Name the type of colloidal dispersion to which electrolytes are normally added in small quantities tostabilize:
A. association
B. lyophilic
C. lyophobic
D. micellar
Answer: C. lyophobic
12. Protective colloids DO NOT:
A. aid in dispersion
B. decrease the zeta potential
C. lower the interfacial tension
D. offer a mechanical barrier
Answer: C. lower the interfacial tension
13. Which one of the following colloids is difficult to prepare?
A. association
B. hydrophilic
C. hydrophobic
D. lyophilic
Answer: C. hydrophobic
14. In high concentrations, electrolytes destabilize a lyophilic sol by a process termed as :
A. coagulation
B. dilution
C. salting out
D. solvation
Answer: C. salting out
15. Which quality of the dispersed phase is responsible for the increased viscosity of a hydrophiliccolloidal dispersion?
A. charge
B. shape
C. size
D. surface area
Answer: D. surface area
16. Dispersion of acacia in water gives the colloid of type:
A. association
B. negative
C. neutral
D. positive
Answer: B. negative
17. Addition of alcohol to a hydrophilic colloid leads to:
A. crystallization
B. hydration
C. precipitation
D. stabilization
Answer: C. precipitation
18. The critical value of zeta potential (in milli volts) for a stable colloid (except gold sol) is:
A. from 20 to 50
B. from 50 to 100
C. less than 20
D. mor than 100
Answer: A. from 20 to 50
19. If kinetic energy of interaction is about 25 kT (Where k is gas constant), the system can be consideredto have:
A. deflocculated state
B. long half life
C. short half life
D. weak attractiton forces
Answer: B. long half life
20. In foams, the dispersed phase and dispersion medium, respectively, are:
A. gas and liquid
B. gas and solid
C. liquid and gas
D. solid and gas
Answer: A. gas and liquid
21. The characteristic of a lyophobic sol is that:
A. electrolytes in small amounts induce stabilization
B. it is reversible
C. particles have high electric charge
D. viscosity increases by the presence of particles
Answer: C. particles have high electric charge
22. Hydrosol refers to a system in which the dispersed phase and dispersion medium, respectively, are:
A. gas and water
B. liquid and water
C. solid and water
D. water and solid
Answer: C. solid and water
23. Electrodialysis is used, when impurities in a sol are:
A. amphiphiles
B. colloids
C. electrolytes
D. nonelctrolytes
Answer: C. electrolytes
24. Under ultramicroscope, colloid particles appear as:
A. bright specks against dark background
B. concentric rings
C. dark specks against bright background
D. fluorescent specks
Answer: A. bright specks against dark background
25. Which one of the following properties is extensively applied for determining the molecular weight ofpolymer?
A. depression of freezing point
B. elevation of boiling point
C. lowering of vapour pressure
D. osmotic pressure
Answer: D. osmotic pressure
26. Aerosol is the reverse of :
A. emulsion
B. liquid foam
C. smoke
D. solid foam
Answer: B. liquid foam
27. In the determination of the gold number of a protective colloid, the endpoint is indicated by:
A. measuring the change in particle size
B. noting sedimentation volume of gold
C. observing the color change
D. weighing of the precipitate
Answer: C. observing the color change
28. The semipermeable membrane used in haemodialysis is:
A. cellophane
B. cellulose acetate
C. polyethene
D. polyvinyl acetate
Answer: A. cellophane
29. The stability of acacia in water is due to:
A. formation of micelles
B. hydration of solids
C. lowering interfacial tension
D. presence of electrical charge
Answer: B. hydration of solids
30. The molecular weight of dispersed solids in a colloidal system can be determined using aninstrument:
A. ultracentrifuge
B. ultrafilters
C. ultramicroscope
D. zeta meter
Answer: A. ultracentrifuge
31. When the size of particle is less than 1nm then it is called
A. Molecular dispersions
B. Colloidal dispersions
C. Suspension
D. Emulsion
Answer: A. Molecular dispersions
32. The movement of colloidal particles through a liquid under the influence of electric field is called
A. Electrophoresis
B. Electro-osmosis
C. Electro chemical reaction
D. Electrodialysis
Answer: A. Electrophoresis
33. The potential difference develop when particles settle under the influence of gravity is called
A. Streaming potential
B. Oxidation Potential
C. Reduction potential
D. Sedimentation potential
Answer: D. Sedimentation potential
34. When distance between the particle are large, the particles experience attractive force and aggregatesare formed. This is known as
A. Primary minimum
B. Potential barrier
C. secondary minimum
D. Interparticle distance
Answer: C. secondary minimum
35. According to schulze-Hardy rule, the precipitating power increases rapidly with the
A. Presence of valence or charge of the ions
B. Lowering the interfacial tension
C. Decreasing the freezing point
D. Elevationof boiling point
Answer: A. Presence of valence or charge of the ions
36. When a beam of light is pass through a colloidal solution, the path of light gets illuminated. Thisphenomenon is known as
A. Brownian movement
B. Diffusion
C. Tyndall effect
D. Donnan effect
Answer: C. Tyndall effect
37. The continuous collisions between the colloidal particles and molecules of dispersion mediumproduce zigzag movement of colloidal particles which is known as
A. Brownian movement
B. Tyndall effect
C. Diffusion
D. Sedimentation
Answer: A. Brownian movement
38. The protective ability of colloids is measured as
A. Zeta potential
B. Streaming potential
C. Gold number
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Gold number
39. If the gold number is less then the protective action will be
A. more
B. Less
C. Half
D. Zero
Answer: A. more
40. In sol, the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are
A. Solid and liquis
B. Liquid and liquid
C. Solid and solid
D. Liquid and Gas
Answer: A. Solid and liquis
41. Homogenous phase (True solution) having size range of
A. 0.5 to 1.0 µm
B. <0.1 nm C. >0.01 µm
D. <0.01 µm
Answer: D. <0.01 µm
42. Heterogeneous phase (Coarse dispersion) having size range of …
A. 0.5 to 1.0 µm
B. 10 to 100 µm
C. 10 to 1000 µm
D. 1 to 10 µm
Answer: C. 10 to 1000 µm
43. Solubility of Drug can be improved by…
A. Targeting drug to specific organ
B. Addition of emulsifying agent
C. Addition of thickening agent
D. Addition of Surface active agent
Answer: D. Addition of Surface active agent
44. Targeting of drugs to specific organs can be achieved by
A. Liposomes
B. Emulsion
C. Syrup
D. Suspension
Answer: A. Liposomes
45. The following statement is appropriate for Molecular Dispersion
A. Diffusion rate is slow
B. Impermeable across semipermeable membrane
C. Does not scatter light
D. Particle size less than 1.0 µm
Answer: C. Does not scatter light
46. The following statement is NOT appropriate for Molecular dispersion
A. Shows tyndall effect
B. Does not scatter light
C. Diffusion rate is rapid
D. Does not settle on ultracentrifugation
Answer: A. Shows tyndall effect
47. The following statement is true for Colloidal dispersion
A. Diffusion rate is slow
B. Impermeable across semipermeable membrane
C. Shows tyndall effect
D. All of above
Answer: D. All of above
48. In _____Colloids, dispersed particles have a greater affinity to the dispersion medium.
A. Lyophilic colloids
B. Lyophobic colloids
C. Association colloids
D. Molecular colloids
Answer: A. Lyophilic colloids
49. Dispersion of rubber or polystyrene in benzene or ethyl methyl ketone is referred to as________
A. Hydrophilic colloids
B. Lyophilic colloids
C. Lyophobic colloids
D. Hydrophobic colloids
Answer: B. Lyophilic colloids
50. Lyophobic colloids can be prepared by
A. Chemical method
B. Peptization method
C. Electric arc method
D. All of above
Answer: D. All of above
51. A ………. is a mixture in which one substance of microscopically dispersed insoluble particles issuspended through another substance.
