Preventive and Interceptive Orthodontics Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following about band and loop space maintainer is incorrect?
A. It is a unilateral fixed appliance used in the posterior segment
Answer: B. It is a loop soldered with the stainless steel crown
C. Stainless steel crown may be banded like any other natural teeth
D. This loop is only limited to maintain the space of one tooth
2. Which of the following is recommended for bilateral premature exfoliation of mandibular canines?
A. Nance appliance
Answer: B. Lingual arch
C. Band and loop
D. Distal shoe appliance
3. Daniella, a 4 year old got her lower second molar extracted due to caries, the possible line of treatment is:
Answer: A. Distal shoe space maintainer
B. Band and loop between primary first molar and permanent first molar
C. Removable partial denture
D. No active treatment is necessary
4. A mandibular lingual holding arch with loops mesial to each molar band is used in children for:
A. Correction
Answer: B. Regaining space
C. Space maintenance only
D. Correction of distally tilted molars
5. In an eight year old child, there is insufficient space in the upper anterior segment for the upper permanent lateral incisors to erupt. Treatment is:
A. Disk the proximal surface of maxillary incisors
Answer: B. Disk deciduous canines and first molars
C. Extract the deciduous first molars
D. No treatment required but observe
6. Space maintainers are usually needed in the:
A. Mandibular primary incisor teeth area
B. Mandibular primary canine teeth area
Answer: C. Mandibular primary second molar area
D. Maxillary primary incisor area
7. The term space maintenance refers to:
Answer: A. the preservation of space for a permanent tooth in a child’s mouth
B. the preservation of total arch length or of all the permanent teeth in the arch in a child’s mouth
C. the preservation of mesial drift after the loss of a tooth
D. none of the above
8. The space maintainer which is contraindicated in a child suffering from sub acute bacterial endocarditis is:
A. Removable
B. Crown and loop
C. Band and loop
Answer: D. Distal shoe
9. The appliance used to treat thumbsucking is:
Answer: A. Crib appliance
B. Frankel appliance
C. Bionator
D. Activator
10. The distal shoe type of space maintainer is indicated in:
A. Loss of primary anterior tooth
Answer: B. If the primary 2nd molar is lost before the eruption of permanent first molar
C. If the primary 2nd molar is lost before the eruption of permanent first molar
D. Loss of primary first molar
11. Function of space maintainers:
A. Prevent Supra eruption of opposite tooth
B. Prevent migration of teeth
C. Maintain space
Answer: D. All of the above
12. A space maintainer is least indicated for premature loss of a:
A. Primary maxillary first molar
B. Primary mandibular first molar
C. Primary mandibular central incisor
Answer: D. Primary maxillary central incisor
13. Best space maintainer is:
A. Active space maintainer
B. Passive space maintainer
C. Band and Loop
Answer: D. Pulpotomized primary tooth
14. Which of the following is not a procedure of preventive orthodontics?
A. Topical fluoride applications
Answer: B. Serial extractions
C. Lip Guard
D. Thumb sucking correction
15. The best space maintainer for the early loss of upper primary incisor is the pin and tube maintainer, because:
A. It is esthetically acceptable.
B. It does not injure the upper lip.
C. It is easy to fabricate.
D. It allows lateral growth of the bone.
16. Which of the following is a new slow type palatal expander ?
Answer: A. NiTi Expander
B. Hyrax expander
C. Quad helix
D. Molar rotator
17. Normal facial index is:
A. 65-75 %
B. 75-80 %
Answer: C. 80-90 %
D. 100 %
18. Serial extraction was introduced by:
A. Hawley Adam
B. Frankel
Answer: C. Kjellgren
D. Nance
19. Serial extraction is contraindicated in all of the following except:
A. Canine Impaction
B. Missing Premolars
C. Class II Div I malocclusion
Answer: D. Crowding of deciduous dentition
20. Developing cross bites are treated by using:
A. Z spring
Answer: B. Tongue blade
C. Cross bite elastics
D. Bite plane
21. In serial extraction procedure if maxillary first premolar is extracted, then maxillary canine erupts in which direction?
