Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Multiple Choice Questions
1. Following statements are true for macrodactyly, except
A. Single or multiple digits can be involved
B. The little finger is most frequently affected
C. The defect is more common in males
D. Majority of cases are unilateral
Answer: B
2. True for Dupuytren’s disease except
A. It is the development of scar tissue in the palm and digits
B. The scar tissue contains normally occurring type 1 collagen
C. The cords of scar result in the contraction of the metacarpophalangeal joints
D. It may result inpseudo boutonniere deformity
Answer: B
3. Absolute contraindication to replantation is
A. Patient’s advanced age
B. Avulsion injuries
C. Multiple injuries within the amputation part
D. Prolonged warm ischaemia time
Answer: C
4. The most frequent indication for tendon transfer is
A. Poliomyelitis
B. Paralysis of healthy muscle, usually from nerve injury
C. Treating spastic disorders
D. Injury to the muscles
Answer: B
5. Strong contraindications to elective thumb reconstruction include the following except
A. Significant vascular disease
B. Short life expectancy
C. Unreconstructable sensory loss
D. High patient expectations
Answer: D
6. True for carpal tunnel syndrome, except
A. It is a neurological disorder median nerve
B. It is typically first manifested by numbers of the middle finger and adjacent side of the ring finger
C. It occurs more frequently among women
D. As the duration increases numbers extends into the thumb and index finger
Answer: A
7. Kaplan’s cardinal line is formed by
A. Palmer creases of hand
B. A line draw from the apex of the first web space to the edge of pisciform bone
C. A draw from hook of hallmark to pisciform bone
D. Life lines on ulnar aspect of hand
Answer: B
8. Felon is
A. Parona’s space infection
B. Also known as pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis
C. Subcutaneous abscess of the distal pulp of finger
D. Deep palmer arch infection
Answer: C
9. Which zone of hand is also known as ‘no man’s land’ ?
A. Zone II flexor tendon system
B. Zone II extensor tendon system
C. Zone IV extensor tendon system
D. Zone IV flexor tendon system
Answer: A
10. In the process of breast implant selection, the following are important except
A. Soft tissue quality
B. Bra and cup size
C. Implant volume
D. Implant shape
Answer: B
11. Usually the plane of cleavage of scalp avulsion is
A. Subcutaneous layer
B. Galer aponeurotica
C. Loose areolar tissue
D. Subperiosteal layer
Answer: C
12. The largest vessel supplying the scalp are
A. Supratrochlear arteries
B. Supraorbital arteries
C. Superficial temporal arteries
D. Occipital arteries
Answer: C
13. True for scalp skin, except
A. It is the thickest skin on the body
B. Thickness ranges between 3 and 8 mm
C. Beneath the skin lies the subcutaneous tissue layer, which contains follits
D. It is not connected to the galea aponeurotica
Answer: D
14. Following statements are true for the galea aponeurotia in the scalp except
A. It is part of a broad fibromuscular layer that envelops the forehead and scalp
B. It serves as the central tendinous confluence of the occipital muscle posteriorly and frontalis muscle anteriorly
C. It does not have any attachment to the overlying skin
D. It is continuous with the tempro parietal fascia
Answer: C
15. The rule 9s for the extent of surface area involvement in burns was described by