A. Suspension
B. Colloid
C. Emulsion
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Suspension
52. Few colloids are translucent because of the ..
A. Tyndall effect
B. Splitting effect
C. Scattering
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Tyndall effect
53. The comparatively fast sedimentation rate of the dispersed phase produced by means of gravity orother forces this is characteristic of…………..
A. Colloidal dispersion
B. Coarse dispersion
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Coarse dispersion
54. The molecule in the molecular dispersion phase have size………….
A. Less than 10 nm
B. More than 1 nm
C. Less than 1 nm
D. More than 10 nm
Answer: C. Less than 1 nm
55. The ………. colloids have strong attraction towards solvents.
A. Lyophilic
B. Lyophobic
C. Associated
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Lyophilic
56. ………. is the method accountable for the development of stable dispersion of colloidal particles indispersion medium.
A. Coacervation
B. Peptization
C. Flocculation
D. Coagulation
Answer: B. Peptization
57. The phenomenon which involves separation of macromolecular solutions into two liquid layers iscalled as………
A. Liquid separation
B. Coagulation
C. Flocculation
D. Coacervation
Answer: D. Coacervation
58. …..is directly proportional to the molecular weight of lyophilic colloid.
A. Solubility
B. Turbidity
C. Density
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Turbidity
Rheology
59. Flocculated suspensions exhibit the flow of a type:
A. Dilatant
B. Newtonian
C. Plastic
D. Pseudoplastic
Answer: C. Plastic
60. A limitation that is NOT related to the falling sphere viscometer:
A. Applicable to only less viscous liquids
B. Large volume of sample is required
C. Needs the sample to be transparent
D. Plug flow
Answer: D. Plug flow
61. In general, Newtonian fluids are expressed in terms of viscosity. A corresponding expression in nonNewtonian fluids (in terms of viscosity) is:
A. apparent
B. dynamic
C. intrinsic
D. kinematic
Answer: A. apparent
62. One of the following is NOT a one point viscometer, but can be used for the same purpose. Pick theviscometer of this type.