A. Downward
Answer: B. Downward – Backward
C. Downward – Forward
D. Forward
22. Serial extractions are indicated in patients who have:
A. Class II molar relation
B. Excessive overbite
Answer: C. Class I molar relation
D. Class III molar relation
23. Which is not a contraindication for serial extraction?
A. Impaction of canine
Answer: B. Lingual tipping of incisors
C. Ditching
D. Open bite
24. Serial extraction should not be undertaken if there is:
A. Crowding
B. Presence of ectopic eruption
Answer: C. Deep bite or open bite
D. None of the above
25. The main reason for replacing premature loss of primary anterior teeth:
A. Form and Function
Answer: B. Speech and Esthetics
C. Space maintenance
D. None of the above
26. Nance method of serial extraction procedure is extraction of:
Answer: A. D,4,C
B. C,D,4
C. 4,D,C
D. C,4,D
27. A substantial increase in maxillary width is usually best obtained by placing:
A. Lingual arch wire
Answer: B. A sutural expansion fixed appliance
C. Posterior inter-maxillary cross elastics
D. A face bow with an expanded inner bow
28. Extraction of mandibular first molar in an 8 year old child is known as:
Answer: A. Wilkinson’s extraction
B. Compensatory extraction
C. Serial Extraction
D. Orthodontic extraction
29. A 12 year old boy was subjected to rapid maxillary expansion (RME) for the correction of bilateral posterior cross bite. The maximum separation of the mid palatine suture will occur:
A. in the molar region
B. in the premolar region
C. at the posterior nasal spine
Answer: D. Between the two central incisors
30. In expansion screws an expansion of 90 degrees causes an expansion of:
Answer: A. 0.20 mm
B. 0.10 mm
C. 0.36 mm
D. 0.09 mm
31. The extraction of upper first molars may be indicated:
A. when the removal of 4/4 provides insufficient space
B. when they are rotated
Answer: C. when their prognosis is poor
D. when 5/5 are palatally placed
32. Which of the following appliances is not used for slow maxillary expansion?
A. Jack screw
B. Coffin spring
C. Quad Helix appliance
Answer: D. Hyrax appliance
33. Quad Helix:
Answer: A. Widens the upper arch
B. Is used in cleft lip
C. Retracts the upper canine
D. Is a bite-opening device
34. Which of the following permanent tooth is least extracted for orthodontic treatment?
Answer: A. Canines
B. Maxillary first permanent molar
C. First molar
D. Second molar
35. The arch length preservation can be best carried out by:
A. Placing a lingual arch
Answer: B. Restoring a carious teeth
C. Placing band and loop space maintainer
D. Placing an acrylic removable space maintainer
36. Rapid palatal expansion using a Hyrax screw is an example of:
A. Extra-oral anchorage
B. Intermaxillary anchorage
C. Muscular anchorage
Answer: D. Reciprocal anchorage
36. Rapid maxillary expansion is not indicated after:
A. 6 years
B. 9 years
C. 12 years
Answer: D. 15 years
37. Premature exfoliation of the primary mandibular canine is most often the sequelae of which of the following?
A. Caries
B. Trauma
C. Serial tooth extraction
Answer: D. Arch length inadequacy
38. During mixed dentition stage, which of the following appliance should be used as a space maintainer for missing primary molars in mandibular arch?