A. Thiersch
B. Parkland
C. Wallance
D. Evans
Answer: C
16. Analgesic of choice for acute burn is
A. Oral NSAID
B. IV NSAID
C. IV OPIATES
D. None of the above
Answer: C
17. Burn injury to skin, subcutaneous fat into underlying muscle or bone is classified as
A. II degree burn
B. IV degree burn
C. III degree burn
D. V degree burn
Answer: B
18. All are resuscitation formula used for calculating fluid requirement in burn patients except
A. Parkland formula
B. Berknow formula
C. Galveston formula
D. Brooke formula
Answer: B
19. Deep partial thickness burns will heal in
A. 7-10 days
B. 10-14 days
C. 14-21 days
D. More than 21 days with contractures
Answer: D
20. Full thickness burns are charactised by the following except
A. Presence of blisters
B. Brown, black surface
C. Leathery look
D. Insensate
Answer: A
21. Most common site of fracture of mandible is
A. The neck of the condyle
B. Angle of the mandible
C. In the region of the canine teeth
D. Symphysis menti
Answer: A
22. Craniofacial dysjuction is seen in fracture maxilla type
A. Le Fort I
B. Le Fort II
C. Le Forte III
D. Vertical Fracture
Answer: C
23. Not true for blow out fractures of the orbit
A. Presence of Enoplthalmous
B. Diplopia
C. Restriction of upward rotation of robit
D. Presence of fracture in the inforaobital rim
Answer: D
24. Which answer is true regarding structural fatgrafting ?
A. It should never be used in the nose
B. It can be used to augment midface hypoplasia
C. It cannot be used for breast augmentation without the Brava® device
D. HIV is an absolute contraindication
Answer: B
25. Commonest cause of Burns in Children <5 years old
A. Electric
B. Flame
C. Scalds
D. Chemical
Answer: C
26. High voltage electric burn is when the voltage is
A. ≥ 220 V
B. ≥ 1000 V
C. ≥ 11000 V
D. ≥ 33000 V
Answer: B
27. Amount of fluid used for resuscitation in Burn patient using parkland formula is
A. 1 ml/kg/% TBSA
B. 2 ml/kg/% TBSA
C. 3 ml/kg/% TBSA
D. 4 ml/kg/% TBSA
Answer: D
28. Traditional classification of hemorrhagic shock a blood loss 30-40% is labled as
A. Class I shock
B. Class II shock
C. Class III shock
D. Class IV shock
Answer: C
29. Complications of massive blood transfusion include all except
A. Coagulopathy
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hyperthermia
Answer: D
30. In major acute burn patients, changes in glucose metabolism include
A. Increased serum glucose and increased serum insulin
B. Increased serum glucose and decreased serum insulin
C. Decreased serum glucose and increased serum insulin
D. Decreased serum glucose and increased serum insulin
Answer: A
31. Lesions in the oral cavity having high potential for malignant transformation are all of the following except
A. Erthroplakia
B. Speckled erythroplakia
C. Chronia hyperplastic candidiasis
D. Oral lichen planus
Answer: C
32. Most common site of hypospadias is
A. Coronal
B. Penile
C. Scrotal
D. Perineal
Answer: A
33. The most accepted mechanism of wound contraction is attributed to
A. Fibroblast
B. Myofibroblast
C. Collagen
D. Cell division
Answer: B
34. The function of Z-plasty is
A. To lengthen a scar
B. To break up a straight line
C. To change the direction of scar
D. All of the above
Answer: D
35. The first instrument built specifically for harvesting of skin graft was developed by
A. Humby
B. Reverdin
C. Padget
D. Blair
Answer: A
36. Following requirements are essential for a Limberg’s flap except