A. cup and bob
B. falling sphere
C. Ostwald
D. rolling ball
Answer: A. cup and bob
63. Fluidity is a term associated with newtoniam fluids. An equivalent term in plastic flow fluids is:
A. apparent viscosity
B. flexibility
C. mobility
D. plastic viscosity
Answer: C. mobility
64. Dilatant flow is characterized as a reverse phenomenon of:
A. newtoniam flow
B. plastic flow
C. pseudoplastic flow
D. rheopexy
Answer: C. pseudoplastic flow
65. Deflocculated suspension with high concentration of the dispersed solids exhibits the flow of type:
A. dilatant
B. newtoniam
C. plastic
D. pseudoplastic
Answer: A. dilatant
66. In antithixotropy, the down-curve is frequently positioned to: (with respect to up-curve):
A. left.
B. origin
C. right
D. superimposible
Answer: C. right
67. At equilibrium, the thixotropic behavior of a pseudoplastic system exhibit the state of:
A. gel
B. paste
C. sol
D. wax
Answer: C. sol
68. Which one of the following physical Property is NOT a rheological property?
A. body and slip
B. spreadability
C. surface tension
D. viscosity
Answer: C. surface tension
69. The pseudoplastic flow behavior can be explained by:
A. apparent viscosity
B. area of hysteresis loop
C. hysteresis loop
D. yield value
Answer: A. apparent viscosity
70. Brookfield viscometer is an example of type:
A. cone and plate
B. extrusion
C. rotation sphere
D. rotating spindle
Answer: D. rotating spindle
71. High viscosity indicates one of the following relationships in a system. Which is relevant?
A. free from intermolecular interactions
B. intermolecular attractions are stronger
C. intermolecular attractions are weaker
D. shape of the molecules is spherical
Answer: B. intermolecular attractions are stronger
72. An emulsion of o/w type has the viscosity:
A. greater than that of the internal phase
B. greater than that of the vehicle
C. less than that of the internal phase
D. less than that of the vehicle
Answer: A. greater than that of the internal phase
73. Creep testing is applied to analyse the viscoelastic property of:
A. emulsions
B. lotions
C. ointments
D. suspensions
Answer: C. ointments
74. The system that undergoes gel-to-sol transformation is known as:
A. elastic
B. permanent deformation
C. shear thickening
D. shear thinning
Answer: D. shear thinning
75. The type of viscosity specified in I.P. (Ostwald viscometer) is:
A. absolute viscosity
B. dynamic viscosity
C. kinematic viscosity
D. viscosity coefficient
Answer: C. kinematic viscosity
76. After giving the i.m. injection of procaine penicillin G, the process of forming a depot in the muscle isdue to:
A. high yield value
B. low consistency
C. low yield value
D. rapid thixotropic recovery
Answer: D. rapid thixotropic recovery
77. Pick the reason for the calibration of an instrument.
A. most of the instruments are not reliable
B. to calculate the constant for the instrument
C. to calculate the relative property
D. to correct the errors in the working of an instrument
Answer: D. to correct the errors in the working of an instrument
78. Plug flow in NOT observed in cone and plate viscometer. The reason is:
A. cleaning and filling of sample is easy
B. rate of shear is independent of the radius
C. shear can be maintained uniformly
D. temperature can be maintained uniformly
Answer: C. shear can be maintained uniformly
79. The term rheology was invented by
A. Bingham and Crawford
B. Newton
C. Michaelis and Menten
D. Watson and Crick
Answer: A. Bingham and Crawford
80. According to the Newton’s law of viscosity, “The shear stress in flowing fluid is__________ to therate of shear.”
A. Inversely proportional
B. directly proportional
C. Square root
D. Perpendicular
Answer: B. directly proportional
81. The unit of viscosity is
A. Newton sec m-2
B. Newton sec2 m2
C. Newton sec-1 m-1
D. Newton
Answer: A. Newton sec m-2
82. Fluidity is
A. reciprocal of density
B. reciprocal of surface tension
C. reciprocal of volume
D. reciprocal of viscosity
Answer: D. reciprocal of viscosity
83. Kinematic viscosity is the ratio of dynamic viscosity to the____________
A. density of the fluid
B. plastic viscosity
C. volume of liquid to flow
D. specific gravity of fluid
Answer: A. density of the fluid
84. The effect of temperature on the viscosity (η) of a liquid is expressed by
A. Stoke’s Law
B. Newton’s law
C. Arrhenius equation
D. Michaelis Menten equation
Answer: C. Arrhenius equation
85. The reciprocal of mobility is known as
A. Apparent viscosity
B. plastic viscosity
C. Dynamic viscosity
D. Kinematic viscosity
Answer: B. plastic viscosity
86. Pseudoplastic flow are also known as
A. shear thinning system
B. shear thickening system
C. Elastic deformation
D. Plastic deformation
Answer: A. shear thinning system
87. Dilatant flow is also known as
A. shear thinning system
B. shear thickening system
C. Elastic deformation
D. Plastic deformation
Answer: B. shear thickening system
88. Negative Thixotropy is a phenomenon in which there is
A. increase in viscosity on down curve
B. increase in viscosity on up curve
C. decrease in viscosity on down curve
D. decrease in viscosity on up curve
Answer: A. increase in viscosity on down curve
89. Which of the following is not a viscometers
A. Capillary
B. Falling Sphere
C. Rotational
D. Drop weight
Answer: D. Drop weight
90. Which of the following viscometer is also called suspended-level viscometer
A. Ubbelohde viscometer
B. Capillary viscometer
C. Ostwald viscometer
D. Cone and plate viscometer
Answer: A. Ubbelohde viscometer
91. Pseudoplastic flow is generally exhibited by
A. Jellies
B. Suspension
C. Lotion
D. Colloids
Answer: A. Jellies
92. Concentrated solid suspension generally exhibit
A. Dilatant flow
B. Pseudoplastic flow
C. Plastic flow
D. All of the above
Answer: C. Plastic flow
93. Rheology is the
A. Science or study of the flow of a material.
B. Study of particle size
C. Study of formation of colloids
D. Study of formation of complex
Answer: A. Science or study of the flow of a material.
94. The change in velocity between two planes of liquid which is separated by distance is called
A. Rate of shear
B. Shearing stress
C. Strain
D. Yield value
Answer: A. Rate of shear
95. Which of the following viscometer is based on the principle of Stokes’ Law.
A. Cup and Bob viscometer
B. Falling Sphere Viscometer
C. Cone and plate viscometer
D. Rotational viscometer
Answer: B. Falling Sphere Viscometer
96. The resistance of a liquid to flow is termed as
A. Viscosity
B. Density
C. In ter facial tension
D. Surface tension
Answer: A. Viscosity
97. A shear stress-shear rate relationship is generally explained in the form of curve i.e. or………
A. Rheogram
B. Consistency curve
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Both of the above
98. The cgs physical unit for kinematic viscosity is ……………
A. Stokes (St)
B. Pascale (PS)
C. Newton
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Stokes (St)
99. As the temperature increases, the viscosity of liquid……………
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Sustainly increases
D. Remains constant
Answer: A. Decreases
100. The curve for a pseudo plastic material rheogram…………….
A. starts at the origin
B. starts at the top
C. both of the above
D. none of the above
Answer: A. starts at the origin
101. In psedoplastic flow as shear stress increases, shear rate……………
A. Increases
B. Increases but linear
C. Increases but not linear
D. Decreases
Answer: C. Increases but not linear
102. Dilatant materials are frequently called as……………
A. strain-thinning systems
B. shear-thickening systems
C. shear-thinning systems
D. strain-thinning systems
Answer: B. shear-thickening systems
103. The Rheogram of thixotropic material determined by……………….
A. Duration through which sample is exposed to any one shear rate.
B. Rate at which shear increased or decreased.
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Both of the above
104. ……. is the isothermal and moderately slow recovery on standing of material of which stability lost owing to shearing.
A. Thermochemistry
B. Viscosity
C. Entiotropy
D. Thixotropy
Answer: D. Thixotropy
105. ……is the alteration in the shape and the size of a body owing to applied external forces and internalforces.
A. Deformation
B. Formation
C. Conjugation
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Deformation
Deformation of Solid
106. A wetting agent is included in the formulation of a suspension, particularly when the suspendedparticles:
A. are hydrophobic
B. are more denser than the vehicle
C. are water soluble
D. have lesser interfacial tension
Answer: A. are hydrophobic
107. For a flocculated suspension, one of the following criterion is satisfied or established
A. High inter-particle repulsions
B. strong inter-particle attractions
C. weak inter-particle attractions
D. weak inter-particle repulsions
Answer: C. weak inter-particle attractions
108. In stokes’ relationship, a parameter that greatly changes the velocity of settling is:
A. density of the liquid
B. density of particle
C. radius of the particle
D. viscosity of the medium
Answer: C. radius of the particle
109. The protamine-zinc insulin suspension is prepared by a method viz.,:
A. altered pH precipitation
B. dispersion method
C. double decomposition
D. organic solvent precipitation
Answer: A. altered pH precipitation
110. Methyl cellulose is a polymer, which is of a type:
A. anionic
B. amphilytic
C. cationic
D. non-ionic
Answer: D. non-ionic
111. For a flocculated suspension the degree of flocculation is observed to be one. The sedimentationvolume is also 1 (one). These values, respectively, indicate the limits:
A. lower and lower
B. lower and upper
C. upper and lower
D. upper and upper
Answer: B. lower and upper
112. For an ideal suspension, the sedimentation volume should be:
A. equal to one
B. less than one
C. more than one
D. zero
Answer: A. equal to one
113. In case of suspensions, all statements below are true EXCEPT that:
A. it contains a suspending agent
B. it does not include a preservative
C. it is an injectable preparation
D. it is an oral preparation
Answer: B. it does not include a preservative
114. In practice, an acceptable suspension should have particles:
A. of nearly 0.1 micrometer
B. which can be readily re-dispersible after they settle
C. which should form a cake after settling
D. should not settle
Answer: B. which can be readily re-dispersible after they settle
115. For oral administration of a suspension to a patient, which one of the factors is the most important?
A. acceptable color and odour
B. polyumorphism
C. specific surface area
D. viscosity
Answer: A. acceptable color and odour
116. Which one of the following properties is applicable to suspensions?
A. Brownian movement
B. laminar flow
C. rapid rate of sedimentation
D. strokes’ law
Answer: C. rapid rate of sedimentation
117. Suspended particles become flocculated in a suspension, because:
A. attractive forces between particles are appreciable
B. particles are packed closely
C. repulsive forces between particles are appreciable
D. vehicle rejects the particles
Answer: A. attractive forces between particles are appreciable
118. Structured vehicle is included in the formulation of a suspension, in order to:
A. decrease the interfacial tension
B. prevent the caking of the sediment
C. prevent the sedimentation of particles
D. reduce the size by chemical me
Answer: A. decrease the interfacial tension
119. In the preparation of a structured vehicle, which one of the following substances is used?
A. bismuth subnitrate
B. ethyl alcohol
C. glycerin
D. methyl cellulose
Answer: D. methyl cellulose
120. Which type of colloidal material is used commonly in the preparation of a structured vehicle?
A. association
B. hydrophilic
C. hydrophobic
D. inorganic
Answer: B. hydrophilic
121. When charcoal powder is dusted on the surface of water, the contact angle (in degrees) that thecharcoal exhibits is:
A. zero
B. one
C. 90
D. 180
Answer: D. 180
122. A maximum sedimentation volume will be obtained when zeta potential is:
A. negative
B. neutral
C. positive
D. zero
Answer: D. zero
123. A substance is dissolved in water. The suspension has exhibited a negative apparent zeta potential.Identify the related substance.