A. Distal shoe
B. Nance holding arch
Answer: C. Passive lingual arch
D. Removable functional acrylic
39. Force required for headgear to restrain maxillary growth is:
A. 50-100 gm per side
B. 150-200 gm per side
Answer: C. 250-500 gm per side
D. 750-1000 gm per side
40. Typically rapid palatal expansion is done with a jack screw that is activated at the rate of:
A. 1-2 mm per week
B. 1-2 mm per day
C. 0.5-1 mm per week
Answer: D. 0.5-1 mm per day
41. An expansion appliance made with an expansion screw is an example of:
A. Simple anchorage
Answer: B. Reciprocal anchorage
C. Multiple anchorage
D. Reinforced anchorage
42. The ratio of skeletal:dental expansion obtained finally after rapid palatal expansion is :
A. 4:1
B. 3:1
C. 2:1
Answer: D. 1:1
43. Treatment objective for serial extraction:
Answer: A. is to intercept a developing arch-length deficiency and to reduce or eliminate the need for extensive appliance therapy
B. is to reduce arch length discrepancy
C. is to plan for extensive appliance therapy
D. is to reduce arch length deficiency to plan for extensive appliance therapy
44. Crossbites are often seen in the developing dentition in the molar region, the treatment is:
A. move both molars for correction
B. Extract one molar
C. extract both molars
Answer: D. possibility of functional interference considered and shift of mandible to be taken into account
45. Which of the following factors is important when space maintenance is considered after the untimely loss of primary teeth?
A. Chronologic age of patient
B. Skeletal age of patient
Answer: C. Dental age of patient
D. Biologic age of patient
46. In Dewel’s method of serial extraction, the second step involved is to:
A. Extract deciduous canine only
B. Extract first premolar
Answer: C. Extract first deciduous molar only
D. Extract both deciduous canine and first deciduous molar
47. Serial extractions are indicated when there is:
Answer: A. No skeletal discrepancy with dental crowding >10 mm
B. No skeletal discrepancy with dental crowding between 5-7 mm
C. Skeletal discrepancy >5 degrees
D. Skeletal discrepancy >10 degrees with dental crowding <5 br=”” mm=””>
48. “Guidance to eruption” is another term for:
A. Frankel’s appliance
B. Activator
Answer: C. Serial extraction
D. Bionator
49. The tendency for drifting of posterior teeth into extraction space is more in:
A. Mandible
Answer: B. Maxilla
C. Maxilla and Mandible
D. Primary than permanent teeth
50. Which among the following about removable space maintainers is wrong?
A. Being tissue born, they impose less stress on remaining teeth
B. By virtue of tissue stimulation, they often accelerate the eruption of teeth between them
Answer: C. They can be functional in the truest sense, hence better patient cooperation can be expected
D. Easier to fabricate, requiring less chairside time
51. What is the chief disadvantage of a nonfunctional fixed space maintainer?
A. Prevent lateral jaw growth
B. Difficult to fabricate
C. Difficulty in maintaining proper oral hygiene
Answer: D. Continued eruption of opposing tooth
52. Space regaining is indicated in all of the following except:
A. one or more permanent teeth have been lost
B. some space in the arch has been lost due to mesial drift of first permanent molar
C. mixed dentition analysis shows that once the lost space is gained back, there will not be any arch length-tooth material discrepancy
Answer: D. first molars are in end to end relation due to class II skeletal base and prognathic maxilla
53. Ideally a malocclusion should be treated between the age of:
A. 5 and 8 years
B. 8 and 10 years
C. 10 to 12 years
Answer: D. The age at which a malocclusion is treated depends upon the problem involved
54. Preventive and interceptive orthodontics is no longer viable after the eruption of:
Answer: A. Permanent second molars
B. Primary second molars
C. Permanent first molar
D. Permanent lateral incisors
55. All are advantages of removable space maintainers EXCEPT:
A. Easy to clean
B. Permit maintenance of proper oral hygiene
C. they maintain vertical dimension
Answer: D. Band construction is necessary
56. During arch deficiency, which tooth is most commonly out of the arch:
A. 1st premolar
Answer: B. 2nd premolar
C. 1st molar
D. 2nd molar
57. Contraindication of band and loop space maintainer are all except:
A. High caries susceptibility
Answer: B. Single tooth missing in posterior region
C. Moderate to severe space loss
D. Lower anterior crowding
58. Which of the following orthodontic appliance allows “passive expansion”?
A. Transpalatal arch
B. Quad helix
Answer: C. Frankel
D. Rapid Maxillary Expansion
59. Which of the following does not function as a space maintainer?
A. Lingual arch
B. Stainless steel crown
C. Class II restoration
Answer: D. Palatal Expander