A. The adjacent skin should be loose
B. The defect may be in any shape
C. The opposing angles are of equal size
D. It should have angles of 60 and 120 degree
Answer: B
37. In Z-Plasty 100 perent theoretical gain in length is achieved with angles of
A. 45-45
B. 60-60
C. 75-75
D. 90-90
Answer: C
38. In the Mathes and Nahai classification Pectoralis Major and Latissimus Dorsi Muscles belong to
A. Type II
B. Type III
C. Type IV
D. Type V
Answer: D
39. The classification of nerve injuries was originally proposed by
A. Sunderland
B. Seddon
C. Mackinnon
D. Myckatyn
Answer: B
40. The most aggressive type of Basal Cell carcinoma is
A. Nodular
B. Superficial
C. Morpheaform
D. Pigmented
Answer: C
41. According to Gustilo classification, the compound fracture of tibia with soft tissue loss and exposed bone is labeled as
A. Type II
B. Type III B
C. Type III
D. Type III A
Answer: B
42. In carcinoma breast patient absolute contraindications to breast conservation are the following except
A. Multiple ipsilateral lesions
B. Diffuse suspicious microcalcifications
C. Steroid dependant collagen vascular disease
D. Radiation induced
Answer: D
43. True statements for butolinum toxin A are the following except
A. Clinically the beneficial effects of the toxin are apperest for more than one year
B. Injection of botulinum toxin A are the most frequently performed cosmetic procedure in the United States
C. Dr. Alan Scott, and ophthalmologist, pioneered the use of botulinum toxin A in humans
D. It has been successful used to treat spasn of sphimeter of Oddi
Answer: A
44. Level VI cervical nodes drain the following except
A. Thyroid
B. Glothic/Subglothic Larynx
C. Pyriform sinus apex
D. Naso phanynx
Answer: D
45. Following are the signs and symptoms of fracture except
A. Absence of stepping in the infraorbital margin
B. Asymmetry of the malar region
C. Anaesthesia in the infraorbital region
D. Presence of trimus
Answer: A
46. Unilateral cleft lip result from failure of fusion of
A. Lateral nasal process and maxillary prominence
B. Median nasal process and maxillary prominence
C. Median nasal process and mandibular process
D. None of the above
Answer: B
47. Which of the following is not true for a patient seeking lower lid blepharoplasty ?
A. A Schirmer I test showing less than 10 mm at 5 minutes would be a relative contra indication
B. A ‘snap’ test should always be performed
C. Excess skin below the level of the orbital margin is usually corrected by lower lid blepharoplasty
D. Blindness is a rare but recognised complication
Answer: C
48. Le fort II facial fracture, by definition involves
A. The orbital floor always
B. The orbital floor sometimes
C. The cribriform plate always
D. All of the above
Answer: A
49. Common findings in submucus cleft are the following except
A. A bifid uvula
B. Velophayngeal in sufficiency
C. A notched posterior hard palate
D. Muscular diastasis of the velum
Answer: B
50. In complete bilateral cleft of the lip and palate, the protruding premaxilla is attached to
A. Right palatal shelve
B. Left palatal shelve
C. Vomerine bone
D. Ethmoid bone
Answer: C
51. Primary contraction is more in
A. Thin split thickness graft
B. Intermediate split thickness graft
C. Thick split thickness graft
D. Full thickness graft
Answer: D
52. In proliferative phase, which type of collagen is laid down ?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: C