A. aluminum chloride
B. bismuth subnitrate
C. gelatin
D. sulfaguanidine
Answer: D. sulfaguanidine
124. Calcium hydrogen phosphate is dissolved in water. The apparent zeta potential initially is:
A. negative
B. neutral
C. positive
D. zero
Answer: A. negative
125. Which one of these preparations is NOT qualified as a suspension.
A. barium meal for radiodiagnostic use
B. calamine lotion for antiseptic use
C. procaine penicillin G for intramuscular injection
D. vitamin B complex tonic as nutritional supplement
Answer: D. vitamin B complex tonic as nutritional supplement
126. The ratio of the ultimate volume of sediment to the actual volume of sediment before settling is called
A. Sedimentation volume
B. Degree of flocculation
C. Emulsification volume
D. phase volume ratio
Answer: A. Sedimentation volume
127. The ratio of the sedimentation volume in case of flocculated suspension to the sedimentation volumein case of deflocculated suspension is called
A. Sedimentation volume
B. Degree of flocculation
C. Emulsification volume
D. phase volume ratio
Answer: B. Degree of flocculation
128. The size of dispersed particles in coarse dispersion ranges from
A. 1 µm to 100 µm.
B. 1 nm to l00nm
C. 1mm to 100cm
D. Less than 1 µm
Answer: A. 1 µm to 100 µm.
129. Which of the following are the desired features of good suspension:
A. The particles which settle down should not deposit at the bottom as hard cake. They must be easily re-suspended by moderate shaking.
B. It should be free from grittiness.
C. It should be stable in case of physical, chemical and microbial attack.
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
130. In flocculated suspension, the rate of sedimentation is
A. Low
B. More
C. Zero
D. 50%
Answer: B. More
131. If zeta potential of a suspension is high, then the system will be considered as
A. Deflocculation
B. Flocculation
C. Emulsion
D. Sedimentation
Answer: A. Deflocculation
132. Which of the following is/are the properties of flocculated suspension?
A. Rate of sedimentation is high
B. On shaking sediment can be easily redispersed
C. It does not form hard cake
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
133. The value of sedimentation volume (F) gives a knowledge about the____________of the suspension
A. physical stability
B. Incompatibility
C. Solubility
D. All of the above
Answer: A. physical stability
134. Suspension is example of
A. Biphasic liquid dosage form
B. Solid dosage form
C. Semi-solid dosage form
D. All of the above
Answer: A. Biphasic liquid dosage form
135. Acetates and Citrates are
A. Buffering agent
B. Colouring agents
C. Thickening agent
D. Flocculating agents
Answer: A. Buffering agent
Coarse Dispersion- Emulsion
136. In an emulsion, the velocity of sedimentation is found to be negative. It means that the creaming is:
A. absent
B. in both the directions
C. in downward direction
D. in upward direction
Answer: D. in upward direction
137. The density of the dispersed phase is more than that of the dispersion medium. According to theStokes’ equation, the creaming is:
A. at the center of the emulsion
B. in both the directions
C. in downward direction
D. in upward direction
Answer: C. in downward direction
138. When oil and water are triturated together, the interfacial free energy was observed to be increased.What does it indicate?:
A. decrease in the interfacial tension
B. decrease in the stability
C. increase in stability
D. stable film formation
Answer: B. decrease in the stability
139. For a stable emulsion, the phase volume ratio is generally about:
A. 26/74
B. 52/48
C. 74/26
D. 74/100
Answer: B. 52/48
140. The HLB range of an emulsifier employed in the preparation of water-in-oil emulsion is:
A. 3 to 6
B. 7 to 12
C. 13 to 15
D. more than 15
Answer: A. 3 to 6
141. In case of emulsions, the viscosity immediately after preparation and during storage, respectively, willbe:
A. higher and will gradually decrease
B. higher and gradually increase
C. lower and gradually decrease
D. lower and gradually increase
Answer: C. lower and gradually decrease
142. The distribution of globules is not uniform in an emulsion. This stage is termed as:
A. breaking
B. caking
C. coalescence
D. creaming
Answer: D. creaming
143. An o/w microemulsion is prepared using a hydrophilic surfactant. The appearance of themicroemulsion is:
A. intense white
B. milky white
C. translucent
D. tr
Answer: A. intense white
144. Emulsions are defined as thermodynamically unstable systems. The events that follow sequentiallytowards instability are:
A. coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation
B. coalescence, flocculation, creaming and breaking
C. flocculation, creaming, breaking and coalescence
D. flocculation, creaming, coalescence and breaking
Answer: D. flocculation, creaming, coalescence and breaking
145. In the stability of emulsion, which instability step is prevented by emulsifiers?:
A. breaking
B. coalescence
C. creaming
D. flocculation
Answer: B. coalescence
146. An ‘emulsion within emulsion’ is designated as:
A. o/w/w
B. w/o/o
C. w/o/o/w
D. w/o/w
Answer: D. w/o/w
147. The main function of an emulsifier in the preparation of an emulsion is to:
A. develop a condensed membrane layer film
B. increase the repulsions between globules coming together
C. increase the surface free energy
D. reduce the interfacial tension
Answer: A. develop a condensed membrane layer film
148. An emulsifier can be regarded as superior, if its mechanism of action is based on the principle of:
A. developing solid adsorption film
B. forming monomolecular adsorption film
C. generating multimolecular adsorption film
D. increasing interfacial energy
Answer: B. forming monomolecular adsorption film
149. An emulsifier is considered to be ideal, if it is soluble in:
A. aqueous, oil and gas phases
B. aqueous phase only
C. both aqueous and oil phase
D. oil phase only
Answer: C. both aqueous and oil phase
150. On commercial scale, emulsions are prepared by::
A. centrifugation
B. dialysis
C. freezing
D. homogenization
Answer: D. homogenization
151. Microemulsion is NOT considered to be a true emulsion, because:
A. appearance is transparent
B. emulsifier is not used
C. immiscible phase is absent
D. internal phase is not spherical
Answer: C. immiscible phase is absent
152. A variety of factors would influence the rate of creaming in an emulsion.The factor open to formulation pharmacist is to regulate:
A. density of dispersion medium
B. density of dispersed phase
C. globule size
D. volume of dispersion medium
Answer: C. globule size
153. Normally preservatives are added to an emulsion. One of the following statements is true.
A. amount of the preservative added is below minimum inhibitory concentration
B. emulsifier should enhance the preservative action
C. preservatives remain in the aqueous phase
D. preservatives stay in the oil phase
Answer: C. preservatives remain in the aqueous phase
154. For the formulation of w/o emulsion, the coalescence rate of:
A. w/o has no relationship to the type of emulsion formed
B. o/w is equal to w/o coalescence rate
C. o/w is greater than w/o coalescence rate
D. w/o is greater than the o/w coalescence rate
Answer: C. o/w is greater than w/o coalescence rate
155. Auxiliary emulsifying agents are used to stabilize the emulsion. They act on the principle:
A. adjusting the HLB value
B. strengthening the nonpolar tails of the emulsifier ^
C. strengthening the polar heads of the emulsifier
D. thickening the continuous phase
Answer: D. thickening the continuous phase
156. Emulsion have a ……… shelf life
A. short
B. no
C. large
D. none of the above
Answer: A. short
157. Creaming is a………. process
A. reversible
B. irreversible
C. A & B
D. difficult to predict
Answer: A. reversible
158. O/W emulsions normally cream ………
A. up first & down then
B. upward
C. downward
D. none of the above
Answer: B. upward
159. Microemulsions contain globules of the size about ………
A. 10 micro meter
B. 1 micro meter
C. 0.1 micrometer
D. 0.01 micrometer
Answer: D. 0.01 micrometer
160. Downward creaming means …….. rate of sedimentation
A. negative
B. positive
C. same
D. no change
Answer: A. negative
161. A mixture of span 20 and tween 20 forms……. type of emulsion
A. W/O
B. O/W
C. Milky
D. Hard
Answer: A. W/O
162. Density of oily phase increased by addition of …….
A. Butter
B. Coconut oil
C. water
D. brominated oils
Answer: C. water
163. Near CMC, micelles of the surfactant molecules assume the shape of
A. spherical
B. layered
C. rod shaped
D. cylindrical
Answer: A. spherical
164. Which one of the following emulsifier is used to stabilise the emulsion of W/O type
A. SLS
B. Span 20
C. Tween 20
D. Tragacanth
Answer: B. Span 20
165. Creaming in emulsion can be controlled by regulating
A. density of dispersed phase
B. density of dispersion medium
C. globule size
D. volume of dispersion medium
Answer: C. globule size
166. An emulsifier is considered to be ideal, if it is soluble in
A. Aqueous phase
B. oily phase
C. A & B
D. none of the above
Answer: C. A & B
167. In the stability of emulsion, which important instability step should be prevented?
A. Breaking
B. Coalescence
C. Flocculation
D. Creaming
Answer: B. Coalescence
168. Emulsions made with tweens are
A. W/O
B. O/W
C. Clear
D. Unstable
Answer: B. O/W
169. The HLB system is used classify
A. Flavours
B. Colours
C. Surfactants
D. Perfumes
Answer: C. Surfactants
170. Emulsion containing more than two phases are called as
A. Mixed emulsion
B. Multiple emulsion
C. Complex emulsion
D. none of the above
Answer: B. Multiple emulsion
171. Emulsion is
A. stable preparation
B. thermodynamically unstable preparation
C. biphasic system
D. B & C
Answer: D. B & C
172. Which of the following is/ are the theories of emulsification?
A. Monomolecular adsorption theory
B. Multimolecular adsorption theory
C. Solid Particle Adsorption theory
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
173. Which of the following is not the cause of Instability in emulsion
A. Upward Creaming
B. Phase inversion
C. Downward creaming
D. Mottling
Answer: D. Mottling
174. Which of the following is a reversible phenomenon
A. Creaming
B. Coalescence
C. Breaking
D. All of the above
Answer: A. Creaming
175. The phase inversion occur due to
A. changes in type of emulsifying agent
B. change in phase volume ratio.
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Both a and b
176. Which of the following is used as antioxidants for emulsified systems
A. Dodecyl gallate,
B. Butylated hydroxyanisole (BHT),
C. Butylated hydroxytoluene (BHT)
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
177. Which of the following is identification test for emulsion
A. Dilution test
B. Cobalt Chloride Test
C. Conductivity Test
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
178. When an emulsion is exposed to ultra-violet radiations. If the continuous fluorescence is observedunder microscope, then it is_____________ type emulsion.
A. w/o
B. o/w
C. microemulsion
D. Nano emulsion
Answer: A. w/o
179. Dry Gum Method is also known as
A. Continental method.
B. English method
C. Bottle method
D. Forbe’s method
Answer: A. Continental method.
180. In Dry gum method, 4:2:1 consist of
A. 4 parts oil, 2 parts water, and 1 part emulsifier
B. 4 parts water, 2 parts oil, and 1 part emulsifier
C. 4 parts emulsifier, 2 parts water, and 1 part emulsifier
D. 4 parts oil, 2 parts emulsifier and 1 part water
Answer: A. 4 parts oil, 2 parts water, and 1 part emulsifier
181. The rheological property of emulsion can be controlled by
A. nature and concentration of emulsifying system
B. particle size of dispersed phase
C. viscosity of continuous phase
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
182. The suspensions having particle size………………. are categorized as coarse suspension.
A. Greater than ~1 mm
B. Greater than-10 mm
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Greater than ~1 mm
183. ………… exists when dispersed solid particles in a suspension retain change in relation their adjoiningliquid medium.
A. Surface area
B. Surface potential
C. Surface volume
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Surface potential
184. The equal distribution of all the ions in solution retain by……
A. Electric forces
B. Thermal motion
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Both of the above
185. The flocculated suspension is one in which zeta potential of particle is…… .
A. -05 to +05 mV
B. -10 to+10 mV
C. -20 to+20 mV
D. -30 to+30 mV
Answer: C. -20 to+20 mV
186. …… determines the movement of charged particles via a liquid under the impact of anapplied potential difference.
A. Electrophoresis
B. Electrosmosis
C. Surface charge
D. Static movement
Answer: A. Electrophoresis
187. ……….is produced by forcing a liquid to course through a stationary solid phase.
A. Electrosmosis
B. Electrophoresis
C. The sediment potential
D. The streaming potential
Answer: D. The streaming potential
188. The flocculated suspensions sediment………….
A. Slowly
B. Quickly
C. More quickly
D. None of the above
Answer: C. More quickly
189. ……….suspension involves individual particle settling.
A. Flocculated
B. Deflocculated
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Deflocculated
190. Structured vehicles are also termed as or…………..
A. Thickening
B. Suspending agents
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Both of the above
191. ……. is the concentration of globules at the top or bottom of the emulsion.
A. Creaming
B. Cracking
C. Phase inversion
D. State
Answer: A. Creaming
Micromeritics
192. Which of the following properties of a particle significantly affects the physical, chemical andbiological properties of the drug?