53. Commonest nerve for nerve graft is
A. Common peroneal nerve
B. Sural nerve
C. Deep peroneal nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
Answer: B
54. Oral cavity proper containes all except
A. Floor of mouth
B. Hard palate
C. Posterior 1/3 tongue
D. Anterior 2/3 of tongue
Answer: C
55. Precursor skin lesions may be present in all the following cutaneous malignancies except
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Angiosarcoma
Answer: D
56. Necrolytic migrating erythemous dermatitis is feature of
A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
B. Verner-Morrison syndrome
C. Glucagonoma syndrome
D. Insulinoma
Answer: C
57. The neo-epidermis of a scar of healed wound avulses easily and is more fragile than normal skin because of
A. Deficiency of collagen in scar
B. Increased fibroblasts at site
C. Increased capillary network
D. It is devoid of rete pegs
Answer: D
58. PET scan detect malignant lesion by picking up
A. Areas of increased vascularity
B. Areas of hypermetabolic activity
C. Areas of tissue necrosis
D. Areas of microcalcification
Answer: B
59. Out of the following, which one is usually not an axial pattern flap ?
A. Inter polation flap
B. Forehead flap
C. Deltopectoral flap
D. Groin flap
Answer: A
60. Following are the flaps that rotate about a pivot point, except
A. V-Y advancement flap
B. Interpolation flap
C. Rotation flap
D. Transposition flap
Answer: A
61. Which of the following statements is not true for Marjolin’s ulcer ?
A. It is a squamous cell carcinoma
B. It develops in an area of chronic inflamation and scarring
C. It carries a risk of metastasis of nearly 50%
D. It does not spread to regional lymphnodes
Answer: C
62. Not true for Groin Flap
A. It is a hairy flap
B. It is an axial flap
C. It is based on superficial circumflex iliac artery system
D. Usually the donor defect is closed primarily
Answer: A
63. The surgical technique of total excision of lymphoedematous tissue and skin grafting is known as
A. Thompson procedure
B. Sistrunk’s operation
C. Homan’s procedure
D. Charle’s procedure
Answer: D
64. Tarsal tunnel syndrome presents as symptoms of compression of
A. Common peroneal nerve
B. Superficial peroneal nerve
C. Posterior tibial nerve
D. Deep peroneal nerve
Answer: C
65. In Pierre Robin sequence, the cleft palate should be repaired
A. At 9 months
B. At 12 months
C. At 15 months
D. Repair is delayed as compared to other cleft palate closures
Answer: D
66. In the repair of cleft lip, upper lip Z-plasty is included in
A. Rose Thompson repair
B. Millard’s repair
C. Randall Tennison repair
D. Skoog repair
Answer: C
67. Following statements are true for Carpenter syndrome, except
A. Head is asymmetric
B. It is not a genetic disorder
C. Presence of partial syndactyly of digits
D. Preaxial polysyndactyly of the feet
Answer: B
68. Not true for teacher Collins syndrome
A. Unilateral hypoplasia of the body and arch of zygoma
B. Significantly increased facial convexity
C. Mandibular hypoplasia
D. External and middle ear anomalies
Answer: A
69. Following signs and symptoms are commonly present in zygomatic fractures, except
A. Trismus
B. Involvement of infraorbital nerver
C. Enophthalmos
D. Increased malar prominence
Answer: D
70. Vertically favourable fracture of the mandible should usually be treated with
A. Rigid fixation using plate and screws
B. Interosseous wiring
C. Interdental wiring
D. Mandibulo-maxillary fixation
Answer: D
71. Suggested ‘ideal’ breast measurements in the context of inferior pedicle breast reduction surgery do notinclude
A. Sternal notch to nipple distance of 21 cm
B. Inter-nipple distance 21 cm
C. The nipple to inframammary fold distance of 3.4 cm
D. Areolar diameter 4 cm
Answer: C
72. In the management of chemical burns, the following first aid should be done except
A. Removal of the inciting agent
B. Contaminated clothes should be removed
C. Neutralization of the inciting agent should be done
D. Affected skin should be copiously irrigated with water
Answer: C
73. Clinodactyly and camptodactyly are examples of
A. Failure of formation of parts
B. Failure of differentiation or separation of parts
C. Duplication
D. Overgrowth
Answer: B
74. Most common type of thumb duplication is
A. Bifid distal phalanx
B. Duplicated distal phalanx
C. Bifid proximal phalanx
D. Duplicated proximal phalanx
Answer: D
75. Kienbock disease is
A. Avascular necrosis of lunate
B. Avascular necrosis of hook of hamate
C. Avascular necrosis of neck of femur
D. Avascular necrosis of capitates
Answer: A
76. Which of the test is done for median nerve injury ?
A. Forments test
B. Jeanne’s sign
C. Wartenberg’s sign
D. None of the above
Answer: B
77. Dominant pedicle to Tensor Fascial lata is
A. Ascending branch of deep femoral circumflex artery
B. Branch from obdurate artery
C. Descending branch of inferior epigastria artery
D. Ascending branch of lateral femoral circumflex artery
Answer: D
78. The anterolateral thigh perforator flap in first reported by
A. Mathes and Nahai
B. Beck and Song
C. Mcgreger
D. H. Gilles
Answer: B
79. Thoracdorsal artery perforater flap was first described by
A. Angrigiani
B. Bakamjian
C. PC Neligan
D. Song
Answer: A
80. Singapore flap technique used reconstruction of which structure ?
A. Penis
B. Vagina
C. Scrotun
D. Pressure ulcer defect
Answer: B