A. density
B. sedimentation
C. size
D. surface area
Answer: D. surface area
193. It is difficult to express the size of particles in a meaningful diameter.
A. irregular in shape
B. irregular surface
C. spherical shape
D. uniform in size
Answer: A. irregular in shape
194. The type of a particle diameter obtained largely depends on:
A. method by which it is determined
B. nature of the powder
C. procedure by which it is calculated
D. way it is defined and described
Answer: A. method by which it is determined
195. When cumulative percent frequency on a probability scale is plotted against logarithm of the particlesize, 50 percent on the probability scale gives the powder particle diameter of:
A. arithmetic mean
B. arithmetic mode
C. geometric mean
D. harmonic mean
Answer: C. geometric mean
196. Which one of these distributions is more important in the design of dosage forms?
A. Gaussian
B. normal
C. number
D. weight
Answer: D. weight
197. In the formulation development of emulsions and suspensions, what type of diameter is important?
A. length number
B. projected
C. sieve
D. stokes
Answer: D. stokes
198. Sieving method is used for size distribution analysis of powder. The disadvantage of this method is:
A. agglomerates can be identified
B. attrition of powder is possible
C. large number of sieves are required
D. tedious and time consuming
Answer: B. attrition of powder is possible
199. While using sedimentation method for size analysis, addition of a deflocculating agent to a suspensionis necessary in order to:
A. accelerate the process of sedimentation
B. make the particles spherical
C. prevent the aggregation
D. satisfy Reynolds number
Answer: C. prevent the aggregation
200. Stokes’ law cannot be used, if Reynolds number is more than:
A. 0.2
B. 1.8
C. 9.0
D. 18.0
Answer: A. 0.2
201. Andreasen apparatus consists of:
A. balance
B. electrodes
C. hydrometer
D. pipette
Answer: C. hydrometer
202. When coulter-counter apparatus is employed for powder analysis, the following criterion is important:
A. dispersion medium should be colored
B. dispersion medium should be conducting
C. suspended particles should be charged
D. suspended particles should be spherical
Answer: B. dispersion medium should be conducting
203. In coulter-counter, as the particles travel through the orifice, the event that occurs is:
A. conductance between the electrodes increases
B. electronic scanners produce photographs for volume measurement
C. resistance between the electrodes increases
D. sedimentation increases
Answer: C. resistance between the electrodes increases
204. Fisher subsieve sizer is used to determine the surface area of the powder. The surface area ismeasured based on the change in:
A. light transmission of gas that reaches the detector
B. pressure across the compacted powder
C. thermal conductivity of gas across the powdered pack
D. weight of powder when air is passed through the powdered pack
Answer: D. weight of powder when air is passed through the powdered pack
205. High repose angle of the granules indicated:
A. bulk density of the granules
B. porosity of the granules
C. roughness of the granule surface
D. smoothness of the granule surface
Answer: C. roughness of the granule surface
206. The true density of talc is 2.7 g/cc, the bulk density (g/cc) of talc will be:
A. equal to 2.7
B. greater than 2.7
C. less than 2.7
D. unrelated
Answer: C. less than 2.7
207. The angle of repose values are utilized to:
A. measure the movement of granules from hopper to the table of tabletting/capsule machine
B. select proper containers for capsules of a given mass of powders
C. study the absorption of drugs
D. understand dissolution of medicament
Answer: A. measure the movement of granules from hopper to the table of tabletting/capsule machine
208. The term ‘light’ as applied to pharmaceutical powders means:
A. low bulk density
B. low granule density
C. low true density
D. slightly coloured
Answer: B. low granule density
209. The type of particle diameter that is obtained by microscope method of evaluation is:
A. projected
B. stokes’
C. volume
D. volume-surface
Answer: A. projected
210. Porosity of a porous powder is defined as:
A. bulk volume/void volume
B. void volume/bulk volume
C. void volume/true volume
D. true volume/bulk volume
Answer: B. void volume/bulk volume
211. Which equation is used to convert number distribution to weight distribution
A. Noyes whitney equation
B. Hatch Choate equation
C. Henderson Hasselbalch equation
D. Higuchi equation
Answer: B. Hatch Choate equation
212. Coulter counter is used to determine
A. Particle volume
B. Particle Number
C. Particle interaction
D. Viscosity
Answer: A. Particle volume
213. The ratio of void volume to bulk volume is known as
A. Bulk density
B. Tapped density
C. Porosity
D. Granule volume
Answer: A. Bulk density
214. If Carr’s compressibility index value is in between 26 to 31, then flow will be
A. Poor
B. Excellent
C. Passable
D. Very, very poor
Answer: A. Poor
215. Hausner Ratio is
A. Tapped density / Bulk density
B. Bulk density / Tapped density
C. bulk volume / void volume
D. void volume / bulk volume
Answer: A. Tapped density / Bulk density
216. The powder having low bulk density or large bulk volume is known as
A. Light powder
B. Heavy powder
C. Bulk powder
D. Granular powder
Answer: A. Light powder
217. The term Micromeritics was given by
A. J.M. Dalla Valle
B. James Kelvin
C. William Procter
D. Mahadeva Lai Schroff
Answer: A. J.M. Dalla Valle
218. Andreasen pipette is widely used method to determine particle size distribution by
A. Microscopy method
B. sedimentation method
C. Sieving method
D. All of the above
Answer: B. sedimentation method
219. Porosity is expressed in
A. Percentage
B. Millimeter
C. Gram/Millimeter
D. Newton
Answer: A. Percentage
220. Helium Pycnometer is used to determine
A. Size
B. True density
C. Sedimentation rate
D. Surface area
Answer: B. True density
221. The porosity of powder is equal to
A. Ratio of void volume to bulk volume.
B. Sum of void volume to bulk volume
C. Product of void volume to bulk volume
D. Void volume only
Answer: A. Ratio of void volume to bulk volume.
222. The distance between two tangents on opposite sides of the particle parallel to some fixed direction.
A. Feret’s diameter
B. Martin diameter
C. Projected diameter
D. Stoke’s diameter
Answer: A. Feret’s diameter
223. Andreason apparatus consist of
A. Reference electrode
B. Pipette
C. Glass electrode
D. Hydrogen electrode
Answer: B. Pipette
224. The physical, chemical, and pharmacologic properties of a drug are directly affected by……
A. Size
B. Surface area
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Both of the above
225. …………is the science and technology of small particles.
A. Micromeritics
B. Microscopy
C. Rheology
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Micromeritics
226. The unit of particle size used is in…………
A. Kilometer (km)
B. Centimeter (Cm)
C. Millimeter (mm)
D. Micrometer (µm)
Answer: D. Micrometer (µm)
227. 1 micrometer (µm) is equal to
A. 10-5 m
B. 10-6 m
C. 10-7 m
D. 10-8 m
Answer: B. 10-6 m
228. Particle size with diameter of 0.5-1.0 Micrometers (µm) is useful for……..
A. Emulsions
B. Suspensions
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Both of the above
229. The size of a sphere is freely stated in terms of its………….
A. Area
B. Diameter
C. Radius
D. Volume
Answer: B. Diameter
230. ……is the diameter of a sphere having, the same observed area as the particle when viewed normal toits most stable plane.
A. The surface diameter (ds)
B. The projected diameter (dp)
C. The volume diameter (dv)
D. The Stokes diameter (dst)
Answer: B. The projected diameter (dp)
231. …. is the number of particles per unit weight.
A. Particle volume
B. Particle number
C. Particle mean
D. Particle weight
Answer: B. Particle number
232. …….technique is utilized for estimation of surface diameter ds.
A. Air permeability
B. Vacuum
C. Filtration
D. Weighing
Answer: A. Air permeability
233. The ratio of the void volume to the bulk volume of the packing is called as the………………..
A. Tap density
B. Bulk density
C. Followability
D. Porosity
Answer: D. Porosity
Drug Stability – Chemical Kinetics
234. In the photochemical degradation of multisulpha preparation, the order that the reaction follows is:
A. first
B. pseudo first
C. second
D. zero
Answer: D. zero
235. The integral rate equation for a reaction (in common notation) is written as log C = log Co – (kt/2.303).When a graph is drawn log c vs. t, the slope will be:
A. negative
B. one
C. Positive
D. Zero
Answer: A. negative
236. The integral equation (in common notation) k = x/at (a – x) is concerned with the order:
A. first
B. pseudo first
C. second
D. zero
Answer: C. second
237. When a series of steps are involved in a reaction, the ‘overall rate’ of a reaction depends upon therate(s) of:
A. all steps
B. all steps which follow the slowest step
C. all steps which precede the slowest step
D. the slowest step
Answer: C. all steps which precede the slowest step
238. The solid state decomposition of aspirin in presence of moisture follows the order:
A. first
B. pseudofirst
C. second
D. zero
Answer: D. zero
239. The reaction rate constant (k) is 2.0 x 10-3 min.-1 for aspirin hydrolysis in 0.1 N hydrochloric acid at1mg/ml concentration. Under same conditions, if the product contains aspirin 4 mg/ml of the initial concentration, the k value in minutes-1 will be:
A. 0.5 x l0-3
B. 2.0 x 10-3
C. 4.0 x 10-3
D. 8.0 x 10-3
Answer: B. 2.0 x 10-3
240. A second order reaction follows pseudo-first order reaction, when the concentrations of:
A. two reactants are high
B. two reactants are low
C. one reactant is far higher than the other reactant.
D. two reactants are equal
Answer: C. one reactant is far higher than the other reactant.
241. In the study of the rate of a reaction, 100 ml of 0.1 N hydrochloric acid is added to 10 ml methylacetate for the reaction to occur. The reason for making such a proportion is to make:
A. analysis of degradation is easy
B. reaction to follow first order
C. reaction to proceed slowly
D. reaction to undergo a pseudo first order
Answer: D. reaction to undergo a pseudo first order
242. The conversion of trans-stilbene to cis-stilbene follows the molecularity:
A. bimolecular
B. termolecular
C. unimolecular
D. zeromolccular
Answer: C. unimolecular
243. In the hydrolysis of sucrose in hydrochloric acid solution, the change in the optical rotation followsthe order:
A. pseudofirst
B. pseudo zero
C. second
D. zero
Answer: A. pseudofirst
244. In the degradation studies of aspirin suspension, the orders observed initially and at the end,respectively, are: –
A. first, second
B. first, zero
C. second, first
D. zero, first
Answer: D. zero, first
245. A prescription of liquid aspirin preparation contained 6.5 g/100 ml. The solubility of aspirin at 25°Cis 0.33 g/100 ml. The order of reaction in the kinetic study is:
A. apparent first
B. apparent zero
C. first
D. second
Answer: B. apparent zero
246. The time required for the complete degradation of a drug in solution is a finite value. The order ofthat reaction is:
A. first
B. pseudo first
C. second
D. zero
Answer: D. zero
247. Normally, ethyl acetate undergoes hydrolysis in presence of H+and (OH)-ions. The order of the reaction observed in the acidic and alkaline solutions, respectively, are:
A. first and second
B. pseudo first and second
C. second and first
D. second and pseudo first
Answer: B. pseudo first and second
248. In reactions that follow first order kinetics, half life is expressed by equation:
A. 0.693/k1
B. 0.301/k1
C. 0.105/k1
D. k1/0.693
Answer: A. 0.693/k1
249. The units for the specific rate constant for a second order reaction are:
A. liter/moles.sec
B. liter.sec/moles
C. moles/liter.sec
D. moles.sec/liter
Answer: A. liter/moles.sec
250. The half life of a first order reaction is 4 years. What is its shelf life (in years)?
A. 0.02
B. 0.03
C. 0.17
D. 0.61
Answer: D. 0.61
251. Which one of the following dosage forms exhibit faster rate of reaction under normal conditions?
A. emulsions
B. ointments
C. solutions
D. suspensions
Answer: C. solutions
252. In chemical kinetics, the rate of a reaction is expressed as (-dc/dt), where dc refers to theconcentration. Whose concentration does it refer to?
A. catalyst
B. product
C. reactant
D. solvent medium
Answer: C. reactant
253. Which one of the following can be designated as the molecularity of a reaction?
A. half
B. one
C. one and half
D. zero
Answer: B. one
254. Which one of them is refered as a general rate equation (-dc/dt) for a second order?
A. A°B°
B. A1B1
C. A1B2
D. A2B2
Answer: B. A1B1
255. Which-one of the following orders have abundant applications in biological processes?
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. zero
Answer: A. first
256. In a chemical reaction, the rate constant is independent of the initial concentration. Which one ofthem is the order?
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. zero
Answer: D. zero
257. Chemical kinetics is the study of the
A. rate of chemical reactions
B. particle size
C. rheological property
D. interfacial tension
Answer: A. rate of chemical reactions
258. Rate of reaction is the
A. number of reactant molecules or atoms that take part in chemical reactions to give the products.
B. sum of exponents or powers of concentration terms in the rate equation
C. time required for reactant concentration to decrease to 90% of the initial concentration.
D. speed at which chemical reaction takes place
Answer: D. speed at which chemical reaction takes place
259. When rate is independent of the reactant concentration, then it is called
A. zero order reaction.
B. Pseudo zero order reaction
C. First order reaction
D. Second order reaction
Answer: A. zero order reaction.
260. In the equation, Rate = k[C]c[D]d, the order of the above reaction is
A. k
B. C + D
C. [C] *[D]
D. c + d
Answer: D. c + d
261. Which of the following is the half life of zero order reaction
A. t1/2 = Ao/2k
B. t1/2 = 0.693/2k
C. t1/2 = Ao/2
D. t1/2 = 2k/ Ao
Answer: A. t1/2 = Ao/2k
262. The unit of k for zero order reaction is
A. moles/litre/second
B. moles
C. moles/second
D. moles/litre
Answer: A. moles/litre/second
263. Which of the following is the half life of first order reaction
A. t1/2 = A0/2k
B. t1/2 = 0.693/2k
C. t1/2 = 2k
D. t1/2 = 0.693/k
Answer: D. t1/2 = 0.693/k
264. The unit of rate constant for second order reaction is
A. litre.mole-2 sec-2
B. litre.mole-2 sec-1
C. litre
D. litre.mole-1 sec-1
Answer: D. litre.mole-1 sec-1
265. Which of the following method/s used for determination of order of reaction?
A. Graphic method
B. Substitution method
C. Half life method
D. All of the above –
Answer: D. All of the above –
266. The value of t1/2 for second order reaction is
A. 1/ak
B. 0.693/k
C. Ao/2k
D. Ao/2
Answer: A. 1/ak
Drug Stability
267. The accelerated stability studies are primarily used to determine:
A. energy of the activation of the reaction
B. k value at elevated temperatures
C. k value at the room temperature
D. shelf life of the product
Answer: D. shelf life of the product
268. The specific rate constant (k) determined for aspirin hydrolysis in pH 1.0 buffer at 1 mg/mlconcentration is 2.0×10-3 min-1 at 25°C. The shelf life of the product is (in minutes):
A. 2.0
B. 52
C. 104
D. 346
Answer: B. 52
269. In general, reaction rate constants in neutral pH are comparatively:
A. equal
B. higher
C. lower
D. zero
Answer: C. lower
270. The expiry date for a tablet is not mentioned on the label. It means that the expiry time in years is:
A. five years
B. nil
C. three years
D. two years
Answer: A. five years
271. Penicillin G is prepared as a salt of procaine penicillin G. Now the rate of decomposition of penicillinG will be:
A. increased
B. reduced
C. unchanged
D. unpredictable
Answer: B. reduced
272. According to International Pharmaceutical Federation, the recommended overages be limited to themaximum percent of:
A. five
B. ten
C. thirty
D. twenty
Answer: C. thirty
273. Usually, the rate of a chemical reaction may be enhanced by:
A. cooling the reaction mixture
B. increasing the rate of stirring
C. raising the temperature of the reaction mixture
D. using stoichiometric quantities of each reactant
Answer: C. raising the temperature of the reaction mixture
274. Which of the following expression is correct for the determination of shelf life for a first orderdecomposition?
A. t1/2 = 0.105/k
B. t90 = 0.693/k
C. t1/2 = 0.693/k
D. t90 = 0.105/k
Answer: D. t90 = 0.105/k
275. Regarding the influence of the solvent on the rate of reaction, solvents having the internal pressure:
A. HIGHER produce products with HIGHER internal pressure
B. HIGHER favour the formation of products having LOWER internal pressure
C. LOWER yield products having HIGHER internal pressure
D. LOWER retard the formation of products with LOWER internal pressure
Answer: A. HIGHER produce products with HIGHER internal pressure
276. During autoclaving of dextrose solution, a straw colour is observed. It is due to the presence of asubstance called:
A. furfural
B. 5-hydroxymethylfurfural
C. 5-hydroxyfurfural
D. 5-methylfurfural
Answer: B. 5-hydroxymethylfurfural
277. In injections, procaine undergoes the degradation reactions in the following sequence:
A. decarboxylation and hydrolysis
B. hydrolysis and decarboxylation
C. hydrolysis, decarboxylation and oxidation
D. oxidation, decarboxylation and hydrolysis
Answer: B. hydrolysis and decarboxylation
278. On a product, the label states ‘protect from light’. What type of decomposition does the productundergo?
A. carboxylation
B. decarboxylation
C. hydrolysis
D. oxidation
Answer: D. oxidation
279. Which of the following reactions is observed in the degradation of ampicillin?
A. decarboxylation
B. hydrolysis
C. oxidation
D. recimization
Answer: B. hydrolysis
280. Aspirin undergoes decomposition in a formulation. It can be prevented by:
A. adding a chelating agent
B. adding an antioxidant
C. protecting it from light
D. suppressing its solubility
Answer: D. suppressing its solubility
281. Which one of the following is primarily NOT a chemical decomposition?
A. isomerisation
B. hydrolysis
C. oxidation
D. volatilization
Answer: D. volatilization
282. For the validity of accelerated stability studies of solution dosage form, the energy of activationshould be in the range of (in units of kcal/mole).
A. 0 to 10
B. 11 to 30
C. 31 to 50
D. 51 to 70
Answer: B. 11 to 30
283. Which one of these methods is the MOST effective in preventing the rate of hydrolysis?
A. buffer
B. complexation
C. removal of water
D. suppression of solubility
Answer: C. removal of water
284. During storage, crystal growth is observed in a suspension due to:
A. absorption of water
B. fluctuations in the ambient temperatures
C. presence of suspending agent
D. volatilization of solids
Answer: B. fluctuations in the ambient temperatures
285. The storage directions on a parenteral solution specify ‘store in a cool place’. This may be stored in:
A. an air-conditioned area at 10°C
B. a refrigerator at 15°C
C. a place whose temperature is set at 5°C
D. room temperature, at 25°C
Answer: B. a refrigerator at 15°C
286. which of the following is cause of physical degradation of drug?
A. volatilisation of components during storage
B. Changes from one state to another
C. Change in colour
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
287. Which of the following factors affect the rate of reaction?
A. Temperature
B. Catalysis
C. Dielectric constant
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
288. The effect of temperature on rate of reaction is explained by
A. Arrhenius equation
B. Nernst equation
C. Noyes Whitney equation
D. Fick’s first law
Answer: A. Arrhenius equation
289. The unit of activation energy is
A. kJ/mol
B. J
C. N/m
D. mm
Answer: A. kJ/mol
290. The dielectric constant is used to measure
A. Viscosity of solvent
B. polarity of the solvent
C. temperature of solvent
D. flowability of solvent
Answer: B. polarity of the solvent
291. Accelerated stability testing is done to
A. predict shelf of the formulation
B. Predict dissociation constant
C. Predict diffusion constant
D. Determine activation energy
Answer: A. predict shelf of the formulation
292. ICH stands for
A. Indian council on harmonisation
B. International Conference On Harmonisation
C. Inter Cranial Healer
D. None of the above
Answer: B. International Conference On Harmonisation
293. Stability Data for Climatic zone III & IV comes under___________ICH guideline
A. Q1C
B. Q1E
C. Q1F
D. Q1D
Answer: C. Q1F
294. Climatic zone II is
A. Moderate climate
B. Subtropical and Mediterranean climate
C. Hot/dry climate
D. Hot/humid climate
Answer: B. Subtropical and Mediterranean climate
295. Stability testing is done
A. to determine shelf life of product
B. to determine the components used for packaging
C. to get information at preformulation stage
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
296. ……….. is the time necessary for the concentration of the reactant to decrease to 90% of its originalconcentration.
A. Product life
B. Shelf life
C. Half life
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Shelf life
297. Generally, Stability testing is employed for………..
A. Delivering evidences of the change in quality of the drug product with time.
B. Confirming shelf life for the drug product.
C. Determining container closure system suitability.
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
298. A zero-order reaction is a reaction having rate of concentration of reactant.
A. Dependent
B. Partially dependent
C. Independent
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Independent
299. In a second-order reaction, the sum of the exponents in the rate law is equal to……………
A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
Answer: C. Two
300. ……….technique is utilized only during determination of order of reaction, when the rate law involvedby only single concentration term.
A. The concentration
B. The half of the concentration
C. The square of the concentration
D. None of the above
Answer: C. The square of the concentration
301. ………..technique is utilized only when the rate law involved by only single concentration term fordetermination of order of reaction.
A. Half Life Method
B. Graphical Method
C. Initial Rate Method
D. Van’t Hoff Differential Method
Answer: A. Half Life Method
302. ……… technique is utilized in presence single reactant for determination of order of reaction.
A. Half Life Method
B. Graphical Method
C. Initial Rate Method
D. Van’t Hoff Differential Method
Answer: B. Graphical Method
303. In exothermic Reaction, if we increase the temperature in the exothermic reaction the rate of reactionwill………
A. Increases
B. Decrease
C. Remains constant
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Decrease
304. If ions of similar charges involve in reaction it will…………rate of reaction.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Decreases
305. The drug molecule is degradate by exposure of light it affects substantial degradation of drug molecule this phenomenon is known as………..
A. Photolytic degradation
B. Chemical degradation
C. Physical degradation
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Photolytic degradation